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Assistant Engineer (Steam-Motor-Gas Turbine Plants (Limited))
Q614 — Engineering Safety & Environmental Protection
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1. In order to prevent the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure ballast, one method used is to _________.
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2. Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the __________.
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3. Which of the following describes a vessel which is subjected to "hogging"?
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4. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.
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5. When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose?
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6. To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility, __________.
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7. One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be received is by the __________.
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8. Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold temperatures?
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9. The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the __________.
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10. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________.
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11. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.
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12. After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you close FIRST?
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13. Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?
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14. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?
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15. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.
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16. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.
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17. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________.
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18. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.
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19. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.
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20. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
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21. When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog __________.
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22. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________.
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23. When using foam, a "Class B" fire is extinguished by __________.
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24. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?
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25. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?
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26. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?
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27. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
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28. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.
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29. To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________.
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30. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire?
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31. The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the agent to be __________.
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32. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.
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33. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.
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34. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________.
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35. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.
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36. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.
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37. The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by __________.
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38. When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are setting a _________.
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39. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.
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40. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST __________.
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41. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________.
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42. When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________.
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43. In firefighting, the term "protecting exposures" means __________.
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44. If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________.
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45. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.
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46. When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and _______.
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47. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.
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48. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________.
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49. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.
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50. Which of the components listed are interchangeable between different backpack self-contained breathing apparatus produced by various manufacturers?
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51. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?
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52. If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) identify?
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53. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.
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54. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.
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55. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is __________.
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56. Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150°F?
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57. Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?
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58. When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________.
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59. A liquid, as listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), having a flash point below 100°F (37.78°C) is called a/an __________.
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60. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.
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61. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.
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62. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.
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63. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
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64. Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________.
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65. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.
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66. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?
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67. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.
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68. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?
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69. The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________.
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70. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.
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71. The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of __________.
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72. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.
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73. If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate?
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74. If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be _______.
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75. While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is not available?
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76. Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an __________.
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77. For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of H2S and which of the following factors?
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78. The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________.
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79. Which of the following limitations is correct regarding gas masks, otherwise called filter masks?
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80. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.
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81. In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by a/an __________.
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82. If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book, you should __________.
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83. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?
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84. When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must _________.
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85. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.
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86. When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________.
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87. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?
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88. Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shoreside facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?
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89. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
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90. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required to be reviewed __________.
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91. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O, which of the following is NOT a MARPOL, Annex V, special area?
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92. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a vessel operating upon the Great Lakes shall __________.
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93. Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?
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94. In accordance with MARPOL (33 CFR Subchapter O), the definition of medical waste does NOT include which of the following?
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95. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when off-loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and which of the following?
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96. The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________.
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97. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.
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98. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.
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99. An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.
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100. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
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101. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?
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102. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.
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103. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter W, the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________.
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104. When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.
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105. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.
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106. If a life raft should capsize, __________.
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107. The canopy of your life raft should __________.
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108. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.
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109. To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________.
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110. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.
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111. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?
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112. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.
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113. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
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114. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
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115. If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are no movable or moving weights onboard, the center of gravity will __________.
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116. A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the __________.
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117. What standard mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels waterplane area for stability purposes?
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118. The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called __________.
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119. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
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120. What is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above the main deck?
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121. A vessel trimmed down by the bow has __________.
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122. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.
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123. The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number __________
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124. Symbol number "3" shown in the illustration represents which of the following
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125. You may improve a vessel's stability by __________.
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126. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.
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127. Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying liquid cargo should be avoided in order to __________.
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128. After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.
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129. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.
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130. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.
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131. Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer than __________.
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132. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.
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133. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring
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134. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.
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135. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.
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136. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks. What area(s) would this be NOT used in?
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137. Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarm sounds, this means __________.
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138. Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?
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139. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.
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140. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is known by which term?
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141. The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.
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142. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?
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143. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?
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144. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.
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145. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.
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146. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.
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147. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?
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148. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?
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149. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships ________.
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150. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the Oil Record Book shall be fully recorded __________.
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151. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D, the device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces of tank vessels is referred to as what?
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152. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter Q, which statement is true concerning the repair of life preservers?
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153. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter W, which of the following statements about life jackets is true?
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154. According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle diameter is required for this shore connection to transfer oily ballast to a shoreside reception facility?
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155. If additional weight is placed on the main deck of the vessel shown in the illustration __________
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156. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________.
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157. During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST __________.
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158. In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________.
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159. You are in compartment "A" as shown in Figure 2 of the illustration, and suspect there is a fire in compartment "B". In order to check for and confirm the fire in compartment "B" you should __________
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160. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systems
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161. Cross flooding may __________.
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162. The device shown in the illustration is carried aboard tankships for __________
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163. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an __________.
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164. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________.
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165. A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is referred to as a __________.
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166. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?
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167. Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?
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168. Which of the following statements is true concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration
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169. Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment?
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170. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.
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171. A health hazard term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is __________.
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172. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____
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173. What is the purpose of opening the doors and portholes in figure 2 of the illustration
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174. If you see an individual fall overboard, what is the FIRST thing you should do?
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175. A ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is normally designed for a storage tank pressure and temperature of approximately __________.
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176. The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________.
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177. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.
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178. The symbol shown in the illustration, which is used as the reference from which transverse measurements are made, is __________
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179. The symbol shown in the illustration used to represent displacement is __________
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180. Victual waste is __________.
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181. The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for this condition
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182. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.
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