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Assistant Engineer (Motor Plants (OSV))
Q653 — Engineering Safety & Environmental Protection
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1. A three inch overboard discharge line, located six feet below the waterline, has ruptured and separated from the hull. What would be the minimum number of strokes per minute required from a 8" x 12" x 12" duplex double acting reciprocating bilge pump, operating at 82% efficiency, to keep the bilge level from continuing to rise
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2. Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the __________.
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3. If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it __________.
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4. Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?
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5. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?
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6. A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire?
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7. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.
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8. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.
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9. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?
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10. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________.
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11. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.
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12. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.
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13. Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?
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14. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
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15. When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog __________.
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16. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________.
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17. When using foam, a "Class B" fire is extinguished by __________.
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18. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?
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19. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?
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20. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?
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21. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
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22. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.
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23. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire?
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24. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.
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25. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
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26. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.
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27. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________.
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28. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
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29. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.
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30. In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action of a stainless-steel cable, spring and a __________.
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31. If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of __________.
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32. The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by __________.
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33. A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire, you should __________
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34. When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are setting a _________.
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35. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.
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36. The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use __________.
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37. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST __________.
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38. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________.
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39. When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________.
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40. In firefighting, the term "protecting exposures" means __________.
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41. A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________.
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42. If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________.
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43. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.
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44. When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and _______.
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45. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.
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46. A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray pattern when the water pressure is not less than __________.
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47. Which of the following components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system?
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48. Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________.
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49. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________.
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50. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.
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51. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?
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52. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.
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53. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.
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54. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is __________.
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55. Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150°F?
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56. Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?
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57. When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________.
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58. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.
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59. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.
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60. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.
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61. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
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62. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.
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63. One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is __________.
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64. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?
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65. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.
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66. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?
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67. If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be the most hazardous to perform?
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68. The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________.
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69. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.
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70. The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the __________.
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71. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?
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72. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.
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73. If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate?
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74. If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be _______.
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75. While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is not available?
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76. Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an __________.
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77. For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of H2S and which of the following factors?
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78. The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________.
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79. A compartment is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by volume, permissible concentrations of toxic materials, and concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower flammable limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials or flammable concentrations, what would be the designation listed on the marine chemist's certificate?
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80. Which of the following limitations is correct regarding gas masks, otherwise called filter masks?
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81. A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed?
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82. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.
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83. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.
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84. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?
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85. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.
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86. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?
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87. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.
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88. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?
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89. Which of the following is considered "discharge" as it applies to the pollution regulations?
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90. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
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91. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
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92. When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.
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93. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required to be reviewed __________.
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94. According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________.
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95. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.
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96. An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.
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97. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.
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98. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?
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99. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.
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100. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.
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101. If a life raft should capsize, __________.
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102. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.
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103. When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.
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104. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.
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105. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________.
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106. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.
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107. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.
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108. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?
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109. When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the __________.
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110. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.
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111. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?
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112. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.
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113. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
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114. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
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115. Clogged limber holes can endanger a ship's stability by __________.
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116. What standard mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels waterplane area for stability purposes?
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117. The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called __________.
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118. The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as __________.
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119. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
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120. A vessel trimmed down by the bow has __________.
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121. The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is __________.
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122. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.
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123. The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number __________
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124. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.
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125. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.
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126. Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer than __________.
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127. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.
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128. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.
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129. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.
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130. According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard?
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131. Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________.
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132. Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?
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133. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?
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134. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.
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135. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty tanks will __________.
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136. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.
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137. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?
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138. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?
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139. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.
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140. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.
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141. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.
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142. When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable life raft, the personnel on the raft should __________.
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143. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.
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144. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?
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145. The ability of a vessel to remain in a stable position is controlled by the interaction of two opposing forces, __________.
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146. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships ________.
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147. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the Oil Record Book shall be fully recorded __________.
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148. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book is given to the __________.
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149. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O, shipboard pollution prevention regulations are enforced by the __________.
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150. If additional weight is placed on the main deck of the vessel shown in the illustration __________
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151. The air flow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilation
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152. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________.
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153. During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST __________.
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154. On a cargo ship equipped with a combination fire detection/carbon dioxide extinguishing system, the presence of fire is indicated at the cabinet simultaneously in two spaces: No.3 hold upper between decks, containing bagged coffee beans; and No.4 lower hold containing fertilizer. To combat these fires, you should __________.
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155. You are in compartment "A" as shown in Figure 2 of the illustration, and suspect there is a fire in compartment "B". In order to check for and confirm the fire in compartment "B" you should __________
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156. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systems
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157. The device shown in the illustration is carried aboard tankships for __________
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158. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an __________.
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159. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________.
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160. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by__________
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161. The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________
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162. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?
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163. Which of the following statements is true concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration
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164. Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment?
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165. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?
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166. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.
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167. A health hazard term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is __________.
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168. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____
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169. Which of the listed characteristics applies to a semi-portable CO2 system?
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170. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?
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171. To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would _________
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172. Where are "prohibited oil spaces" specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR Subchapter O?
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173. What is the purpose of opening the doors and portholes in figure 2 of the illustration
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174. If you see an individual fall overboard, what is the FIRST thing you should do?
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175. Your ship has left shore on the east coast of the United States, how far must you be from shore to be able to discharge paper waste into the Atlantic Ocean?
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176. A ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is normally designed for a storage tank pressure and temperature of approximately __________.
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177. The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________.
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178. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.
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179. Any tanks located below the vessel’s center of gravity should be __________.
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180. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?
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181. Victual waste is __________.
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182. What would be the classification of the fire if the sources shown in illustration #1 were to catch fire? SF-0051
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183. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.
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184. A three inch overboard discharge line, located six feet below the waterline, has ruptured and separated from the hull. What would be the minimum number of strokes per minute required from a 10" x 8" x 12" duplex double acting steam operated reciprocating bilge pump, operating at 96% efficiency, to keep the bilge water level from continuing to rise? (231 cu in = 1 gal) Illustration SF-0034
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185. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.
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