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Ballast Control Operator (Mobile Offshore Drilling Unit)
Q440 — Ballast Control Operator: Deck General/Safety
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1. If you find a victim that is unconscious. What vital signs is an immediate threat to life?
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2. All of the following are recognized distress signals under the Navigation Rules EXCEPT which signal?
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3. When a vessel signals its distress by means of a gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be at approximately which time intervals?
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4. How can you indicate that your vessel is in distress?
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5. The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire on a MODU is __________.
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6. After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.
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7. A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.
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8. Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.
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9. Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.
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10. A fire in a ballast pumproom can be brought under control with minimal impact on stability by __________.
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11. What must be provided on a MODU helicopter deck that is equipped with fueling facilities?
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12. The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.
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13. Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting the __________.
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14. What is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room?
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15. The required fireman's outfits required for MODU's are not to be used for any other purpose EXCEPT for the __________.
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16. How many fireman's outfits are required on a MODU?
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17. On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must __________.
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18. Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in __________.
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19. Smoking in bed on a MODU is dangerous __________.
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20. The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.
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21. The record of tests and inspection of firefighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.
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22. During the required periodic abandon ship drill aboard a MODU, each person not assigned duties in the muster list is __________.
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23. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them __________.
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24. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.
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25. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.
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26. Each person on a MODU carrying immersion suits must wear the immersion suit in a boat drill, or participate in a drill which includes donning the suit and being instructed in its use at least once every __________.
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27. On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?
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28. A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a person is __________.
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29. Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?
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30. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.
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31. According to the MODU regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be marked __________.
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32. The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts on a MODU are a requirement of the __________.
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33. The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.
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34. How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be treated?
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35. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?
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36. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?
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37. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?
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38. How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture?
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39. Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what action is taken?
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40. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?
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41. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?
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42. A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology what type of burn is this?
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43. For small, first-degree burns, what is the quickest method to relieve pain?
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44. A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper first aid treatment for this injury?
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45. What should you do if a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm?
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46. What can be caused by severe airway burns?
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47. Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with what substance(s)?
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48. What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?
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49. What are the symptoms of sugar diabetes?
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50. A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injury. What symptoms would indicate the onset of a diabetic coma?
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51. When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary surveys, what should you be familiar with?
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52. What is an effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board?
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53. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?
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54. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?
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55. What is the most useful drug to reduce a high fever?
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56. Where can a rescuer most easily check to determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse?
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57. What action should you take if a shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue?
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58. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
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59. While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out?
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60. What agency issues the Ship Station license for the VHF marine radio on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
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61. Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.
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62. You cannot operate a VHF or SSB radiotelephone aboard a rig unless that station is licensed. Which of the following organizations issues the license?
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63. When a davit-launched raft is lowered from a MODU, upon becoming waterborne, the raft is released by __________.
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64. Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be stowed in a manner which will permit __________.
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65. What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?
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66. Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a __________.
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67. The generators on your rig have shut down, leaving you without navigation lights. Which emergency signal would you transmit over the VHF radio to alert vessels in the area of your predicament?
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68. Each hand portable fire extinguisher on a MODU must be marked with __________.
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69. The immersion suit requirements for MODU's apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean above __________.
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70. What is the international calling and distress channel found on all VHF-FM equipped drilling rigs?
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71. The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.
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72. In how many locations must lifeboats be installed on a mobile offshore drilling unit?
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73. The Master or person in charge on a MODU shall insure that line throwing equipment is not operated __________.
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74. On a MODU, each EPIRB or SART must be tested at least once __________.
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75. On a MODU, a fixed carbon dioxide or other approved system must be installed __________.
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76. The MODU has suffered a casualty which requires an orderly evacuation of the unit using the lifeboats and liferafts. Among the items to accomplish in preparing to evacuate the unit is __________.
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77. The muster list must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.
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78. On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of __________.
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79. On offshore drilling units, each fire station is required to be fitted with at least one spanner and at least one __________.
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80. On offshore drilling units each inflatable liferaft that is not intended for davit launching must be stowed so as to float free or be __________.
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81. Offshore drilling units that are on an international voyage must have a portable radio apparatus that meets specific requirements. Which of the following organizations mandates these requirements?
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82. On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat motors shall be operated in the ahead and astern position at least once each __________.
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83. On offshore drilling units, the lifeboats must be lowered to the water and maneuvered at least once every __________.
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84. An offshore drilling unit must have enough inflatable liferafts to accommodate at least what percentage of the persons allowed?
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85. Offshore drilling units must have at least two ring buoys with water lights that, when released from the mounting rack, activate a __________.
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86. Each part of the fire-main system located on an exposed deck must be __________.
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87. The person assigned to command a lifeboat or inflatable liferaft on a MODU shall have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat or liferaft. The list shall include each person's __________.
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88. What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched liferaft in comparison to an inflatable liferaft?
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89. The routes to be used during evacuation of the MODU are shown in the __________.
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90. The signal to man emergency stations on MODU's is __________.
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91. You are standing a radio watch aboard the rig. A crew boat calls you on VHF channel 16. When you reply with your vessel name and call letters, you should request the crew boat to switch to which of the following channels?
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92. You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?
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93. Where would you find the "call sign" or "call letters" of the radio station on your rig?
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94. An air mass that has moved down from Canada would most likely have which symbols?
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95. When is an air mass termed "warm"?
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96. Which is a characteristic of warm air masses?
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97. In North America, which direction do the majority of the weather systems move?
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98. Which is TRUE concerning Hot air?
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99. Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel in which direction?
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100. A man aboard a vessel, is signaling by raising and lowering his outstretched arms to each side. What does this signal indicate?
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101. The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. Which is TRUE concerning the information?
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102. Distress signals may be __________.
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103. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.
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104. What does first aid mean?
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105. What is MOST important when administering artificial respiration?
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106. You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?
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107. What should you look for evidence of if a victim is unconscious?
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108. What is the major cause of shock in burn victims?
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109. If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can ________.
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110. What is the primary use of antiseptics?
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111. Which is TRUE of a distress signal?
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112. What is normal mouth temperature?
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113. Which is one of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention?
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114. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?
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115. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient?
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116. What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?
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117. How can you recognize the necessity for administering artificial respiration?
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118. Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in what body part?
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119. What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?
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120. A survivor has been pulled from the water off the coast of Greenland. The patient is in a state of confusion and has ceased shivering. Which of the following best describes the patient's condition?
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121. What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?
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122. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?
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123. You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?
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124. You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?
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125. You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?
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126. Which is a symptom of traumatic shock?
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127. How does bleeding from a vein appear?
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128. Your vessel is in distress and the order has been given to abandon ship. If you must enter the water which of the following would aid in preventing hypothermia?
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129. Prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched liferaft should be well ventilated of excess __________.
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130. What is the FIRST thing the rescuer must do if the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation?
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131. What should be the FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns?
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132. You are attending to survivors after abandoning ship. Several of the personnel have a slow pulse and slow breathing rates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these conditions?
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133. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a MODU must be stowed __________.
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134. A muster list change must be revised by the __________.
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135. The procedures to be used during evacuation of the MODU are shown in the __________.
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136. The signal to man emergency stations on MODU's is __________.
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137. A MODU must have on board a first-aid kit that is approved by the __________.
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