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Chief Engineer (Steam-Motor-Gas Turbine Plants (Limited))
Q603 — Engineering Safety & Environmental Protection
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1. The term "arrival ballast" refers to __________.
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2. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.
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3. In preparation for an extended yard period, you are reviewing your ship's plans. You notice several bulkheads are labeled A60. What is indicated by the label A60?
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4. During repairs it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate the bulkhead is A60. "A" indicates which of the following?
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5. During repairs it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate it is a "B" class bulkhead. This indicates which of the following?
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6. During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should __________.
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7. After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and _________.
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8. During fueling operations, which of the listed precautions should be taken when topping off fuel tanks?
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9. After fuel tanks have been filled and bunkers completed, which of the listed procedures should be followed next?
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10. During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the __________.
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11. If the overflow tank high-level alarm sounds while the fuel oil tanks are being topped off, the engineer should __________.
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12. During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?
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13. How would you ensure that your crew is prepared to combat a shipboard fire using ship's equipment?
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14. Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?
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15. As chief engineer of an oceangoing passenger vessel, it is important to know the effect of trim and stability of your ship in the event of damage to a compartment. To minimize the impact of flooding in the event of a grounding, what should be your ship's safe practice regarding watertight doors and hatches?
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16. A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________.
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17. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________.
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18. A Type A fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene?
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19. You are conducting training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized by the burning of flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential?
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20. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.
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21. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
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22. Which defines the "flammable limits" of an atmosphere?
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23. The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is _________.
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24. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
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25. The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the agent to be __________.
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26. The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is _________.
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27. Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?
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28. Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher aboard ship would include ensuring that the __________.
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29. In the event of a vessel fire in port, shoreside firefighters can find details on vessel's fire control plans in which of the following locations?
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30. Which of the following statements are true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage of oil?
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31. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
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32. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.
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33. While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single "wye" gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________.
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34. When an oil fire has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should be kept covered with foam to prevent __________.
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35. The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use __________.
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36. If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers?
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37. Which of the listed methods, is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?
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38. When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should __________.
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39. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________.
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40. If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________.
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41. Your ship has a low-pressure carbon dioxide system that covers the engine room. Fire has been reported in the engine room and the decision has been made to dump the carbon dioxide system into the engine room. While following the procedures to release carbon dioxide you find one engine room supply fan damper that will not close. How should you proceed?
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42. As the senior engineer of a vessel, you have just activated the CO2 release handle for the engine room to extinguish a fire. How would you direct the emergency team to re-enter the engine room?
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43. An oil fire is reported in the purifier room bilge. How would you combat this fire?
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44. As an engineer on a tanker, how would you direct the fire team to combat a large cargo space fire?
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45. Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with the __________.
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46. What will happen if a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off?
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47. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.
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48. There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure?
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49. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.
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50. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the following requirements?
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51. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?
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52. CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?
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53. During vessel familiarization, you find the vessel you are newly assigned to as chief engineer has a high-pressure CO system for the engine room. In what way are the high-pressure CO bottles 2 2 released in the event of an engine room fire?
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54. Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________.
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55. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________.
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56. The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by __________.
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57. During an inspection of a ships storeroom, you find sealed containers of chemicals labeled "potassium bicarbonate" and "potassium chloride". These chemicals are most commonly used aboard ship for _______.
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58. A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), which can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is called a __________.
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59. What term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazards?
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60. If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) identify?
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61. The physical data term on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) describing whether a liquid is lighter or heavier than water is __________.
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62. The physical data term on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________.
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63. Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid?
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64. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR 30), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8-1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below, is a grade __________.
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65. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.
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66. By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which __________.
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67. The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid to __________.
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68. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is __________.
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69. Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150°F?
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70. When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________.
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71. A liquid, as listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), having a flash point below 100°F (37.78°C) is called a/an __________.
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72. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.
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73. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.
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74. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
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75. Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________.
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76. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.
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77. If diesel fuel vapors in a compartment are considered to be within the flammable range __________.
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78. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?
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79. The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and air lies between the lower and upper explosive limits. These limits are specified as a percentage of __________.
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80. Ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2.0% and an upper explosive limit of 100% by volume in air. This means __________.
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81. The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of __________.
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82. Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________.
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83. The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested and designated "gas free". Which of the following statements is correct concerning this tank?
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84. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is __________.
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85. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.
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86. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.
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87. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?
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88. Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark?
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89. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.
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90. When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should be __________.
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91. Oil Record Books, as per U.S. regulations, have two sections, Part I and Part II. What is defined in the pages preceding the log example listing for Oil Record Book Part I?
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92. The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for __________.
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93. Which of the following machinery space operations is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book?
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94. With regards to a ship's Oil Record Book, an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above must maintain entries in ________.
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95. Which ship must maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast Operations) of the Oil Record Book?
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96. When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must _________.
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97. Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?
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98. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
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99. When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.
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100. Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea?
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101. According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________.
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102. Your ship is leaving port after almost a complete crew change out. The captain has ordered a fire drill simulating a fire in the engine room with full emergency gear and all hoses run out. What is the reason for drilling with this kind of simulation?
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103. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.
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104. Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________.
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105. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.
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106. In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.
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107. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?
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108. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
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109. An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.
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110. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
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111. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.
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112. A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined as a _______.
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113. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.
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114. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.
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115. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.
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116. Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?
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117. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.
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118. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.
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119. With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from __________.
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120. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.
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121. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
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122. A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the __________.
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123. What standard mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels waterplane area for stability purposes?
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124. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
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125. You can generally improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous situation by __________.
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126. The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after a change in load has occurred is known as __________.
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127. Which term is given to the difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely in the vessel?
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128. What does reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduce?
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129. Adverse effects due to free surface will result when __________.
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130. After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.
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131. As chief engineer or first assistant engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "transverse" stability?
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132. By what method is the final light ship weight, longitudinal and vertical centers of gravity of a vessel, and final assignment of the load lines determined?
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133. IMO Resolution A167, 1968, Res. No. 749(18) 3.1 (1995, amended 1999), and section 2.2 in the 2008 IS Code, sets the general criterion for vessels of more than 100 meters in length. Your vessel is covered by this regulation. In review of your vessel's stability data, after refueling you notice that the GM of the vessel is less than the required 0.15 meters. What should you instruct the 2nd engineer to do with the fuel just received?
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134. After refueling your vessel, you notice that the GM of the vessel is less than the required 0.15 meters. What do you do?
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135. Your vessel has been damaged in a grounding and one compartment has partially flooded. As a result, you have lost buoyancy. If transverse stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Which of the following should you ensure is maintained?
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136. The 2nd assistant engineer has just finished fueling operations. After entering the fuel data into the loading computer, you notice a greater than allowable at-sea bending stress. After the chief mate checks the voyage cargo data the vessel still has an excessive at-sea hogging bending stress. As chief engineer and after consulting with the chief mate, what should your instructions be to reduce the bending moment when ballasting the vessel?
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137. Many uninspected motor vessels require load lines. For the purpose of the Load Line Regulations, the term "surveyor" means __________.
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138. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.
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139. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring
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140. It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________.
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141. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.
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142. Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed __________.
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143. Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________.
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144. Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarm sounds, this means __________.
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145. What is the difference between the starboard and port drafts due to the wind or seas called?
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146. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.
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147. Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
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148. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?
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149. As chief engineer, you are discussing fire safety with a new unlicensed crew member. What would you expect the crew member to know having been onboard the vessel for two days?
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150. As chief engineer or first assistant engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "lateral motion" stability?
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151. As chief engineer or first assistant engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "motion ahead and astern" stability?
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152. As chief engineer you should understand the concept of corrective measures and their purpose. The following four actions will have which affect on the vessel? 1) Add weight low and symmetrically about the centerline. 2) Remove high weight symmetrically. 3) Move weight down symmetrically. 4) Eliminate any free surface present.
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153. As chief engineer you should understand the concept of loll and its cause. An angle of loll is commonly caused by which of the following conditions?
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154. As chief engineer on a vessel, you and the first engineer are planning a welding job in the cargo-hold. How would you ensure that all safety precautions are reviewed prior to starting this job?
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155. You are the chief engineer of a vessel, while in port working cargo a fire is reported in the engine room. Shoreside firefighting assistance has been requested. How would you proceed?
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156. Your vessel was damaged in a collision and one compartment has partially flooded. The vessel has free communication with the sea with water flowing in and out as the vessel rolls. Which of the following is the most important factor contributing to free communication loss of stability?
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157. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systems
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158. While donning the positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, you discover that the air cylinder pressure gauge and the regulator pressure gauge differ from each other by 500 psi. Which of the listed actions should you consider as appropriate?
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159. While in the engine control room you smell smoke and see it coming from the vent in the main switchboard panel. Which of the many different types of extinguishers, if any, are required to be in that space and why would it be best suited to extinguish this class of fire?
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160. You are the engineer on a vessel with a periodically unattended machinery space. A fire has been reported in the engine room and you cannot make entry into the space. How would you direct the emergency squad team leader to charge the fire main?
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161. Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?
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162. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________.
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163. Which of the following must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable life raft not designed for float-free operation?
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164. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?
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165. Which of the following statements is true concerning the meter shown in the illustration
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166. A health hazard term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is __________.
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167. If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________
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168. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?
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169. As listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), what is a liquid called that is having a flash point below 199.4°F (93°C)?
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170. The motion of a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration affects the governing "transverse" stability
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171. During onboard training with your engineers, you review the various firefighting agents available for use onboard a ship. Which of the following statements describes carbon dioxide as an extinguishing agent?
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172. One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________.
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173. Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10-day voyage. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 78, what actions must be taken to verify that your vessel was in compliance with stability requirements?
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174. Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 78, what should be your ship's standard operating procedures regarding the inspection of watertight hatches and doors?
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175. The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by the high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to __________.
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176. While in port working cargo, a fire is reported on the forward car deck. After the captain sounds the general alarm, the crew musters and starts fighting the fire. As chief engineer you inform the captain that shoreside firefighting assistance needs to be called. How would you then proceed?
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177. The potable water tanks on your vessel were drained for inspection and cleaning. What would you do before refilling with water?
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178. You are providing onboard training to your engineers on the factors affecting trim and stability. What instructions do you give your engineers to stabilize the ship should it experience an unstable rolling behavior?
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179. You are reviewing emergency procedures with new crew members. How would you direct them to proceed if they hear the fire and emergency signal on the ship's general alarm or whistle?
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180. The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by __________.
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181. Your vessel, of more than 1000 gross tons on an international voyage is crossing the Atlantic Ocean. The second engineer injures his hand while working on a pump. The injury requires more than basic first aid. As the senior officer onboard how would you proceed?
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182. Your vessel is loading cargo and you are monitoring the stability and trim. Currently, the Longitudinal Center of Buoyancy (LCB) is vertically aligned and below the Longitudinal Center of Gravity (LCG). The Longitudinal Center of Flotation (LCF) is aft of both of these. How is the vessel trimming?
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183. Victual waste is __________.
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184. Water applied as a "fog" can be more effective than water applied as a "solid stream", because __________.
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185. The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for this condition
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186. As chief engineer or first assistant engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "longitudinal" stability?
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