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Designated Duty Engineer (Motor-Gas Turbine Plants (Unlimited))
Q623 — Engineering Safety & Environmental Protection
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1. Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the __________.
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2. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.
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3. Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel?
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4. When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose?
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5. To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility, __________.
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6. One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be received is by the __________.
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7. Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold temperatures?
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8. As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should __________.
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9. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?
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10. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), no person may serve as the person in charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.
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11. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________.
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12. If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it __________.
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13. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.
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14. After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you close FIRST?
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15. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?
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16. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.
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17. Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?
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18. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
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19. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________.
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20. When using foam, a "Class B" fire is extinguished by __________.
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21. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?
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22. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?
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23. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
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24. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.
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25. The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the agent to be __________.
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26. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.
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27. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
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28. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.
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29. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________.
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30. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
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31. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.
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32. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.
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33. If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of __________.
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34. The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by __________.
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35. A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire, you should __________
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36. When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are setting a _________.
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37. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.
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38. The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use __________.
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39. When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should __________.
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40. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST __________.
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41. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________.
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42. When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________.
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43. If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________.
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44. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.
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45. When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and _______.
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46. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.
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47. A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray pattern when the water pressure is not less than __________.
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48. Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________.
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49. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________.
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50. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.
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51. Which of the components listed are interchangeable between different backpack self-contained breathing apparatus produced by various manufacturers?
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52. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?
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53. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.
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54. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.
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55. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.
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56. As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________.
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57. Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?
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58. When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________.
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59. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.
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60. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.
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61. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.
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62. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
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63. Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________.
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64. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.
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65. One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is __________.
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66. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.
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67. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?
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68. If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be the most hazardous to perform?
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69. The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________.
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70. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.
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71. The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of __________.
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72. The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the __________.
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73. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?
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74. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.
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75. If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate?
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76. While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is not available?
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77. Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an __________.
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78. For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of H2S and which of the following factors?
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79. The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________.
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80. A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed?
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81. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.
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82. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.
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83. In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by a/an __________.
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84. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?
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85. When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must _________.
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86. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.
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87. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?
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88. Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shoreside facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?
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89. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
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90. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
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91. When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.
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92. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required to be reviewed __________.
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93. According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________.
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94. Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________.
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95. Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect __________.
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96. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.
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97. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.
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98. An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.
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99. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
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100. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.
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101. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?
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102. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter W, the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________.
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103. When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.
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104. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.
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105. If a life raft should capsize, __________.
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106. The canopy of your life raft should __________.
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107. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.
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108. When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.
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109. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.
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110. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________.
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111. To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________.
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112. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.
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113. When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the __________.
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114. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.
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115. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?
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116. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
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117. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
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118. Clogged limber holes can endanger a ship's stability by __________.
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119. What standard mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels waterplane area for stability purposes?
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120. A vessel trimmed down by the bow has __________.
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121. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.
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122. The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number __________
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123. You may improve a vessel's stability by __________.
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124. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.
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125. Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying liquid cargo should be avoided in order to __________.
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126. Adverse effects due to free surface will result when __________.
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127. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.
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128. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.
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129. Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer than __________.
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130. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.
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131. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring
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132. Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to __________.
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133. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.
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134. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.
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135. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks. What area(s) would this be NOT used in?
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136. Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________.
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137. Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________.
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138. Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarm sounds, this means __________.
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139. Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?
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140. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?
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141. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.
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142. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.
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143. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty tanks will __________.
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144. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.
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145. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?
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146. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?
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147. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.
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148. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.
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149. When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable life raft, the personnel on the raft should __________.
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150. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.
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151. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?
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152. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the Oil Record Book shall be fully recorded __________.
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153. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D, the device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces of tank vessels is referred to as what?
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154. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter W, life jackets must be stowed where?
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155. According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle diameter is required for this shore connection to transfer oily ballast to a shoreside reception facility?
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156. If additional weight is placed on the main deck of the vessel shown in the illustration __________
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157. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________.
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158. During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST __________.
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159. In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________.
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160. U.S. regulations require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. Who must be in attendance at this meeting?
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161. The device shown in the illustration is carried aboard tankships for __________
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162. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an __________.
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163. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________.
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164. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by__________
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165. A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is referred to as a __________.
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166. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?
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167. Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?
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168. Which of the following statements is true concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration
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169. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?
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170. Which of the following terms is used to describe water or other liquid that has free surface?
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171. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.
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172. A health hazard term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is __________.
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173. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____
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174. To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would _________
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175. What is the purpose of opening the doors and portholes in figure 2 of the illustration
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176. If you see an individual fall overboard, what is the FIRST thing you should do?
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177. Your ship experiences a casualty resulting in flooding. Which of the below listed items is the first that you should do?
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178. Your ship has left shore on the east coast of the United States, how far must you be from shore to be able to discharge paper waste into the Atlantic Ocean?
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179. A ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is normally designed for a storage tank pressure and temperature of approximately __________.
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180. The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________.
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181. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.
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182. U.S. flag ships may obtain an Oil Record Book from the __________.
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183. An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________.
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184. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?
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185. Victual waste is __________.
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186. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.
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187. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.
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