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Designated Duty Engineer (Motor-Gas Turbine Plants (Unlimited))
Q624 — General Subjects
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1. In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure-reducing valve, what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valves
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2. What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the motor illustrated
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3. For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less __________.
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4. Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to __________.
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5. What class of screw thread is indicated with a machine screw described as 1/2-13 NC-2?
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6. One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.
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7. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________
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8. When using a one inch micrometer, a reading of 0.875 is equal to __________.
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9. When metal is tempered, it becomes __________.
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10. Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of __________.
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11. What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on welding a joint?
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12. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.
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13. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by __________.
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14. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that __________.
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15. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?
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16. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.
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17. Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated centrifugal pump under manual supervision?
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18. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _______.
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19. If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed, the __________.
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20. To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?
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21. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.
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22. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to ________.
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23. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.
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24. Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump or an eductor?
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25. Aftercoolers are used with air compressors to __________.
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26. Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at approximately 100 psig?
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27. How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture and emulsions?
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28. Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.
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29. Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?
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30. Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer. Specifically, when heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the opposite side, what mode of heat transfer is associated with that particular part of the overall process?
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31. If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during start-up, you should do which of the following?
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32. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.
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33. If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?
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34. If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?
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35. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure?
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36. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a non-removable tube bundle such as a lube oil cooler with fixed tube sheets into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure?
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37. Suppose a diesel engine is fitted with sea water-cooled lube oil and jacket water coolers. What statement is true concerning the system operating pressures?
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38. What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction?
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39. What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?
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40. What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to facilitate separation in an oily-water separator?
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41. If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what statement concerning the plate pack is true?
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42. Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water system is true?
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43. What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water pumps supporting a typical potable water system?
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44. Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose of such an arrangement?
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45. In the production of fresh water from sea water through a process of heating and cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called __________.
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46. Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?
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47. Regarding a reverse osmosis type fresh water generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules, what statement is true?
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48. For the successful operation of a reverse osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high-pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?
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49. For the successful operation of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator, the setting of the brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the set point of this regulator is true?
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50. What component of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator could be isolated and replaced with the unit remaining in service?
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51. When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be accomplished?
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52. Which of the freshwater generators listed below is operated without a source of heat?
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53. In which of the following fresh water generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?
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54. In order for a reverse osmosis fresh water generator to be able to overcome the osmotic pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator?
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55. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.
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56. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.
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57. Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?
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58. Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?
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59. A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch cover system and has developed a slight leak. To stop the leak, you should __________.
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60. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by __________.
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61. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil __________.
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62. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity?
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63. If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will __________.
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64. Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.
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65. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.
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66. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder shock is prevented by __________.
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67. What do hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, changeover valves, used in a two-ram hydraulic steering gear accomplish?
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68. The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control is to __________.
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69. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?
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70. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the warping heads and wildcats?
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71. In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?
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72. As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?
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73. As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal- type deck crane, which statement is true?
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74. What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?
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75. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
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76. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?
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77. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.
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78. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?
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79. What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?
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80. What is meant by the term tensile strength of a material?
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81. How is access to the double bottom tanks usually provided for inspection, cleaning, maintenance, and repairs of tank interiors?
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82. While in dry-dock, what means are provided for completely draining the double bottom tanks in preparation for inspection?
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83. As it applies to a transverse-framed ship with double bottom construction, what does the term "floor" represent?
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84. What is the name of the opening in a bilge margin bracket that reduces the weight of the bracket without materially reducing its strength?
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85. Even though bilge keels do provide some improvement in longitudinal strength at the bilge radius, what is the primary purpose of the bilge keels?
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86. In terms of ship construction framing methods, which statement is true concerning the transverse framing system?
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87. What statement is true concerning the plating meeting at the gunwales of a ship?
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88. What is another name for the "collision" bulkhead?
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89. What statement is true concerning the construction of watertight bulkheads?
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90. What statement is true concerning watertight doors fitted below the waterline of a vessel?
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91. Suppose a prime mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and rotates at a steady speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have been made to the governor speed control setting, what is the speed regulation of the prime mover expressed in percent?
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92. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within a body or between two bodies in direct contact?
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93. If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal gases, what statement is true?
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94. What statement represents the ideal gas law?
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95. What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air-conditioned cargo space?
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96. A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is accomplished by what means?
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97. If outside air at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the cooling coil
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98. What is the wet bulb temperature of air if the dry bulb temperature of the air is 90 degrees and the relative humidity is 65%
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99. In a two-stage centrifugal air conditioning system such as the one illustrated, the liquid refrigerant passes from the condenser directly to what component
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100. To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air conditioning system, what should be done?
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101. What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?
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102. What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation and low system heat loads?
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103. Traditionally, which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor?
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104. Which of the fluids listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant?
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105. The "tare weight" of a refrigerant storage cylinder refers to what weight?
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106. What is the pressure and condition of the refrigerant entering the receiver of a refrigeration system?
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107. A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?
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108. The carbon seal ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft mechanical seal is held in position against the stationary ring face by using what device?
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109. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?
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110. In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system is usually charged with what substance?
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111. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with an 8 psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a replaceable power element are both desired
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112. In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located where?
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113. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?
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114. To add small amounts of non-blended refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the refrigerant should be introduced through a particular valve and in a particular state. What valve and state combination is correct?
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115. To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should close the king valve and introduce the refrigerant through what valve in what state?
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116. Before charging a refrigeration unit, unless quick disconnect fittings are used, the refrigerant charging hoses should be prepared in what way?
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117. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?
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118. Concerning the charging of refrigerant into a vapor compression refrigerating system, which of the following is true?
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119. Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by which of the following?
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120. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil Record Book?
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121. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for vessels of 400 gross tons and above which are all required to carry an oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is the design criteria in terms of maximum oil content of the overboard discharge?
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122. Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?
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123. What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?
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124. Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with one another?
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125. What is a shipboard application for a worm gear drive?
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126. The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what type?
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127. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure-feed lubricating oil system, which statement is true?
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128. Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating systems because they __________.
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129. A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?
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130. What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust bearing where used?
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131. Concerning governor speed droop, what statement is true?
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132. Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without hunting?
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133. Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?
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134. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?
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135. In which lubrication application is a detergent type oil most likely to be used?
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136. What is the operating principle of detergent type lubricating oil that provides the oil with its unique properties?
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137. With respect to lubricating oils, what statement is true concerning viscosity and viscosity index?
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138. In which lubrication application is a lubricating oil with an alkaline reserve most likely to be used?
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139. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line?
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140. What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters the entire output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery to the lubricating oil supply manifold of the engine?
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141. What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters a small portion of the output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery back to the sump via a fine filter?
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142. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a double reduction?
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143. Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as platinum, where the resistance varies directly with temperature?
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144. What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as opposed to an instantaneous flow rate?
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145. Which of the following flowmeter primary devices works on the constriction type, differential head principle?
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146. What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?
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147. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic instantaneous flow indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 gpm, what would be the actual measured instantaneous flow rate if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?
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148. Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?
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149. Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the liquid level in a pressure vessel, such as a water-tube boiler steam drum?
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150. Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure-reducing valve is part of a 600-to-150 psig reducing station. If there was an increase in demand for steam downstream, what statement correctly represents how the valve would initially respond
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151. In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure-reducing valve, what statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the control diaphragm
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152. In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?
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153. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
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154. In accordance with the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), continuing violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of the following statements is true?
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155. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?
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156. According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause Pump "A" to short cycle
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157. What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system
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158. Assuming that a standard micrometer (without a Vernier scale) has the ability to read to the nearest one thousandths of an inch, such a micrometer with a vernier scale would make it possible to read to the nearest __________.
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159. A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures shown in the illustration
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160. The coil temperature measured at the expansion valve sensing bulb of an operating system is 10°F. The low side pressure with the compressor running as shown on the gauge illustrated indicates 15 psig. What adjustments or changes, if any, should be made to the system
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161. The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as the __________
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162. Through which of the components shown in the illustration is flash gas formation a normal occurrence
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163. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, what statement is true
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164. Concerning the proper installation of the sensing bulb of a thermal expansion valve that is attached to the evaporator tail coil on a horizontal run, what statement is true?
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165. The counterbalance valve (5) in the winch circuit shown in the illustration ________
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166. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________
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167. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________.
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168. In what remote temperature indicating system is a voltage generated by the magnitude of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions?
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169. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the water
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170. Which of the fasteners in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "C" in illustration GS-0015
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171. Which figure shown in the illustration, is the nut lock improperly used
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172. In the figure shown in the illustration, the standard blueprint symbols above the letters "A", "B", and "C" indicate __________
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173. Which of the following compressors would be used for a dead ship start-up of a ship's service diesel- generator on a motor ship?
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174. Which of the following freshwater generators has an operating principle that employs the use of a semi-permeable membrane?
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175. Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in the illustration
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176. Which of the following refrigerants is normally classified as a low-pressure refrigerant based on a relatively high boiling point?
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177. Which of the following roller bearing types would be limited to radial thrust load applications?
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178. Which of the following statements is true concerning the gauge labeled "A" of the illustrated gauge manifold set
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179. Which of the following statements is true concerning the illustrated gauge manifold set
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180. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of the device shown in the illustration
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181. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time?
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182. What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration
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183. What is the function of device "C" shown in the illustration
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184. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________
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185. The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an __________
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186. Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal, the harder the metal, the greater the drill's required __________.
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187. A high-pressure centrifugal chiller, currently charged with R-134a, is being evaluated for leak testing. The machine is idle, the pressures equalized at 10 psig, with an ambient temperature of 60°F. Using the leak test procedures decision tree and the R-134a pressure-temperature chart, what statement is TRUE? RA-0094_1.jpgRA-0094_2.jpg
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188. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal- mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers?
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189. A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________
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190. The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will probably leak when in operation because the tubing __________
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191. Which of the illustrated devices would be the LEAST accurate for the purposes of weighing-in a refrigerant charge
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192. In the illustrated refrigeration system, what is the proper name for the component labeled "A"
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193. In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve, what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valves
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194. In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________
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195. In the illustration, line "C" is a __________
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196. What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the illustration
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197. Light and other forms of radiation can act as a means of transporting heat energy from one body to another. This radiative transport is different from conduction and convection in that it does not involve __________.
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198. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______
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199. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______
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200. Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing shells on merchant ships?
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201. Which of the listed statements describes the method used to determine the amount of superheat present in the suction gas leaving the evaporator coil
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202. Which of the listed temperature sensors is made of heat-treated metallic oxides and generally has a negative coefficient of resistance?
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203. Which of the listed valve types is typically used for the low-pressure stage of a reciprocating air compressor?
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204. The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devices
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205. What is meant by the term "deadband" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
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206. How would you prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the steering system using the illustrated actuator
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207. What will happen if oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the illustration
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208. For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the connection labeled "I"
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209. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.
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210. What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustration
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211. When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?
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212. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way?
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213. Referring to the illustrated diagram for a central-station hookup for a hot water heating system, what statement represents the configuration of the system
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214. Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown
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215. Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true
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216. Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily-water separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely the cause
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217. Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the lower oil/water interface detection probe became faulty
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218. With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is meant by a radial load?
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219. If a reverse osmosis freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what statement is true?
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220. When shifting heat exchangers such as main engine lube oil coolers, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure if the shift is to occur during engine operation?
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221. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission of analog signals for a measured variable
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222. As shown in figure "B" in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG (A-D MUX)"
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223. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT" represent
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224. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL OUTPUT" represent
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225. Spring reinforced oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the seal facing __________
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226. Which of the statements is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the directional control valve is centered
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227. Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be the result if there was a complete loss of pilot air being delivered to the valve actuator
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228. Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve is part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater for a steam boiler. If there was an increase in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement correctly represents how the valve would initially respond
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229. Suppose the pilot pressure range is from 3 to 15 psig for the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve. Assuming the control valve is trimmed for a linear response and the travel position indicator is calibrated in percentage, what would be the approximate valve position with a 9 psig pilot pressure
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230. The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event?
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231. Thermostatic expansion valves come factory set with a certain value of superheat setting. When installing a new valve in the field, conditions may cause the actual superheat to deviate from the factory setting. Which statement about checking the setting a newly installed thermostatic expansion valve is correct?
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232. A typical oily-water separator has three stages of separation. Which statement represents the correct sequential order of the stages?
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233. Of the various possible methods shown in the illustration, which is the correct method of attaching a TXV feeler bulb to a large suction line (7/8" and larger) with a horizontal run
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234. A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by __________.
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235. The working depth of the gear illustrated is represented by __________
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236. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in place by what means?
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237. If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gauge indicating zero psig and the water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________
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238. How is accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system prevented?
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239. The rudder torque capacity of the four-ram steering gear illustrated, is rated at 44,210,000 inch-pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four-ram system was able to be operated as a two-ram system with both power units on line, what would be the available torque
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240. With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is meant by an axial load?
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241. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with a 2 psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a replaceable power element are both desired
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242. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time?
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