Q513 - Steam Plants, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. According to the data given in the illustration which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 25.03 inches Hg, and 126.08 degrees FahrenheitNot learned 2. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) permit copper pipe to be used for steam service subjected to a maximum pressure and temperature of __________.Not learned 3. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) regarding hydrostatic testing of main steam piping state that __________.Not learned 4. Steam line water hammer can be best prevented by __________.Not learned 5. The steam separator as used in conjunction with a steam whistle normally drains to which of the listed drain systems?Not learned 6. The leakage of air into the pump casing by way of the packing gland of a condensate pump, is prevented by __________.Not learned 7. Which of the conditions listed could prevent a centrifugal condensate pump from developing its rated capacity?Not learned 8. If a lube oil pump fails to build up discharge pressure, the cause could be the __________.Not learned 9. High pressure and low pressure drain systems are part of the __________.Not learned 10. From which of the areas listed are condensate drains normally collected and returned to the low-pressure drain system?Not learned 11. High-pressure steam drains are normally discharged to the __________.Not learned 12. Excessively hot water returning to an atmospheric drain tank indicates __________.Not learned 13. Which of the listed systems would be a potential source for the high-pressure drain system?Not learned 14. A basic comparison can be made between a low-pressure evaporator operation and a main condenser with regards to the removal of non-condensable gases. The vacuum drag line for the main condenser is specifically connected in which area?Not learned 15. Condensate pumps have distinctly noticeable characteristics and can usually be recognized by their ______.Not learned 16. Which statement listed represents a vital function of the main condenser?Not learned 17. One of the basic rules applying to the operation of a single-pass main condenser is that the __________.Not learned 18. If the main condenser were operating at a vacuum of 28.7"Hg, a condensate discharge temperature of 81°F, a seawater inlet temperature of 72°F, and a seawater outlet temperature of 79°F, what would be the condensate depressionNot learned 19. In a main propulsion steam turbine installation, the condensate pump initially discharges to the __________.Not learned 20. Why does air entry into the main condenser reduce the efficiency of the steam cycle?Not learned 21. Vapor blowing from the air ejector condenser vent may be caused by __________.Not learned 22. In a closed feed and water cycle, which of the conditions listed could prevent vacuum from reaching the desired level?Not learned 23. Salt water contamination of condensate could occur at which component?Not learned 24. Excessive condensate depression can result in __________.Not learned 25. Air accumulated in the after condenser of the air ejector unit is discharged directly to the __________.Not learned 26. Air accumulated in the intercondenser of the air ejector assembly is discharged directly to the __________.Not learned 27. Which statement is true concerning two-stage air ejector assemblies?Not learned 28. Serious tube leaks in the air ejector condenser assembly will cause __________.Not learned 29. What type of sensor is normally used with the automatic recirculating valve in the main condensate line?Not learned 30. Scale in the air ejector first-stage nozzle could cause a decrease in the __________.Not learned 31. If the cooling water flow through the air ejector intercondensers and aftercondensers is inadequate, which of the problems listed will occur?Not learned 32. Which of the components listed prevents water from flowing back into the auxiliary exhaust line if the deaerating feed tank becomes flooded?Not learned 33. Cooling water to the vent condenser in a DC heater is supplied by the _______.Not learned 34. To provide emergency feedwater supply to a steaming boiler, if it becomes necessary to secure the DC heater, suction should be taken on the distilled water tank using the __________.Not learned 35. The purpose of the steam control valves installed in the auxiliary exhaust line is to __________.Not learned 36. Excess free oxygen in the boiler feedwater can be the result of __________.Not learned 37. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the start-up operation of a non-condensing turbine-driven feed pump?Not learned 38. During initial starting of the standby turbine-driven boiler feed pump, which of the listed valves should remain closed?Not learned 39. If a centrifugal main feed pump were operated at shutoff head with the recirculating line closed, which of the following conditions could occur?Not learned 40. An excess pressure governor would normally be used on a __________.Not learned 41. The constant pressure governor of a turbine-driven feed pump maintains which of the following pressures at a constant value for all capacities?Not learned 42. Under EMERGENCY operating conditions with the main feed valve malfunctioning, what should be the proper valve positions for controlling feedwater to the boiler?Not learned 43. The boiler main feed stop check valve is located nearest the __________.Not learned 44. The pressure in the feedwater system must exceed boiler steam drum pressure in order to __________.Not learned 45. Recirculation of the feedwater ensures a flow of water through the __________.Not learned 46. Which of the devices listed is used to keep overheated condensate from flowing to the deaerating feed tank?Not learned 47. Excessive water loss from the main feed system can be caused by __________.Not learned 48. The temperature of the fuel oil received during bunkering operations is critical in determining the __________.Not learned 49. What will be the FIRST thing to occur if both the main and standby lube oil pumps failed to operate on a geared main propulsion steam turbine operating at full sea speed?Not learned 50. If it should become necessary to abandon a compartment because of the danger of a large steam leak on a boiler, which of the following actions represents the best avenue of escape?Not learned 51. If the saturation pressure of water is increased, the relative values shown on the illustrated graph will change. According to pertinent information found in the steam tables of SG-0004, this will result in __________Not learned 52. What physical changes will occur to the steam within a boiler that has been properly bottled up when additional heat is applied?Not learned 53. In what section of a boiler would you find a steam quality of 90%?Not learned 54. Which of the following statements represents the purpose of boiler sliding feet?Not learned 55. Steam baffles are used in the steam drum of a water-tube boiler to __________.Not learned 56. Which of the methods listed would be most effective in repairing a steam cut on a seating surface of a superheater handhole plate?Not learned 57. One advantage of installing water wall tubes in a boiler furnace is to __________.Not learned 58. In most marine boilers, the primary reason the first few rows of generating tubes, called screen or furnace row tubes, are made larger in diameter than the rest of the generating tubes is because __________.Not learned 59. Which of the tools listed is used to remove a boiler tube from a header?Not learned 60. Which of the following problems can occur when an excessive number of water screen tubes are plugged?Not learned 61. Waterside abrasion of boiler tubes can be caused by __________.Not learned 62. Blisters developing on boiler tubes can be caused by __________.Not learned 63. Cratering and water tracking in boiler tubes is caused by __________.Not learned 64. The formation of a pit in the surface of a boiler tube is most likely to occur when __________.Not learned 65. Boiler refractory firebrick is secured to the casing by __________.Not learned 66. Boiler refractory previously baked out and fired is most sensitive to __________.Not learned 67. Which of the listed refractory materials can be used in an area directly exposed to the highest heat in the furnace?Not learned 68. Which of the listed refractory materials is composed of wool fibers and clay binders?Not learned 69. When you are installing a new furnace floor in an oil fired boiler, the clearance between the firebricks should be large enough to __________.Not learned 70. To assure a long service life for boiler refractory materials after installation, the most effective method is to __________.Not learned 71. Which of the listed procedures is the most important factor to take into consideration when making repairs to the refractory surrounding the burner openings?Not learned 72. A furnace wall in which there are open spaces around the brick as a result of firebrick shrinkage, is __________.Not learned 73. Which of the listed refractory materials should be used for patching a burner front formed of plastic, castable, or tile?Not learned 74. After patching refractory with plastic firebrick, holes are poked in the patch on 1 1/2 inch centers in order to __________.Not learned 75. Slag buildup on boiler furnace refractory is undesirable because it causes __________.Not learned 76. Which of the conditions listed occurs when glassy slag, formed by the burning of fuel oil contaminated with salt water, melts and runs over the furnace wall?Not learned 77. Boiler furnace brickwork can be fractured and broken by thermal shock caused by __________.Not learned 78. The internal feed pipe in a D-type marine boiler __________.Not learned 79. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), main propulsion water-tube boilers are not required to be fitted with a surface blow-off valve if the design pressure is which of the following?Not learned 80. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), feed water nozzles shall be fitted with sleeves, or have other suitable means employed to reduce the effects of temperature differentials on all boilers designed for operating pressures of __________.Not learned 81. Which of the following locations could desuperheated steam be considered to occur?Not learned 82. The primary purpose of a control desuperheater installed in the steam drum of a boiler is to __________.Not learned 83. Which of the following would indicate a moderate leak in the desuperheater?Not learned 84. Desuperheated steam can be found at the __________.Not learned 85. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following is classified as a boiler mounting?Not learned 86. Which of the precautions listed should be taken when gagging a boiler safety valve?Not learned 87. Coast Guard regulations require that the relieving capacity of boiler safety valves must be checked __________.Not learned 88. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit repairs and adjustments to boiler safety valves while installed on a main propulsion boiler and may be made by ________.Not learned 89. Coast Guard Regulations, 46 CFR Part 54, require steam safety and relief valves to be provided with a substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disc from its seat at what percentage of the set pressure?Not learned 90. If the maximum steam generating capacity of a boiler is increased, 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering) requires that the safety valve's __________.Not learned 91. The MAWP of a boiler is 900 psi and the normal drop across the superheater is 20 psi. If the superheater safety valve is set to lift at 825 psi, the minimum settings of the drum safety valves allowed by Coast Guard Regulations would be _______.Not learned 92. A boiler superheater safety valve is set to lift at 450 psi (3102 kPa). Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that if there is a pressure drop of 10 psi (69 kPa) across the superheater, the drum safety valve should set to lift at a pressure of __________.Not learned 93. The safety valve nominal size for propulsion boilers and superheaters must be not less than 1 1/2 inches and not more than 4 inches. The term 'nominal size' refers to the __________.Not learned 94. A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to __________.Not learned 95. The primary purpose of the sprayer plate in a mechanical atomizing oil burner is to __________.Not learned 96. A boiler has a steam delivery capacity of 100,000 pounds per hour, and is equipped with four steam atomizing burners. If the load range of the burners is 4 to 1, this means that __________.Not learned 97. Boilers equipped with steam atomizers can operate over a wide load range without cutting burners in and out because __________.Not learned 98. In most installations, the firing rate of a boiler using steam atomization is indicated by the __________.Not learned 99. In a steam assist atomizer, the fuel oil/steam mix takes place entirely within the __________.Not learned 100. Compared to the return flow oil burner system, an internally mixed steam atomizer requires __________.Not learned 101. In a steam assist fuel oil atomizer, the steam pressure is higher than the oil pressure at __________.Not learned 102. If the temperature of the fuel oil entering an atomizer is too low, the burner will __________.Not learned 103. Fluctuations in the atomizing steam pressure at the burners could be caused by a/an __________.Not learned 104. In a multi-burner firebox, a burner tip with a worn and enlarged orifice will __________.Not learned 105. Which of the following statements describes how the fuel oil enters the whirling chambers of the sprayer plates used in an auxiliary boiler return flow fuel oil system?Not learned 106. In an air register assembly, the majority of air passes through the __________.Not learned 107. Which of the conditions listed can cause the flame of a mechanically atomized burner to be blown away from the burner tip when you are attempting to light off?Not learned 108. The purpose of the division plates installed in boiler superheater headers is to __________.Not learned 109. Warping of superheater screen tubes can be caused by __________.Not learned 110. Fireside burning of boiler tubes is usually the direct result of __________.Not learned 111. Dirty generating tube surfaces may cause higher than normal superheater outlet temperatures because __________.Not learned 112. An excessively high superheater temperature could be the result of __________.Not learned 113. When operating under constant load, the superheated steam temperature may rise above normal if the __________.Not learned 114. Under normal operating conditions, a drop in the steam temperature leaving an uncontrolled interdeck superheater could be caused by a __________.Not learned 115. Which of the following statements represents the Coast Guard Regulation regarding a boiler installation in which the superheater outlet temperature exceeds 850°F?Not learned 116. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) concerning marine boilers, require the installation of a safety valve on the __________.Not learned 117. Proper lagging of a single-element feedwater regulator is accomplished by applying the insulation material __________.Not learned 118. A two-element boiler feedwater regulator is controlled by __________.Not learned 119. A pneumatic dual element, main propulsion, boiler feedwater regulating system commonly used aboard ship utilizes __________.Not learned 120. A single element boiler feedwater regulating system used aboard ship utilizes __________.Not learned 121. In the event of a failure of the pneumatic control system, a multi-element feedwater regulator is designed to operate as a _________.Not learned 122. The major heat loss in an oil-fired boiler is the heat __________.Not learned 123. A lower than normal boiler stack gas temperature usually indicates __________.Not learned 124. Insufficient combustion air supply to the furnace would cause __________.Not learned 125. If an analysis of boiler flue gas determines there is no excess air for combustion, you should expect the nitrogen content of the flue gas to be approximately __________.Not learned 126. A flue gas analysis is performed to determine the __________.Not learned 127. Assuming all burners are clean and the fuel oil is at the correct temperature, it is considered good practice to adjust the excess air until a light brown haze is obtained. With the aid of a chemical based flue gas analyzer, the percentage readings (not necessarily in order) should indicate __________.Not learned 128. A mechanical carbon dioxide recorder operates by detecting the difference between air and the __________.Not learned 129. Generally, a 12% to 14% content of carbon dioxide in boiler flue gases indicates __________.Not learned 130. When testing boiler flue gas with a chemical absorption apparatus, to obtain accurate results __________.Not learned 131. The absence of carbon monoxide in the flue gas of a boiler indicates __________.Not learned 132. Which of the following chemicals is used in an Orsat apparatus to absorb carbon dioxide?Not learned 133. A high carbon monoxide content in the flue gases of a boiler indicates __________.Not learned 134. All oil-fired main propulsion burners with automatic safety control systems must automatically close the burner valve when _________.Not learned 135. Fine adjustments to a boiler combustion control system, to bring about near perfect combustion, should be made by manually adjusting the __________.Not learned 136. In an automatically fired boiler, the steam pressure regulator controls the supply of fuel oil to the burners by responding to variations in the __________.Not learned 137. Flame scanners are used with boiler combustion control systems to monitor flame quality and to __________.Not learned 138. The photoelectric cell installed as part of the combustion safety controls of an automatically fired boiler will __________.Not learned 139. Which of the following represents a significant system limitation to be aware of when a burner management system is operated in the "HAND" mode?Not learned 140. In automatic combustion control systems, increasing or decreasing a loading pressure by a set amount is called __________.Not learned 141. While your vessel is steaming with one boiler, the automatic combustion control system sensing line for the idle boiler is accidentally opened. How will this affect the steaming boiler?Not learned 142. Modern day boiler automation allows bypassing the "flame safeguard" system to permit a burner to have a "trial for ignition" period during burner light-off. This period may not exceed ______.Not learned 143. In a boiler automation system, if a burner fuel oil solenoid valve continually trips closed under normal steaming conditions, you should __________.Not learned 144. In a regenerative air heater, air is bypassed around the heater while __________.Not learned 145. Boiler fuel savings gained by the use of an economizer can amount to __________.Not learned 146. The boiler economizer provides additional heat to the __________.Not learned 147. The minimum feedwater inlet temperature to a boiler economizer is determined by the __________.Not learned 148. When installed, the economizer relief valve should always be set __________.Not learned 149. Which of the conditions listed could cause a boiler economizer to leak?Not learned 150. Which of the conditions listed would indicate excessive soot buildup on the economizer?Not learned 151. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the design pressure of an economizer integral with the boiler and connected to the boiler drum without intervening stop valves shall be at least equal to __________.Not learned 152. The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.Not learned 153. Which of the significant combustible elements of fuel oil is a major source of boiler corrosion?Not learned 154. Which combustible element in fuel oil is considered a significant and major source of air pollution?Not learned 155. Which constituent of fuel oil determines the specific heat?Not learned 156. The most harmful slag forming compounds found in fuel oils are __________.Not learned 157. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to determine the highest temperature to which the oil may be heated __________.Not learned 158. The minimum temperature requirements for fuel oil in storage tanks is related to the _________.Not learned 159. The viscosity of a residual fuel oil is measured in Saybolt __________.Not learned 160. If oil is found in the main fuel oil heater steam drain system, which of the actions listed should be taken first?Not learned 161. When you are transferring fuel oil to the settling tanks, precautions to be observed should include __________.Not learned 162. Which of the pumps listed takes fuel oil suction from the double bottom tanks and discharges it to the settling tanks?Not learned 163. Fuel oil is transferred to the settling tanks for __________.Not learned 164. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST when water is found in the fuel oil settling tank?Not learned 165. Pumps normally used for fuel oil service are __________.Not learned 166. The relief valve on the discharge side of the fuel oil service pump may discharge directly to the suction side of the pump, or to the __________.Not learned 167. When warming up a fuel oil service system, you should open the steam supply to the fuel oil heaters __________.Not learned 168. The valve located between the fuel oil header and the burner valve is known as the __________.Not learned 169. The fins on the tubes of a fin type fuel oil heater are provided to __________.Not learned 170. Condensate accumulation in the steam side of a fuel oil heater could result in __________.Not learned 171. The rate of fouling on the oil side of a fuel oil heater is inversely related to the __________.Not learned 172. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require the duplex fuel oil discharge strainers installed in boiler fuel oil service systems to be __________.Not learned 173. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) require that new fuel oil service piping between pumps and burners be subjected to __________.Not learned 174. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that quick-closing valves on a fuel oil service system should be installed as close as is practicable to the __________.Not learned 175. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) all fuel oil service piping in the vicinity of the burners must __________.Not learned 176. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), which of the following is permitted in boiler fuel oil service system discharge piping?Not learned 177. Which of the casualties listed is apt to occur immediately after a high water casualty?Not learned 178. High boiler water level can cause carryover and __________.Not learned 179. Rapid fluctuation in the superheater temperature of a steady steaming boiler indicates __________.Not learned 180. Oil accumulation in boiler water would __________.Not learned 181. An unusual vibration in the main propulsion turbine unit, accompanied by a rumbling sound in the reduction gear, could be caused by __________.Not learned 182. Dissolved oxygen in the condensate can result from __________.Not learned 183. A malfunction in the DC heater is indicated by __________.Not learned 184. Excessive carbon dioxide formed by improper chemical treatment in the boiler may cause corrosion in the __________.Not learned 185. Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator to test boiler water for __________.Not learned 186. Testing boiler water for chloride content will indicate the amount of __________.Not learned 187. A sample of boiler water can be chemically tested for alkalinity by initially adding a few drops of phenolphthalein and then slowly titrating the water sample until the __________.Not learned 188. A dissolved oxygen concentration of 8.0 ppm represents __________.Not learned 189. Calcium minerals in boiler water are precipitated out of solution by the use of which of the listed chemicals?Not learned 190. Excessive foaming in a steaming boiler can cause damage to the __________.Not learned 191. To minimize metal corrosion, boiler water is best kept __________.Not learned 192. Excessive alkalinity of boiler water will cause ________.Not learned 193. In a water-tube boiler, waterside scale formation is caused by __________.Not learned 194. Carbon dioxide dissolved in boiler water is dangerous in a modern power boiler because the gas __________.Not learned 195. Under what operating conditions may water wall header drains be used for blow down?Not learned 196. Which of the listed mediums should be used when water washing a boiler?Not learned 197. When water washing a boiler, the proper sequence for washing the sections should be the __________.Not learned 198. Which of the listed operating practices is considered as safe, and should be followed when opening and inspecting the waterside of a boiler?Not learned 199. Which type of waterside deposits can normally be removed by chemically boiling out a boiler?Not learned 200. One boiler of a two-boiler plant has ruptured a tube, and the water cannot be maintained in sight in the gauge glass. After securing the fires, your next action should be to __________.Not learned 201. Which of the following actions should be carried out if the boiler water level is falling due to a tube failure?Not learned 202. When the rate of heat transfer through tube walls is so reduced that the metal becomes overheated, which of the following conditions will result in the boiler?Not learned 203. Boiler tube failures can result from __________.Not learned 204. If manual control of the water level in a steaming boiler is required, the proper method of control is with the auxiliary feed __________.Not learned 205. If the water level in one boiler of a two-boiler plant rapidly falls out of sight, which of the following actions should be carried out FIRST?Not learned 206. Your vessel is steaming full ahead and operating on both boilers. If the boiler water level of one boiler drops out of sight low in the sight glass and the burners have been secured, besides slowing down the main engine, what further action should be taken?Not learned 207. The water level in a steaming boiler has risen to within 2 inches from the top of the gauge glass. Your immediate action should be to __________.Not learned 208. After restoring the normal water level in a boiler following a high water casualty, you should __________.Not learned 209. If a major flareback occurs to a boiler, which of the following actions should be immediately taken?Not learned 210. A water-tube boiler can be laid up either wet or dry. If it is to be laid up wet, you should __________.Not learned 211. In a boiler equipped with an automatic feed water regulator, erratic variations in the steam drum water level could be caused by __________.Not learned 212. If boiler water chemicals are decreasing in one boiler and increasing in the other boiler, while both are steaming at normal rates, a leak probably exists in the __________.Not learned 213. Which of the following statements is true concerning boiler inspections?Not learned 214. When preparing to hydrostatically test water-tube boilers, you should __________.Not learned 215. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following steam piping conditions, subjected to main boiler pressure, is exempted from hydrostatic testing?Not learned 216. Which of the Coast Guard publications listed contain the information regarding allowable repairs to boilers installed on cargo vessels?Not learned 217. The most practical method of determining the condition of a shaft bearing while the shaft is in operation is to __________.Not learned 218. Which of the following would cause the dowel or locking lip of a split-type, precision insert, main bearing to shear and allow the bearing to rotate with the journal?Not learned 219. An overheated bearing in the main propulsion unit is indicated by __________.Not learned 220. Babbitt is a metal alloy commonly used for lining __________.Not learned 221. Main steam turbine bearings are lined with __________.Not learned 222. The splits located in the halves of main reduction gear bearings are aligned at an angle to the horizontal in order to resist __________.Not learned 223. A common cause of the Babbitt linings cracking in a turbine journal bearing is from ________.Not learned 224. For a large main propulsion turbine, the most commonly used turbine thrust bearing is the __________.Not learned 225. As found in a reduction gear drive system, thrust bearings serve to __________.Not learned 226. A Kingsbury, or pivot shoe type thrust bearing, can bear much greater loads per square inch of working surface than can parallel surface bearings because provisions are made in the Kingsbury bearing __________.Not learned 227. The astern element of a main propulsion turbine is usually designed as a __________.Not learned 228. Most auxiliary turbine feed pumps do not require an external source of gland sealing steam because they __________.Not learned 229. When starting a turbo-generator, you must provide lube oil pressure to the governor power piston by means of __________.Not learned 230. A back pressure trip on a ship's service turbo-generator functions to trip the turbine under what circumstance?Not learned 231. An efficient seal is normally obtained between the upper and lower halves of a turbine casing by __________.Not learned 232. Turbine casing flanges are sometimes provided with a system of joint grooving to __________.Not learned 233. Which of the devices listed is found on an LP main propulsion steam turbine casing?Not learned 234. Labyrinth seals used to reduce leakage around a turbine shaft are constructed of __________.Not learned 235. Where are moisture shields located in a main propulsion steam turbine?Not learned 236. Allowance for axial expansion of the steam turbine due to temperature changes is provided for by the use of __________.Not learned 237. The purpose of the sentinel valve installed on a turbine casing is to __________.Not learned 238. The gland exhaust fan draws steam and non-condensable vapors from the gland exhaust condenser and discharges to the __________.Not learned 239. Labyrinth seals are used on rotating steam turbine shafts to reduce external leakage. How is this accomplished?Not learned 240. Labyrinth packing rings are installed on turbine diaphragms to minimize __________.Not learned 241. A cloudy or milky appearing lube oil sample, taken from the main lubricating oil system could be caused by __________.Not learned 242. If the main propulsion turbine begins to vibrate severely while you are increasing speed, you should __________.Not learned 243. If a line shaft bearing begins to overheat, the shaft speed should be reduced. If overheating persists, you should then __________.Not learned 244. Which immediate action should you take when the temperature of one line shaft bearing increases above its normal operating temperature?Not learned 245. Which of the following operational practices is helpful in avoiding the accumulation of condensate in the main reduction gear casing?Not learned 246. Which of the devices listed is generally used to engage the main engine turning gear to the high- pressure turbine high-speed pinion?Not learned 247. The main propulsion shaft turning gear usually connects to the free end of the high-speed high-pressure pinion because the __________.Not learned 248. To prevent damage to the turning gear mechanism, which of the following procedures must be carried out before the turning gear is engaged?Not learned 249. The jacking/turning gear mechanism of a main propulsion geared turbine installation is normally connected through mechanical linkage to the _______.Not learned 250. The jacking gear on main propulsion turbines can be used to __________.Not learned 251. Excessive thrust bearing wear in a main propulsion turbine rotor should FIRST become apparent by __________.Not learned 252. Which of the listed operational checks should be made "continuously" on the main propulsion reduction gears?Not learned 253. Regarding main reduction gears, when high-speed first reduction pinions and gears are connected to low-speed pinions and gears, each contained in a sequential portion of the gear housing, the reduction gear unit is known as __________.Not learned 254. The purpose of the main reduction gears is to __________.Not learned 255. Most main propulsion reduction gear bearings are __________.Not learned 256. What is the significance of pinion deflection in the operation of reduction gears?Not learned 257. Which of the devices listed is commonly used to compensate for the expansion and minor misalignments occurring between the main turbine rotor and the reduction gear?Not learned 258. Which of the listed parts illustrated in the turbo-generator governing system, provides the follow-up to prevent the nozzle valves from cycling between the fully open and fully closed positions, with each variation in turbine speedNot learned 259. In the illustration, the function generators will accept only a signal of a given polarity and the amplifier "M" inverts the polarity of the signal. If negative is used for the ahead and positive for the astern reference potentiometers, moving the bridge reference potentiometer in the direction indicated will have what effect while the system is operating in the mode selected for in the illustrationNot learned 260. Which of the following is used to hold the poppet valves closed in a turbo-generators nozzle control speed regulator?Not learned 261. The overspeed tripping device installed on an auxiliary turbine is automatically actuated by __________.Not learned 262. A sequential lift, nozzle valve control bar on a turbo-generator, utilizes which of the following operating principles?Not learned 263. Which of the following statements represents the significance of the differential pressure existing between the nozzle block and steam chest of a turbogenerator equipped with a lifting beam mechanism?Not learned 264. Water retained in the lube oil system of a main propulsion turbine installation is undesirable because it __________.Not learned 265. In a steam turbine and reduction gear main propulsion plant, the alarm sensor for low turbine oil pressure is usually installed __________.Not learned 266. If a tube should leak in an operating main steam turbine lube oil cooler, the water will not immediately contaminate the oil because the __________.Not learned 267. Oil supply pressure to the main lube oil header of a gravity feed lube oil system is __________.Not learned 268. After starting the main lube oil pump in a gravity-type lube oil system, you should verify that the gravity tanks are full by __________.Not learned 269. Which of the conditions listed could cause an oil flow sight glass, of a main turbine bearing, to be completely filled with oil?Not learned 270. While a vessel is underway, which of the conditions listed would indicate a tube leak associated with the sea water-cooled lube oil cooler on service?Not learned 271. When a sudden increase in pressure occurs in a forced lubrication system, you should check for a __________.Not learned 272. No lube oil appearing in the sight glass (bull's eye) of a gravity type system is a positive indication of __________.Not learned 273. Which of the following would contribute to the formation of an oil and water emulsion, in addition to acid formation?Not learned 274. Which of the following conditions may exist if you detect an excessive amount of metal particles on a main engine lube oil strainer magnet?Not learned 275. One function of the disks, in a disk-type centrifugal purifier, is to divide the bowl space into many separate passages to __________.Not learned 276. When an oil purification centrifuge loses a portion of its seal, the oil can then be discharged through the heavy phase discharge port. This is partly a result of greater __________.Not learned 277. To determine the extent of lube oil system contamination you would __________.Not learned 278. Maintaining low pressure in a condensing turbine exhaust trunk __________.Not learned 279. If a ship is to be laid up for an indefinite period, the steam side of the main condenser should be __________.Not learned 280. When a turbine rotor is not rotating during maneuvering, the heat tends to be concentrated at the __________.Not learned 281. With vacuum up and the main propulsion turbine standing by while awaiting engine orders, it is necessary to roll the unit alternately ahead and astern every five minutes to __________.Not learned 282. In securing the main turbines, steam to the second stage air ejectors should be left on for a short period of time in order to __________.Not learned 283. What must you do before placing the jacking gear in operation on a main turbine unit?Not learned 284. If steam is admitted to the main propulsion turbine with the jacking gear engaged, which of the following problems can occur?Not learned 285. Raising vacuum on a main turbine unit without using the turning gear will result in __________.Not learned 286. What should you do prior to rolling the main turbines in preparation for getting underway?Not learned 287. After properly lining up the main propulsion turbine for warm up, steam should first be admitted to the rotor through the ________.Not learned 288. The main propulsion turbine can be damaged by __________.Not learned 289. The maximum lube oil temperature leaving a large, main propulsion steam turbine bearing should __________.Not learned 290. While making your rounds, you notice the main lube oil temperature to be higher than normal. To remedy this situation, you should __________.Not learned 291. If the salinity indicator periodically registers high salinity in the main hot well, the cause may be __________.Not learned 292. While maneuvering out of port, you answer a stop bell. You notice a lot of steam coming out of the gland exhaust condenser vent, in addition to the main condenser hotwell level being low. For this condition you should __________.Not learned 293. While a vessel is underway the low-pressure turbine high-speed pinion is damaged. The pinion is then removed from the gear train. Under these circumstances, the main unit is capable of which speed and direction?Not learned 294. What should you do when a turbine bearing shows signs of overheating?Not learned 295. While underway, the boiler water level in a steaming boiler begins dropping rapidly and cannot be kept at the normal level by standard practices. The engineer's next action should be to __________.Not learned 296. The size of the discharge ring used for the efficient operation of a disk type purifier is dependent upon the __________.Not learned 297. Which of the following problems will occur if a manually cleaned disk-type centrifugal lube oil purifier contains insufficient sealing water prior to admitting oil flow to the bowl?Not learned 298. Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________.Not learned 299. The purpose of the separating nozzle in the accumulator of a water-tube, coil-type, steam generator is to separate __________.Not learned 300. The gauge glass on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is connected to the __________.Not learned 301. Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?Not learned 302. The rate of heat transfer in a water-tube auxiliary boiler can be increased by __________.Not learned 303. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.Not learned 304. Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boilers are protected from direct contact with hot gases by __________.Not learned 305. The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by _________.Not learned 306. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to ________.Not learned 307. Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on a boiler, are __________.Not learned 308. The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.Not learned 309. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), which of the following statements is true concerning the inspection of water-tube boilers?Not learned 310. Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of a fire-tube type auxiliary boiler approaches the crown sheet?Not learned 311. If an automatically fired burner ignites, but repeatedly goes out within two seconds, the cause could be a/an __________.Not learned 312. When the steam pressure drops below a set value on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with rotary cup atomizers, the combustion control system will __________.Not learned 313. The solenoid valves in the fuel oil supply line to an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, are automatically closed by __________.Not learned 314. The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent what condition?Not learned 315. During unsafe firing conditions in a large automatic auxiliary boiler, various control actuators are interlocked with the burner circuit to prevent start-up, in addition to safety shutdown. These controls are referred to as __________.Not learned 316. The pressuretrol which is installed on an auxiliary boiler senses steam pressure changes and __________.Not learned 317. Which of the following actions takes place in the control circuit of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler when the desired steam pressure is obtained?Not learned 318. The turbine of a turbo-electric drive should be secured by __________.Not learned 319. While trying to light off a burner on a semi-automated boiler, you note that the fuel oil solenoid valve at the burner will not stay open. Which of the following conditions could cause this problem?Not learned 320. The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________Not learned 321. (1.2.15-9) On US flag steam propulsion vessels, the main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to accomplish which of the following?Not learned 322. A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________.Not learned 323. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the final setting of boiler safety valves be conducted in presence of the __________.Not learned 324. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "air door handle"Not learned 325. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "diffuser"Not learned 326. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "igniter"Not learned 327. According to the illustration of a typical boiler furnace rear wall, which item number would best represent "standard firebrick"Not learned 328. Which action should be taken if the water level in the boiler gauge glass drops out of sight and the burners fail to secure automatically?Not learned 329. The adjustable spherically seated self-aligning bearing housings used in turbines are provided with oil deflector rings. The function of these rings is to __________.Not learned 330. Although accurate tests of boiler water for dissolved oxygen are difficult to obtain onboard ship, you can be fairly certain of proper oxygen removal by __________.Not learned 331. Which area shown in the illustration will offer the most resistance to heat transfer from the fireside to the waterside of a boiler tubeNot learned 332. How is an auxiliary turbine boiler feed pump normally stopped?Not learned 333. The base ring shown in the illustration is identified by the letter __________Not learned 334. When a boiler economizer is fitted with a valved bypass, Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require which of the following devices to be installed?Not learned 335. If a boiler generates saturated steam at 75.3 psig, how much heat is required to change the water into steam if the feedwater temperature is 220°FNot learned 336. On a boiler safety valve, the blowdown adjusting ring is locked in place by a __________.Not learned 337. In the boiler shown in the illustration, the arrow "E" indicates a __________Not learned 338. The boiler superheater shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 339. When a boiler water test indicates a pH value of 6, you should __________.Not learned 340. The boiler wrapper sheet, shown in the illustration, is indicated by arrow __________Not learned 341. When burning fuel oil in a boiler, a high CO2 content is desired in the stack gas because __________.Not learned 342. As Chief Engineer, while at sea, the engine room reports the superheater outlet temperature is erratic and fluctuating. Which of the following could be a possible cause?Not learned 343. Clean oil leaves the centrifuge illustrated through item __________Not learned 344. In a coil-type forced circulation water-tube boiler, __________.Not learned 345. The component labeled "II", as shown in the illustration, is called the __________Not learned 346. Which of the conditions listed may be indicated by the lifting of the DC heater relief valve?Not learned 347. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________Not learned 348. Considering helical main reduction gearing, what operational anomalies do the following tooth or teeth conditions represent?Not learned 349. Deaeration of condensate primarily occurs in what section of the illustration shownNot learned 350. Which of the devices listed is shown in the boiler illustrationNot learned 351. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 352. In the diagrammatic arrangement of the thrust bearing, shown in the illustration, the direction of shaft rotation and the direction of thrust are indicated respectively by arrows __________Not learned 353. The duty engineer reports an alarm on the condensate observation tank oil sensor. Which of the following could be a possible cause?Not learned 354. Every vessel, steam or motor, has a steam system that incorporates steam traps strategically located throughout the piping system. The proper operation of steam traps is an essential component of efficient cycle operation. What should properly functioning steam traps accomplish?Not learned 355. When excessive static boiler pressure has resulted in the initial lift of the valve disc, a huddling chamber safety valve will continue to lift open as a result of ___________,Not learned 356. When the flow of oil admitted to a disk-type centrifugal purifier is in excess of its designed capacity, which of the following conditions will usually occur?Not learned 357. Which of the following statements describes how the main propulsion turbine overspeed relay initiates closing of the throttle valve?Not learned 358. Which of the following statements about gravity type lube oil systems is correct?Not learned 359. Which of the following statements represents the function of a turbine gland exhaust condenser?Not learned 360. Which of the following statements is true concerning the coupling shown in the illustrationNot learned 361. Which of the following statements is true concerning the information tabulated in the tableNot learned 362. Which of the following statements is true concerning the lube oil system shown in the illustrationNot learned 363. Which of the following statements is true concerning the turbine shown in the illustrationNot learned 364. As found in a basic pneumatic automatic combustion control system, the function of a standardizing relay is to __________.Not learned 365. On a geared steam turbine vessel in order to obtain an accurate and comparative indication of gear tooth contact and wear patterns, which teeth would you mark with indicating dye?Not learned 366. When heated, brickwork in a boiler is kept from buckling by the installation of __________.Not learned 367. The illustrated burner atomizer assembly is __________Not learned 368. In the illustrated device, what would be a reason for oil being discharged from port "N"Not learned 369. The items labeled "D" and "M" as indicated on the illustration are commonly called ________Not learned 370. Journal bearings used with turbine rotors are manufactured in two halves in order to __________.Not learned 371. A leaky fuel oil heater relief valve could be indicated by an increase in the __________.Not learned 372. Which of the listed actions will occur when there is an increase in load on a ship service generator equipped with a centrifugal type hydraulic governorNot learned 373. Which of the listed types of safety valves is shown in the illustrationNot learned 374. On a main propulsion turbine bearing, the readings obtained with a bridge gauge represent the __________.Not learned 375. During maneuvering on a steam vessel, the condenser vacuum begins to decrease when the turbines are slowed for a slow ahead bell. Which of the following should be checked?Not learned 376. A motor driven synchronizing device, figure "D" shown in the illustration, operated from the generator switchboard, initiates fine adjustments to the steam turbine speed by directly __________Not learned 377. Why is it necessary to have a relief valve protect the deaerating feed tank from internal pressure?Not learned 378. One factor for determining the minimum feedwater inlet temperature to a boiler economizer is the __________.Not learned 379. When operating with the auxiliary feed line, feed water flow is controlled __________.Not learned 380. The original bridge gauge reading for a reduction gear bearing was measured as 0.008 inches. A year later, the bridge gauge reading for the same bearing is 0.010 inches. What would this indicate?Not learned 381. Packing rings installed on auxiliary turbines are generally lubricated by __________.Not learned 382. The part shown in the illustration would be located between which of the following components of a modern geared turbine main propulsion unitNot learned 383. A pilot valve and servomotor are utilized in mechanical-hydraulic governing systems on a turbo- generator unit in order to __________.Not learned 384. Which piping system is described in the illustration providedNot learned 385. Precautions to be observed prior to starting a turbine driven feed pump, should include __________.Not learned 386. What is the primary operational difference between a nozzle reaction safety valve and a huddling chamber safety valve?Not learned 387. The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy, is known as its __________.Not learned 388. The reduction gear shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 389. When reviewing the engine log on a steam ship, you notice a lower than normal feedwater temperature, high furnace pressure and higher than normal superheater temperature. Which of the following could be a possible cause?Not learned 390. The second engineer reports to you as the Chief Engineer that there is an increased use of oxygen scavenging chemicals in a boiler. Which of the following could be a possible cause?Not learned 391. A slight vacuum is maintained in the shell of the first stage heater shown in the illustration. The primary reason for the vacuum is to __________Not learned 392. When a soot fire occurs, damage to an economizer can be minimized if you __________.Not learned 393. Which of the statements listed applies to the quill shaft shown in the illustrationNot learned 394. Steam traps are essential components of any steam cycle. When malfunctioning, they will reduce cycle's energy efficiency and may cause other problems in the condensate drain system. What simple, definite, technique may one use to identify a malfunctioning trap?Not learned 395. On a steam turbine vessel with a propeller type, electrically driven, main circulating pump, one suspects condenser tube or inlet tube sheet fouling. Do not consider vacuum variations since they may be due to sea water temperatures. What on-board electrical test instrument can one use to verify condenser fouling?Not learned 396. On a steam vessel with two high pressure boilers, one suspects a superheater leak. How would you determine which boiler may be leaking and what would be the indication(s)?Not learned 397. While steaming underway the second engineer reports a high superheater outlet temperature. Which of the following could be a possible cause?Not learned 398. While steaming underway the second engineer reports a low superheater outlet temperature. Which of the following could be a possible cause?Not learned 399. To stop the rotor of a main turbine while underway at sea you should __________.Not learned 400. Where is the superheater located in the boiler shown in the illustrationNot learned 401. The three-wing device in the unit illustrated is maintained in its position by item __________Not learned 402. In the thrust bearing assembly illustrated the total oil clearance can be correctly decreased by __________Not learned 403. When turbine rotor shafts extend through the casing, an external source of sealing steam is used in conjunction with labyrinth packing to __________.Not learned 404. Which two control inputs are dominant on a steam boiler with a three element feed water control?Not learned 405. While underway the engineer on watch reports the vacuum in the main condenser has been gradually decreasing. Which of the following could be a possible cause?Not learned 406. While underway it is noticed that the main air ejector is having a hard time maintaining vacuum in the main condenser. When switching to the standby unit the vacuum returns to normal. Which of the following could be a possible cause?Not learned 407. While underway on a steam ship, the engineer on watch reports a loss of oil flow in the oil head tank bull's eye. Which of the following should be done?Not learned 408. The unit shown in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 409. Valve "H" shown in the illustration, functions to __________Not learned 410. Water removed through centrifugal force in the illustrated unit is displaced from the bowl through __________Not learned 411. The purpose of a "peep" hole in the boiler casing is to _________.Not learned 412. Which of the following types of bearings are used as line shaft bearings?Not learned 413. According to the data given in illustration, which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 28.09 inches Hg, and 117.99 degrees FahrenheitNot learned