FCC Element 3 - General Radiotelephone, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and AC ammeter is called:Not learned 2. What is the basic unit of electrical power?Not learned 3. What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?Not learned 4. What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?Not learned 5. What formula would determine the inductive reactance of a coil if frequency and coil inductance are known?Not learned 6. What is the term for the out-of-phase power associated with inductors and capacitors?Not learned 7. What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?Not learned 8. What will produce a magnetic field?Not learned 9. When induced currents produce expanding magnetic fields around conductors in a direction that opposes the original magnetic field, this is known as:Not learned 10. The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as:Not learned 11. What is meant by the term “back EMF”?Not learned 12. Permeability is defined as:Not learned 13. What metal is usually employed as a sacrificial anode for corrosion control purposes?Not learned 14. What is the relative dielectric constant for air?Not learned 15. Which metal object may be least affected by galvanic corrosion when submerged in seawater?Not learned 16. Skin effect is the phenomenon where:Not learned 17. Corrosion resulting from electric current flow between dissimilar metals is called:Not learned 18. Which of these will be most useful for insulation at UHF frequencies?Not learned 19. What formula would calculate the total inductance of inductors in series?Not learned 20. Good conductors with minimum resistance have what type of electrons?Not learned 21. Which of the 4 groups of metals listed below are the best low-resistance conductors?Not learned 22. What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor?Not learned 23. How would you calculate the total capacitance of three capacitors in parallel?Not learned 24. How might you reduce the inductance of an antenna coil?Not learned 25. What are the two most commonly-used specifications for a junction diode?Not learned 26. What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?Not learned 27. MOSFETs are manufactured with THIS protective device built into their gate to protect the device from static charges and excessive voltages:Not learned 28. What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors?Not learned 29. A common emitter amplifier has:Not learned 30. How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor?Not learned 31. An AC ammeter indicates:Not learned 32. By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak voltage value?Not learned 33. What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?Not learned 34. What is the easiest voltage amplitude to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?Not learned 35. By what factor must the voltage measured in an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value?Not learned 36. What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?Not learned 37. What is a sine wave?Not learned 38. How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle?Not learned 39. What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics?Not learned 40. What is the description of a square wave?Not learned 41. What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics?Not learned 42. What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)?Not learned 43. What is the term used to identify an AC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a corresponding value of DC voltage?Not learned 44. What happens to reactive power in a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors?Not learned 45. Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will:Not learned 46. Which of the following groups is correct for listing common materials in order of descending conductivity?Not learned 47. How do you compute true power (power dissipated in the circuit) in a circuit where AC voltage and current are out of phase?Not learned 48. Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal resistance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when:Not learned 49. What value of series resistor would be needed to obtain a full scale deflection on a 50 microamp DC meter with an applied voltage of 200 volts DC?Not learned 50. Which of the following Ohms Law formulas is incorrect?Not learned 51. If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor?Not learned 52. If a 100-ohm resistor is connected across 200 volts, what is the current through the resistor?Not learned 53. If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts, what is the resistance?Not learned 54. A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 V DC?Not learned 55. What is the peak-to-peak RF voltage on the 50 ohm output of a 100 watt transmitter?Not learned 56. What is the maximum DC or RMS voltage that may be connected across a 20 watt, 2000 ohm resistor?Not learned 57. A 500-ohm, 2-watt resistor and a 1500-ohm, 1-watt resistor are connected in parallel. What is the maximum voltage that can be applied across the parallel circuit without exceeding wattage ratings?Not learned 58. In Figure 3B1, what is the voltage drop across R1?Not learned 59. In Figure 3B2, what is the voltage drop across R1?Not learned 60. What is the maximum rated current-carrying capacity of a resistor marked “2000 ohms, 200 watts”?Not learned 61. What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 0.1 ppm?Not learned 62. The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is:Not learned 63. What is the second harmonic of SSB frequency 4146 kHz?Not learned 64. What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 1.0 ppm?Not learned 65. What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm?Not learned 66. What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 1.0 ppm?Not learned 67. At pi/3 radians, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts?Not learned 68. At 150 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts?Not learned 69. At 240 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts?Not learned 70. What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?Not learned 71. What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?Not learned 72. Determine the phase relationship between the two signals shown in Figure 3B3.Not learned 73. What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?Not learned 74. If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result?Not learned 75. 746 watts, corresponding to the lifting of 550 pounds at the rate of one-foot-per-second, is the equivalent of how much horsepower?Not learned 76. In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined?Not learned 77. What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?Not learned 78. What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?Not learned 79. What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?Not learned 80. What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RC circuit”? The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to:Not learned 81. What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value?Not learned 82. What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RL circuit”? The time required for the:Not learned 83. After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage?Not learned 84. After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage?Not learned 85. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?Not learned 86. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series?Not learned 87. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor and a 470-kilohm resistor in series?Not learned 88. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel?Not learned 89. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel?Not learned 90. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series?Not learned 91. What is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz? Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.Not learned 92. In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz?Not learned 93. In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz?Not learned 94. In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz?Not learned 95. In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.01-microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz?Not learned 96. In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz?Not learned 97. What is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 KHz? Specify your answer in polar coordinates.Not learned 98. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?Not learned 99. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?Not learned 100. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?Not learned 101. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?Not learned 102. Using the polar coordinate system, what visual representation would you get of a voltage in a sinewave circuit?Not learned 103. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance?Not learned 104. A 1-watt, 10-volt Zener diode with the following characteristics: Imin. = 5 mA; Imax. = 95 mA; and Z = 8 ohms, is to be used as part of a voltage regulator in a 20-V power supply. Approximately what size current-limiting resistor would be used to set its bias to the midpoint of its operating range?Not learned 105. Given a power supply with a no load voltage of 12 volts and a full load voltage of 10 volts, what is the percentage of voltage regulation?Not learned 106. What turns ratio does a transformer need in order to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms?Not learned 107. Given a power supply with a full load voltage of 200 volts and a regulation of 25%, what is the no load voltage?Not learned 108. What is the conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 amperes of current flows when 12 volts DC is applied?Not learned 109. What happens to the conductivity of photoconductive material when light shines on it?Not learned 110. What is the photoconductive effect?Not learned 111. What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids produce a noticeable change in?Not learned 112. What is the description of an optoisolator?Not learned 113. What happens to the conductivity of a photosensitive semiconductor junction when it is illuminated?Not learned 114. What is the description of an optocoupler?Not learned 115. What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor?Not learned 116. In Figure 3C4, if a small variable capacitor were installed in place of the dashed line, it would?Not learned 117. In Figure 3C4, which component (labeled 1 through 4) is used to provide a signal ground?Not learned 118. In Figure 3C5, which capacitor (labeled 1 through 4) is being used as a bypass capacitor?Not learned 119. In Figure 3C5, the 1 μF capacitor is connected to a potentiometer that is used to:Not learned 120. What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor?Not learned 121. A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer to:Not learned 122. A transformer used to step up its input voltage must have:Not learned 123. A transformer primary of 2250 turns connected to 120 VAC will develop what voltage across a 500-turn secondary?Not learned 124. What is the ratio of the output frequency to the input frequency of a single-phase full-wave rectifier?Not learned 125. A power transformer has a single primary winding and three secondary windings producing 5.0 volts, 12.6 volts, and 150 volts. Assuming similar wire sizes, which of the three secondary windings will have the highest measured DC resistance?Not learned 126. A power transformer has a primary winding of 200 turns of #24 wire and a secondary winding consisting of 500 turns of the same size wire. When 20 volts are applied to the primary winding, the expected secondary voltage will be:Not learned 127. In a linear electronic voltage regulator:Not learned 128. A switching electronic voltage regulator:Not learned 129. What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?Not learned 130. In a regulated power supply, what type of component will most likely be used to establish a reference voltage?Not learned 131. A three-terminal regulator:Not learned 132. What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes?Not learned 133. How might two similar SCRs be connected to safely distribute the power load of a circuit?Not learned 134. What are the three terminals of an SCR?Not learned 135. Which of the following devices acts as two SCRs connected back to back, but facing in opposite directions and sharing a common gate?Not learned 136. What is the transistor called that is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal?Not learned 137. What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?Not learned 138. What circuit might contain a SCR?Not learned 139. What is one common use for PIN diodes?Not learned 140. What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?Not learned 141. Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes?Not learned 142. What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?Not learned 143. What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies?Not learned 144. What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?Not learned 145. What is the meaning of the term “alpha” with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of:Not learned 146. What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?Not learned 147. What is the meaning of the term “beta” with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of:Not learned 148. What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?Not learned 149. The beta cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor is the frequency at which:Not learned 150. What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?Not learned 151. A common base amplifier has:Not learned 152. What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off?Not learned 153. An emitter-follower amplifier has:Not learned 154. What conditions exists when a transistor is operating in saturation?Not learned 155. For current to flow in an NPN silicon transistor’s emitter-collector junction, the base must be:Not learned 156. When an NPN transistor is operating as a Class A amplifier, the base-emitter junction:Not learned 157. What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?Not learned 158. What determines the visible color radiated by an LED junction?Not learned 159. What is the approximate operating current of a light-emitting diode?Not learned 160. What would be the maximum current to safely illuminate a LED?Not learned 161. An LED facing a photodiode in a light-tight enclosure is commonly known as a/an:Not learned 162. What circuit component must be connected in series to protect an LED?Not learned 163. What describes a diode junction that is forward biased?Not learned 164. Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices?Not learned 165. What do the initials CMOS stand for?Not learned 166. What is the piezoelectric effect?Not learned 167. An electrical relay is a:Not learned 168. In which oscillator circuit would you find a quartz crystal?Not learned 169. What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?Not learned 170. What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance?Not learned 171. How could voltage be greater across reactances in series than the applied voltage?Not learned 172. What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance?Not learned 173. What is the characteristic of the current flow within the parallel elements in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?Not learned 174. What is the relationship between current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit?Not learned 175. What is the main advantage of using an op-amp audio filter over a passive LC audio filter?Not learned 176. What are the characteristics of an inverting operational amplifier (op-amp) circuit?Not learned 177. Gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit is determined by?Not learned 178. Where is the external feedback network connected to control the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?Not learned 179. Which of the following op-amp circuits is operated open-loop?Not learned 180. In the op-amp oscillator circuit shown in Figure 3D6, what would be the most noticeable effect if the capacitance of C were suddenly doubled?Not learned 181. What frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase comparator, look-up table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass antialias filter?Not learned 182. A circuit that compares the output of a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and produces an error voltage that is then used to adjust the capacitance of a varactor diode used to control frequency in that same VCO is called what?Not learned 183. RF input to a mixer is 200 MHz and the local oscillator frequency is 150 MHz. What output would you expect to see at the IF output prior to any filtering?Not learned 184. What spectral impurity components might be generated by a phase-locked-loop synthesizer?Not learned 185. In a direct digital synthesizer, what are the unwanted components on its output?Not learned 186. What is the definition of a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit?Not learned 187. Given the combined DC input voltages, what would the output voltage be in the circuit shown in Figure 3D7?Not learned 188. Which lamps would be lit in the circuit shown in Figure 3D8?Not learned 189. What will occur if an amplifier input signal coupling capacitor fails open?Not learned 190. In Figure 3D9, determine if there is a problem with this regulated power supply and identify the problem.Not learned 191. In Figure 3D10 with a square wave input what would be the output?Not learned 192. With a pure AC signal input to the circuit shown in Figure 3D11, what output wave form would you expect to see on an oscilloscope display?Not learned 193. What is the voltage range considered to be valid logic low input in a TTL device operating at 5 volts?Not learned 194. What is the voltage range considered to be a valid logic high input in a TTL device operating at 5.0 volts?Not learned 195. What is the common power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?Not learned 196. TTL inputs left open develop what logic state?Not learned 197. Which of the following instruments would be best for checking a TTL logic circuit?Not learned 198. What do the initials TTL stand for?Not learned 199. What is a characteristic of an AND gate?Not learned 200. What is a characteristic of a NAND gate?Not learned 201. What is a characteristic of an OR gate?Not learned 202. What is a characteristic of a NOR gate?Not learned 203. What is a characteristic of a NOT gate?Not learned 204. Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out when both inputs are active high?Not learned 205. In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0?Not learned 206. For the logic input levels shown in Figure 3E12, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.)Not learned 207. For the logic input levels given in Figure 3E13, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.)Not learned 208. In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?Not learned 209. Given the input levels shown in Figure 3E14 and assuming positive logic devices, what would the output be?Not learned 210. What is a truth table?Not learned 211. A flip-flop circuit is a binary logic element with how many stable states?Not learned 212. What is a flip-flop circuit? A binary sequential logic element with ___stable states.Not learned 213. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?Not learned 214. How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-flop circuit?Not learned 215. How many R-S flip-flops would be required to construct an 8 bit storage register?Not learned 216. An R-S flip-flop is capable of doing all of the following except:Not learned 217. The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of digital circuit?Not learned 218. What is an astable multivibrator?Not learned 219. What is a monostable multivibrator?Not learned 220. What is a bistable multivibrator circuit commonly named?Not learned 221. What is a bistable multivibrator circuit?Not learned 222. What wave form would appear on the voltage outputs at the collectors of an astable, multivibrator, common-emitter stage?Not learned 223. What is the name of the semiconductor memory IC whose digital data can be written or read, and whose memory word address can be accessed randomly?Not learned 224. What is the name of the semiconductor IC that has a fixed pattern of digital data stored in its memory matrix?Not learned 225. What does the term “IO” mean within a microprocessor system?Not learned 226. What is the name for a microprocessor’s sequence of commands and instructions?Not learned 227. How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus?Not learned 228. What is the name of the random-accessed semiconductor memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain reliable data storage in its memory matrix?Not learned 229. In a microprocessor-controlled two-way radio, a “watchdog” timer:Not learned 230. What does the term “DAC” refer to in a microprocessor circuit?Not learned 231. Which of the following is not part of a MCU processor?Not learned 232. What portion of a microprocessor circuit is the pulse generator?Not learned 233. In a microprocessor, what is the meaning of the term “ALU”?Not learned 234. What circuit interconnects the microprocessor with the memory and input/output system?Not learned 235. What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?Not learned 236. What does the term “BCD” mean?Not learned 237. What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?Not learned 238. What integrated circuit device converts an analog signal to a digital signal?Not learned 239. What integrated circuit device converts digital signals to analog signals?Not learned 240. In binary numbers, how would you note the quantity TWO?Not learned 241. What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver?Not learned 242. What is the definition of the term “receiver desensitizing”?Not learned 243. What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals?Not learned 244. What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver?Not learned 245. Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure?Not learned 246. What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal?Not learned 247. How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver?Not learned 248. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?Not learned 249. How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver?Not learned 250. Too much gain in a VHF receiver front end could result in this:Not learned 251. What is the advantage of a GaAsFET preamplifier in a modern VHF radio receiver?Not learned 252. In what stage of a VHF receiver would a low noise amplifier be most advantageous?Not learned 253. Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)?Not learned 254. What is the oscillator stage called in a frequency synthesizer?Not learned 255. What are three major oscillator circuits found in radio equipment?Not learned 256. Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)?Not learned 257. What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? It must:Not learned 258. In Figure 3F15, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) is used to represent a local oscillator?Not learned 259. What is the image frequency if the normal channel is 151.000 MHz, the IF is operating at 11.000 MHz, and the LO is at 140.000 MHz?Not learned 260. What is the mixing process in a radio receiver?Not learned 261. In what radio stage is the image frequency normally rejected?Not learned 262. What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?Not learned 263. If a receiver mixes a 13.8 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz receive signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?Not learned 264. What might occur in a receiver if excessive amounts of signal energy overdrive the mixer circuit?Not learned 265. What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a wideband FM phone receiver?Not learned 266. Which one of these filters can be used in micro-miniature electronic circuits?Not learned 267. A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals?Not learned 268. A receiver selectivity of 10 KHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals?Not learned 269. What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?Not learned 270. How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal?Not learned 271. What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a receiver?Not learned 272. What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency?Not learned 273. What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in a receiver?Not learned 274. What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp?Not learned 275. What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter?Not learned 276. When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter?Not learned 277. A good crystal band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone would be?Not learned 278. Which statement is true regarding the filter output characteristics shown in Figure 3F16?Not learned 279. What are the three general groupings of filters?Not learned 280. What is an m-derived filter?Not learned 281. What is an advantage of a constant-k filter?Not learned 282. What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter?Not learned 283. What is a product detector?Not learned 284. Which circuit is used to detect FM-phone signals?Not learned 285. What is the process of detection in a radio diode detector circuit?Not learned 286. What is a frequency discriminator in a radio receiver?Not learned 287. In a CTCSS controlled FM receiver, the CTCSS tone is filtered out after the:Not learned 288. What is the definition of detection in a radio receiver?Not learned 289. What is the digital signal processing term for noise subtraction circuitry?Not learned 290. What is the purpose of de-emphasis in the receiver audio stage?Not learned 291. What makes a Digital Coded Squelch work?Not learned 292. What causes a squelch circuit to function?Not learned 293. What makes a CTCSS squelch work?Not learned 294. What radio circuit samples analog signals, records and processes them as numbers, then converts them back to analog signals?Not learned 295. Where would you normally find a low-pass filter in a radio receiver?Not learned 296. How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise? Install them:Not learned 297. What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received?Not learned 298. What is cross-modulation interference?Not learned 299. In Figure 3F15 at what point in the circuit (labeled 1 through 4) could a DC voltmeter be used to monitor signal strength?Not learned 300. Pulse type interference to automobile radio receivers that appears related to the speed of the engine can often be reduced by:Not learned 301. What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region?Not learned 302. What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier?Not learned 303. Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion?Not learned 304. Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency?Not learned 305. What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff?Not learned 306. Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal?Not learned 307. The class B amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle?Not learned 308. What input-amplitude parameter is most valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?Not learned 309. The class C amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle?Not learned 310. What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts?Not learned 311. The class AB amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle?Not learned 312. What class of amplifier is characterized by conduction for 180 degrees of the input wave?Not learned 313. What is the modulation index in an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3,000 Hz on either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1,000 Hz?Not learned 314. What is the modulation index of a FM phone transmitter producing a maximum carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?Not learned 315. What is the total bandwidth of a FM phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency?Not learned 316. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?Not learned 317. How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated?Not learned 318. What is a balanced modulator?Not learned 319. What is an L-network?Not learned 320. What is a pi-network?Not learned 321. What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit?Not learned 322. Which three network types are commonly used to match an amplifying device to a transmission line?Not learned 323. What is a pi-L network?Not learned 324. Which network provides the greatest harmonic suppression?Not learned 325. What will occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter?Not learned 326. To produce a single-sideband suppressed carrier transmission it is necessary to ____ the carrier and to ____ the unwanted sideband.Not learned 327. In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio?Not learned 328. What is the approximate ratio of peak envelope power to average power during normal voice modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal?Not learned 329. What is the output peak envelope power from a transmitter as measured on an oscilloscope showing 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load resistor?Not learned 330. What would be the voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1,200 watts?Not learned 331. How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated?Not learned 332. How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated in a power amplifier?Not learned 333. What is the name of the condition that occurs when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated?Not learned 334. What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some pre-determined sequence?Not learned 335. How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design?Not learned 336. What is the modulation type that can be a frequency hopping of one carrier or multiple simultaneous carriers?Not learned 337. The deviation ratio is the:Not learned 338. What is the deviation ratio for an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz?Not learned 339. What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz?Not learned 340. How can an FM-phone signal be produced in a transmitter?Not learned 341. What is meant by the term modulation index?Not learned 342. In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency?Not learned 343. In Figure 3H17, the block labeled 4 would indicate that this schematic is most likely a/an:Not learned 344. In Figure 3H17, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) represents where audio intelligence is inserted?Not learned 345. What kind of input signal could be used to test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope?Not learned 346. What does a two-tone test illustrate on an oscilloscope?Not learned 347. How can a double-sideband phone signal be produced?Not learned 348. What type of signals are used to conduct an SSB two-tone test?Not learned 349. What is an important factor in pulse-code modulation using time-division multiplex?Not learned 350. In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary?Not learned 351. What is the name of the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse?Not learned 352. Which of the following best describes a pulse modulation system?Not learned 353. In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary?Not learned 354. What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system?Not learned 355. When a lead-acid storage battery is being charged, a harmful effect to humans is:Not learned 356. A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 volts is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge it from a 110-V DC line?Not learned 357. What capacity in amperes does a storage battery need to be in order to operate a 50 watt transmitter for 6 hours? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A.Not learned 358. What is the total voltage when 12 Nickel-Cadmium batteries are connected in series?Not learned 359. The average fully-charged voltage of a lead-acid storage cell is:Not learned 360. A nickel-cadmium cell has an operating voltage of about:Not learned 361. When an emergency transmitter uses 325 watts and a receiver uses 50 watts, how many hours can a 12.6 volt, 55 ampere-hour battery supply full power to both units?Not learned 362. What current will flow in a 6 volt storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3-watt, 6-volt lamp is connected?Not learned 363. A ship RADAR unit uses 315 watts and a radio uses 50 watts. If the equipment is connected to a 50 ampere-hour battery rated at 12.6 volts, how long will the battery last?Not learned 364. If a marine radiotelephone receiver uses 75 watts of power and a transmitter uses 325 watts, how long can they both operate before discharging a 50 ampere-hour 12 volt battery?Not learned 365. A 6 volt battery with 1.2 ohms internal resistance is connected across two light bulbs in parallel whose resistance is 12 ohms each. What is the current flow?Not learned 366. A 12.6 volt, 8 ampere-hour battery is supplying power to a receiver that uses 50 watts and a RADAR system that uses 300 watts. How long will the battery last?Not learned 367. What occurs if the load is removed from an operating series DC motor?Not learned 368. If a shunt motor running with a load has its shunt field opened, how would this affect the speed of the motor?Not learned 369. The expression “voltage regulation” as it applies to a shunt-wound DC generator operating at a constant frequency refers to:Not learned 370. What is the line current of a 7 horsepower motor operating on 120 volts at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficient?Not learned 371. A 3 horsepower, 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current?Not learned 372. The output of a separately-excited AC generator running at a constant speed can be controlled by:Not learned 373. Which of the following could cause a high standing wave ratio on a transmission line?Not learned 374. Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important?Not learned 375. A radio frequency device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little loss but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction is a:Not learned 376. What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?Not learned 377. What is meant by the term radiation resistance of an antenna?Not learned 378. What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth?Not learned 379. What is the current flowing through a 52 ohm line with an input of 1,872 watts?Not learned 380. The voltage produced in a receiving antenna is:Not learned 381. Which of the following represents the best standing wave ratio (SWR)?Not learned 382. At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?Not learned 383. An antenna radiates a primary signal of 500 watts output. If there is a 2nd harmonic output of 0.5 watt, what attenuation of the 2nd harmonic has occurred?Not learned 384. There is an improper impedance match between a 30 watt transmitter and the antenna, with 5 watts reflected. How much power is actually radiated?Not learned 385. A vertical 1/4 wave antenna receives signals:Not learned 386. The resonant frequency of a Hertz antenna can be lowered by:Not learned 387. An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna produces:Not learned 388. To increase the resonant frequency of a 1/4 wavelength antenna:Not learned 389. What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?Not learned 390. To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a:Not learned 391. What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?Not learned 392. What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?Not learned 393. Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to:Not learned 394. A perfect (no loss) coaxial cable has 7 dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of the transmission line?Not learned 395. Referred to the fundamental frequency, a shorted stub line attached to the transmission line to absorb even harmonics could have a wavelength of:Not learned 396. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter?Not learned 397. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?Not learned 398. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?Not learned 399. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?Not learned 400. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?Not learned 401. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?Not learned 402. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?Not learned 403. What is the frequency range of the Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) used to indicate an aircraft’s slant range distance to a selected ground-based navigation station?Not learned 404. The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures the distance from the aircraft to the DME ground station. This is referred to as:Not learned 405. The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) ground station has a built-in delay between reception of an interrogation and transmission of the reply to allow:Not learned 406. What is the main underlying operating principle of an aircraft’s Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?Not learned 407. What radio navigation aid determines the distance from an aircraft to a selected VORTAC station by measuring the length of time the radio signal takes to travel to and from the station?Not learned 408. The majority of airborne Distance Measuring Equipment systems automatically tune their transmitter and receiver frequencies to the paired __ / __ channel.Not learned 409. All directions associated with a VOR station are related to:Not learned 410. The rate that the transmitted VOR variable signal rotates is equivalent to how many revolutions per second?Not learned 411. What is the frequency range of the ground-based Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) stations used for aircraft navigation?Not learned 412. Lines drawn from the VOR station in a particular magnetic direction are:Not learned 413. The amplitude modulated variable phase signal and the frequency modulated reference phase signal of a Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft navigation are synchronized so that both signals are in phase with each other at ____________ of the VOR station.Not learned 414. What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system?Not learned 415. What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport?Not learned 416. What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate an aircraft's position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport's runway?Not learned 417. Which of the following is a required component of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?Not learned 418. What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Instrument Landing System (ILS) glideslope installation?Not learned 419. Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport. The localizer beam system:Not learned 420. On runway approach, an ILS Localizer shows:Not learned 421. What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment?Not learned 422. What is meant by the term “night effect” when using an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? Night effect refers to the fact that:Not learned 423. What are the transmit and receive frequencies of an aircraft’s mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)?Not learned 424. In addition to duplicating the functions of a mode C transponder, an aircraft’s mode S transponder can also provide:Not learned 425. What type of encoding is used in an aircraft’s mode C transponder transmission to a ground station of the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)?Not learned 426. Choose the only correct statement about an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment.Not learned 427. What type of antenna pattern is radiated from a ground station phased-array directional antenna when transmitting the PPM pulses in a Mode S interrogation signal of an aircraft’s Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) installation?Not learned 428. What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Instrument Landing System (ILS) marker beacon installation?Not learned 429. What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Very High Frequency (VHF) communications?Not learned 430. Aircraft Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) operate on what frequencies?Not learned 431. What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s radio altimeter?Not learned 432. What type of antenna is attached to an aircraft’s Mode C transponder installation and used to receive 1030 MHz interrogation signals from the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)?Not learned 433. Some aircraft and avionics equipment operates with a prime power line frequency of 400 Hz. What is the principle advantage of a higher line frequency?Not learned 434. Aviation services use predominantly ____ microphones.Not learned 435. Typical airborne HF transmitters usually provide a nominal RF power output to the antenna of ____ watts, compared with ____ watts RF output from a typical VHF transmitter.Not learned 436. Before ground testing an aircraft RADAR, the operator should:Not learned 437. What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Localizer (LOC) installations?Not learned 438. What is the function of a commercial aircraft’s SELCAL installation? SELCAL is a type of aircraft communications __________.Not learned 439. What is a 1/2 digit on a DMM?Not learned 440. A 50 microampere meter movement has an internal resistance of 2,000 ohms. What applied voltage is required to indicate half-scale deflection?Not learned 441. What is the purpose of a series multiplier resistor used with a voltmeter?Not learned 442. What is the purpose of a shunt resistor used with an ammeter?Not learned 443. What instrument is used to indicate high and low digital voltage states?Not learned 444. What instrument may be used to verify proper radio antenna functioning?Not learned 445. How is a frequency counter used?Not learned 446. What is a frequency standard?Not learned 447. What equipment may be useful to track down EMI aboard a ship or aircraft?Not learned 448. On an analog wattmeter, what part of the scale is most accurate and how much does that accuracy extend to the rest of the reading scale?Not learned 449. Which of the following frequency standards is used as a time base standard by field technicians?Not learned 450. Which of the following contains a multirange AF voltmeter calibrated in dB and a sharp, internal 1000 Hz bandstop filter, both used in conjunction with each other to perform quieting tests?Not learned 451. What is used to decrease circuit loading when using an oscilloscope?Not learned 452. How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope?Not learned 453. What stage determines the maximum frequency response of an oscilloscope?Not learned 454. What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope?Not learned 455. An oscilloscope can be used to accomplish all of the following except:Not learned 456. What instrument is used to check the signal quality of a single-sideband radio transmission?Not learned 457. A(n) ____ and ____ can be combined to measure the characteristics of transmission lines. Such an arrangement is known as a time-domain reflectometer (TDR).Not learned 458. What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?Not learned 459. What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?Not learned 460. What instrument is most accurate when checking antennas and transmission lines at the operating frequency of the antenna?Not learned 461. What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals in the output of a radio transmitter?Not learned 462. What instrument is commonly used by radio service technicians to monitor frequency, modulation, check receiver sensitivity, distortion, and to generate audio tones?Not learned 463. Can a P25 radio system be monitored with a scanner?Not learned 464. Which of the following answers is true?Not learned 465. What is a common method used to program radios without using a “wired” connection?Not learned 466. What is the common method for determining the exact sensitivity specification of a receiver?Not learned 467. A communications technician would perform a modulation-acceptance bandwidth test in order to:Not learned 468. What is the maximum FM deviation for voice operation of a normal wideband channel on VHF and UHF?Not learned 469. When soldering or working with CMOS electronics products or equipment, a wrist strap:Not learned 470. Which of the following is the preferred method of cleaning solder from plated-through circuit-board holes?Not learned 471. What is the proper way to cut plastic wire ties?Not learned 472. The ideal method of removing insulation from wire is:Not learned 473. A “hot gas bonder” is used:Not learned 474. When repairing circuit board assemblies it is most important to:Not learned 475. What color is the binder for pairs 51-75 in a 100-pair cable?Not learned 476. What is most important when routing cables in a mobile unit?Not learned 477. Why should you not use white or translucent plastic tie wraps on a radio tower?Not learned 478. What is the 6th pair color code in a 25 pair switchboard cable as is found in building telecommunications interconnections?Not learned 479. What tolerance off of plumb should a single base station radio rack be installed?Not learned 480. What type of wire would connect an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay?Not learned 481. On a 150 watt marine SSB HF transceiver, what would be indicated by a steady output of 75 watts when keying the transmitter on?Not learned 482. The tachometer of a building’s elevator circuit experiences interference caused by the radio system nearby. What is a common potential “fix” for the problem?Not learned 483. A common method of programming portable or mobile radios is to use a:Not learned 484. In a software-defined transceiver, what would be the best way for a technician to make a quick overall evaluation of the radio’s operational condition?Not learned 485. How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio?Not learned 486. What steps must be taken to activate the DSC emergency signaling function on a marine VHF?Not learned 487. What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?Not learned 488. Name two types of spread spectrum systems used in most RF communications applications?Not learned 489. What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the center frequency of a conventional carrier is altered many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?Not learned 490. A TDMA radio uses what to carry the multiple conversations sequentially?Not learned 491. Which of the following statements about SSB voice transmissions is correct?Not learned 492. What are the two most-used PCS (Personal Communications Systems) coding techniques used to separate different calls?Not learned 493. What is a CODEC?Not learned 494. The GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses what type of CODEC for digital mobile radio system communications?Not learned 495. Which of the following codes has gained the widest acceptance for exchange of data from one computer to another?Not learned 496. The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. What level is responsible for the actual transmission of data and handshaking signals?Not learned 497. What CODEC is used in Phase 2 P25 radios?Not learned 498. The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. The _______ level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow.Not learned 499. What is a SDR?Not learned 500. What does the DSP not do in a modern DSP radio?Not learned 501. Which statement best describes the code used for GMDSS-DSC transmissions?Not learned 502. Which is the code used for SITOR-A and -B transmissions?Not learned 503. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 504. What principle allows multiple conversations to be able to share one radio channel on a GSM channel?Not learned 505. What is the channel spacing used for VHF marine radio?Not learned 506. What VHF channel is assigned for distress and calling?Not learned 507. What VHF Channel is used for Digital Selective Calling and acknowledgement?Not learned 508. Maximum allowable frequency deviation for VHF marine radios is:Not learned 509. What is the reason for the USA-INT control or function?Not learned 510. How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio?Not learned 511. What is a common occurrence when voice-testing an SSB aboard a boat?Not learned 512. What might contribute to apparent low voltage on marine SSB transmitting?Not learned 513. What type of wire connects an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay?Not learned 514. Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true?Not learned 515. The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences?Not learned 516. Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true?Not learned 517. What causes the SART to begin a transmission?Not learned 518. How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display?Not learned 519. In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate?Not learned 520. Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?Not learned 521. Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true?Not learned 522. What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions?Not learned 523. What is facsimile?Not learned 524. What is the standard scan rate for high-frequency 3 MHz - 23 MHz weather facsimile reception from shore stations?Not learned 525. What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for weather facsimile HF (high frequency) reception?Not learned 526. Which of the following statements about NAVTEX is true?Not learned 527. Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally?Not learned 528. What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver does not print a particular type of message content?Not learned 529. What data language is bi-directional, multi-transmitter, multi-receiver network?Not learned 530. How should shielding be grounded on an NMEA 0183 data line?Not learned 531. What might occur in NMEA 2000 network topology if one device in line should fail?Not learned 532. In an NMEA 2000 device, a load equivalence number (LEN) of 1 is equivalent to how much current consumption?Not learned 533. An NMEA 2000 system with devices in a single location may be powered using this method:Not learned 534. What voltage drop at the end of the last segment will satisfy NMEA 2000 network cabling plans?Not learned 535. What is the normal range of pulse repetition rates?Not learned 536. The RADAR range in nautical miles to an object can be found by measuring the elapsed time during a RADAR pulse and dividing this quantity by:Not learned 537. What is the normal range of pulse widths?Not learned 538. Shipboard RADAR is most commonly operated in what band?Not learned 539. The pulse repetition rate (prr) of a RADAR refers to the:Not learned 540. If the elapsed time for a RADAR echo is 62 microseconds, what is the distance in nautical miles to the object?Not learned 541. The ATR box:Not learned 542. What is the purpose or function of the RADAR duplexer/circulator? It is a/an:Not learned 543. What device can be used to determine the performance of a RADAR system at sea?Not learned 544. What is the purpose of a synchro transmitter and receiver?Not learned 545. Digital signal processing (DSP) of RADAR signals (compared with analog) causes:Not learned 546. The component or circuit providing the transmitter output power for a RADAR system is the:Not learned 547. When a RADAR is being operated on the 48 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width (PW) and pulse repetition rate (pps)?Not learned 548. When a RADAR is being operated on the 6 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate?Not learned 549. We are looking at a target 25 miles away. When a RADAR is being operated on the 25 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate?Not learned 550. What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at long ranges?Not learned 551. What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at short ranges?Not learned 552. When a RADAR is being operated on the 1.5 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate?Not learned 553. How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?Not learned 554. What type of antenna or pickup device is used to extract the RADAR signal from the wave guide?Not learned 555. What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased? The beamwidth:Not learned 556. A common shipboard RADAR antenna is the:Not learned 557. Conductance takes place in a waveguide:Not learned 558. To couple energy into and out of a waveguide use:Not learned 559. The permanent magnetic field that surrounds a traveling-wave tube (TWT) is intended to:Not learned 560. Prior to testing any RADAR system, the operator should first:Not learned 561. In the term “ARPA RADAR,” ARPA is the acronym for which of the following?Not learned 562. Which of the following is NOT a precaution that should be taken to ensure the magnetron is not weakened:Not learned 563. Exposure to microwave energy from RADAR or other electronics devices is limited by U.S. Health Department regulations to _______ mW/centimeter.Not learned 564. RADAR collision avoidance systems utilize inputs from each of the following except your ship’s:Not learned 565. What is the orbiting altitude of the Iridium satellite communications system?Not learned 566. What frequency band is used by the Iridium system for telephone and messaging?Not learned 567. What services are provided by the Iridium system?Not learned 568. Which of the following statements about the Iridium system is true?Not learned 569. What is the main function of the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system?Not learned 570. How does the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system determine the position of a ship in distress?Not learned 571. What is the orbital altitude of INMARSAT Satellites?Not learned 572. Which of the following describes the INMARSAT Satellite system?Not learned 573. What are the directional characteristics of the INMARSAT-C SES antenna?Not learned 574. When engaging in voice communications via an INMARSAT-B terminal, what techniques are used?Not learned 575. Which of the following statements concerning INMARSAT geostationary satellites is true?Not learned 576. Which of the following conditions can render INMARSAT -B communications impossible?Not learned 577. What is the best description for the INMARSAT-C system?Not learned 578. The INMARSAT mini-M system is a:Not learned 579. What statement best describes the INMARSAT-B services?Not learned 580. Which INMARSAT systems offer High Speed Data at 64/54 kbps?Not learned 581. When INMARSAT-B and INMARSAT-C terminals are compared:Not learned 582. What services are provided by the INMARSAT-M service?Not learned 583. Global Positioning Service (GPS) satellite orbiting altitude is:Not learned 584. The GPS transmitted frequencies are:Not learned 585. How many GPS satellites are normally in operation?Not learned 586. What best describes the GPS Satellites orbits?Not learned 587. How many satellites must be received to provide complete position and time?Not learned 588. What is DGPS?Not learned 589. Compliance with MPE, or Maximum Permissible Exposure to RF levels (as defined in FCC Part 1, OET Bulletin 65) for “controlled” environments, are averaged over _______ minutes, while “uncontrolled” RF environments are averaged over ______ minutes.Not learned 590. Sites having multiple transmitting antennas must include antennas with more than _______% of the maximum permissible power density exposure limit when evaluating RF site exposure.Not learned 591. RF exposure from portable radio transceivers may be harmful to the eyes because:Not learned 592. At what aggregate power level is an MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) study required?Not learned 593. Why must you never look directly into a fiber optic cable?Not learned 594. If the MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) power is present, how often must the personnel accessing the affected area be trained and certified?Not learned 595. What device can protect a transmitting station from a direct lightning hit?Not learned 596. What is the purpose of not putting sharp corners on the ground leads within a building?Not learned 597. Should you use a power drill without eye protection?Not learned 598. What class of fire is one that is caused by an electrical short circuit and what is the preferred substance used to extinguish that type of fire?Not learned 599. Do shorted-stub lightning protectors work at all frequencies?Not learned 600. What is a GFI electrical socket used for?Not learned