FCC Element 9 - GMDSS Radio Maintenance, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. What are the correct VHF Channels and Frequencies for Calling/Distress, DSC and bridge-to-bridge operations?Not learned 2. What is the frequency separation between Transmit and Receive frequencies on a duplex channel?Not learned 3. What is the assigned channel spacing for VHF channels?Not learned 4. What is the allowed frequency tolerance for the DSC carrier frequencies?Not learned 5. Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm — which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.800 MHz and 156.525 MHz?Not learned 6. Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 5 ppm — which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.875 MHz and 157.200?Not learned 7. What is the purpose of the USA-INT switch?Not learned 8. What may happen if the USA-INT control is left on INT when in U.S. waters?Not learned 9. What is the purpose of the Dual Watch function?Not learned 10. What is the proper adjustment of the squelch control for maximum sensitivity?Not learned 11. Which of the following transmitter power levels are permitted by FCC rules?Not learned 12. Which of the following controls is not found on a VHF-DSC transceiver?Not learned 13. Which of the following best describes the "Capture effect?"Not learned 14. Which of the following may be adjusted in a FM ratio detector for improved signal-to-noise?Not learned 15. What is the function of a properly adjusted limiter circuit?Not learned 16. Which of the following are true about SINAD measurements?Not learned 17. What would be considered a normal sensitivity for 10 db of quieting in a VHF marine receiver?Not learned 18. What is meant by "full quieting" in a FM VHF receiver?Not learned 19. What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from staying tuned to the desired channel?Not learned 20. What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect?Not learned 21. What is indicated if a VHF radio fails to receive nearby stations and a voltmeter connected between the positive side of a radio's DC line and ground reads zero line voltage? The fuse in the VHF radio also reads zero when checked with an ohmmeter.Not learned 22. What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect?Not learned 23. What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from receiving a weak signal?Not learned 24. Which of the following is the best test procedure to isolate the source of distortion in the audio output of a receiver?Not learned 25. What condition may cause a significant loss in VHF receiver sensitivity?Not learned 26. Which of the following test procedures may be used to determine a VHF receiver's minimum discernible signal?Not learned 27. Which of the following procedures may be used in many U.S. ports as a quick field test to determine if a shipboard VHF receiver is operating properly?Not learned 28. What ohmmeter reading may indicate a faulty component in a VHF receiver?Not learned 29. What condition may indicate a VHF receiver fault?Not learned 30. What condition may cause noisy operation of a VHF receiver?Not learned 31. What is the maximum allowable deviation of a marine VHF transmitter?Not learned 32. What is the modulation index?Not learned 33. How is pre-emphasis used in an FM transceiver?Not learned 34. A modulation index set to less than 1 to 1 may result in what?Not learned 35. What is the most common type of emission for shipboard VHF-DSC transceivers?Not learned 36. How many sidebands does a VHF FM transmitter have?Not learned 37. What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio is unable to contact nearby stations and an inline wattmeter indicates power outputs of 1 watt (LOW power) mode and 8.5 watts (HIGH power) mode with +12.8 vdc applied to the radio's DC line?Not learned 38. Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to measure the SWR of a marine VHF antenna system?Not learned 39. A mismatched antenna system can degrade marine VHF radio performance. Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to determine the VHF antenna system SWR?Not learned 40. What may be indicated if a VHF radio operates normally but the transmitter produces nearly zero RF output in the high power mode on all marine channels?Not learned 41. What condition may indicate voltage controlled oscillator failure in the synthesizer of a VHF transmitter?Not learned 42. What condition may exist if a VHF radio is operational in receive mode but unable to transmit?Not learned 43. What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations on any channel, an inline wattmeter indicates 25 watts output (HIGH power mode), and no modulation is heard when the transmitted signal is monitored with an external receiver?Not learned 44. What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations, an inline wattmeter indicates less than 1 watt output (HIGH power mode), and nominal voltage (e.g., 12.8 vdc) is applied to the VHF radio power input line?Not learned 45. A spectrum analyzer (SPECAN) can be a useful test instrument to troubleshoot a marine VHF radio. Which of the following is the best procedure to evaluate the input/output stages of a marine VHF transmitter?Not learned 46. Which in-line RF power reading indicates the proper operation of a VHF marine transmitter?Not learned 47. What condition may cause distortion in the modulator stage of a marine VHF transmitter?Not learned 48. What terms are used to describe a device used to test the RF power output of a marine VHF transmitter without emitting a signal on the air?Not learned 49. What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for VHF-DSC?Not learned 50. What is the correct modulation rate and index of modulation for VHF-DSC?Not learned 51. How might a DSC radio check be accomplished with a coast station?Not learned 52. You attempt to program a new MMSI into a VHF radio with an existing MMSI. The radio will not accept the entry. What is the best course of action to correct this problem?Not learned 53. What is the time diversity reception interval for a VHF-DSC call?Not learned 54. What might a voltmeter indicate when testing a DSC circuit for an outgoing message data stream?Not learned 55. It becomes necessary to construct a temporary VHF marine antenna. What should be the approximate length of the antenna?Not learned 56. Which of the following best describes a VHF collinear array?Not learned 57. A masthead antenna with a base loading coil appears shorted to an ohmmeter check. What might this indicate?Not learned 58. What is the most common type of coax connector used on VHF transceivers?Not learned 59. What type of coaxial cable would be most appropriate for a long transmission line run?Not learned 60. What is a disadvantage when using high gain VHF antennas?Not learned 61. What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J3E voice transmissions?Not learned 62. What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J2B SITOR (NBDP) transmissions?Not learned 63. What is the allowable frequency tolerance for GMDSS MF-HF transmitters?Not learned 64. Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 2182.0 kHz and 4125.0 kHz? The counter has a display resolution of 1 Hz.Not learned 65. Which of the following are assigned frequencies for Digital Selective Calling?Not learned 66. What are the assigned frequencies for VOICE and SITOR (NBDP) follow on communications?Not learned 67. What is the purpose of the "R.I.T." control on a MF/HF transceiver?Not learned 68. What is the function of the "TUNE" button on a MF/HF transceiver?Not learned 69. What is the purpose of the "ENTER" function.Not learned 70. What mode is a MF/HF transceiver operating in when "TLX" displayed?Not learned 71. Reducing the "RF Gain" control on an MF/HF transceiver has what effect?Not learned 72. What is the function of an "AGC" button?Not learned 73. What is the purpose of the BFO?Not learned 74. If the BFO is turned off what kind of emissions can still be received?Not learned 75. If you are listening to another vessel's HF transmission and it sounds garbled what should you do?Not learned 76. What characteristics are desirable in an AGC circuit for SSB voice reception?Not learned 77. What is the primary purpose of both a high and a low I.F. system in a HF receiver?Not learned 78. How does a noise blanker circuit work in a HF receiver?Not learned 79. The voice is garbled and unreadable on MF/HF SSB channels. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 80. All signals sound normal on an MF/HF receiver except one that has a very high pitched voice barely readable. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 81. You are able to hear signals in the voice/SSB mode but not in the SITOR (NBDP) mode. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 82. The phase locked loop circuit in an MF/HF receiver appears to be faulty. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 83. You are able to hear signals in the SITOR (NBDP) mode but not in the voice/SSB mode. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 84. The AGC function of an MF/HF receiver is inoperative. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 85. The MF/HF receiver fails to suppress the AF output in the absence of a sufficiently strong input signal. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 86. The MF/HF receiver fails to produce any AF output. An ohmmeter reading is near zero between speaker leads. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 87. The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 88. The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 89. The MF/HF transceiver fails to produce AF output but the radio is powered on and "TX" is illuminated. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 90. A received signal on a MF/HF transceiver breaks up rapidly and repeatedly. The signal alternates between mid scale and zero on the "Signal" meter. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 91. How is a J3E signal generated?Not learned 92. What would be the most likely power level to use for initial MF-HF communications?Not learned 93. How is the lower sideband eliminated?Not learned 94. What is the most common method of generating a SITOR (NBDP) signal on shipboard GMDSS equipment?Not learned 95. What are the major components of a phase locked loop frequency synthesizer?Not learned 96. What is the purpose of a phase comparator in a frequency synthesizer?Not learned 97. An MF-HF transceiver works properly on voice but not SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem?Not learned 98. Which of the following conditions would indicate the malfunction of a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system?Not learned 99. Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output?Not learned 100. An MF-HF transceiver is functioning correctly in voice mode/SSB but not in SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem?Not learned 101. Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz SSB radiotelephone?Not learned 102. Which would indicate proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 Watt PEP output in J3E mode?Not learned 103. Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B ARQ mode?Not learned 104. Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 250 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode?Not learned 105. Which of the following conditions could cause very low RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode?Not learned 106. which of the following troubleshooting methods is not valid for finding the fault in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode?Not learned 107. Which of the following conditions could cause zero RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode?Not learned 108. Which of the following conditions indicate improper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode?Not learned 109. What precedes the phasing signal in a DSC distress alert call?Not learned 110. What type of code is used for DSC transmissions?Not learned 111. What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for MF-HF-DSC?Not learned 112. What is the time diversity reception interval for a MF-HF-DSC call?Not learned 113. A MF/HF Distress priority DSC call may be formatted to include the following:Not learned 114. What statement is false concerning DSC calls addressed to MMSI 003669999?Not learned 115. Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true?Not learned 116. What statement is true regarding the exchange between two stations engaged in SITOR (NBDP) communications?Not learned 117. Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode:Not learned 118. Which of the following keystrokes or characters follows most commands in ARQ communications when working an automated Coast Station?Not learned 119. Which characters are sent by the ship station to indicate a desire to send a message via a direct connection to a shoreside TELEX subscriber?Not learned 120. What are the characters that are transmitted to terminate a direct TELEX connection in SITOR (NBDP) operations?Not learned 121. If a vessel is within range of NAVTEX broadcasts and both the Inmarsat-C and the NAVTEX receiver are inoperative the GMDSS operator should:Not learned 122. The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences?Not learned 123. Selective FEC communications (SFEC) are employed when:Not learned 124. Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) Mode B (FEC), in the presence of static crashes.Not learned 125. If the vessel is beyond range of NAVTEX broadcasts and the Sat-C system fails, the GMDSS operator must:Not learned 126. If the vessel is experiencing atmospheric interference with NAVTEX broadcasts, especially in the tropics, the GMDSS operator should:Not learned 127. What is the purpose of the antenna tuner?Not learned 128. What is the electrical effect of an inductance in series with the antenna?Not learned 129. What is the electrical effect of a capacitance in series with the antenna?Not learned 130. Which of the following coaxial cables is suitable for use in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems?Not learned 131. A ship's MF-HF whip antenna breaks off and is carried away in a storm. What would you do to regain operation on MF-HF GMDSS frequencies?Not learned 132. Which of the following connectors is often used in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems?Not learned 133. What are the frequencies for Inmarsat-C shipboard satellite operation?Not learned 134. What is an LNA?Not learned 135. What function does the LNA perform?Not learned 136. What is the fade margin factor?Not learned 137. What is signal to noise ratio?Not learned 138. What is the abbreviation for signal to noise?Not learned 139. Which of the following actions should be taken to minimize shock hazard of an Inmarsat terminal?Not learned 140. How do you perform a LOOP BACK test?Not learned 141. What do EGC messages contain?Not learned 142. Which of the following is not recommended for Inmarsat-C antenna installations?Not learned 143. How many NCS's operate in each Inmarsat ocean region per Inmarsat system?Not learned 144. What type of services cannot be provided by the Inmarsat-C system?Not learned 145. The U.S. National Data Center that monitors polling input for each US Flag ship:Not learned 146. LRIT Long Range Information Tracking data:Not learned 147. LRIT Long Range Information Tracking:Not learned 148. When a compulsory equipped IMO ship is not correctly broadcasting LRIT Info what action should be taken?Not learned 149. What must a LRIT terminal do?Not learned 150. What satellite system does not support LRIT?Not learned 151. Which of the following Inmarsat units stores configuration data and contains all user interfaces and LED indicators?Not learned 152. Which of the following is not a function of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset?Not learned 153. Which of the following best describes Inmarsat BGAN Streaming Data service?Not learned 154. Which of the following is the best procedure to test the Inmarsat Distress Alarm?Not learned 155. Which of the following is the correct Fax/Data configuration of a Fleet Broadband terminal?Not learned 156. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset?Not learned 157. What protocol can be used in connecting a PC to the LAN interface of an Inmarsat terminal?Not learned 158. When is a PIN Unlock Key (PUK) used with an Inmarsat terminal?Not learned 159. Which of the following is NOT a function of the LAN port on a Fleet Broadband terminal?Not learned 160. What is the configuration for Thrane & Thrane F250 & F500 facsimile operation?Not learned 161. What is the configuration Thrane & Thrane F500 for standard voice telephone operation?Not learned 162. Which of the following best describes a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM)?Not learned 163. What is the usual arrangement of GPS satellites?Not learned 164. What is the purpose of the Differential GPS system and how does it work?Not learned 165. How is the GPS usually interconnected with other bridge equipment?Not learned 166. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 167. Which of the following best describes the GPS satellite signals transmitted?Not learned 168. What is the minimum number of satellites that must be received to provide the highest accuracy?Not learned 169. Which of the following best describes the polarization of a satellite signal?Not learned 170. Which of the following is characteristic of the parabolic dish antenna?Not learned 171. Which of the following best describes a phased array antenna system?Not learned 172. Which of the following is characteristic of an Inmarsat-C antenna?Not learned 173. What is a best practice for installing Inmarsat satellite antennas aboard ship?Not learned 174. What components does an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband RADOME typically include?Not learned 175. Which of the following conditions would prevent communications between an Inmarsat-C data port and external data terminal equipment (DTE)?Not learned 176. How can a LES/RCC (Rescue Coordination Centre) determine if an Inmarsat-C Distress Alert is a TEST transmission?Not learned 177. What is the meaning of the "ACB" Inmarsat-C Non-Delivery Notification (NDN) failure code?Not learned 178. What condition can indicate a communication failure between the second receiver (RX2) and the Antenna Control Unit (ACU) in an Inmarsat Fleet 77 terminal?Not learned 179. Which of the following devices can cause interference to Fleet 77/55 systems?Not learned 180. What error message may be displayed if a connection to the Inmarsat Mobile Packet Data Service (MPDS) network fails?Not learned 181. An Inmarsat-C terminal shows a "No Receive Signal" alarm. There is no voltage on the antenna center pin. What is the most likely cause?Not learned 182. An Inmarsat-C terminal will not "LOG IN". A test antenna cable with a new ADE attached in view of the satellite allows the terminal to "LOG IN". What steps would you take?Not learned 183. An Inmarsat-C terminal will not "LOG IN" and shows an "Antenna not connected" alarm. What action would you take?Not learned 184. The antenna goes past the AZ EL of the satellite but does not initialize but you can manually point the antenna at the satellite and acquire signal. What is the most likely problem?Not learned 185. The antenna creeps up and down after initialization. What action would you take?Not learned 186. The antenna tries to initialize then points straight up and stops. What is the most likely problem?Not learned 187. What action should be taken if an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband antenna continuously changes azimuth after initialization?Not learned 188. What condition would cause failure of an Inmarsat-C terminal to power up when AC voltage is present at the input terminals of the power supply?Not learned 189. What condition would cause an IP connection failure between a technician's laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal?Not learned 190. What condition would cause a connection failure between a technician's laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal?Not learned 191. Interference induced from nearby HF transmitters may cause Inmarsat system failures. What is the most appropriate action to resolve this problem?Not learned 192. What condition will lower the observed bit rate on a Fleet Broadband terminal?Not learned 193. Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs?Not learned 194. What is the purpose of the magnet in the EPIRB mounting bracket?Not learned 195. How often must the EPIRB battery be replaced?Not learned 196. What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB?Not learned 197. How often must the automatic release mechanism be replaced.Not learned 198. Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs?Not learned 199. How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display?Not learned 200. In what frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate?Not learned 201. What causes the SART to begin a transmission?Not learned 202. At what interval must the SART's battery be replaced?Not learned 203. What are the characteristics of the SART transmitted signal?Not learned 204. What is the approximate distance between dots on a radar display at a distance of 5 miles?Not learned 205. How often must the Survival Craft Transceiver battery be changed?Not learned 206. What is the minimum receiver sensitivity required for a Survival Craft Transceiver?Not learned 207. What is the minimum required effective radiated power?Not learned 208. Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability?Not learned 209. Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment?Not learned 210. Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristics?Not learned 211. Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally?Not learned 212. The NAVTEX is powering on and appears to be functioning normally except there have been no new messages for an extended period. The station settings are correct. What is the most likely source of the problem?Not learned 213. How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages?Not learned 214. How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented?Not learned 215. How is accuracy insured in NAVTEX broadcasts?Not learned 216. NAVTEX broadcasts are sent:Not learned 217. What is the normal voltage of a single NICAD battery cell?Not learned 218. What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of lead acid batteries?Not learned 219. What will cause an individual battery cell to reverse polarity?Not learned 220. What is the normal specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid battery cell? What device is used to measuring the electrolyte of a lead acid battery?Not learned 221. What is a gel cell battery and how is it maintained & cared for?Not learned 222. What is the normal voltage of a single lead acid battery cell?Not learned 223. How often should high charging be use with a standard lead acid battery and a fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger?Not learned 224. What are the different modes of charging for a GMDSS compliant battery charger/supply?Not learned 225. What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system?Not learned 226. What is the meaning of "Reserve Source of Energy"?Not learned 227. With a fully automatic GMDSS compliant battery charger / power supply, when must the high charging process be interrupted?Not learned 228. A fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger/ Power supply's high (Full) charging mode must be disabled during setup for what type batteries?Not learned 229. Which of the following best describes a standard full wave rectifier power supply?Not learned 230. Which of the following statements concerning power supply filters is true?Not learned 231. What are the main advantages of using switcher type power supply?Not learned 232. What are the disadvantages of using a switcher type power supply?Not learned 233. Power supplies with inductive input filters have the following characteristics:Not learned 234. Power supplies with capacitive input filters have the following characteristics:Not learned 235. What is the function of a crowbar circuit?Not learned 236. Which of the following is not one of the main advantages of a switching power supply?Not learned 237. What is the configuration for a mains operated switching power supply with output regulation?Not learned 238. Which of the following statements about switching power supplies is the most accurate?Not learned 239. What are the input/output voltages of a "BUCK" switching power supply with a 50% duty cycle?Not learned 240. Which of the following statements about a switching mode power supply input current is correct?Not learned 241. The printer will not print a document. Which of the following is NOT a likely reason?Not learned 242. There is no display on the monitor. What are the most likely causes?Not learned 243. What are the four main functions of the "BIOS" in most computers?Not learned 244. Power is on but the computer will not boot into the operating system. What steps should you take?Not learned 245. How do you determine the type of disc drives in an XP system?Not learned 246. What are important considerations when replacing a CD-ROM drive?Not learned 247. Nodes in an Ethernet network are interconnected using a cable making a "Home Run"back to the central:Not learned 248. What is the maximum length of a USB 2.0 cable between two hubs or between a hub and peripheral?Not learned 249. 10Base-T and 100Base-TX systems generally uses the following type of cable:Not learned 250. What initial steps should be taken when installing a router?Not learned 251. What are the most commonly used IP addresses for routers?Not learned 252. In an Ethernet network, the available bandwidth is shared between all nodes within the same:Not learned 253. A typical PC program that is used widely for logging and troubleshooting NMEA 0183 data is:Not learned 254. what is the maximum signal voltage range that an NMEA-0183 unit must be capable of handling without damage?Not learned 255. The current and most recent version of NMEA 0183 uses what standard for data communications?Not learned 256. What type of data communication is used for NMEA 0183.Not learned 257. Which of the following statements about an NMEA -0183 system is correct?Not learned 258. An important difference between NMEA 0183 and NMEA 2000 is:Not learned 259. The Voltage of the NMEA 2000 backbone power supply pair must be maintained to within the following range.Not learned 260. NMEA 2000 Certified Device identify their current requirements in terms of LENs (load Equivalent Number). 1 LEN is equal to:Not learned 261. Which of the following are NOT components of a NMEA 2000 network?Not learned 262. The NMEA 2000 backbone operating speed is:Not learned 263. When viewing NMEA 2000 data you must use the following.Not learned 264. What is the maximum length for a drop cable to a single NMEA 2000 device?Not learned 265. What is a common range of frequencies used for depth finding equipment?Not learned 266. What is a common range of pulse widths used for depth finding equipment?Not learned 267. What is the purpose of the "carbon pile" on an older gyro compass?Not learned 268. What are the principles of operation of a fiber-optic gyro compass?Not learned 269. How does the Ship Security Alert System operate?Not learned 270. AIS units use the following:Not learned 271. What procedure must be followed before using C-Map charts for an Electronic Chart System?Not learned 272. Which of the following lists of data inputs for an Electronic Chart System is incorrect?Not learned 273. Which of the following is a necessary component of an auto pilot?Not learned 274. What inputs are normally required for an Auto Pilot?Not learned 275. Which of the following is not an accurate list of functions/data recorded by the Vessel Data Recorder?Not learned 276. Which of the following statements about Vessel Data Recorders is NOT true?Not learned 277. What is the best method for grounding an Inmarsat-C terminal?Not learned 278. What is the most important consideration for installing a Full-Duplex VHF radiotelephone.Not learned 279. What is the most important factor when locating depth finder transducers?Not learned 280. Bridge equipment separation recommendations generally refer to what instrument?Not learned 281. When installing an Inmarsat-C antenna what should be the minimum distance to other Inmarsat antennas?Not learned 282. What action must be taken after an Inmarsat-C system is fully installed?Not learned 283. What are the operator's license requirements for conducting a GMDSS ship station annual inspection?Not learned 284. What log entries are required after passing the annual inspection?Not learned 285. What battery tests are made during the annual inspection?Not learned 286. What is the easiest way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal for proper operation?Not learned 287. After the station has successfully passed the survey what document is issued to the vessel?Not learned 288. Which of the following is NOT a required VHF test during an annual inspection?Not learned 289. A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 6 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 5 volt DC source?Not learned 290. A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 60 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 24 volt DC source?Not learned 291. What is the most important specification for an R. F. Signal Generator used at VHF frequencies?Not learned 292. A good lab type signal generator for VHF measurements should be able to reduce its output to:Not learned 293. The characteristics of a 10:1 attenuation probe for an oscilloscope is as follows:Not learned 294. In dual-trace oscilloscopes the purpose of the "Mode" control is to:Not learned 295. What type of signals are usually provided by a simple Function Generator?Not learned 296. a SINAD meter consists of a multi-range audio frequency voltmeter:Not learned 297. Which of the following statements about a logic probe is false?Not learned 298. An analog RF wattmeter provides the most accurate reading:Not learned 299. What is the purpose of a deviation meter?Not learned 300. What would be the most likely reason to observe the transmitter output with a spectrum analyzer?Not learned