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Marine Engineering Workbook (Steam-Motor-Gas Turbine Plants (Unlimited))
MEWB — Motor Plants
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Progress:
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%
(
23
/94)
Learning progress
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1. Which of the following conditions would NOT be considered a valid reason for the diesel engine to operate in the area indicated by letter "B" shown in the illustration
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2. The diagram shown in the illustration may be used to determine the proper operation of the engine. Which of the following statements represents an accurate interpretation of the diagram
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3. Which of the following conditions will cause the engine to operate in area "A" of the diagram shown in the illustration
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4. Which of the following conditions will cause the engine to operate in area "A" of the diagram shown in the illustration
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5. Which of the following conditions will cause the engine to operate in area "A" of the diagram shown in the illustration
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6. Which of the following conditions will cause the engine to operate in area "A" of the diagram shown in the illustration
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7. Line "P" in the illustration is the __________
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8. Line "P" in the illustration is the __________
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9. According to the illustration, which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of a large slow speed diesel engine
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10. The difference in crank lead between the upper and lower cranks of an opposed piston engine causes the lower crankshaft to __________.
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11. In an opposed piston engine, the term 'crank lead' refers to __________.
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12. A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is __________.
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13. A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is __________.
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14. The bore of a diesel engine cylinder describes the __________.
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15. The cubic inch (or liter) displacement of a cylinder is determined by the diameter of the piston and the __________.
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16. Engine displacement is equal to the cylinder __________.
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17. Engine displacement is equal to the cylinder __________.
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18. Piston area, multiplied by piston stroke, multiplied by number of cylinders, equals engine __________.
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19. The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers to the ratio between the __________.
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20. If the compression ratio is increased on any diesel engine, __________.
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21. Increasing the compression ratio of a diesel engine while maintaining the designed rate of fuel flow will result in __________.
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22. Increasing the compression ratio of a diesel engine while maintaining the designed rate of fuel flow will result in __________.
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23. Increasing the compression ratio of a diesel engine while maintaining the designed rate of fuel flow will result in __________.
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24. The theoretical minimum compression ratio necessary to ensure compression ignition in a direct injection diesel engine is __________.
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25. The theoretical minimum compression ratio necessary to ensure compression ignition in a direct injection diesel engine is __________.
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26. The theoretical minimum compression ratio necessary to ensure compression ignition in a direct injection diesel engine is __________.
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27. Opposed-piston diesel engines are classified as __________.
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28. Which of the following relationships exist between the temperature developed in the combustion space, and the compression ratio of the engine?
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29. Which of the following reasons represents why the designed compression ratio of a gasoline engine is lower than that of a diesel engine?
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30. Which of the following reasons represents why the designed compression ratio of a gasoline engine is lower than that of a diesel engine?
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31. The ratio of the brake horsepower to the indicated horsepower of a diesel engine is its __________.
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32. The most important factor in engine performance is the actual power output at the end of the crankshaft available for doing work. This is known as __________.
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33. Maximum rated horsepower of a diesel engine is attained __________.
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34. Maximum rated horsepower of a diesel engine is attained __________.
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35. A diesel engine which is rated for normal operation at a crankshaft speed of 800 RPM, is commonly classed as a __________.
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36. The average pressure exerted on a piston during each power stroke is termed __________.
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37. Before shutting off the fuel supply to stop and secure a diesel engine, why is it necessary to allow the engine to idle for a few minutes?
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38. In a diesel engine, after ignition of the fuel occurs, but before the piston reaches TDC, there is little change in the cylinder __________.
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39. A diesel engine operating at a light load, when compared to operating at heavy load has an air/fuel ratio that is __________.
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40. A diesel engine operating at a light load, when compared to operating at heavy load has an air/fuel ratio that is __________.
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41. Theoretical perfect combustion in a diesel engine yields by-products of __________.
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42. The purpose of compressing the air within the cylinder of a diesel engine is to __________.
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43. Heat for igniting the fuel oil in the cylinder of a diesel engine is generated by the __________.
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44. What causes diesel fuel to be ignited in the cylinder of an operating diesel engine?
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45. In the cylinder of a diesel engine, fuel is ignited by the __________.
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46. Fuel is ignited in a diesel engine cylinder by __________.
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47. Why is it necessary to compress the air charge in the cylinders of a diesel engine?
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48. The air supplied to a diesel engine is compressed to __________. I. provide heat for the ignition of the fuel II. decrease injection delay
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49. How is the pressure and temperature affected in a diesel engine cylinder during compression?
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50. The main operating characteristic of diesel engines which distinguishes them from other internal combustion engines is the __________.
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51. The efficient burning of fuel in a diesel engine is dependent upon the __________.
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52. Which of the events listed does NOT occur during the instant the piston just reaches top dead center?
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53. In a diesel engine, internal combustion causes the piston to be moved by __________.
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54. As engine RPM is increased from idle speed to full load speed, which of the conditions listed will decrease?
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55. Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel injection operate on a combustion cycle which is __________.
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56. Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel injection operate on a combustion cycle which is __________.
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57. Which characteristic of the theoretical Otto cycle does not occur in the theoretical Diesel cycle.
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58. In describing engine operation, what does the term 'cycle' mean?
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59. In describing basic diesel engine operation, the term 'event' refers to __________.
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60. What determines the number of events occurring in a cycle of operation in an internal combustion engine?
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61. In comparing engines of equal horsepower, higher exhaust gas temperatures occur in a/an __________.
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62. A disadvantage of a four-stroke/cycle over a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is __________.
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63. The thermal energy produced by an internal combustion engine is transformed into ________.
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64. Diesel engines are classified as reciprocating internal combustion engines because they __________.
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65. Which of the factors listed has the greatest effect on the mechanical efficiency of a diesel engine?
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66. The diesel engine shown in the illustration is a __________
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67. The diesel engine shown in the illustration is a __________
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68. Successful combustion inside the cylinders of a diesel engine is dependent upon __________.
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69. Brake specific fuel consumption is given in units of __________.
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70. The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure required for efficient injection depends primarily on the __________.
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71. Persistent knocking of one cylinder of a diesel engine ceases when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. This problem may be a result of __________.
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72. Poor combustion in a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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73. A naturally aspirated diesel engine at full throttle will have an intake manifold pressure __________.
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74. A diesel engine should not be operated at low loads for long periods of time because __________.
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75. What harmful condition can result if a diesel engine is operated at very light loads for long periods of time?
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76. Routine monitoring of a diesel engine should include __________.
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77. The average exhaust temperature of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a turbine-driven supercharger is lower than a similar four-stroke/cycle diesel engine at equal loads because __________.
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78. Which of the air intake systems listed will result in the lowest specific fuel consumption?
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79. Which of the following conditions is realized by the turbo charging of a previously naturally aspirated diesel engine?
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80. The power developed by a large slow-speed main propulsion diesel engine is dependent upon the __________.
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81. The power developed by a large slow-speed main propulsion diesel engine is dependent upon the __________.
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82. Line "P" in the illustration is the __________
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83. On a diesel-propelled vessel operating with constant slip what is the effect on fuel consumption with an increase in shaft RPM?
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84. Which of the listed design features is most common with a two-stroke cycle, low-speed main propulsion diesel engine?
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85. The power/expansion stroke shown in the illustration is indicated by the diagram numbers __________
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86. The illustration shown describes a _______
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87. In a two-stroke/cycle, opposed piston, diesel engine, one crankshaft operates several crank angles in advance of the other crankshaft to __________.
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88. Directional intake ports in diesel engines are used to __________.
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89. The two strokes of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are __________.
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90. Which of the two events listed occurs simultaneously in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine?
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91. How many power strokes per crankshaft revolution are there in an eight cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine?
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92. In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression, power and exhaust) are performed once in __________.
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93. In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression, power and exhaust) are performed once in __________.
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94. In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel generator engine, the power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs __________.
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95. In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel generator engine, the power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs __________.
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96. If all other conditions such as bore, stroke, speed, and mean effective pressures are equal, a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will develop approximately __________.
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97. Compared to four-stroke/cycle engines, two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have the disadvantage of __________.
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98. For a given size engine, the two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will deliver more power than a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine because __________.
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99. A disadvantage of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is __________.
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100. In the cylinder head of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, valves are used for __________.
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101. Exhaust valve openings in a two-cycle diesel engine cylinder head are made as large as practical to __________.
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102. Exhaust gases in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are discharged through __________.
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103. Air scavenging of the cylinder shown in the illustration begins between figures __________
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104. Exhaust gases are generally removed from the cylinders of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine by __________.
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105. Exhaust gases are generally removed from the cylinders of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine by __________.
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106. Which of the listed design features is most common with a two-stroke cycle, low-speed main propulsion diesel engine?
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107. Which of the listed design features is most common with a two-stroke cycle, low-speed main propulsion diesel engine?
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108. The illustration shown describes a _______
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109. In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, after the completion of the power stroke, the piston will move __________.
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110. During which of the listed piston strokes of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, is the piston moving downward?
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111. The engine shown in the illustration is a __________
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112. In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel generator engine, the power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs __________.
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113. A piston in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine makes four strokes during each __________.
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114. The engine shown in the illustration is currently on what stroke of its mechanical cycle
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115. In the operating cycle of a four-stroke cycle diesel engine, blow down to exhaust manifold pressure must occur before the piston begins the exhaust stroke to minimize __________.
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116. The exhaust valve opens before bottom dead center in a four stroke engine to___________. allow for blow down reduce pumping losses
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117. In a diesel engine, exhaust valves open before the intake ports are uncovered to __________. reduce pumping losses reduce back pressure
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118. Which segment of the two-stroke cycle engine diagram shown represents the power stroke
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119. What is the crank angle between cylinder firing of a four-stroke/cycle, in line, eight cylinder diesel engine?
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120. In a two-stroke/cycle, opposed piston, diesel engine, one crankshaft operates several crank angles in advance of the other crankshaft to __________.
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121. From the engine data shown in the illustration, what would be the average piston speed if the engine were turning 400 RPM
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122. When is fuel injected into a cylinder of diesel engines?
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123. In a four-stroke/cycle medium-speed diesel engine, fuel injection commences at 10 crankshaft degrees before top dead center. After fuel injection commences, approximately how many degrees will the camshaft rotate before the exhaust valve begins to open?
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124. The #3 piston shown in the illustration is on the __________
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125. Concerning the diesel engine shown in the illustration, which of the following represents the number of crank angle degrees of rotation existing between each firing
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126. Using the information given in the illustrated table, which of the cylinders listed will fire next
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127. The angular distance a flywheel rotates between the firing of the cylinders of a V-16, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is __________.
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128. How many crank angle degrees of rotation exist between each firing of the cylinders indicated by the illustrated chart
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129. From the engine data given, after cylinder #1L fires, how many degrees of crankshaft rotation must take place before #4L cylinder fires
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130. A four-stroke/cycle six cylinder in-line diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-3-6-2-4. When cylinder #6 is firing at top dead center, piston #4 is __________.
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131. A four-stroke six cylinder in-line diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-3-6-2-4. When cylinder #2 is firing at top dead center, piston #1 is __________.
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132. A four-stroke six cylinder in-line diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-3-6-2-4. When cylinder #2 is firing at top dead center, piston #1 is __________.
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133. A 4-stroke, medium-speed, eight cylinder, in-line diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-2-6-8-4-7-3. When performing routine valve maintenance, #1 cylinder is set at TDC in firing position. Which exhaust valves can be checked for proper valve lash?
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134. A four-cycle, medium speed, eight cylinder, in-line diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-2-6-8-4-7-3. When checking exhaust valve lash with the crankshaft set with #8 piston at TDC in the firing position, which cylinder exhaust valves can be checked for proper valve lash?
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135. A four-stroke eight cylinder in-line medium speed diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-2-6-8-4-7-3. If #2 piston is at TDC and in the firing position, #4 piston is on ______.
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136. A four-stroke eight cylinder in-line medium speed diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-2-6-8-4-7-3. If #2 piston is at TDC and in the firing position, #4 piston is on ______.
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137. A four-stroke eight cylinder in-line medium speed diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-2-6-8-4-7-3. If #2 piston is at TDC and in the firing position, #4 piston is on ______.
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138. A four-stroke eight cylinder in-line medium speed diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-2-6-8-4-7-3. If #2 piston is at TDC and in the firing position, #4 piston is on ______.
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139. A four-stroke eight cylinder in-line medium-speed diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-2-6-8-4-7-3. If No.4 piston is at TDC and firing, how many degrees of crankshaft rotation will occur when No.5 piston reaches TDC and fires?
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140. A four-stroke eight cylinder in-line medium-speed diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-2-6-8-4-7-3. If No.4 piston is at TDC and firing, how many degrees of crankshaft rotation will occur when No.5 piston reaches TDC and fires?
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141. A four-stroke eight cylinder in-line medium-speed diesel engine has a firing order of 1-5-2-6-8-4-7-3. If No.4 piston is at TDC and firing, how many degrees of crankshaft rotation will occur when No.5 piston reaches TDC and fires?
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142. Which segment of the two-stroke cycle engine diagram shown in the illustration represents 'supercharging'
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143. Which segment of the two-stroke cycle engine diagram shown in the illustration represents 'supercharging'
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144. Which segment of the two-stroke cycle engine diagram shown represents the power stroke
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145. The duration of the power event shown in the four cycle engine polar timing diagram is represented by how many crankshaft degrees of revolution
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146. In the illustrated polar timing diagram for a four-stroke cycle diesel engine, relative to crank degrees of travel with respect TDC or BDC as appropriate, when does the intake valve open
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147. In the illustrated polar timing diagram for a four-stroke diesel engine, relative to the number of crank degrees before or after TDC or BDC as appropriate, when does the intake valve close
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148. According to the illustrated polar timing diagram for a four- stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve is open for a duration of how many degrees of crank travel
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149. According to the illustrated polar timing diagram for a four- stroke cycle high speed diesel engine, the period of valve overlap occurs for a duration of how many degrees of crank travel
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150. The start of fuel oil injection into the cylinder of a four-stroke cycle diesel engine occurs during the __________.
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151. The polar timing diagram shown in the illustration is of a four stroke cycle, high speed diesel engine, with fuel injection timing commencing at 10° BTDC. Approximately how many degrees will the crankshaft rotate from the point at which fuel injection begins to the point where the exhaust valves begin to open
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152. Which one of the engine firing orders listed would be suitable for the diesel engine cam shown in the illustration
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153. The #3 piston shown in the illustration is on the __________
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154. The firing order of an in-line, four-stroke/cycle, six cylinder, auxiliary diesel engine is 1-5-3-6-2-4. When the #1 cylinder is firing at top dead center, the #3 piston is __________.
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155. In the diesel engine illustrated, what part is under compression when firing is taking place in a particular cylinder
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156. In the pressure-volume diagram shown in the illustration, curve 'A-d' indicates __________
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157. Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel injection operate on a combustion cycle which is __________.
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158. In the pressure-volume diagram, shown in the illustration, the volume line is divided into 16 units indicating __________
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159. In the pressure-volume diagram, shown in the illustration, the volume line is divided into 16 units indicating __________
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160. In the pressure-volume diagram, shown in the illustration, what is indicated to have occurred by the line connecting points 'd' and 'e'
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161. In the pressure-volume diagram, shown in the illustration, what occurs between points "e" and "f"
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162. In the pressure-volume diagram, shown in the illustration, what occurs between points "e" and "f"
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163. If point #1 in the diagram shown is the beginning of gas compression, which of the cycles listed is being illustrated
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164. The pressure-volume diagrams illustrated are of four internal combustion engine cycles. Which one represents the theoretical diesel cycle
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165. The highest pressure in a diesel engine cylinder normally occurs __________.
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166. On the indicator card shown in the illustration, what do lines "A" and "B" indicate
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167. In the pressure-volume diagram shown in the illustration, the atmospheric pressure line is indicated by line __________
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168. The indicator card shown in the illustration is produced with a/an __________
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169. An indicator card or pressure-volume diagram shows graphically the __________.
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170. In the pressure-volume diagram shown in the illustration, fuel injection occurs at point __________
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171. Which of the indicator diagrams illustrated indicates the condition that should be corrected by retarding the timing, and the fitting of thicker shims to the connecting rod
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172. Which area of the indicator diagram illustrated indicates the ignition delay period in a diesel engine cylinder
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173. Which area of the indicator diagram illustrated indicates the ignition delay period in a diesel engine cylinder
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174. On the cylinder indicator diagram illustrated, the dotted line indicated as "L" is describing the _________
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175. On the cylinder indicator diagram illustrated, the maximum rise in pressure occurs during the period labeled as ______
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176. The illustration shown describes the _______
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177. A diesel engine indicator diagram measures 12.5 cm in length and has an area of 22 cm². What is the cylinder mean effective pressure if the spring used has a scale of 1.25 mm equals 1 kg/cm²?
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178. Using a diesel engine indicator P-V diagram, the cylinder mean effective pressure is calculated to be 21.3 kg/cm². What is the scale of the spring used on the indicator if the diagram area is 18.46 cm² with a length of 13 cm?
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179. Using a diesel engine indicator P-V diagram, the cylinder mean effective pressure is calculated to be 21.3 kg/cm². What is the scale of the spring used on the indicator if the diagram area is 18.46 cm² with a length of 13 cm?
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180. Which of the indicator diagrams illustrated depicts the condition that should be corrected by retarding only the timing
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181. Which of the indicator diagrams illustrated depicts the condition that should be corrected by retarding only the timing
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182. Which of the indicator diagrams illustrated depicts the condition that should be corrected by the fitting of fewer or thinner shims to the connecting rod
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183. When a diesel engine compression pressure is checked, the indicator is connected to the __________.
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184. The component labeled "H" shown in the illustration is called the __________
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185. Which letter represents the entrance point for combustion air to the cylinders of the engine shown in the illustration
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186. The water inlet manifold for the diesel engine shown in the illustration is represented by the letter or number __________
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187. Fork and blade type diesel engine connecting rods are shown in the illustration. Which letter combinations represent these components
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188. The instrument shown in the illustration would be used on a diesel engine to __________
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189. The instrument shown in the illustration would be used on a diesel engine to __________
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190. Which of the following will have the greatest effect on the mean effective pressure in a cylinder of a diesel engine operating at normal load?
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191. For equal amounts of fuel injected, what change in condition will have the greatest effect on the mean effective pressure in the cylinder of a diesel engine?
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192. The purpose of the device illustrated is to __________
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193. On a main propulsion diesel engine, the instrument shown in the illustration would normally be attached to the __________
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194. The diesel engine shown in the illustration, which of the lettered parts listed is cooled by sea water
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195. The most rapid period of fuel combustion and cylinder pressure increase in a diesel engine should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and should be completed __________.
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196. Between the periods of injection and ignition of the fuel, a diesel engine crankshaft rotates through the __________.
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197. If the interval of time associated with the ignition delay period occurring in the cylinder of a diesel engine is lengthened, what will be the result?
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198. Which of the following statements concerning the factors affecting ignition delay is correct?
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199. For a given fuel, a change in the compression ratio will affect the ignition lag by which of the listed means?
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200. The rate of pressure rise during the period following initial fuel ignition in a diesel engine, is influenced chiefly by the __________.
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201. The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition in a diesel engine is influenced by the length of the ignition delay period. What else will influence the pressure rise?
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202. The rate of pressure rise in a diesel engine cylinder following fuel injection and ignition, is mainly influenced by the _______.
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203. In the theoretical diesel cycle, shown in the illustration, which of the listed conditions normally takes place between points "3" and "4"
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204. The pressure in an operating diesel engine cylinder continues to rise for a short period after the piston passes top dead center as a result of the __________.
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205. What occurs in the combustion space of a diesel engine cylinder shortly after ignition and before the piston reaches TDC?
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206. The most rapid period of fuel combustion occurring in a diesel cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and __________.
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207. The pressure in an operating diesel engine cylinder continues to rise for a short period after the piston passes top dead center as a result of the __________.
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208. The pressure in an operating diesel engine cylinder continues to rise for a short period after the piston passes top dead center as a result of the __________.
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209. Most practical high speed diesel engines today operate on a cycle which is a combination of the Diesel and Otto cycles. In this process, compression ignition __________.
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210. In the Otto cycle, the fuel/air mixture is ignited at what point and by what means?
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211. A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too early because the __________.
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212. If fuel injection in a diesel engine begins earlier than the design start of injection, ignition may be delayed because the __________.
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213. When a generator diesel engine is operated at partial load, as compared to full load, a decrease will occur in the average __________.
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214. In the large, slow-speed, loop-scavenged main propulsion diesel engine shown in the illustration, the upward motion of the piston draws in scavenging air into the piston undersides through __________
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215. The indicator card shown in the illustration is produced with a/an __________
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216. On the indicator card shown in the illustration, what do lines "A" and "B" indicate
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217. On the cylinder indicator diagram illustrated, the dotted line indicated as "L" is describing the _________
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218. Which area of the indicator diagram illustrated indicates the ignition delay period in a diesel engine cylinder
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219. Which area of the indicator diagram illustrated indicates the ignition delay period in a diesel engine cylinder
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220. An eight cylinder, four-stroke cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 650 mm bore and a 1400 mm stroke. What will be the developed indicated metric horsepower if the average mean effective pressure is 30 kg/cm2 at a speed of 100 RPM?
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221. A four cylinder, four stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 740 mm bore and a 1500 mm stroke. What indicated power will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 18 kg/cm² at a speed of 90 RPM?
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222. A seven cylinder, 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 750 mm bore and a 2000 mm stroke. What indicated power will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 14.8 kg/cm² at a speed of 96 RPM?
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223. A six cylinder 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 580 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke. What indicated power per cylinder will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 15.3 kg/cm² at a speed of 120 RPM?
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224. An eight cylinder, four-stroke cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 650 mm bore and a 1400 mm stroke. What will be the developed indicated metric horsepower if the average mean effective pressure is 30 kg/cm2 at a speed of 100 RPM?
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225. A six cylinder, two stroke/cycle diesel engine is 83% efficient and has a cylinder constant of 0.998 while operating with a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm² at a speed of 100 RPM. What is the metric brake horse power developed?
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226. What is the metric brake horse power developed per cylinder by an 83% efficient, six cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a cylinder constant of 0.998 and a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm² at 100 RPM?
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227. A seven cylinder, two-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine with a cylinder indicated horsepower calculated as 1350 kW and brake horsepower measured at 7466 kW has a mechanical efficiency of __________.
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228. A diesel engine indicator diagram has an area of 22 cm² and a length of 12.5 cm. If the scale of the indicator spring is 1 mm = 1 kg/cm², what is the cylinder mean effective pressure?
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229. What is the average piston speed of a five cylinder low- speed engine with a bore of 29.5 inches (75 cm), a stroke of 63 inches (160 cm), and a rated speed of 123 RPM?
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230. What is the swept volume per cylinder per revolution of a six-cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a 580 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke operating at 100 RPM?
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231. What is the average piston speed of a seven-cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a 580 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke operating at 100 RPM?
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232. A turbocharged, eight cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a swept volume of 5160.31 cubic inches, a 9 1/16 inch bore, 10 inch stroke, and a compression ratio of 14.5 : 1. If during an overhaul, each cylinder head is to be trued by milling off .024 inches thereby losing 1.55 cubic inches from its clearance volume, what will be the resultant swept volume and new compression ratio?
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233. A diesel engine cylinder has a swept volume of 135 cubic inches and a clearance volume of 10 cubic inches at top dead center. What is the compression ratio of the engine cylinder?
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234. A diesel engine cylinder has a swept volume of 135 cubic inches and a clearance volume of 10 cubic inches at top dead center. What is the compression ratio of the engine cylinder?
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235. A diesel engine cylinder has a swept volume of 104 cubic inches and a clearance volume of 8 cubic inches at top dead center. What is the compression ratio of the engine cylinder?
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236. A diesel engine cylinder has a swept volume of 135 cubic inches and a clearance volume of 10 cubic inches at top dead center. What is the compression ratio of the engine cylinder?
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237. A diesel engine cylinder has a swept volume of 125 cubic inches and a compression ratio of 13.5 to 1. What is the clearance volume in the cylinder at top dead center?
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238. During the compression stroke in a four-stroke/cycle, internal combustion engine, assume that the piston can only travel seven-eighths of the total distance between BDC to the underside of the cylinder head. Which of the following ratios will be the compression ratio for this engine?
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239. During the compression stroke in a four-stroke/cycle, internal combustion engine, assume that the piston can only travel seven-eighths of the total distance between BDC to the underside of the cylinder head. Which of the following ratios will be the compression ratio for this engine?
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240. If the piston stroke in a four-stroke cycle diesel engine is 10 1/2 inches and the speed of rotation of the crankshaft is 720 RPM, what is the average piston speed?
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241. From the engine data given in the illustration, what is the swept volume of any one engine cylinder
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242. What is the average piston speed of a 4 cycle diesel engine with a 12 inch stroke, operating at 900 RPM?
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243. A six cylinder, single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a bore of 10 1/2 inches, and a stroke of one foot, producing 75 HP per cylinder at 720 RPM. What is the mean effective pressure in the engine cylinders for the stated conditions?
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244. Which of the following notations does the "N" represent in the formula shown below? IHP= PLAN/(33000)
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245. The formula 'plan/33,000' is equal to the __________.
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246. The formula 'plan/33,000' is equal to the __________.
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247. One method of constructing large marine diesel engines and reducing the total engine frame weight is through __________.
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248. In a large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the parts listed is under tension when the engine is running?
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249. In the large, slow-speed diesel engine frame shown in the illustration, firing forces are absorbed by the ___________, See illustration MO-0002.
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250. The main function of tie rods in the construction of large, low speed diesel engines is to __________.
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251. The dashed lines shown in the illustration, labeled "Y", represents the __________
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252. A diesel engine crankcase ventilation system __________.
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253. What function is provided by the crankcase ventilation system on some diesel engines?
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254. The crankcases of many diesel engines are kept under a slight vacuum to __________.
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255. The crankcase of many diesel engines are kept under a slight vacuum by the __________.
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256. The blower type crankcase ventilation system __________.
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257. What is the function of a diesel engine's stationary parts?
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258. In a modern internal combustion diesel engine, the load carrying part of the engine is referred to as the __________.
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259. In a modern internal combustion diesel engine, the load carrying part of the engine is referred to as the __________.
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260. In some modern large slow speed diesel engines, which of the following is used as the support for the main bearings?
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261. A safety crankcase cover differs from other diesel engine access doors in that it is fitted with a __________.
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262. In the diesel engine shown in the illustration, what part is under compression when the cylinder is firing
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263. In a diesel engine, blow-by is a result of combustion gases leaking into the crankcase past the __________.
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264. In a diesel engine, blow-by __________.
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265. According to the diagram shown in the illustration, the lube oil system can best be described as a __________
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266. Passages are drilled in the crankshafts of diesel engines to provide lubricating oil to the __________.
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267. Lubricating oil is supplied to the crankpin bearings in a marine diesel engine by __________.
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268. If water is found in the crankcase of a diesel engine, the cause may be due to __________.
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269. Provision is to be made for ventilation of an enclosed diesel engine crankcase by means of a small __________.
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270. Regarding a diesel engine crankcase, the general arrangement and installation should preclude the possibility of __________.
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271. Internal combustion engine crankcase vent outlets must be equipped with __________.
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272. When may the crankcase ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes of two or more engines be connected?
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273. What is to be installed on an internal combustion engine if its cylinder bore exceeds eight inches?
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274. Main propulsion diesel engines having a bore exceeding 300 mm are to have at least __________.
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275. Engines having a bore exceeding 250 mm, but not exceeding 300 mm are to have at least __________.
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276. Which statement regarding the arrangement and location of explosion relief valves used on an internal combustion engines is true_____________?
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277. Crankcase explosion relief valves should be of the __________.
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278. Explosion relief valves on diesel engine crankcases should relieve the pressure at not more than __________.
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279. An important design characteristic of an explosion relief valve for a diesel engine is the ability to __________.
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280. How many crankcase relief valves are required for a 13 inch bore, eight cylinder in-line engine?
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281. An inline engine having a nine inch bore and more than eight cylinders will __________.
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282. Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of the crankcase such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar drives when the __________.
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283. Cylinders diameters greater than 230 mm require additional safety devices when the scavenging spaces are openly connected to the cylinders. Which of the following devices will be used to protect such spaces?
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284. Which of the following listed construction details of internal combustion engines is required?
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285. The device shown in the illustration is classified as a/an __________
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286. The device shown in the illustration is classified as a/an __________
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287. The device shown in the illustration is classified as a/an __________
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288. The device shown in the illustration operates on the basic principle of __________
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289. The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel engine is to warn of __________.
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290. Mist detectors used on large low-speed and medium speed main propulsion diesel engines monitor and check for the presence of __________.
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291. The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel engine is to warn of __________.
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292. Which of the following problems could develop due to the accumulation of oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel engine?
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293. When oil vapor, oxygen and hot spots are present at the same time within a crankcase, which of the following hazards could develop?
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294. The direct cause of a crankcase explosion can be attributed to __________.
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295. Which of the listed conditions is most likely to cause a crankcase explosion?
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296. Crankcase explosions in propulsion diesel engines can result from which of the following?
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297. The possibility of a diesel engine crankcase explosion will be increased by operating an engine __________.
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298. If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, which of the listed actions should be taken?
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299. If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, you should stop the engine and __________.
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300. In the illustration shown, if a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, which of the following will occur
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301. If a diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due to severe overheating, the crankcase __________.
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302. What is the purpose of the device shown in the illustration
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303. If a crankcase explosion has occurred in a diesel engine, and the crankcase remains intact, which of the following precautions should be observed?
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304. With regards to a diesel engine crankcase explosion, the most violent is the __________. primary explosion secondary explosion
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305. The device shown in the illustration is classified as a/an __________
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306. The device shown in the illustration is a __________
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307. The device shown in the illustration is classified as a/an __________
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308. The device shown in the illustration is a __________
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309. If a crankcase explosion due to a hot spot were to occur, the size of the explosion is dependent on which of the following?
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310. Which of the following oil mist to air ratios would most likely lead to the most severe crankcase explosion?
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311. In the event of a crankcase rich oil mist to air mixture explosion, where the doors are blown off the engine, which of the following may occur after the initial explosion?
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312. After stopping a diesel engine with a high main bearing temperature, what is the time one needs to wait before a diesel engine crankcase can be opened?
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313. Which of the following is one of the ways to prevent a scavenging fire on a slow-speed diesel engine?
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314. Oil in a scavenging air space on a slow-speed diesel engine can be ignited by which of the following?
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315. If a scavenging air space fire occurs on a slow-speed diesel engine and the engine is stopped, which of the following should be done to prevent distortion due to heat?
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316. Which of the following would indicate a scavenging air fire in a slow-speed diesel engine?
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317. Integral cylinder liners constructed as part of the cylinder block, are characterized by which of the following disadvantages?
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318. Which of the following characteristics can be determined about the standby diesel engine shown in the illustration
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319. The diesel engine shown in the illustration utilizes the type of cylinder construction identified as __________
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320. Which type of diesel engine cylinder liner is shown in the illustration
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321. The cylinder liner forming the cylinder wall and the inside of the water jacket is called a __________.
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322. Which of the listed types of cylinder liners is used in the diesel engine shown in the illustration
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323. The cylinder liner shown in the illustration is a/an __________
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324. Which of the diesel engine cylinder liners listed has internal cooling water passages?
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325. Integral water jacket liners use O-rings near the bottom of the liner. These O-rings serve to __________.
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326. In a diesel engine, an integral liner is one in which the cooling water __________. flows through the cylinder liner jackets touches the outer side of the liner
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327. The bore of a diesel engine cylinder describes the __________.
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328. Why are some diesel engine cylinder liners plated on the wearing surface with porous chromium?
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329. A method of finishing diesel engine cylinder walls to aid in the proper ring seating and lubrication is known as __________.
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330. A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will __________.
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331. In a diesel engine, the initial crosshatching of the cylinder liner surface aids in __________. rapid ring seating the retention of lube oil
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332. In the diesel engine shown in the illustration, the space below the cylinder liner lower seals is subjected to __________
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333. The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet cylinder liner must allow for liner axial movement. This seal is most commonly a __________.
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334. The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet cylinder liner must allow for liner axial movement. This seal is most commonly a __________.
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335. One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the __________.
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336. One of the advantages in the use of a dry liner over a wet liner is __________.
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337. One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the __________.
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338. In the diesel engine shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is true
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339. It is easier to replace a dry cylinder liner than a wet one because __________.
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340. Failure to remove the carbon ridge from the top of the cylinder, when replacing the piston rings, will result in __________.
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341. When overhauling a diesel engine, the best tool to use to remove the wear ridge at the top of the engine cylinder liner, prior to removing the piston, is __________.
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342. In certain cases, a cylinder liner can be refinished rather than replaced. When properly honed, the __________.
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343. A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will __________.
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344. Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear in a single acting diesel engine is correct?
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345. Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear is true?
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346. Which of the listed cylinder liner surface conditions indicates proper lubrication?
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347. In a diesel engine, excessive cylinder liner wear will cause __________. increased blow by wear between the piston ring and groove
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348. Generally, where should you expect to find the greatest amount of wear on a cylinder liner?
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349. Wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel engine due to the __________.
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350. The rate of wear on a cylinder liner depends on the __________.
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351. A scored diesel engine cylinder liner will cause __________.
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352. Failure to remove the carbon ridge from the top of the cylinder, when replacing the piston rings, will result in __________.
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353. Scuffed cylinder liner surfaces in a diesel engine can result from __________.
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354. Which of the following operations will have a direct impact on the rate of wear in a cylinder liner __________.
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355. Which of the following conditions will cause the greatest increase to the wear rate in a cylinder liner?
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356. Which of the following operations will have a direct impact on the rate of wear in a cylinder liner __________.
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357. Water accumulation in the cylinder of a secured engine is an indication that the __________.
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358. In a diesel engine, a cylinder liner should be replaced if it is __________. scuffed Scored
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359. Scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine can result from __________.
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360. Scuffed cylinder liner surfaces in a diesel engine can result from __________.
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361. Which of the following problems may occur if the clearance between a piston and cylinder liner is insufficient?
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362. Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed main propulsion diesel engines is admitted to each cylinder during __________.
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363. The most severe cavitation erosion occurring on the waterside of diesel engine wet cylinder liners normally occurs __________.
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364. Cavitation erosion in the cooling water system of a diesel engine usually occurs at the pump impeller, and on the waterside of the __________.
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365. A crack in a cylinder liner can be caused by __________.
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366. The engine cylinder illustrated is of the __________
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367. The consistent burning of fuel oil with a high sulfur content in a diesel engine will result in __________.
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368. The exhaust ports shown in the illustration are identified with the letter "____"
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369. When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care to avoid carbon __________.
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370. The diesel engine shown in the illustration can be fitted with a pyrometer at each exhaust elbow. If one of the cylinder pyrometers is reading significantly higher than the others, which of the following should be your FIRST action
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371. The method of scavenging used in the diesel engine, shown in the illustration, is known as __________
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372. In a single-acting diesel engine, the cylinder liner area that is most difficult to lubricate is the __________.
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373. One advantage of a vacuum feed sight glass indicator used on cylinder lubricators over the discharge side liquid filled type sight glass is __________.
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374. Mechanical lubricators for diesel engine cylinders are usually small reciprocating pumps which are __________.
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375. The rate of cylinder lubricating oil metered to each cylinder of a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is __________.
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376. The device shown in figure "A" of the illustration is used to __________
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377. The illustrated cylinder lubricator quill check valve can be inspected without draining the cylinder cooling water jacket by __________
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378. The illustrated device is used to __________
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379. The component labeled as part #20 in the illustration is used to __________
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380. Burning fuel with a high sulfur content in a diesel engine will __________.
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381. The device shown in figure "A" of the illustration is used to __________
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382. The illustrated device is used to __________
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383. The component labeled as part #20 in the illustration is used to __________
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384. The device shown in figure "A" of the illustration is used to __________
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385. The illustrated device is used to __________
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386. The component labeled as part #20 in the illustration is used to __________
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387. If a single cylinder relief valve on a main propulsion diesel engine begins to lift, but it is not possible to secure the engine, which of the following actions should be taken?
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388. In the cylinder head illustrated, the valves are seated by __________
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389. Which of the listed cylinder head design features is shown in the illustration
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390. Which of the listed cylinder head design features is shown in the illustration
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391. Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to __________.
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392. Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to __________.
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393. To reduce load during jacking operations, which of the listed devices should be opened?
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394. The device shown in the illustration is screwed directly into the cylinder head through an opening in the combustion space. The purpose of the device is to __________
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395. When turning a new cylinder head stud on a lathe, the minimum effective thread length of the stud is determined primarily by the __________.
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396. One end of a cylinder for a medium or high-speed diesel engine is sealed by the piston and rings, the other end is sealed by the __________.
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397. An efficient seal between the cylinder block and cylinder heads on many diesel engines is obtained with __________.
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398. An efficient seal between the cylinder block and cylinder heads on many diesel engines is obtained with __________.
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399. The diesel engine component labeled "3", shown in the illustration is called the __________
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400. How many separate initial timing events must be controlled in the cylinder head of a direct admission air start, direct reversible, four stroke diesel engine?
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401. If the manufacturer's instructions do not state otherwise, which of the following progressions represent the best order for tightening the head bolts shown in the illustration
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402. Which of the following conditions could contribute to the cracking of a diesel engine cylinder head?
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403. Prior to starting, the purpose of turning over a main propulsion diesel engine with the cylinder test cocks open, is to __________.
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404. Failure to open the diesel engine test cocks after a long period of shutdown, prior to starting may result in __________.
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405. Which of the conditions listed may occur in an operating diesel engine if air pockets form within the cylinder head circulating water passages?
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406. Engine coolant accumulating in the diesel engine lubricating oil can result from a __________.
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407. Which of the listed problems would be indicated by an accumulation of water in one cylinder, in addition to the crankcase of an idle diesel engine?
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408. What may cause a diesel engine cylinder head to crack?
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409. A cracked cylinder head on a diesel engine may be indicated by __________.
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410. A cracked cylinder head in an operating engine may be indicated by __________.
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411. Which statement about diesel engine combustion is true?
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412. The greatest turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is created by the __________.
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413. The greatest turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is created by the __________.
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414. Which of the following processes is indicated by the flow arrows shown in the illustration
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415. Which of the following statements is true concerning the standby diesel engine shown in the illustration
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416. The valve gear shown in the illustration is for a four-stroke/cycle, medium speed, diesel engine, with fuel injection commencing in at 10° Before TDC. Approximately how many crankshaft degrees from the point at which fuel injection begins, does the exhaust valve push rod begin to move up
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417. At what pressure should a cylinder relief valve of an internal combustion engine be set to relieve?
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418. Air motion is induced in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine cylinder to improve air fuel mixing, and is known as __________.
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419. Turbulence in the combustion chamber of a diesel engine can be induced by __________.
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420. Turbulence in the cylinder of a two-stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine is mainly created by __________.
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421. What is commonly used to create turbulence in a diesel engine combustion system?
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422. Which of the listed designs is effectively used to provide the turbulence necessary for proper combustion in a diesel engine cylinder?
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423. High velocity turbulence is imparted to the air charge to the diesel engine, shown in the illustration, by __________
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424. Proper dispersion of fuel in a diesel engine cylinder is dependent upon the __________.
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425. Turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is of major importance in providing __________.
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426. Turbulence is created in the cylinders of a diesel engine to __________.
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427. Turbulence of the compressed air charge in a diesel engine cylinder increases __________.
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428. Turbulence of the compressed air charge in a diesel engine cylinder increases __________.
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429. Pre-combustion chambers and energy cells in high-speed, small bore diesel engines all serve to increase ________.
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430. Pre-combustion chambers differ from turbulence chambers in that pre-combustion chambers __________.
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431. Figure "D" shown in the illustration is a/an __________
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432. Which of the following statements describes the operating characteristics of a precombustion chamber?
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433. One advantage obtained from the use of a precombustion chamber in a diesel engine is __________.
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434. Which of the following statements represents the advantage of a precombustion chamber used in an auxiliary diesel engine?
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435. In a diesel engine, what is the advantage of precombustion chambers over the open type of combustion chamber? Precombustion chambers permit coarser fuel atomization. Precombustion chambers allow lower fuel injection pressure.
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436. Which of the following statements describes the operating characteristics of a precombustion chamber?
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437. A multi-orifice fuel injection nozzle is usually used with which of the listed types of combustion chamber?
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438. Which of the combustion chambers shown in the illustration is referred to as an "energy cell" used in some small diesel engines
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439. The device labeled "A" shown in the illustration is termed a/an __________
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440. Open combustion chambers are designed to __________.
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441. The primary purpose of the open combustion chamber used in diesel engines is to __________.
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442. The diesel engine combustion chamber shown as figure "C" in the illustration is a/an __________
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443. What type of marine engine has a fuel nozzle and combustion chamber located between two pistons in a common cylinder liner?
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444. A diesel engine with a combustion chamber located between the crowns of two pistons is known as a/an __________.
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445. The purpose of the energy cell, or air cell, is to __________.
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446. Which of the listed types of pre-combustion chambers is used in the diesel engine shown in the illustration
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447. The combustion of fuel for the illustrated engine is initiated by __________
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448. Operating a low speed propulsion diesel engine at less than 30% of designed normal load for prolonged periods will result in __________.
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449. The combustion of fuel for the illustrated engine is initiated by __________
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450. Cast iron pistons used in large propulsion diesel engines are constructed with __________.
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451. In large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines, piston ring groove wear usually occurs at the __________.
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452. The ring lands on a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine piston may crack due to __________.
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453. In a diesel engine, which type of wrist pin is fixed to the small end of the connecting rod and moves in the piston?
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454. Which of the following design features will reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression rings of a cast iron piston?
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455. Which statement correctly applies to the illustration
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456. The upper section of a piston is called the __________.
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457. Why is the ring belt narrower in diameter than the skirt of a piston designed for a diesel engine?
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458. The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the skirt, in order to __________.
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459. One of the most common methods in preventing a diesel engine piston pin from contacting the cylinder wall is by the use of __________.
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460. Cold clearances between the skirt of an aluminum piston and the cylinder liner is about __________.
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461. An advantage of aluminum pistons, when compared to cast iron pistons is __________.
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462. Item #16 of the piston shown in the illustration is a/an __________
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463. The piston shown in the illustration is a __________
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464. The lower section of a piston is called the __________.
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465. The piston pin shown in the illustration should be classified as __________
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466. In a full floating wristpin, the pin is prevented from sliding against the cylinder walls by __________.
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467. Which term describes piston pins having bearing surfaces in both the piston bosses and connecting rod eye?
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468. Part #15 of the piston shown in the illustration, is the __________
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469. The piston wrist pin used in some diesel engine pistons is prevented from contacting the cylinder wall by a __________.
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470. Besides the use of piston cooling fins to assist in cooling, they also provide extra strength for the piston __________.
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471. Ring groove inserts are occasionally used on aluminum alloy pistons to __________.
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472. During the power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk type piston is a result of the angle __________.
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473. During the diesel engine power stroke, the side thrust developed on the piston is a result of the angle __________.
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474. The side pressure per unit of area, resulting from the angularity of the motion of the connecting rod, depends primarily on the __________.
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475. If clearance between a piston and the cylinder wall is excessive, piston slap will occur. The slap itself is caused by __________.
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476. During the power stroke of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, most of the side thrust of a trunk-type piston is absorbed by the __________.
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477. In a trunk type diesel engine piston, the thickness of the head or crown is determined by the __________. strength requirement heat dissipation requirement
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478. The purpose of the drilled passages in the crown of the piston, shown as item "S" the illustration, is to __________
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479. A piston is at bottom dead center when it is __________.
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480. In an auxiliary diesel engine, one reason for knurling the piston skirt is to __________.
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481. To reduce the weight of the reciprocating parts, pistons of high-speed engines are made considerably shorter. This results in __________.
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482. According to the illustration, which of the following is true
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483. According to the illustration, which of the following is true
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484. According to the illustration, which of the following is true
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485. One end of a diesel engine cylinder is sealed by the cylinder head and the other end by the __________.
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486. After a long period of operation, a wear ridge, caused by piston ring action, will develop near the top of the cylinder liner. This ridge must be removed during maintenance in order to prevent __________.
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487. The diesel engine piston crown is indicated by the component labeled __________
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488. In the illustrated diesel engine, which label points to the piston
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489. The service life of a worn aluminum piston for an auxiliary diesel, for which no spares are readily available, can be extended by __________.
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490. When a piston is removed from a diesel engine for maintenance, the piston should be examined for __________.
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491. Which of the following conditions can result in the cracking of the piston lands?
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492. Excessive side clearance between a piston ring and its groove will cause the ring to __________.
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493. If the back clearance of a piston ring is excessive, __________.
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494. Diesel engine piston seizure can be caused by __________.
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495. A diesel engine piston crown can crack from __________.
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496. Cracking of a diesel piston crown can result from __________.
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497. Many diesel engines have pistons with concave heads to __________.
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498. In the illustrated diesel engine, which label points to the piston
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499. Item #16 of the piston shown in the illustration is a/an __________
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500. The upper piston compression ring can be protected from overheating by a heat dam. This physical concept is shown in the illustration and designated by the figure lettered as __________
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501. Thin bronze rings are inserted in the face of some chromium plated piston rings to __________.
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502. Which of the following ring designs is commonly used on new piston rings to facilitate run-in or seating?
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503. The main reason for using bimetallic piston rings is to __________.
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504. To facilitate early ring seating of newly installed piston rings, while still providing extended ring wear, __________.
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505. To facilitate early ring seating of newly installed piston rings, while still providing extended ring wear, __________.
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506. Barrel face, taper face, grooved, and chrome plated are all types of diesel engine __________.
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507. Diesel engine piston ring gaps can be straight or angle cut. In comparison, the angle cut ring __________.
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508. Diesel engine piston ring ends can be machined in different shapes. The step-cut ring end offers the advantage of __________.
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509. During combustion, the sealing surfaces of a diesel engine piston ring are considered to be the ring area in contact with the cylinder wall, in addition to the ring area in contact with the ring groove __________.
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510. In a diesel engine, the piston compression rings make contact with the __________. back of the ring groove bottom of the ring groove
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511. The reason some two-stroke/cycle, diesel engine piston rings are pinned to prevent rotation, is __________.
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512. Which of the following statements is true regarding the installation of piston rings on two-stroke/cycle, diesel engines as compared to four-stroke/cycle, diesel engines?
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513. Oil control rings are designed with slotted holes to __________.
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514. Slots are provided in a diesel engine piston oil scraper ring to __________.
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515. The upper edges of the piston rings, shown in the illustration are rounded off to __________
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516. Which of the lettered items, shown in the illustration, identifies an oil control ring
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517. Oil control rings function to __________.
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518. The main purpose of the piston oil scraper rings is to __________.
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519. The primary purpose of oil control rings on a diesel engine piston is to __________.
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520. To function properly, oil control rings used on a diesel engine piston must distribute sufficient oil to all parts of the cylinder wall and must also __________.
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521. A secondary function of diesel engine piston rings is to __________.
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522. Oil control rings used in two-stroke/cycle diesel engines are located near the bottom of the piston skirt in order to __________.
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523. In order to keep excess oil from the intake ports in two-stroke/cycle diesel engines, __________.
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524. The function of the piston compression rings used in a diesel engine is to __________.
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525. The main function of piston compression rings is to __________.
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526. Piston compression rings used in a diesel engine function to __________.
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527. Which of the following statements represents the function of the compression rings installed at the top of a diesel engine piston?
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528. Combustion gases formed in the cylinder of a diesel engine are prevented from blowing past the piston by __________.
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529. A diesel engine piston ring face is in direct contact with the __________.
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530. The function of diesel engine piston compression rings is to __________.
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531. Which of the following statements is true concerning the piston rings shown in the illustration
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532. In an internal combustion engine, which of the devices listed will force the compression rings to seal the compression gases in the space above the piston?
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533. In an operating diesel engine, the sealing of the cylinder is the result of the compression rings being forced against the cylinder walls by __________.
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534. The side clearance of the compression rings on diesel engine pistons is necessary to __________.
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535. The purpose of end clearance on a diesel engine piston ring is to __________.
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536. Insufficient end clearance on newly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine will cause the rings to __________.
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537. When a diesel engine is operated with a piston ring having a cold gap clearance less than that recommended by the manufacturer, the ring will __________.
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538. Before installing rings on a diesel engine piston, you should check the ring __________.
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539. You are installing new piston rings on a single acting diesel engine piston. To check the ring gap clearance, the rings should be placed at the __________.
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540. In a diesel engine, when installing new piston rings it is important to check __________. ring gap clearance side clearance
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541. In a diesel engine, when refitting piston rings you should__________. check the ring gap at the smallest diameter of the cylinder remove carbon from the ring groove
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542. Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring groove cleaning tool when needed to remove hard carbon deposits from piston ring grooves in preparation for installing new rings?
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543. Which of the listed devices could be used as a ring groove cleaning tool during preparation for the installation of new rings if a piston ring cleaning tool was not available?
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544. Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring grooving tool?
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545. When installing new rings during an engine piston overhaul, the piston ring gap should first be measured with feeler gages by __________.
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546. Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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547. Low compression pressure in a diesel engine is caused by __________.
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548. Low compression pressure in a diesel engine may be the result of __________.
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549. Low compression in a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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550. Low compression in a diesel engine could be caused by __________.
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551. Which of the listed problems can be a cause of low compression pressure in a diesel engine?
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552. Low compression in a diesel engine could be caused by __________.
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553. After removing an old set of rings, which of the following conditions is indicated if a bright spot is found on each end of a broken piston ring?
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554. A bright shiny appearance of the sealing surfaces on diesel engine compression rings indicates __________.
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555. A visual inspection of the chrome plated piston compression rings at the liner ports reveals vertical brown streaks on the face of the rings. This condition indicates __________.
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556. An examination of the piston compression rings of an efficiently operating diesel engine should appear with a __________.
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557. Visual inspection of chrome-plated piston compression rings reveals a black ring face at the position of the cylinder liner ports. This condition indicates a ring which __________.
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558. When inspecting piston rings through the ports of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, black areas on the sealing surfaces are the result of __________.
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559. Black areas on the sealing surfaces of piston rings indicate __________.
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560. The face surface appearance of a shallow groove, stainless steel, chrome plated compression ring should exhibit through its operating life a __________.
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561. Which of the following conditions would cause carbon deposits to form in the piston ring belt of a diesel engine?
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562. A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring __________.
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563. A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring __________.
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564. Diesel engine piston ring blow-by is usually caused by excessive ring clearance at the ring __________.
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565. In a diesel engine, blow-by is generally the result of worn __________.
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566. Diesel engine 'blow-by' into the crankcase is caused by excessive ring __________.
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567. Diesel engine blow-by is the leakage of combustion gases past the __________.
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568. One cause of diesel engine piston ring blow-by is __________.
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569. Sticking of diesel engine piston compression rings may be caused by __________.
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570. One cause of diesel engine piston ring blow-by is __________.
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571. One cause of diesel engine piston ring blow-by is ______.
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572. If the compression rings on a diesel engine piston become stuck in the ring groove, the cause may be due to __________.
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573. Improperly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine can result in __________.
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574. If the oil control rings were installed upside down on a diesel engine piston, which of the following conditions would result?
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575. Incomplete combustion in a running diesel engine can cause piston rings to become stuck as a result of __________.
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576. In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, piston blow-by can result in increased __________.
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577. For any piston ring to operate smoothly without scuffing, the ring must be __________.
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578. The upper piston rings in large, slow-speed, two-stroke/ cycle diesel engines are most effectively lubricated by oil __________.
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579. If the oil scraper ring drain hole in a diesel engine piston becomes plugged, __________.
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580. Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause __________.
Not learned
581. Which of the listed conditions can cause a diesel engine to use too much lube oil?
Not learned
582. Excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
Not learned
583. Which of the following problems can cause excessive consumption of the lubricating oil in a diesel engine?
Not learned
584. Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause __________.
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585. Which of the following conditions would cause carbon deposits to form in the piston ring belt of a diesel engine?
Not learned
586. If sludge accumulates on the underside of a diesel engine piston, it will __________.
Not learned
587. The purpose of a heat dam used in some diesel engine cast iron pistons is to __________.
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588. Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams, which serve to __________.
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589. Piston cooling fins are located __________.
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590. Piston cooling fins are located __________.
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591. Trunk type diesel engine pistons are effectively cooled when heat is __________.
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592. In a medium speed diesel engine, a trunk type piston may be cooled by __________. oil circulation though passages in the piston crown heat transfer through piston rings and liner wall
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593. For diesel engine piston cooling, lubricating oil can be supplied to the pistons by a/an __________.
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594. For diesel engine piston cooling, lubricating oil can be supplied to the pistons by a/an __________.
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595. Shaker, circulation, and spray are the three general methods used in __________.
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596. The method of piston cooling in which oil is delivered through the connecting rod to a compartment within the piston, then distributed by the motion of the pistons, and allowed to drain to the crankcase via one or more holes or pipes, is termed __________.
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597. Shaker, circulation, and spray are the three general methods used in __________.
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598. A common method for diesel engine piston cooling is to deliver oil through the connecting rod into a void space in the piston head and then allow the piston motion to distribute the oil to cool the piston crown and drain the oil back to the crankcase. This procedure is known as the _____________ .
Not learned
599. Insufficient piston cooling for a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine burning heavy fuels, can result in __________.
Not learned
600. Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing?
Not learned
601. Which of the listed bearing installations is subjected to swinging motion?
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602. Which of the listed bearing types is an example of a solid bearing?
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603. Which is the first bearing designed to absorb the load created on the piston by combustion in the engine cylinder.
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604. The lower end of the piston rod, shown in the illustration, is fitted into the __________
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605. In diesel engines designed with a crosshead, the motion of the piston rod can be described as __________.
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606. There are two glands provided where the piston rod exits the cylinder shown in the illustration. The purpose of the top gland is to __________
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607. In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to the crosshead is __________.
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608. In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to the crosshead is __________.
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609. The piston rod scraper box incorporated in a two-stroke/cycle, crosshead diesel engine serves to __________.
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610. In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the side thrust on the crosshead is the direct result of _____.
Not learned
611. In what figure of the illustration does the crosshead experience the greatest side thrust
Not learned
612. The insertion of shims between the foot of a marine type connecting rod and a bearing box would result in __________.
Not learned
613. Which of the following operating conditions will occur when shims are removed from the joint between the foot of a marine type diesel engine connecting rod and the bearing box?
Not learned
614. In a large, low-speed diesel engine the clearance between the piston crown and cylinder head is found to be excessive. In order to correct for this, you should __________.
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615. In a large low-speed diesel engine, excessive piston clearance from the cylinder head can be restored by __________.
Not learned
616. The diesel engine connecting rod shown in the illustration is called a/an __________
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617. The diesel engine connecting rod shown in the illustration is called a/an __________
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618. The small end of the connecting rod is attached to the piston with a __________.
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619. The small end of the connecting rod is attached to the piston with a __________.
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620. At top dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually coincides with the __________.
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621. At top dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually coincides with the __________.
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622. At top dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually coincides with the __________.
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623. Connecting rods in a diesel engine are used to connect the ________.
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624. In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by __________.
Not learned
625. In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by __________.
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626. Which construction detail is apparent in the connecting rod and piston assembly shown in the illustration
Not learned
627. The Fairbanks Morse part labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, is a __________
Not learned
628. The Fairbanks Morse part labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, is a __________
Not learned
629. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the connecting rod and piston assembly shown in the illustration
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630. A connecting rod in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is subject to __________.
Not learned
631. The diesel engine component labeled "5", shown in the illustration is known as the __________
Not learned
632. The diesel engine wrist pin in the illustration is indicated by the component labeled __________
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633. The diesel engine connecting rods shown in the illustration are distinctively named __________
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634. An acceptable means of tightening connecting rod and main bearing cap bolts is to measure the __________. torque applied to each nut and bolt assembly stretch of each nut before and after tightening
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635. An acceptable means of tightening connecting rod and main bearing cap bolts is to measure the __________. torque applied to each nut and bolt assembly stretch of each nut before and after tightening
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636. Abnormal crankpin bearing and piston skirt surface wear indicate __________.
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637. Wristpin bearings are difficult to lubricate because of their oscillating motion and __________.
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638. Persistent knocking in one cylinder of an eight cylinder diesel engine would MOST likely be caused by __________.
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639. The Fairbanks Morse part labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, is a __________
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640. The bearings used to support the crankshaft of a diesel engine are generally called __________.
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641. One method of determining crankshaft misalignment is by __________.
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642. Which instrument is used to take crankshaft deflection readings?
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643. Which instrument is used to take crankshaft deflection readings?
Not learned
644. Crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication of __________.
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645. From the data given in the illustration, which pair of pistons listed are mounted on the same crank throw
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646. The linear motion of a diesel engine piston is converted into the rotary motion required to drive gears, propeller shafts, and generators by the __________.
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647. The rotary motion of a diesel engine crankshaft is obtained from the up and down motion of the piston via the __________.
Not learned
648. The main reason counterweights are added to crankshafts is to __________.
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649. High-speed, multi-cylinder, diesel engines commonly use counterweights placed opposite to the crankpins to __________.
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650. A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is said to be __________.
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651. A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is said to be __________. statically balanced dynamically balanced
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652. Which of the components listed is only found in an opposed-piston engine?
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653. The flywheel reduces speed fluctuations by __________.
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654. The purpose of the flywheel is to __________.
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655. Component "U" of the diesel engine shown in the illustration is called the __________
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656. Diesel engine crankshaft deflection readings are generally taken at four crank positions. Good engineering practice requires the deflection gage or indicator to be __________.
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657. On a large diesel engine installation, crankshaft axial alignment is maintained by the ________.
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658. Component "U" of the diesel engine shown in the illustration is called the __________
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659. A machinery vibration monitoring program can be used to identify bearing defects by _______.
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660. Machinery vibration sensing devices are commonly identified as _______.
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661. When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is known as the __________.
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662. When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is known as the __________.
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663. A viscous damper, as used on a marine diesel, is a sealed precision built device which dampens the torsional vibrations in the __________.
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664. Which of the devices listed is installed on a diesel engine to isolate some of the crankshaft vibrations caused by rotational and reciprocating forces?
Not learned
665. Critical speeds occurring within the operating speed range of a main propulsion diesel engine may be changed, or have their damaging effects reduced by a/an __________.
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666. The possibility of damage from operating a diesel engine at critical speeds is reduced by the use of __________.
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667. Vibrations from diesel engines and engine driven equipment are isolated from the hull structure by __________.
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668. Which of the terms listed below represents the operational speed at which excessive engine vibration is created?
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669. Critical speed in diesel engines occurs when engine torque pulsations become __________.
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670. Excessive mechanical and pulsating vibrations developed in a main propulsion diesel engine may be more likely to cause damage to an attached __________.
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671. Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the rate of change of the velocity as a result of a part vibrating during its periodic or oscillatory motion?
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672. Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the rate of change of the velocity as a result of a part vibrating during its periodic or oscillatory motion?
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673. What is the standard unit of measure for vibration displacement?
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674. When performing a vibration analysis for rotating machinery, what is essential?
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675. What is meant by a critical speed for rotating machinery?
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676. On a vibration analysis report, acceleration is best described as which of the following?
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677. Resonant vibrations, which can cause machinery failure, occur when which of the following conditions happen?
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678. When reviewing results of vibration analysis, vibration at a bearing occurs at the same frequency as the motor rpm, with a displacement in the radial direction that is twice that of the axial direction. Which of the following could this indicate?
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679. When measuring vibration, an engineer should be concerned with recording the velocity or displacement of the measurement. Which other factor should also be of concern?
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680. While examining results of vibration analysis of a rotating piece of machinery, you find very high amplitude/displacement readings at a very high frequency at one measuring point. What would that indicate?
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681. Figure "C" shown in the illustration correctly identifies the position of the journal when the shaft is __________
Not learned
682. Which of the bearings listed below is most widely used for the main and connecting rod bearings of a modern high-speed diesel engine?
Not learned
683. Which of the bearings listed below is most widely used for the main and connecting rod bearings of a modern high-speed diesel engine?
Not learned
684. In a diesel engine, the main bearings are used between the __________.
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685. Bearing "crush" as applied to diesel engine main bearings, will result in __________.
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686. Diesel engine main and connecting rod precision bearings are made in halves. Each half exceeds one-half the bearing circumference by a small amount. The small amount is termed __________.
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687. Precision engine bearing inserts are manufactured with a small portion of the bearing ends extending beyond the bearing housing or caps. This design provides for positive seating and is commonly referred to as bearing ______.
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688. Precision engine bearing inserts are manufactured with a small portion of the bearing ends extending beyond the bearing housing or caps. This design provides for positive seating and is commonly referred to as bearing ______.
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689. The proper location for journal bearing oil grooves is __________.
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690. A characteristic of a bearing material which permits small dirt particles to become embedded in the bearing surface is __________.
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691. Which component will receive the greatest load in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine?
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692. The load is always placed on the lower half of the main bearings in a __________.
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693. To determine the main bearing clearance of a propulsion diesel engine, you should measure the main bearing shell using a ball anvil outside micrometer and measure the crankshaft journal using a/an __________.
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694. On a large low-speed main propulsion diesel engine, lower main bearing wear is usually measured by using a/an __________.
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695. A main propulsion diesel engine crankshaft bearing lacking sufficient 'crush', will __________.
Not learned
696. Which of the bearings listed below is most widely used for the main and connecting rod bearings of a modern high-speed diesel engine?
Not learned
697. The Fairbanks Morse part labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, is a __________
Not learned
698. What type of main bearings are commonly used on crankshafts for most propulsion diesel engines?
Not learned
699. Trunk-type diesel engine pistons are most effectively cooled by heat __________.
Not learned
700. To measure bearing clearances, a special small diameter plastic rod (plasti-gage) is placed between the crankshaft journal and the connecting rod bearing shell. The actual reading is obtained by __________.
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701. Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring the clearances between the main engine bearings and the crankshaft?
Not learned
702. To determine the main bearing clearances in a small auxiliary diesel engine, you should use __________.
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703. Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be measured using __________.
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704. Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be measured using __________.
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705. Bearing wear on a split sleeve type bearing is normally measured with a __________.
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706. The amount of wear on a split precision main bearing can be accurately determined by comparing the data from a previous reading to the present readings taken with a __________.
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707. The amount of wear on a split, fixed sleeve-type, main diesel bearing can be accurately determined with a __________.
Not learned
708. The amount of wear on a split precision main bearing can be accurately determined by comparing the data from a previous reading to the present readings taken with a __________.
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709. An acceptable method for measuring the applied rotational force when tightening connecting rod and main bearing bolts, is to use a __________.
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710. An acceptable method for measuring the applied rotational force when tightening connecting rod and main bearing bolts, is to use a __________.
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711. Worn main bearings will cause the compression ratio of a diesel engine to __________.
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712. Worn main bearings in a diesel engine can result in __________.
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713. Small cracks in the crankshaft bearing surface of a diesel engine are an indication of __________.
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714. The most critical time for any bearing with regards to diesel engine lubrication is during __________.
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715. A bronze bearing liner with a lead-tin flashing has a milky-white color over most of its surface and some areas of exposed bronze. The white coloring indicates __________.
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716. While inspecting the main bearings on a diesel engine you find impregnated dirt and scratches in the bearing surface. You would, therefore, suspect that __________.
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717. The highest loads applied to the diesel engine crankshaft main bearings are __________.
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718. The nuts of main bearings, connecting rod bolts and all other moving parts are to be secured by __________.
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719. While standing watch at sea, a main engine bearing high temperature alarm has just been indicated on the control panel. Your next action should be to _________.
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720. A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?
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721. On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?
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722. Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational speed?
Not learned
723. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a plain bearing which substitutes fluid friction for sliding friction?
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724. What statement is true concerning the hydrostatic lubrication of plain bearings?
Not learned
725. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, at what oil level is the bearing maintained?
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726. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?
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727. The most crucial time for any bearing with regards to diesel engine lubrication is __________.
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728. What type of bearing is shown in the illustration
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729. The devices labeled "1" and "2" shown in the illustration are properly termed the __________
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730. Which of the listed item numbers represents the bearing surfaces of the bearing shown in the illustration
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731. The bearing shown in the illustration serves to __________
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732. How is lubrication provided to the device shown in the illustration
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733. What prevents the thrust bearing blocks shown in the illustration from rotating within the housing
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734. Item "7" shown in the illustration is identified as a __________
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735. Item "6" shown in the illustration would be identified as a __________
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736. After following the prescribed procedures to measure the thrust bearing clearance shown in the illustration, the distance "F" is determined to be 200 mm, and 'f1' is 2.3 mm. Which of the following statements describes the condition indicated by these dimensions
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737. The thrust bearing shown in the illustration has over eight years of ahead running time. Measurements show "i1" is 4 mm and "i2" is 1 mm. Which of the following conditions is indicated and what steps should be taken, if any
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738. What is the normal bearing clearance permitted at the horizontal axis of the shaft for the bearing shown in the illustration
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739. What is the maximum allowable clearance permitted between the bearing, shown in the illustration and the shaft along its vertical axis
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740. As illustrated, what is the maximum allowable clearance permitted between the bearing and the shaft along its vertical axis
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741. When installing the bearing cap on the device shown in the illustration, which of the precautions listed must be observed
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742. When installing the bearing cap on the device shown in the illustration, which of the precautions listed must be observed
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743. The main engine thrust bearing shown in the illustration contains how many thrust shoes
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744. Which of the bearing types listed is most commonly used for their ability to absorb thrust in reduction gear applications?
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745. Which of the statements represents a characteristic of the thrust collar in a Kingsbury thrust bearing
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746. What is the function of the main thrust bearing?
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747. A thrust bearing is used with a propulsion diesel engine to __________.
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748. Which of the following statements represents the proper order of thrust transmission when a Kingsbury thrust bearing is used with main propeller shaft?
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749. Which of the following statements represents the proper order of thrust transmission when a Kingsbury thrust bearing is used with main propeller shaft?
Not learned
750. The bearing shown in the illustration is designed to carry thrust when applied __________
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751. The leveling plates in a Kingsbury thrust bearing are held in position by __________.
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752. Which of the listed components will ensure equal continuous pressure on the thrust shoes of a Kingsbury thrust bearing?
Not learned
753. What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust bearing where used?
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754. What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on merchant ships?
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755. How is lubrication provided to the device shown in the illustration
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756. What type of bearing is shown in the illustration
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757. The valve cam slope angle determines the __________.
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758. The shape of a diesel engine cam determines the __________.
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759. The valve cam slope angle determines the __________.
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760. The arrangement and shape of the cams on a diesel engine camshaft directly control which of the listed groups of operating conditions?
Not learned
761. Where is the cam follower most likely to leave the surface of the cam
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762. The area where a cam follower would most likely leave the lobe surface of a two-stroke cycle engine camshaft would be at the _______.
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763. When two cams of the same diameter, one with tangential flanks and the other with convex flanks are compared, the cam with tangential flanks will cause___________.
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764. When two cams of the same diameter, one with tangential flanks and the other with convex flanks are compared, the cam with tangential flanks will cause___________.
Not learned
765. Which of the following statements describes the operational characteristics of valve cam, figure "B" shown in the illustration
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766. In the illustrated engine, the fuel camshaft gear drive housing is letter __________
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767. In the illustrated engine, the fuel camshaft gear drive housing is letter __________
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768. In the illustrated engine, the main camshaft controls the timing of which of the following components
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769. The camshaft drive is designed to maintain proper camshaft speed relative to crankshaft speed. In maintaining this relationship, the camshaft drive causes the camshaft to rotate at __________.
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770. In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at __________.
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771. The camshafts on the engine, shown in the illustration, operate at a speed equal to __________
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772. If the speed of the propeller is 135 RPM, the speed of the engine camshaft shown in the illustration will be __________
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773. In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at __________.
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774. If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is running at 1550 RPM, the speed of the camshaft will be __________.
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775. What is the speed of the crankshaft in a four-stroke/cycle engine when the camshaft is turning at 750 rpm?
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776. The speed of the diesel engine camshaft shown in the illustration would be __________
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777. The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is used to operate the __________.
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778. The speed of the camshaft in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, running at 950 RPM, is __________.
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779. In the auxiliary diesel engine, shown in the illustration, the __________
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780. Which of the following is true regarding the auxiliary diesel engine shown in the illustration
Not learned
781. Camshafts are usually driven by timing gears or __________.
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782. The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is used to operate the __________.
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783. In the diesel engine shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is true
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784. Which of the following represents the diesel engine camshaft shown in the illustration and its relative rotating speed
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785. The device labeled "B", shown in the illustration rotates at __________
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786. The device labeled "B", shown in the illustration rotates at __________
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787. The device labeled "B", shown in the illustration rotates at __________
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788. How many separate camshaft timing events must be controlled for the components of an air start cylinder head for a direct reversible, four stroke diesel engine?
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789. According to the illustration, initial timing of fuel injection into the cylinder is controlled with the component that is identified as the letter _________
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790. The intake valves in a 4-stroke diesel engine are reseated by __________.
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791. The component shown in the illustration would be identified as a/an __________
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792. The part labeled "X" shown in the illustration is a __________
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793. In the engine shown in the illustration, the part labeled "W" is cooled by __________
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794. In the auxiliary diesel engine, shown in the illustration, the __________
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795. The line identified as "I" in the illustration is used to __________
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796. The device shown in the illustration is closed by force as provided by __________
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797. The device shown in the illustration is opened by force as provided by __________
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798. The device shown in the illustration may be closed by using pressurized air on some recently built large low speed engines and would replace the component identified as ____________
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799. The valve shown in the illustration operates by which of the following principles
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800. The device shown in the illustration may be closed by using pressurized air on some recently built large low speed engines and would replace the component identified as ____________
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801. In a diesel engine, with the valves set to specification, the shape of the cam determines the valve __________.
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802. The use of push rods becomes necessary in a diesel engine when __________.
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803. Diesel engine valve springs function to __________.
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804. The intake and exhaust valves used in a diesel engine are returned to their seats by __________.
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805. Valve cages are used on some large diesel engines to __________.
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806. In a diesel engine, the spring force required for proper valve operation is determined by __________.
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807. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diesel engine cylinder head and valve mechanism shown in the illustration
Not learned
808. Which letter represents the top deck (valve) cover of the engine shown in the illustration
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809. The diesel engine rocker arms shown in the illustration serve to __________
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810. The rocker arms of the diesel engine shown in the illustration are indicated by __________
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811. The device labeled "B" in the illustration is a __________
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812. The diesel engine component labeled "Z", shown in the illustration is called the __________
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813. The diesel engine component labeled "1", shown in the illustration is called a/an __________
Not learned
814. The inlet valves for the diesel engine shown in the illustration are indicated by the letter or number __________
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815. Which of the following statements describes the operational characteristics of figure "B" in the illustration
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816. Which of the following statements describes the operational characteristics of figure "B" shown in the illustration
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817. Excessive lubricating oil consumption in a running diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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818. When the #1 piston, shown in the illustration, is at top dead center, the #9 piston is __________
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819. From the chart shown in the illustration, if a right hand rotation engine had the #9 piston on top dead center, the #8 piston would be on the __________
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820. In the chart shown in the illustration, a right hand rotation engine has the #9 piston on top dead center; therefore, the #1 piston is __________
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821. The burning of fuel oil in a diesel engine having a high sodium content, will cause __________.
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822. In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines may be fabricated from low-alloy steels because __________.
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823. In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines may be fabricated from low-alloy steels because __________.
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824. In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines may be fabricated from low-alloy steels because __________.
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825. The parts labeled "I" and "II", shown in the illustration are respectively identified as the __________
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826. In a four-stroke cycle diesel engine, the intake valves open __________.
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827. Which of the listed construction characteristics is apparent of the diesel engine shown in the illustration
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828. Which of the following statements identifies the purpose of the valve bridge shown in the illustration
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829. The valve bridge, illustrated, allows for __________
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830. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diesel engine valve gear shown in the illustration
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831. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cylinder head and valve assembly of the diesel engine illustrated
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832. The valve stem expansion associated with engine warm-up is allowed for by the __________.
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833. Multiple concentric valve springs are often used with diesel engine valves to __________.
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834. When would a diesel engine exhaust valve spring be under the greatest compression load?
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835. The force exerted by a valve spring to close the diesel engine valves, is proportional to __________.
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836. Diesel engine exhaust valve springs are under compression when the valves are __________.
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837. The valve spring shown in the illustration, functions to __________
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838. A diesel engine valve spring is under compression when the valve is __________. Open Closed
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839. Which of the listed design features is found in an exhaust valve and NOT in an intake valve?
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840. Many diesel engine exhaust valves are being constructed with hollow stems filled with sodium in order to __________.
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841. A built-up exhaust valve is one in which __________.
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842. Valve rotators are commonly used on which of the listed diesel engine cylinder head valves?
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843. During the process of cylinder scavenging, the size of the exhaust valve opening is __________.
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844. Valves in the cylinder head of a diesel engine are opened by the direct action of the __________.
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845. The closing of the exhaust valves used on a modern, large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine may be directly provided by __________.
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846. The opening of an exhaust valve on a modern, large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, may be actuated by __________.
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847. The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine exhaust valve is to __________. seat the valve quickly break up seat deposits
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848. The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine exhaust valve is to __________. work in conjunction with valve rotators to rotate the valve seat the valve quickly
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849. The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine exhaust valve is to __________. break up seat deposits work in conjunction with valve rotators to rotate the valve
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850. The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine exhaust valve is to __________. work in conjunction with valve rotators to rotate the valve seat the valve quickly
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851. Exhaust valve timing for the engine, shown in the illustration, is to be set at 106° after top dead center. To what position should the flywheel be rotated to set the exhaust valve timing on the No.11 cylinder
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852. The satisfactory operation of diesel engine exhaust valves usually depends on __________.
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853. Excessive wear at part No.11, shown in the illustration would result in __________
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854. If a valve seat insert, similar to that shown in the illustration is cracked, this may be indicated by __________
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855. If there is a 'clicking' sound in the valve compartment of a diesel engine, the cause may be __________.
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856. Excessively worn, or polished ends on a diesel engine valve spring, indicate __________.
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857. Bouncing of the valve gear in a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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858. Spring surge in diesel engine valve springs can result in __________.
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859. If you were inspecting the valve springs on an auxiliary diesel engine, your best indication of impending spring failure would be __________.
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860. Broken intake valve springs on one cylinder of a diesel engine can cause the engine to __________.
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861. What will cause valve stem blow-by to the valve section shown in the O
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862. In a four-stroke cycle diesel engine, badly worn intake valve guides can cause excessive __________.
Not learned
863. Which of the following problems represents one possible cause of high lube oil consumption in a four stroke diesel engine?
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864. Worn cylinder head valve seats in a diesel engine will cause __________.
Not learned
865. Worn diesel engine intake valve guides can result in __________.
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866. When checking the underside of the valve cover shown in the illustration, you find localized black patches. You should suspect __________
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867. The easiest way to locate a defective diesel engine exhaust valves is by __________.
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868. A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal __________.
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869. Which of the listed conditions will occur if a diesel engine exhaust valve is leaking?
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870. When one cylinder has a lower compression pressure and higher exhaust gas temperature than any of the other engine cylinders, which of the conditions listed will be indicated?
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871. In a diesel engine, a leaking exhaust valve can cause _________.
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872. A sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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873. Which of the listed reasons is the most likely cause of a sudden drop in compression pressure in one diesel engine cylinder?
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874. On a four-cycle diesel engine, the valve subjected to the most severe conditions during normal service is the __________.
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875. Turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engines utilize valve overlap for __________.
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876. The line identified as "I" in the illustration is used to __________
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877. The diesel engine rocker arms shown in the illustration serve to __________
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878. Excessive wear at part No.11, shown in the illustration would result in __________
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879. In diesel engines, hydraulic valve lifters are used to __________.
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880. What is the purpose of a hydraulic valve lash adjuster?
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881. Which of the following statements represents the function of the valve bridge and hydraulic lash adjuster assembly shown in the illustration
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882. Which of the following statements represents the function of the valve bridge and hydraulic lash adjuster assembly shown in the illustration
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883. When a hydraulic valve lifter is on the base circle of the cam, 'zero' valve lash is maintained by the __________.
Not learned
884. Which of the following statements represents the function of the valve bridge and hydraulic lash adjuster assembly shown in the illustration
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885. The device shown has been removed from an exhaust valve bridge assembly. The function of the illustrated device is to __________
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886. How are hydraulic valve lash adjusters on diesel engine rocker arm assemblies lubricated?
Not learned
887. Which of the following statements represents the function of the valve bridge and hydraulic lash adjuster assembly shown in the illustration
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888. During diesel engine warm-up, which type of valve lash adjuster compensates for the change in length of the exhaust valve stem?
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889. During diesel engine warm-up, which type of valve lash adjuster compensates for the change in length of the exhaust valve stem?
Not learned
890. Collapsed hydraulic valve lifters in a diesel engine will result in __________.
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891. Which device shown in the illustration should be used to check valve clearances in a diesel engine fitted with solid lifters
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892. Valve lash or clearance refers to the __________.
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893. During engine warm-up, the expansion of cylinder head valve stems due to the buildup of engine heat, is compensated for by the __________.
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894. Decreasing the exhaust valve clearance of a diesel engine will cause the exhaust valve to open __________.
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895. When the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the engine manufacturer, the diesel engine valves will __________.
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896. Increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine will result in the exhaust valve opening __________.
Not learned
897. Which of the following statements would apply when checking the valve clearance of the unit shown in the illustration
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898. When inspecting the valve mechanism shown in the illustration, normal maintenance would include __________
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899. If the valve tappets in a diesel engine are set at greater clearances than those specified by the engine manufacturer, those valves will __________.
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900. If the intake, or exhaust valve stem clearance is found to be excessive, in addition to too little movement of the rocker arms, you should check for __________.
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901. A loud clicking noise from the valve compartment of an operating diesel engine would indicate __________.
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902. Excessive valve clearance will cause a valve to open __________.
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903. Increasing the valve clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm, will result in the valve __________.
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904. Excessive valve lash in an auxiliary diesel engine will cause the valves to open __________.
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905. When the cold valve lash is less than that specified by the manufacturer, diesel engine valves, operating at normal temperatures, will __________.
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906. If the valve lash on a diesel engine is set improperly, which of the following statements represents the most serious problem that can develop?
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907. If you increase the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm, which of the listed conditions will occur?
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908. Reducing the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm will result in the valve __________.
Not learned
909. When a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is converted for supercharging, which of the following changes must be made to the valve timing?
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910. What changes in valve timing will tend to increase the cooling effect on the exhaust valve in a four-stroke cycle turbocharged diesel engine?
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911. A mechanical and/or hydraulic action preventing the over- correction of the fuel supply, while producing transient speed droop is called __________.
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912. Rotating flyweights, acting against a spring force, will provide a simple type of __________.
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913. Rotating flyweights, acting against a spring force, will provide a simple type of __________.
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914. A constant speed hydraulic governor would more than likely be installed on a __________.
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915. Which of the components listed is used to control the diesel engine speed shown in the illustration
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916. Load control on a diesel engine is accomplished by __________.
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917. If a diesel engine starts firing, but is unable to come up to normal speed, the cause may be __________.
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918. A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is operating at 80% load and normal speed while the vessel is in calm seas. As the intensity of the seas increase, the engine speed governor maintains the same RPM, although the load indicator indicates an increase in load beyond its allowable limits. Which of the following actions should be taken?
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919. The ability of the governor to prevent fluctuations in engine speed is termed __________.
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920. The ability of the governor to prevent fluctuations in engine speed is termed __________.
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921. The device used to limit engine torque at various engine speeds is called a __________.
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922. A change in engine speed is required before a governor is able to make a corrective movement of fuel rack. This aspect of governing is commonly expressed as a percent and is known as __________.
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923. The required amount in the change of speed necessary before a governor will make a corrective movement is known as __________.
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924. Sensitivity for a diesel engine governor is described as the __________.
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925. A diesel generator has just been paralleled with an AC turbo generator, but the load can not be properly divided. This could be caused by __________.
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926. An overcorrecting and unstable engine governor operation is known as __________.
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927. A continuous fluctuation of the speed, due to over control by the governor, is known as __________.
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928. The principal characteristic of an isochronous governor is it will __________.
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929. Which of the following statements best describes the operational characteristics of isochronous governors?
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930. Which of the listed governor operating characteristics is considered to be isochronous?
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931. If the load on a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor is increased, after compensation is performed by the governor, the engine speed will __________.
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932. An AC diesel generator incapable of being paralleled with the main bus normally employs an isochronous governor in order to __________.
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933. A schematic diagram of an isochronous hydraulic governor is shown in the illustration. When the load is removed the speed increases, and the __________
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934. In the schematic diagram of the isochronous hydraulic governor shown in the illustration, piece #22 is the __________
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935. The governor, shown in the illustration, will have its preset speed droop altered whenever __________
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936. The governor shown in the illustration can produce shutdown of the engine by __________
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937. Governors used on diesel engines to limit the load must be equipped with __________.
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938. As the load is being decreased on the engine controlled by the governor shown in the illustration, the __________
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939. The initial reaction of the governor floating lever to a decrease in load, shown in the illustration, is best described by which of the following statements
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940. Changing the position of the fulcrum in the compensating system of the governor shown in the illustration will __________
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941. The direct acting mechanical governor used with some small diesel engines, controls fuel flow to the engine by __________.
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942. Which of the following devices is a common basic element with nearly all mechanical governors?
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943. Which of the following devices is common to both mechanical and hydraulic governors?
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944. A spring-loaded centrifugal flyweight governor responds to reduced engine load with an immediate increase in __________.
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945. Which of the items listed causes a direct acting mechanical governor to operate the engine fuel control linkage?
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946. In a simple mechanical governor, the __________.
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947. Which of the following statements represents the correct operating sequence of events applied to the auxiliary diesel engine governor shown in the illustration
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948. The purpose of the ball-head unit shown in the illustration of the governor is to __________
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949. To increase the speed setting of the governor shown in the illustration, which of the listed adjustments must be made
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950. Which of the springs shown in the illustration, will have its output force controlled by the movement of a speed control shaft, and the engine speed setting will in turn be proportional to the amount of compression exerted on the spring
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951. Which of the speeder springs listed is more suitable for a governor installed on an engine operating over a wide speed range?
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952. The governor for an emergency diesel generator is shown in the illustration. When a large change in load results in a change in engine speed, which of the parts listed will be the FIRST governor component to react to the change in load
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953. The governor for an auxiliary diesel engine is shown in the illustration. Which of the pieces listed rotates proportionally to engine speed
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954. In a simple hydraulic governor with speed droop, oil under pressure is maintained ready for use in the __________.
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955. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operating function of the governor shown in the illustration
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956. If an engine operates at 900 RPM at no load, and at 870 RPM at full load, the speed droop is __________.
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957. In order for the governor shown in the illustration to correct for the increase in load placed on the governed engine, the __________
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958. When the diesel engine hydraulic governor shown in the illustration is operating at controlled speed, which of the relationships listed will occur between the edges of the pilot valve and the ports of the pilot valve bushings
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959. The schematic diagram of an isochronous hydraulic governor is shown in the illustration. If there is an increase in applied load, the speed will decrease, and the __________
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960. Diesel engines driving alternators operating in parallel must maintain a set frequency regardless of load changes. The governor characteristic used to accomplish this is known as __________.
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961. Increasing the oil pressure acting on the power piston of the hydraulic governor shown in the illustration will __________
Not learned
962. The governor controlling a diesel engine modulates crankshaft RPM by adjusting the __________.
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963. On most diesel engines, the governor controls the output speed by __________.
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964. A direct acting, pneumatically controlled governor for a diesel engine operates in a range of 10 to 50 psi. The fuel rack position is at 20 millimeters when the governor air pressure is 30 psi. If the governor air pressure changes to 20 psi, the fuel rack setting will change to __________.
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965. A main propulsion diesel engine is fitted with a pneumatically actuated governor, having an operating range of 10 to 60 psig. The current fuel rack setting is 15 mm at 30 psig. If the air pressure to the governor is increased to 40 psig, the fuel rack setting will change to __________.
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966. Where one or more diesel driven AC generators are operating in parallel, reducing the value of the speed droop to 'zero' on one unit will allow that unit to __________.
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967. How is the diesel engine operating RPM affected when a 'ZERO DROOP' setting is selected on the governor?
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968. On a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous governor, if the 'speed droop' control is reduced to the 'zero' setting, the engine __________.
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969. When the prime movers of two paralleled generators are equipped with mechanical-hydraulic governors, and are operating within their designed range, the unit with the least amount of speed droop will __________.
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970. The speed droop characteristics of two similar diesel engines, driving two similar DC generators, are connected in parallel. From the illustrated diagram, determine which of the following statements is true
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971. The speed droop characteristics of two similar diesel engines, driving two similar DC generators, are connected in parallel. From the illustrated diagram, determine which of the following statements is true
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972. The speed droop characteristics of two similar diesel engines, driving two similar DC generators, are connected in parallel. From the illustrated diagram, determine which of the following statements is true
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973. In the illustrated auxiliary diesel engine governor, decreasing the distance between piece 6 and piece 10 will affect the engine by __________
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974. After each speed change, the compression of the diesel engine governor speeder spring is returned to a constant value, regardless of the amount of movement of the fuel control mechanism and engine load. Hence, this results in __________.
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975. A diesel engine is equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor. A decrease in load will cause the engine speed to __________.
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976. Increasing the load on an engine equipped with a constant speed mechanical governor, will cause the engine speed to initially __________.
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977. The function of the synchronizing motor on the generator governor illustrated is to __________
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978. Which direction of rotation of the gear pump shown in the illustration will produce the correct direction of oil discharge to operate the governor? clockwise Counterclockwise See illustration MO-0092.
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979. What would be the approximate gap clearance value for a flywheel magnetic pickup speed sensor as found on most medium and high speed engines?
Not learned
980. Adjustments to the compensating needle valve in a hydraulic governor should be made with the engine at __________.
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981. Compensating needle valve adjustments to a hydraulic governor should be made with the engine __________.
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982. A large change in ambient temperature or using an oil of a viscosity different than the one recommended by the manufacturer in a mechanical hydraulic governor, will result in the need to adjust the __________.
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983. If a hydraulic governor has been refilled with oil, the engine should be operated until it reaches normal temperature, then the air should be purged, and the __________.
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984. To stop the diesel engine governor from hunting, the governor oil system is to be purged of trapped air by adjusting the part shown in the illustration labeled __________
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985. Which of the following adjustments is always required whenever the diesel engine governor oil has been drained and renewed?
Not learned
986. The purpose of the compensating adjustment used in a diesel engine hydraulic governor is to __________.
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987. To correct a hunting problem in a main propulsion diesel engine hydraulic governor, you should __________.
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988. If the compensating needle valve of a hydraulic governor is opened more than necessary the governor will __________.
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989. If a main propulsion diesel engine hunts excessively at idle speed, you should __________.
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990. On a diesel engine equipped with a hydraulic speed control governor, hunting in many cases can be corrected by adjusting the __________.
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991. The most common contaminate of governor hydraulic fluid is __________.
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992. The major cause of trouble in a mechanical-hydraulic governor is contamination of the hydraulic fluid by __________.
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993. If the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor breaks while operating at full load, the engine RPM will _________.
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994. Failure of the speeder spring in a mechanical governor will __________.
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995. If the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor breaks while operating at full load, the engine RPM will _________.
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996. If governor Item #10 in the illustration were to break on a main propulsion diesel engine operating under full load, the engine RPM will __________
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997. If the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor breaks while operating at full load, the engine RPM will _________.
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998. Air bubbles in a hydraulic governor can cause __________.
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999. The hunting of a diesel engine may be caused by __________.
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1000. A diesel-generator governor is hunting. After changing the oil, the governor is flushed and the compensation needle valve is adjusted, but the hunting persists. You should NOW __________.
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1001. If the a main propulsion diesel engine governor works irregularly with a jerking motion, a possible cause can be __________.
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1002. Governor hunting is caused by __________.
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1003. Friction developing between the moving parts of a governor, governor linkage and control valve will cause the governor to __________.
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1004. If the operating speed of a diesel engine increases without an apparent change in the engine control settings, you may suspect a __________.
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1005. During a routine round of a diesel engine generator, you observe a low oil level in the governor sump. If there is no visible sign of external leakage, you should suspect the cause to be a/an __________.
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1006. Internal combustion engines are to be fitted with governors to prevent the engines from exceeding the rated speed by more than __________.
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1007. In addition to the normal governor, each main engine having a maximum continuous output of 300 hp and over, which can be declutched or which drives a controllable pitch propeller, __________.
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1008. Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor?
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1009. Concerning governor speed droop, what statement is true?
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1010. Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without hunting?
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1011. Which term represents how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a corrective action as the result of a load change?
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1012. What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
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1013. What is meant by the term "deadband" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
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1014. What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
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1015. If the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor breaks while operating at full load, the engine RPM will _________.
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1016. The overspeed trip installed on most diesel engines will stop the engine by shutting off the __________.
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1017. An over speed trip serves to __________.
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1018. For most auxiliary diesel generator engines, the over speed trip device will stop the engine by __________.
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1019. Which device will normally shut down a diesel engine after it exceeds its maximum speed setting?
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1020. A diesel engine is driving an alternator required to run at 1800 RPM. The over speed governor is normally required to be set within a range of __________.
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1021. A device which functions to bring a diesel engine to a full stop to protect it from damage is known as a/an __________.
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1022. An over speed trip stops a diesel engine when the engine __________.
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1023. The device shown in the illustration is used to secure the air supply to a diesel engine when the engine overspeeds. In order for this to occur, supplied oil pressure must __________
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1024. The butterfly valve over speed device, shown in the illustration, is designed to close should the engine over speed, resulting in __________
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1025. An over speed safety shutoff for a diesel engine is shown in the illustration. Which of the following movements will occur if the engine over speeds
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1026. A diesel engine is equipped with the over speed trip assembly shown in the illustration. At the inspection, the counter weight was found to be tripping out at too high of an RPM. The adjustment to lower the tripping speed RPM was carried out by __________
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1027. A diesel engine is provided with an over speed throw-out weight shown in the illustration, and is tripping out at too low an RPM. In order to correct this problem, you should __________
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1028. The butterfly valve over speed device, shown in the illustration, is designed to close should the engine over speed, resulting in __________
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1029. The overspeeding of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause __________.
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1030. An engine is equipped with the overspeed trip similar to that shown in the illustration. The throw out weight is designed to run at 900 RPM and trip out at 10% overspeed. However, the overspeed trip is currently activating at 930 RPM. In order to correct this problem, __________
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1031. To check the setting of the over speed trip on a diesel powered generator, you would use a __________.
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1032. The over speed trip device installed in some diesel engines is automatically actuated by __________.
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1033. A diesel engine overspeeds and fails to restart when cranked at normal speed. Which of the following problems is the most likely cause for the engine failing to restart?
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1034. A propulsion diesel engine, having a maximum continuous output of over 300 HP, and driving a controllable pitch propeller, must be fitted with a separate over speed device, in addition to the normal governor. This second device is to prevent the engine from exceeding the rated speed by more than __________.
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1035. Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?
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1036. When piloted by a small amount of control air, the pneumatic relay valves, shown in the illustration, will provide a large flow of air from a separate source. The flow will stop when the control pressure is vented through the port numbered __________
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1037. A main propulsion diesel engine is normally shutdown by __________.
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1038. Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel engines function to stop the engine by __________.
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1039. Engine protection by means of an alarm or shutdown control can be obtained with devices that are sensitive to __________.
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1040. Where diesel engine speed and clutch controls are combined into one operation by a single control lever, movement of the lever from the 'stop' position to the 'ahead' position will FIRST __________.
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1041. Which of the listed governor characteristics will determine the final load sharing relationship between paralleled diesel generators?
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1042. Diesel engine control can be obtained by the bridge __________.
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1043. Control of the main propulsion diesel engines can be shifted from the engine room to the wheelhouse from the __________.
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1044. Diesel engine automated control systems may utilize sensing devices of dual function, with sensing ranges providing both alarm and engine shut down capability. Which of the key points listed would only require an alarm sensor?
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1045. The device shown in the illustration is utilized in some diesel control systems. If the output of "2" is directed to the engine governor, what will be its primary function
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1046. Regulator'17B' shown in the illustration, is set for a constant output of 1.2 bar and the input signal to "1" is currently 0.42 bar. If the output from '17A' can not exceed 0.85 bar, then the current output from "2" should be __________
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1047. If the input signal rises above the setpoint of '17A', shown in the illustration, but remains below the setpoint of '17B', the output from '22A' will __________
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1048. Which of the following statements describes the operation of the circuit shown in the illustration
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1049. A propulsion engine, using the speed control circuit shown in the illustration, fails to function at speeds lower than the low end of the critical speed range. Which of the following statements describes what should be done to correct this malfunction
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1050. The circuit shown in the illustration represents a/an __________
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1051. Item "A" in the illustration is a/an __________
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1052. Which of the operating positions, for valve "A" shown in the illustration, should be chosen to maintain the circuit in continuous flow, regardless of failure to the included downstream components
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1053. The device represented by the symbol "B" in the illustration is used to __________
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1054. Which of the following statements describes the function of the device labeled "C" shown in the illustration
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1055. Item "F" shown in the illustration is called a __________
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1056. Which of the following statements describes the primary reason for the device shown in the illustration to be incorporated into the air start system
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1057. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F, what device is used as a safety feature for the unit shown in the illustration
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1058. The symbol with the output 'ee' shown in the illustration, is properly called a blocking valve. Which of the following statements describes its function when incorporated into a slow speed diesel engine pneumatic control circuit
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1059. The pneumatic circuit shown in the illustration is part of a complex large low-speed engine control system. Which of the following statements describes the function of this circuit
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1060. The pneumatic circuit shown in the illustration is part of a complex control circuit for a large low speed diesel engine. How will the operation of the engine be affected if the line from the double check valve to the servo motor is severed
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1061. The 7 bar control air supply shown in the illustration has failed. Which of the following statements represents the automatic action that will occur
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1062. The pneumatic circuit shown in the illustration is part of a control system used with large low-speed diesel engines. The arrangement may be used to control __________
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1063. What is the primary purpose of the pneumatic component shown in the illustration
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1064. The governor utilized with the device shown in the illustration has become inoperative while the vessel is underway at sea. Which of the following statements describes what action should be taken
Not learned
1065. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?
Not learned
1066. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?
Not learned
1067. The device represented by the symbol "B" in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
1068. A "barrel" is defined as a unit of liquid, measured at 60°F, and is equivalent to __________.
Not learned
1069. Referring to the table shown in the illustration, your vessel has just taken aboard 30,000 gallons of fuel with an API gravity of 35.2 at 60°F. Your vessel's specific fuel consumption at full power is 0.5 lbs. per Hp-Hr. How many hours will the fuel last if it is all burned in the 10,000 hp main engine
Not learned
1070. When using a fuel with a higher than normal sulfur content in an auxiliary diesel engine, you should __________.
Not learned
1071. When using a fuel with a higher than normal sulfur content in an auxiliary diesel engine, you should __________.
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1072. The desirable properties of a marine fuel oil should include __________.
Not learned
1073. The cetane number is the index used to measure a fuel oil's __________.
Not learned
1074. The ignition quality of diesel fuel is indicated by its __________.
Not learned
1075. In diesel engineering practice, the term used to express the ignition quality of a particular fuel is __________.
Not learned
1076. Which of the listed factors will indicate the most about the ability of a fuel to ignite in a diesel engine?
Not learned
1077. The ignition quality of diesel fuel oil is indicated by the __________.
Not learned
1078. The cetane number of a diesel fuel oil indicates its __________.
Not learned
1079. The cetane rating of diesel fuel is an indication of the __________.
Not learned
1080. The ignition quality of diesel fuel is indicated by its __________.
Not learned
1081. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane number of diesel fuel?
Not learned
1082. The ignition quality of a fuel oil is an important operational consideration because it __________.
Not learned
1083. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane number of diesel fuel?
Not learned
1084. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane number rating of diesel fuel?
Not learned
1085. Fuel oil having a low cetane rating could result in __________.
Not learned
1086. The longer ignition delay period resulting from the use of low cetane fuel, will result in __________.
Not learned
1087. A mixture of 45% cetane and 55% alpha-methyl-naphthalene is found to have the same ignition delay as a sample of diesel oil. The sample can be described as having a/an __________.
Not learned
1088. When comparing different fuels for different engines, the ignition quality of the fuel oil becomes a less critical consideration as __________.
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1089. The ignition quality of diesel fuel becomes LESS critical as __________.
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1090. The light and medium fuels utilized in diesel engines also provide a source of __________.
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1091. In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is necessary for __________.
Not learned
1092. Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of microbiological infection?
Not learned
1093. Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile; however, contamination can occur as fuels are __________.
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1094. Most type(s) of microbiological growths in fuel are __________.
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1095. The microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be transported from one location to another by __________.
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1096. Small amounts of moisture are necessary to trigger the growth of microbiological organisms found in some marine fuels. Some sources of water contamination are __________.
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1097. The growth rate of microbiological organisms as found in some fuel supplies will __________.
Not learned
1098. Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial contamination of the fuel supply?
Not learned
1099. Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial contamination?
Not learned
1100. Proper housekeeping to prevent the formation of microbiological growths within a fuel system includes the prevention of water accumulations and the use of __________.
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1101. Microbiological growths in marine fuel are a common occurrence that can be __________.
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1102. One engine manufacturer recommends heavy fuel oil should not be heated above 80°C to 95°C (176°F to 203°F) before purification. This upper limit should be observed to ensure against __________.
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1103. A dirty fuel oil filter can be detected by __________. fuel oil analysis observing the pressure drop across the filter
Not learned
1104. Diesel engine fuel oil contamination often results in __________.
Not learned
1105. Which of the following problems may occur when using fuel oil with a high sulphur content?
Not learned
1106. Poor quality fuel being used in a turbocharged medium-speed, diesel engine could result in __________.
Not learned
1107. Exhaust valve grooving and corrosion is caused by certain components of residual fuel oil. These components are sodium, sulfur, and __________.
Not learned
1108. Diesel fuel oil having a low cetane rating can result in __________.
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1109. Combustion knock will most likely occur as a result of using a fuel with __________.
Not learned
1110. Poor combustion in a diesel engine operating with blended fuel oil can be caused by __________.
Not learned
1111. Heavy fuel oils generally have an upper average ash content of 0.1% by weight. Which of the following conditions could be expected if the ash content increases above this amount?
Not learned
1112. The manufacturer of a particular diesel engine recommends when running on heavy fuel for the vanadium content not to exceed 300 ppm. If there are 10 ounces of vanadium per 3125 pounds of fuel just taken on board, which of the following statements is correct?
Not learned
1113. A substance found in residual fuels which tends to cause exhaust valve corrosion and grooving, is __________.
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1114. The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy, is known as its __________.
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1115. The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.
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1116. Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to __________.
Not learned
1117. The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the __________.
Not learned
1118. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulfur content of any fuel oil used onboard ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight?
Not learned
1119. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable Sulphur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area?
Not learned
1120. According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Passenger Vessels, for how long do the drawn and sealed half-pint fuel samples need to be maintained and preserved on board?
Not learned
1121. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), what is the minimum allowable flashpoint for a fuel to be burned in a steam boiler?
Not learned
1122. You are onboard a vessel with a slow-speed crosshead type engine. The fuel just received has a significantly lower sulfur content than the previous bunkers. Which of the following would be a concern due to the reduced sulfur content?
Not learned
1123. A cylindrical tank measures 10 feet in diameter and 20 feet in length, weighs 4 long tons when empty. When completely filled with a petroleum product having an API gravity of 35.5 at 60°F, what is the total weight of the tank and its contents in long tons
Not learned
1124. According to 46 CFR Part 58, when installing a new independent fuel tank for the emergency lighting generator, which of the following statements must be strictly adhered to in accordance with Coast Guard Regulations?
Not learned
1125. If one fuel strainer of a duplex strainer unit becomes clogged while your vessel is underway, you should first __________.
Not learned
1126. If one fuel oil strainer of a duplex unit becomes clogged while the vessel is steaming at sea, the FIRST action should be to __________.
Not learned
1127. Device "E" shown in the illustration is known as the __________
Not learned
1128. In order to start a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine on high viscosity fuel after an extended shutdown, the __________.
Not learned
1129. When fuel oil is accidentally mixed with lube oil which of the following processes can be used to separate them? filtering Settling
Not learned
1130. Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned at regular intervals in order to remove __________.
Not learned
1131. Which of the listed pumps, shown in the illustration, discharges directly to the fuel oil settling tanks of a diesel engine main propulsion plant
Not learned
1132. Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to __________.
Not learned
1133. Standby or emergency diesel generator day tanks should always be kept full to reduce the possibility of ______.
Not learned
1134. Which of the tanks, shown in the illustration, supplies fuel to the emergency generator
Not learned
1135. Which chemical is most often utilized to prevent and correct most microbial contamination occurring within fuel storage systems?
Not learned
1136. As shown in the illustration, the viscosimeter would be used to directly control the output of which of the following components
Not learned
1137. The output signal from the viscosimeter shown in the illustration is used to control the __________
Not learned
1138. When in automatic mode, the output signal of the viscosimeter, shown in the illustration, will vary as a result of measuring the fuel oil __________
Not learned
1139. Valve '1', as shown in the illustration, should be operated when __________
Not learned
1140. When operating the HFO purifiers in "parallel", as shown in the illustration __________
Not learned
1141. Under what condition would valves "4" and "5", as shown in the illustration, be closed
Not learned
1142. In the illustration shown, under what conditions would valves "2" and "3" be closed and valve "6" be opened
Not learned
1143. When running a large, dual fuel, main propulsion diesel engine on heavy fuel, which of the following precautions should be observed when switching from heavy fuel oil to diesel oil?
Not learned
1144. Heavy fuel oil used in the system shown in the illustration will have the lowest viscosity __________
Not learned
1145. Which of the listed types of gasket material should be used on high-pressure fuel oil lines on a diesel engine?
Not learned
1146. The purpose of the interlocked three-way valve shown in the illustration is to __________
Not learned
1147. In the large slow-speed main propulsion diesel engine shown in the illustration, the part labeled "G" is the __________
Not learned
1148. The most effective method in removing water from diesel fuel oil is by __________.
Not learned
1149. Proper filtering and straining of diesel fuel is important because the __________.
Not learned
1150. To minimize corrosion, what are fuel oil strainer disks, spacers and scraper blades made of?
Not learned
1151. Fuel oil strainers should be made of __________. copper Brass
Not learned
1152. To minimize corrosion, what are fuel oil strainer disks, spacers and scraper blades made of?
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1153. After changing out the fuel filters the diesel engine fails to restart. The most probable cause for this condition is a/an __________.
Not learned
1154. If you suspect a diesel engine is misfiring due to air leakage into the fuel system, you should begin looking for the leak at the __________.
Not learned
1155. If a diesel engine runs out of fuel, you can expect trouble from __________.
Not learned
1156. If you determine that entrained air in the fuel oil system is causing a diesel engine to stall, you should first check for __________.
Not learned
1157. Air in the fuel can cause __________.
Not learned
1158. If a diesel engine runs out of fuel, you can expect trouble from __________.
Not learned
1159. Air in the fuel lines of a diesel engine can cause __________.
Not learned
1160. Dirt in a fuel oil system of a diesel engine can cause __________.
Not learned
1161. A dirty fuel oil filter element can be detected by __________.
Not learned
1162. Clogged diesel engine fuel oil filters can cause __________,
Not learned
1163. The main source of fuel pump and injection system malfunctions is __________.
Not learned
1164. Water in the fuel can prevent the engine from starting, prevent it from developing full power, or __________.
Not learned
1165. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit drain valves in the machinery space for removing water and impurities from diesel engine fuel systems. Those valves must be __________.
Not learned
1166. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit the use of drain valves for removing water or impurities from diesel engine fuel systems. These valves must be __________.
Not learned
1167. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F, diesel fuel oil system valves for removing water or impurities are __________.
Not learned
1168. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F, steel tubing connections and fittings used with diesel fuel oil systems are to be either flared or __________.
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1169. To prevent vibration damage to the fuel supply line of a diesel engine, you may use __________.
Not learned
1170. Fuel oil transfer systems used onboard diesel propelled vessels are required to have __________.
Not learned
1171. When fuel oil heaters are required for main engine operation, __________.
Not learned
1172. Piping from booster pumps to injection systems are to be at least __________.
Not learned
1173. Valves and fittings used with diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping may be threaded in sizes up to and including 60 mm O.D., but screwed unions __________.
Not learned
1174. Valves used in diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping are to be __________.
Not learned
1175. Which of the following statements is correct concerning ABS rules for fuel oil injection systems as found on diesel propelled vessels?
Not learned
1176. Which of the following manufacturing methods is recommended for diesel engine fuel injection line piping?
Not learned
1177. What type of fitting is to be used on diesel engine fuel injection line piping?
Not learned
1178. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of fuel injection piping used on diesel engines with a cylinder bore of 250 mm and above?
Not learned
1179. If the peak to peak pressure pulsation in the diesel engine fuel injection return piping exceeds 285 psi what special provision is to be provided?
Not learned
1180. In what application is an emergency shutdown most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the pump itself is located within the machinery space?
Not learned
1181. Valve '1', as shown in the illustration, should be operated when __________
Not learned
1182. Device "E" shown in the illustration is known as the __________
Not learned
1183. Heavy fuel oil used in the system shown in the illustration will have the lowest viscosity __________
Not learned
1184. If an analysis of a sample of used engine lube oil shows a high concentration of ethylene glycol, this probably indicates that __________.
Not learned
1185. With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over time. What would be indicated by a sudden increase in metallic content of a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?
Not learned
1186. With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over time. What would be indicated by elevated copper levels associated with a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?
Not learned
1187. Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil is indicative of a condition. What would high silicon levels indicate?
Not learned
1188. What used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil analysis test result would indicate the oil's ability to neutralize harmful acidic byproducts?
Not learned
1189. Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil is indicative of a condition. What would high iron levels indicate?
Not learned
1190. Which of the following fuel sampling methods would present the most reliable, accurate, and cost- effective option for shipboard use?
Not learned
1191. Fuel density is easily checked on board ship to facilitate proper fuel treatment. What is the maximum fuel density at 15°C allowed for proper centrifugation to take place?
Not learned
1192. The water content of fuel is easily checked on board ship to insure that serious problems do not result. What is the maximum water content of fuel that can be tolerated without serious problems resulting?
Not learned
1193. Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to facilitate proper fuel storage, handling, and treatment. What tests are most important for determining what temperatures to maintain throughout the fuel forwarding and service systems?
Not learned
1194. Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to facilitate proper centrifugation. What test provides the key data for selecting the correct purifier gravity disk for fuel oil centrifugal purifiers?
Not learned
1195. Compatibility of fuel is easily checked onboard ship to ensure that serious problems do not result. What statement concerning fuel incompatibility is true?
Not learned
1196. Which of the following mechanisms is a feature of the standby diesel engine shown in the illustration
Not learned
1197. Which of the combustion parameters listed is used in a diesel engine, but NOT related to the injection system?
Not learned
1198. Compared to other fuel injection systems, unit injectors operate with virtually no __________.
Not learned
1199. Maintaining the proper fuel oil temperature will result in __________.
Not learned
1200. The diesel engine shown in the illustration has the highest fuel pressure developed in the part labeled __________
Not learned
1201. The replacement piping for diesel engine high pressure fuel systems must be the same length and diameter as the original piping to __________.
Not learned
1202. In the slow-speed diesel engine shown in the illustration, the part labeled "E" is the __________
Not learned
1203. Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by __________.
Not learned
1204. Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by __________.
Not learned
1205. The main advantage of unit injectors over other fuel injection systems is __________.
Not learned
1206. The main advantage of unit injectors over other fuel injection systems is __________.
Not learned
1207. Each diesel engine cylinder shown in the illustration is equipped with a/an __________
Not learned
1208. The primary function of a fuel delivery check valve assembly is to __________.
Not learned
1209. What is the primary purpose of a fuel injection system, besides metering and atomizing fuel?
Not learned
1210. In the large slow-speed main propulsion diesel engine shown in the illustration, the part labeled "G" is the __________
Not learned
1211. The component shown in the illustration would be identified as a/an __________
Not learned
1212. Air is normally bled from a diesel engine fuel system by __________.
Not learned
1213. An immediate repair is required if a leak occurs in the high-pressure fuel piping between the injection pump and fuel nozzle because of the __________.
Not learned
1214. When high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures occur simultaneously in a diesel engine, this may be a result of __________.
Not learned
1215. In the common rail system, excessive pressure in the header may be caused by __________.
Not learned
1216. Problems with the diesel engine fuel injection pump are usually caused by __________.
Not learned
1217. Which of the following problems is the main source of fuel pump and injection system malfunctions?
Not learned
1218. Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will result in __________.
Not learned
1219. Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will cause the engine to __________.
Not learned
1220. If a diesel engine runs out of fuel, you can expect trouble from __________.
Not learned
1221. An increase in the fuel injection pump discharge pressure can be caused by a/an __________.
Not learned
1222. The main source of fuel pump and injection system malfunctions is __________.
Not learned
1223. The most common diesel engine fuel system problems are caused by __________.
Not learned
1224. Problems with the diesel engine fuel injection pump are usually caused by __________.
Not learned
1225. A diesel engine fails to start because of water in the fuel. In order to start the engine, you should __________.
Not learned
1226. The diesel engine component labeled "19", shown in the illustration is called a/an __________
Not learned
1227. The fuel injector for the diesel engine shown in the illustration, is identified as _________
Not learned
1228. What type of fuel injector is installed in the diesel engine shown in the illustration
Not learned
1229. The minimum delivery pressure required for diesel engine fuel oil injection depends primarily on the __________.
Not learned
1230. Which of the following statements concerning a closed type fuel injection nozzle is true?
Not learned
1231. Differential needle valves used in fuel injectors are directly closed by __________.
Not learned
1232. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine would most greatly affect __________.
Not learned
1233. The ability of a fuel particle to travel into the combustion chamber before burning is called __________.
Not learned
1234. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine would most greatly affect __________.
Not learned
1235. Which of the following statements concerning fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder is correct?
Not learned
1236. Why must fuel droplets injected into a diesel engine cylinder have adequate penetration?
Not learned
1237. Fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine is __________.
Not learned
1238. Fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine is __________.
Not learned
1239. What effect does proper atomization of fuel have in a diesel engine combustion chamber?
Not learned
1240. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder has the greatest effect on the __________.
Not learned
1241. What is the term given to the process of breaking up fuel oil into very fine particles for better combustion?
Not learned
1242. The 'breaking-up' of fuel as it enters a diesel engine cylinder is known as __________.
Not learned
1243. Fuel oil discharged into the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the __________.
Not learned
1244. Fuel is admitted to a diesel engine cylinder through the __________.
Not learned
1245. The unit shown in the illustration is called a/an __________
Not learned
1246. The illustrated device is operated directly by __________
Not learned
1247. The fuel injector shown in the illustration is opened by fuel pressure acting upward on __________
Not learned
1248. Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by __________.
Not learned
1249. One problem resulting from a diesel engine fuel injector opening pressure being lower than specified by the engine manufacturer, is that the __________.
Not learned
1250. Fuel supplied by each unit injector on a two-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is directed into each cylinder at a very high pressure through the __________.
Not learned
1251. The injection pressure of a hydraulic fuel injection nozzle can be increased by __________.
Not learned
1252. Differential type needle valves in diesel engine fuel oil nozzles, are closed directly by __________. spring pressure fuel oil pressure
Not learned
1253. Regarding the fuel injector shown in the illustration, the purpose of piece #38 is to __________
Not learned
1254. Which of the fuel systems listed combines the injection pump and the injection nozzle in one housing?
Not learned
1255. Which of the listed types of fuel injectors is shown in the illustration
Not learned
1256. A unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine to __________.
Not learned
1257. In a unit injector, an upper helix and lower helix are machined in the lower part of the plunger for __________.
Not learned
1258. In a unit injector, an upper helix and lower helix are machined in the lower part of the plunger for __________.
Not learned
1259. Which of the fuel injection systems listed uses a spring-loaded differential spray needle valve and an individual pump for each cylinder?
Not learned
1260. The item labeled #16 in the illustration is a stack of spring washers. Their function is to __________
Not learned
1261. Fuel injector nozzles are usually of the multi-orifice type with the number and placement of the holes arranged according to the __________.
Not learned
1262. The degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder depends primarily on __________.
Not learned
1263. Which type of diesel engine fuel nozzle is shown in the illustration
Not learned
1264. Carbon deposit build up on the injection nozzle orifice is least likely to occur when using which type of fuel injector nozzle?
Not learned
1265. Fuel injectors used in heavy fuel oil systems are usually provided with cooling to reduce __________.
Not learned
1266. Indirect cooling of fuel injector nozzle holders for diesel engines is accomplished primarily by __________.
Not learned
1267. The long drilled passages shown in the illustration of the cutaway view II-II are for __________
Not learned
1268. Injectors for use with heavy fuel oil may be internally cooled by either water or light oil to __________.
Not learned
1269. The amount of fuel delivered by a unit injector is controlled by the __________.
Not learned
1270. The amount of fuel injected into a cylinder by a unit injector is controlled by __________.
Not learned
1271. If the coolant temperature is too low as it passes through internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors can be damaged by __________.
Not learned
1272. If the coolant temperature is too low as it passes through internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors can be damaged by __________.
Not learned
1273. When a nozzle tester is being used to test a "closed" type fuel injection nozzle, a clogged nozzle orifice will be indicated by a __________.
Not learned
1274. You are testing a closed fuel injection nozzle using a nozzle tester. A pressure slightly less than design valve opening pressure is applied. If no fuel appears at the spray tip, the __________.
Not learned
1275. Which of the fuel nozzles listed requires the LEAST maintenance?
Not learned
1276. The spray holes in diesel engine fuel valves should be cleaned using carbon solvent and __________.
Not learned
1277. If it becomes necessary to clean the spray holes in a diesel engine fuel injector, you should use a suitable size piano wire and __________.
Not learned
1278. The principal hazard to personnel when using a diesel engine fuel nozzle tester is _______.
Not learned
1279. When a nozzle tester is used to check the spray pattern of a diesel fuel injection nozzle, which of the following statements is true?
Not learned
1280. Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles can be prevented by avoiding __________.
Not learned
1281. To minimize the formation of carbon deposits on fuel injection nozzles, you should __________.
Not learned
1282. When the opening pressure of a diesel engine fuel injector is greater than that specified by the engine manufacturer, which of the following problems can be expected?
Not learned
1283. When the opening pressure of a diesel engine fuel injector is greater than that specified by the engine manufacturer, which of the following problems can be expected?
Not learned
1284. The dripping of fuel from an injector nozzle after injection terminates, often results in __________.
Not learned
1285. A leaking diesel engine fuel injector will cause __________.
Not learned
1286. Dirt lodged on the nozzle valve seat of a fuel injection nozzle will cause __________.
Not learned
1287. A fuel injection valve opening at a pressure lower than normal will result in __________.
Not learned
1288. A defective injector nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause __________.
Not learned
1289. A faulty injector in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine can be located by __________.
Not learned
1290. Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles on small high-speed diesel engines, can be prevented by __________.
Not learned
1291. In a large main propulsion diesel engine, if an excessive amount of carbon has been found to be forming around the fuel injector nozzle holes, which of the following would correct this condition?
Not learned
1292. If a few injector spray holes become plugged, the result could be __________.
Not learned
1293. A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause __________.
Not learned
1294. Which of the following problems will occur if the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks in the open position?
Not learned
1295. If the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks open, __________.
Not learned
1296. A broken pintle in a fuel injector usually causes __________.
Not learned
1297. Which of the following problems could cause misalignment between the needle valve and nozzle in a fuel injection nozzle?
Not learned
1298. Visual inspection of a fuel injector valve, removed during overhaul, shows heat discoloration of the lower end of the valve. This is indicative of __________.
Not learned
1299. Plugged spray holes in a diesel engine fuel injector will cause excessive smoking at idling speed, in addition to __________.
Not learned
1300. Distortion of the spray pattern of a nozzle or injector may be indicated by a/an __________.
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1301. A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a diesel engine to have __________.
Not learned
1302. An incorrect spray pattern produced by a diesel engine fuel injection nozzle can be directly caused by __________.
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1303. A change in the quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel injector would be caused by a/an __________.
Not learned
1304. Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be a direct result of __________.
Not learned
1305. The major cause of problems occurring with fuel injection equipment is __________.
Not learned
1306. Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be directly caused by __________.
Not learned
1307. When a fuel injection nozzle overheats, which of the problems listed can be expected?
Not learned
1308. The illustrated device is operated directly by __________
Not learned
1309. Which type of diesel engine fuel nozzle is shown in the illustration
Not learned
1310. What function is served by the spring piece #34 shown in the illustration
Not learned
1311. In a jerk pump, the amount of fuel that will be forced through the spray nozzle on each upward stroke of the plunger depends on __________.
Not learned
1312. Fuel injection pumps using the port and helix metering principle requires the use of a __________.
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1313. The fuel injection pump shown in the illustration, the position of the plunger would give maximum __________
Not learned
1314. Regarding jerk-type fuel pumps as used on some auxiliary diesel engines, the delivery cutoff point is controlled with a __________.
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1315. The plunger in a jerk pump is rotated until the release port is uncovered. If the port remains uncovered all of the time, which of the listed operations will occur?
Not learned
1316. A port-and-helix fuel injection pump having upper and lower plunger helixes is designed to __________.
Not learned
1317. A plunger is used in the fuel injection pump shown in the illustration 'timed for port closing.' The injection process will always have a __________
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1318. Increasing the load on an engine using a double-helix type injection pump varies the effective stroke of the pump to start __________.
Not learned
1319. What is the purpose of the "window" installed in the housing of an individual jerk pump?
Not learned
1320. The fuel injection pumps on a diesel engine are controlled by a linkage system attached to the __________.
Not learned
1321. What is the purpose of the "window" installed in the housing of an individual jerk pump?
Not learned
1322. In order to determine the fuel pump rack setting for individual fuel pumps on the diesel engine shown in the illustration, you must __________
Not learned
1323. What is the purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel injection jerk pump?
Not learned
1324. One function of the fuel pump delivery check valve is to __________.
Not learned
1325. Where is the fuel delivery check valve located in a jerk pump fuel injection system?
Not learned
1326. The delivery valve installed in a port and helix fuel injection pump is designed to __________.
Not learned
1327. In a diesel engine mechanical-type fuel pump, the delivery check valve is opened by __________.
Not learned
1328. The purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel injection jerk pump is to __________. assist in a quick cutoff of fuel injection prevent fuel oil backflow from the injection pump
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1329. The main difference between an 'APF' and an 'APE' type fuel injection pump, is the design of the __________.
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1330. The main difference between an 'APF' and an 'APE' type fuel injection pump is that __________.
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1331. The main difference between an 'APF' and an 'APE' jerk type fuel injection pump, is the __________.
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1332. Which of the following statements represents the function of the plunger flange labeled "A" shown in the illustration
Not learned
1333. Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system using individual plunger-type pumps __________.
Not learned
1334. Movement of the control rack of the fuel injector shown in the illustration, changes the __________
Not learned
1335. In the illustration shown, moving the component labeled "E", further to the left, will result in __________
Not learned
1336. As shown in the illustration of the fuel injection pump, the function of the area designated as "G" is to __________
Not learned
1337. As shown in the illustration of the fuel injection pump, the function of the area designated as "L" is to __________
Not learned
1338. As shown in the illustration of the fuel injection pump, the component labeled "N" would be identified as the __________
Not learned
1339. As shown in the illustration of the fuel injection pump, the component labeled "N" would be identified as the __________
Not learned
1340. As shown in the illustration of the fuel injection pump, the component labeled "J" would be identified as the __________
Not learned
1341. As shown in the illustration of the fuel injection pump, the section designated as "M" is referred to as the __________
Not learned
1342. The component identified as item No.15 is used to __________
Not learned
1343. The component identified as item #9 is used as part of the __________
Not learned
1344. The component identified as item #15 is used to __________
Not learned
1345. When disassembling or assembling an injection pump plunger and barrel you should _________.
Not learned
1346. Surface irregularities, such as erosion and pitting on injection pump plungers, will __________.
Not learned
1347. If the discharge valve of the fuel injection pump, shown in the illustration, leaks during operation, which of the following conditions should be expected
Not learned
1348. If the discharge valve "F" of the fuel injection pump, shown in the illustration, allows fuel to leak out from the high pressure fuel line, which of the following conditions would occur
Not learned
1349. Because of the close tolerances used in diesel engine fuel oil pumps, a worn plunger requires __________.
Not learned
1350. While overhauling a jerk-type fuel pump it is necessary to replace the pump plunger. Which of the parts listed below must also be replaced?
Not learned
1351. If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes damaged, __________.
Not learned
1352. If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes damaged, __________.
Not learned
1353. Uneven bolt tightening during the installation of a fuel injection pump can result in __________.
Not learned
1354. If lost motion is present in an individual fuel injection pump, which of the following problems will occur?
Not learned
1355. If a diesel engine runs roughly, which of the systems listed is most likely to be at fault?
Not learned
1356. The component identified as item No.15 is used to __________
Not learned
1357. Component "F" shown in the illustration is called the __________
Not learned
1358. The injector rack of the diesel engine shown in the illustration is indicated by the component labeled __________
Not learned
1359. Injection lag in a diesel engine may be caused by __________.
Not learned
1360. Diesel engine injection lag is caused by __________.
Not learned
1361. Injection lag can be caused by __________.
Not learned
1362. Diesel engine injection lag is caused by __________.
Not learned
1363. Diesel engine injection lag is caused by __________.
Not learned
1364. Diesel engine injection lag is caused by __________.
Not learned
1365. Fuel combustion in a diesel engine cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and should __________.
Not learned
1366. In a diesel engine, the time taken to heat the fuel particles, turn them into vapor, and bring about combustion is called __________.
Not learned
1367. In a diesel engine, the time period between fuel injection and ignition is usually defined as __________.
Not learned
1368. The time between injection and ignition of the fuel is known as __________.
Not learned
1369. During the fuel injection period, fuel pressure must exceed cylinder gas pressure to __________.
Not learned
1370. When the lower edge of the spiral begins to uncover the release port in a jerk pump, the __________.
Not learned
1371. The duration of fuel injection developed by an individual port-and-helix fuel injection pump, is determined by the __________.
Not learned
1372. The amount of fuel injected into a cylinder by a unit injector is controlled by __________.
Not learned
1373. Which of the following will occur when the lower edge of the spiral, on the plunger of a jerk pump, uncovers the spill port?
Not learned
1374. The effective stroke of a constant-stroke, individual, fuel injection pump is varied by the __________.
Not learned
1375. Some fuel injection systems utilize port-and-helix metering. Which of the following statement describes a system 'timed for port closing'?
Not learned
1376. Which of the following statements describes a fuel injection pump marked 'timed for port closing'?
Not learned
1377. The port-and-helix metering pumps, used in diesel fuel injection systems, are usually designed to produce a constant beginning and a variable ending of fuel injection. These pumps are usually __________.
Not learned
1378. What are the effective stroke characteristics for the injection pump plunger shown in the illustration
Not learned
1379. The end of fuel injection in a port-and-helix metering pump can be controlled by __________.
Not learned
1380. On a diesel engine equipped with individual jerk type fuel pumps, adjustments should be made to the tappets (push rods) of the pumps to __________.
Not learned
1381. The amount of fuel delivered for each cycle must be in accordance with the engine load, and the same quantity of fuel must be delivered to each cylinder for each power stroke at that load. Which of the following statements describes this requirement?
Not learned
1382. The amount of fuel injected in a particular time, or degree, of crankshaft rotation is termed __________.
Not learned
1383. The term 'proper metering', as applied to a diesel fuel injection system, can be best defined as __________.
Not learned
1384. An individual fuel injection pump is designed for variable beginning and constant ending of injection. For diesel engines operating a generator at constant speeds, the start of injection will __________.
Not learned
1385. The indicated position of the fuel injection pump plunger as shown in the illustration, will provide fuel delivery to the diesel engine in an amount approximately equal to __________
Not learned
1386. The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection pump is controlled by __________.
Not learned
1387. In a jerk pump, the amount of fuel that will be forced through the spray nozzle on each upward stroke of the plunger depends on __________.
Not learned
1388. The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection pump is controlled by __________.
Not learned
1389. The control rack to a unit injector regulates fuel delivery by __________.
Not learned
1390. The effective pump stroke of an individual port-and-helix fuel injection pump is determined by the __________.
Not learned
1391. Fuel delivery to the cylinder is terminated when the __________
Not learned
1392. Fuel delivery to the cylinder is terminated when the __________
Not learned
1393. According to the illustration, fuel delivery to the cylinder is terminated and controlled with the component that is identified as the letter _________
Not learned
1394. According to the illustration, initial timing of fuel injection into the cylinder is controlled with the component that is identified as the letter _________
Not learned
1395. According to the illustration, initial timing of fuel injection into the cylinder is controlled with the component that is identified as the letter _________
Not learned
1396. Fuel oil injected into the cylinder of a diesel engine just after the piston passes top dead center, will __________.
Not learned
1397. When fuel is injected late into a diesel engine cylinder, __________.
Not learned
1398. A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too late in the cycle, because the __________.
Not learned
1399. Late fuel injection timing is indicated by __________.
Not learned
1400. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by black or gray exhaust smoke with a __________.
Not learned
1401. Which of the following problems may occur if the opening pressure of a fuel injection nozzle is greater than specified by the engine manufacturer?
Not learned
1402. High cylinder firing pressure, accompanied by low exhaust temperature, can result from __________.
Not learned
1403. Early fuel injection in a diesel engine cylinder will generally result in __________.
Not learned
1404. Which of the conditions listed would cause simultaneous high cylinder firing pressure and low exhaust temperature?
Not learned
1405. When fuel is injected too early in the injection cycle, it may cause the engine to have __________.
Not learned
1406. Early injection timing is indicated by __________.
Not learned
1407. Which of the listed set of conditions indicates early fuel injection timing?
Not learned
1408. If fuel injection in a diesel engine begins earlier than the design start of injection, ignition may be delayed because the __________.
Not learned
1409. A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too early because the __________.
Not learned
1410. Late fuel oil injection in a diesel engine can result in __________.
Not learned
1411. One cause of diesel engine fuel ignition delay is __________.
Not learned
1412. Which of the following conditions will tend to increase the ignition delay period of combustion in a compression ignition engine?
Not learned
1413. Early fuel injection timing is indicated by the cylinder pressure being __________.
Not learned
1414. Combustion knock can occur in the cylinders of a diesel engine under any condition permitting __________.
Not learned
1415. Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
Not learned
1416. If the diesel engine fuel injection timing is changed to delay the start of injection until the pistons are at top dead center, the engine will __________.
Not learned
1417. Significant retardation of diesel engine fuel injection timing will result in __________.
Not learned
1418. Incorrect timing of the fuel injection system is similar to the effects of poor __________.
Not learned
1419. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure with __________.
Not learned
1420. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure with __________.
Not learned
1421. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by black or gray exhaust smoke with a __________.
Not learned
1422. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by black or gray exhaust smoke with a __________.
Not learned
1423. High firing pressures and a low exhaust temperature in a diesel engine may result from __________.
Not learned
1424. One remedy for a high firing pressure, in addition to a high exhaust temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine, is to __________.
Not learned
1425. The termination of fuel injection for a large low speed diesel engine is initiated by __________
Not learned
1426. The dimension of the thinnest hydrodynamic film developed within a full journal bearing, when all other factors remain constant, depends upon the __________.
Not learned
1427. Oils are usually graded by their service classification and __________.
Not learned
1428. The amount of fluid friction or internal friction inherent in a mineral lubricating oil is reflected as a measure of its __________.
Not learned
1429. Which of the listed characteristics of lube oil are the most important to the engineer from an operational standpoint?
Not learned
1430. The ability of lubricating oils to resist viscosity changes during temperature changes is indicated by the __________.
Not learned
1431. Which of the additives listed will maintain the suspension of fine residue particles in lube oil?
Not learned
1432. If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from a diesel engine indicates an increased neutralization number the __________.
Not learned
1433. If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from a diesel engine indicates an increased neutralization number the __________.
Not learned
1434. A good quality lubricating oil used in any machinery, should be __________.
Not learned
1435. The neutralization number obtained from a test sample of lubricating oil will tell you precisely __________.
Not learned
1436. A diesel engine using lube oil with too high a viscosity will exhibit __________.
Not learned
1437. Lubricating oil used in a diesel engine serves to __________.
Not learned
1438. In a diesel engine, the function of lubrication oil is to provide __________.
Not learned
1439. One function of diesel engine lubricating oil is to __________.
Not learned
1440. Two important considerations for the proper lubrication of a diesel engine include, the delivery of the oil in sufficient amount, and the __________.
Not learned
1441. Two important considerations for the proper lubrication of a diesel engine include, the delivery of the oil in sufficient amount, and __________.
Not learned
1442. Two important considerations to maintain proper lubrication of a diesel engine include the delivery of oil in sufficient amount along with an acceptable __________.
Not learned
1443. A diesel engine exposed to widely varying ambient temperatures should use a lubricating oil with __________.
Not learned
1444. The thickness of the oil film to be developed in a diesel engine main bearing, depends upon the __________.
Not learned
1445. Friction, engine wear, and oil consumption in a diesel engine can be directly attributed to the __________.
Not learned
1446. A diesel engine should use which type of lubricating oil?
Not learned
1447. The highest indicated lube oil pressure in a diesel engine should be expected when the engine oil is _________.
Not learned
1448. The TBN value of diesel engine lube oil refers to its ability to __________.
Not learned
1449. What characteristic in lube oil helps to reduce the amount of deposits formed in the piston ring belt during the combustion process in a diesel engine?
Not learned
1450. Which lubricating oil additive is used in diesel engines to reduce the tendency for sludge and varnish to form on the engine parts?
Not learned
1451. Sludge formation in a diesel engine lube oil system is caused by __________.
Not learned
1452. A well-lubricated bearing surface always appears __________.
Not learned
1453. A large, low-speed, crosshead, main propulsion diesel engine using residual fuel oils must have a cylinder oil having a __________.
Not learned
1454. The adverse effects of burning high sulfur fuel can be compensated for by using a cylinder oil having sufficient __________.
Not learned
1455. The adverse effects of burning high sulfur fuel can be compensated for by using a cylinder oil having sufficient __________.
Not learned
1456. In a normally operating diesel engine, the main source of lubricating oil contamination in the crankcase is a result of the __________.
Not learned
1457. Under normal operating conditions, the main source of crankcase oil contamination in medium speed diesel engines is attributed to __________.
Not learned
1458. In a normally operating diesel engine, the main source of lubricating oil contamination in the crankcase is a result of the __________.
Not learned
1459. One simple laboratory analysis of used lube oil that can be carried out aboard ship is called the __________.
Not learned
1460. A 'Blotter test' is a test performed on the lube oil of a diesel engine which can determine ______.
Not learned
1461. Which of the following test indicators should be considered a determining factor as to whether or not a diesel generator's lube oil should be drained and renewed?
Not learned
1462. Which of the following test indicators should be considered the most significant factor in determining as to whether or not a diesel-generator's lube oil should be drained and renewed?
Not learned
1463. How often should the lubricating oil of a diesel engine be changed?
Not learned
1464. The color of the diesel engine detergent type lube oil in an operating diesel engine is black. This indicates __________.
Not learned
1465. If the detergent type lubricating oil being used in a diesel engine is black, the oil __________.
Not learned
1466. Which of the following conditions is indicated when the lubricating oil of a diesel engine turns dark after a few hours of use?
Not learned
1467. Fuel oil contamination of an auxiliary diesel engine lube oil can result in __________.
Not learned
1468. Which of the following conditions can cause excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine?
Not learned
1469. Oil oxidation, as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is harmful to a diesel engine because __________.
Not learned
1470. Oil oxidation, as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is harmful to a diesel engine because __________.
Not learned
1471. The oxidation by-products forming in diesel engine lube oil can cause __________.
Not learned
1472. Which of the following operational conditions will occur to the diesel engine lube oil at extremely high temperatures?
Not learned
1473. What contaminants found in engine lube oil will cause an increase in wear rate of metal components in a diesel engine.
Not learned
1474. Lube oil contamination will increase due to normal wear of engine components as a result of _________.
Not learned
1475. If the analysis of used lube oil indicates a high content of iron particles, this could indicate __________.
Not learned
1476. If an analysis of a sample of used engine lube oil shows a high concentration of sodium nitrite, this probably indicates that __________.
Not learned
1477. Diesel engine lube oil diluted with diesel fuel oil is indicated by __________.
Not learned
1478. When excessive fuel dilution is noted in the lube oil, the oil should be __________.
Not learned
1479. When fuel oil has seriously contaminated a diesel engine lubricating oil, you should __________.
Not learned
1480. If a sample of engine lube oil indicates excessive fuel dilution, the lube oil should be __________.
Not learned
1481. A decrease in the flash point of diesel engine lube oil indicates the lube oil has become __________.
Not learned
1482. A 'detergent-type' lube oil, used in a diesel engine, should be replaced when __________.
Not learned
1483. A decrease in the flash point of diesel engine lube oil indicates the lube oil has become __________.
Not learned
1484. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur when unburned fuel contaminates the crankcase of a diesel engine?
Not learned
1485. Which of the following conditions indicates the dilution of diesel engine lube oil by fuel oil?
Not learned
1486. Lubricating oil viscosity in an operating diesel engine can be reduced by __________.
Not learned
1487. Which of the following conditions could be a cause of excessive fuel dilution of diesel engine lube oil?
Not learned
1488. A sudden decrease in the diesel engine lube oil viscosity could be an indication of __________.
Not learned
1489. One device used to determine the amount of fuel dilution of diesel engine lube oil is a/an __________.
Not learned
1490. Lube oil filters can be used to remove most contaminants from lube oil. Which of the contaminants listed would remain in the lube oil after filtering?
Not learned
1491. Diesel engine lube oil can become contaminated as a result of __________.
Not learned
1492. Which of the contaminants listed would remain in the lube oil after filtering?
Not learned
1493. Which of the following is an indication that diesel oil contamination is present in the main engine lube oil system?
Not learned
1494. If the piston groove drain holes for the oil control rings become clogged, which of the following is likely to occur?
Not learned
1495. Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube oil cooler will be indicated by a gradual increase in the lube oil __________.
Not learned
1496. For any piece of equipment requiring lubrication, what is the single most important lubricating oil property in meeting the operating conditions?
Not learned
1497. For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?
Not learned
1498. What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?
Not learned
1499. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?
Not learned
1500. With respect to a lubricating oil's viscosity and the bearing loading characteristics at the points of lubrication, what statement is true?
Not learned
1501. Which statement concerning a lubricating oil's viscosity and bearing loading characteristics is true?
Not learned
1502. In which lubrication application is a detergent type oil most likely to be used?
Not learned
1503. What is the operating principle of detergent type lubricating oil that provides the oil with its unique properties?
Not learned
1504. With respect to lubricating oils, what statement is true concerning viscosity and viscosity index?
Not learned
1505. Which statement is true concerning alkaline reserve as it applies to a lubricating oil?
Not learned
1506. In which lubrication application is a lubricating oil with an alkaline reserve most likely to be used?
Not learned
1507. Item '17' in the illustration is the dipstick. When should the length of the dipstick be changed
Not learned
1508. Both crosshead type and trunk type lubricating oil are received onboard a vessel. These two oils cannot be interchanged due to which of the following reasons?
Not learned
1509. Lube oil coolers are necessary in most engine lubricating systems because __________.
Not learned
1510. The main lube oil manifold, for the diesel engine shown in the illustration, is represented by the letter or number __________
Not learned
1511. Item '17' in the illustration is the dipstick. When should the length of the dipstick be changed
Not learned
1512. An automated diesel engine should normally shut down due to __________.
Not learned
1513. Which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate bearings in a small high-speed diesel engine?
Not learned
1514. In an auxiliary diesel engine "bypass type" lubricating oil system, the main lube oil pump forces __________.
Not learned
1515. Which of the following devices is normally provided to prevent oil starvation in a diesel engine lubrication system utilizing the "full flow" principle?
Not learned
1516. The standard diesel engine lubricating oil filtering system shown in the illustration is classed as a __________
Not learned
1517. In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel engine, the lube oil passing through the filter __________.
Not learned
1518. Motor vessels usually have independent lube oil systems for main engine and main reduction gears because __________.
Not learned
1519. The part labeled "X" shown in the illustration is a __________
Not learned
1520. Lube oil pumps taking suction from the sump of most small marine engines are usually __________.
Not learned
1521. The lube oil pump used in a diesel engine is normally a __________.
Not learned
1522. Lube oil pumps taking suction from the sump of most small marine engines are usually __________.
Not learned
1523. The highest indicated lube oil pressure in a diesel engine should be expected when the __________.
Not learned
1524. Maximum lube system operating pressure for a diesel engine is normally regulated by a/an __________.
Not learned
1525. The output pressure of a diesel engine lube oil pump is regulated by a/an __________.
Not learned
1526. Which of the following devices controls the discharge flow rate of an attached, positive displacement, rotary gear, diesel engine, lube oil pump?
Not learned
1527. In a diesel engine, maximum lube oil system pressure under cold start conditions, is normally controlled by __________.
Not learned
1528. The lube oil cooler is located after the lube oil filter in order for __________.
Not learned
1529. With respect to the flow of lubricating oil through a diesel engine, the lube oil coolers are located after filters in order to __________.
Not learned
1530. On a medium-speed main propulsion diesel engine, the crankpin or crank journal bearings receive lubricating oil from __________.
Not learned
1531. On most modern diesel engines, the main and connecting rod bearings receive their lubricating oil by __________.
Not learned
1532. Lubricating oil systems for diesel engine journal bearings are usually lubricated by which of the following types of lubricating oil systems?
Not learned
1533. Lubricating systems for diesel engines are usually designed to first provide a supply of lube oil to the engine's __________.
Not learned
1534. In a diesel engine lube oil system, which of the following components should be lubricated first?
Not learned
1535. In a diesel engine lube oil system, which of the following components should be lubricated first?
Not learned
1536. Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a single acting four-stroke cycle diesel engine than in a single acting two-stroke cycle diesel engine because __________.
Not learned
1537. Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine because __________.
Not learned
1538. As soon as a diesel engine has started, which of the listed engine operating parameters should be checked FIRST?
Not learned
1539. Unusually low oil pressure in the lube oil header of a diesel engine is the result of a/an __________.
Not learned
1540. Loss of lubricating oil pressure to the main propulsion diesel engine will actuate a/an __________.
Not learned
1541. What could cause the bypass valve in a full flow lubrication system to open?
Not learned
1542. In a full flow type lube oil system, the bypass relief valve will lift due to __________.
Not learned
1543. Excessive lube oil consumption can result from worn or broken __________.
Not learned
1544. If the manufacturer advises of a normal lube oil consumption for a 4000 horsepower (2982.8 kW) diesel engine to be .0001 gal/hp-hr, (.5076 mL/kW-hr), how much oil should the engine consume in one 24 hour period if operated at full load?
Not learned
1545. When a leak has developed in the lube oil cooler of an operating diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions can be expected to occur?
Not learned
1546. Lube oil in the fresh water cooling system of a diesel engine may result from a __________.
Not learned
1547. A condition that can increase the foaming tendency of lube oil is __________.
Not learned
1548. When fuel enters the crankcase of a diesel engine, it __________.
Not learned
1549. Which harmful consequence may be the result of lube oil sludge accumulation?
Not learned
1550. Water accumulating in the crankcase of a diesel engine could indicate __________.
Not learned
1551. How can water enter the crankcase of an operating diesel engine?
Not learned
1552. In a bypass type lubrication system for a diesel engine, the clean oil line from the filter directs the oil to the _______.
Not learned
1553. Auxiliary diesel engines can be automatically shut down as a result of __________.
Not learned
1554. Which of the following statements concerning the lubrication of diesel propulsion engines used in vessels over 300 gross tons is most accurate?
Not learned
1555. Where the size and design of an engine is such that lubrication before starting is not necessary and an attached pump is normally used, __________.
Not learned
1556. To guarantee that a reduction gear bearing is receiving proper oil supply, you should check the __________.
Not learned
1557. To guarantee that a reduction gear bearing is receiving proper oil supply, you should check the __________.
Not learned
1558. Which type of lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or filter?
Not learned
1559. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time?
Not learned
1560. What is the function of component "13" shown in the illustration
Not learned
1561. Before starting a diesel engine that has an engine driven lube oil pump, the engineer should __________.
Not learned
1562. Lube oil filters can be used to remove most contaminants from lube oil. Which of the contaminants listed would remain in the lube oil after filtering?
Not learned
1563. Which of the filters listed will deplete the additives in lubricating oil?
Not learned
1564. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line?
Not learned
1565. Lube oil cannot be efficiently filtered if it’s __________.
Not learned
1566. One limiting problem of lube oil filters restricting their use in large lube oil systems is __________.
Not learned
1567. A spring-loaded relief valve is located on some lube oil filters in full flow systems to __________.
Not learned
1568. In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel engine, the lube oil passing through the filter __________.
Not learned
1569. The lube oil strainer shown in the illustration is used on the reduction gear of a mid-size diesel engine. The strainer elements consist of __________
Not learned
1570. What type of engine lubrication oil filter system sends filtered oil directly to the high-pressure supply gallery?
Not learned
1571. Lube oil filters remove contaminants more efficiently if the oil being filtered is __________.
Not learned
1572. Most large main propulsion diesel engines use a duplex lube oil strainer to __________.
Not learned
1573. Most large main propulsion diesel engines use a duplex lube oil strainer to __________.
Not learned
1574. To manually bypass a strainer or filter in a shunt type lube oil filtering system, __________.
Not learned
1575. Lube oil cannot be efficiently filtered if it’s __________.
Not learned
1576. Lube oil filters remove contaminants more efficiently if the oil being filtered is __________.
Not learned
1577. Where would a coarse screen wire mesh strainer normally be found on a diesel engine lubrication system?
Not learned
1578. Where would a metal-edge disk type strainer normally be found on a diesel engine lubrication system?
Not learned
1579. When cleaning a duplex strainer, it is important for __________.
Not learned
1580. How is the illustrated strainer element cleaned during engine operation
Not learned
1581. The metal-edge strainer, shown in the illustration, is used on medium-speed diesel engine reduction gear lube oil systems. Which of the following statements is true concerning this type of strainer
Not learned
1582. To properly clean the disks of a metal-edge type strainer in a diesel engine lube oil system, you should __________.
Not learned
1583. The metal edge type filters used in diesel engine fuel oil and lube oil systems are normally cleaned in place by __________.
Not learned
1584. Which of the following statements is true concerning the illustrated metal edge strainer
Not learned
1585. A dirty diesel engine oil filter element can best be detected by _________.
Not learned
1586. To determine if the lube oil filter elements need changing, __________.
Not learned
1587. An increased pressure differential between the inlet and outlet of a strainer usually indicates the strainer is __________.
Not learned
1588. Many lube oil filters have pressure gages installed on both the inlet and outlet in order to indicate the pressure drop across the filter. In normal operation, the pressure drop will __________.
Not learned
1589. A dirty lube oil strainer can result in __________.
Not learned
1590. In a bypass type lubrication system for a diesel engine, the dirty oil line to the centrifuge should be taken from the __________.
Not learned
1591. Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and filtration will be the most effective when the oil is at a __________.
Not learned
1592. For a continuous operation diesel engine, a duplex filter unit would be the best arrangement because __________.
Not learned
1593. The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system duplex filter should be checked to __________.
Not learned
1594. The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system duplex filter should be checked to __________.
Not learned
1595. Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer?
Not learned
1596. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line?
Not learned
1597. Which of the following types of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration schemes must be equipped with a bypass relief valve to ensure that the engine bearings are not starved of oil if the filter element should become severely restricted or blocked?
Not learned
1598. Which of the following types of lubricating oil filters is not fitted with a replaceable filter element and is serviced by cleaning?
Not learned
1599. What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters the entire output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery to the lubricating oil supply manifold of the engine?
Not learned
1600. What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters a small portion of the output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery back to the sump via a fine filter?
Not learned
1601. What is the BEST indication that a diesel engine full-flow lubricating oil filter must be serviced?
Not learned
1602. How is the illustrated strainer element cleaned during engine operation
Not learned
1603. The size of the discharge ring used for the efficient operation of a disk type purifier is dependent upon the __________.
Not learned
1604. In order to maintain the effectiveness of the lube oil centrifuge to remove water, the engineer in charge should __________.
Not learned
1605. Item "Q" in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
1606. The item shown in the illustration is commonly identified as a _________
Not learned
1607. Clean oil leaves the centrifuge illustrated through item __________
Not learned
1608. Which of the following problems will occur if a manually cleaned disk-type centrifugal lube oil purifier contains insufficient sealing water prior to admitting oil flow to the bowl?
Not learned
1609. When used as a separator, a centrifugal purifier may lose its seal and cause __________.
Not learned
1610. A centrifugal oil purifier should be shut down if the __________.
Not learned
1611. The sludge tank installed in the diesel engine room is used to collect __________. sludge from the fuel oil centrifuge water that has been collected in the settling tank.
Not learned
1612. Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?
Not learned
1613. Which of the listed contaminants will be satisfactorily removed from fuel oil by centrifuging?
Not learned
1614. A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the following contaminants from fuel oil?
Not learned
1615. On board supply vessels, a centrifuge is normally used to purify __________.
Not learned
1616. Which of the substances listed is satisfactorily removed from the fuel by a centrifugal oil purifier?
Not learned
1617. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if oil containing moisture is continuously fed to a purifier operating as a clarifier?
Not learned
1618. Heavy residual fuel oils are heated prior to centrifuging to __________.
Not learned
1619. Which of the labeled figures illustrated, represents the correct alignment mark relationships of a properly reassembled centrifuge bowl
Not learned
1620. The illustrated figure "A" represents __________
Not learned
1621. The bowl of a disk type centrifuge is dynamically balanced. To maintain the balance of the bowl after it has been disassembled and cleaned, which of the following statements represent the normal practice of re-assembling
Not learned
1622. When reassembling the bowl of a disk-type centrifuge, the bowl or locking ring is rotated __________.
Not learned
1623. When preparing to clean the fuel oil centrifuge shown in the illustration, the bowl must be brought to a complete stop to avoid __________
Not learned
1624. For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.
Not learned
1625. The greatest difference between the centrifuge bowl shown in the illustration and that of a tubular bowl, with straight, vertical, interior surfaces, is that the illustrated unit __________
Not learned
1626. In the past, the interior sides of most centrifugal purifier bowls were straight. However. the interior side of the bowl shown in the illustration, as compared to a straight interior vertical side bowl, is designed to __________
Not learned
1627. In order for the self-cleaning fuel oil centrifuge, shown in the illustration, to properly operate during the desludge cycles, the __________
Not learned
1628. The device shown in the illustration can be automatically or manually desludged. The closing sequence at the end of the desludging cycle is initiated by opening which of the labeled components listed below
Not learned
1629. Immediately at the end of the sludge ejection cycle, the bowl of the fuel oil centrifuge, shown in the illustration, will be closed only when the valve(s) __________
Not learned
1630. A normal sludge ejection cycle will commence in the illustrated centrifuge when 'V5' is closed and __________
Not learned
1631. At the end of a normal sludge ejection cycle, the bowl of the centrifuge, shown in the illustration, will be closed only when the valve(s) __________
Not learned
1632. In the device shown in the illustration, the component lettered "A" is the __________
Not learned
1633. The port labeled "G" on the device shown in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
1634. The liquid line labeled "P" in the device shown in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
1635. The liquid line labeled "P" in the device shown in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
1636. The part labeled "R" on the device shown in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
1637. The component labeled "F" on the device shown in the illustration, during the normal operation of the centrifuge should be __________
Not learned
1638. Part "G" of the device shown in the illustration is used __________
Not learned
1639. The port labeled "H" of the device shown in the illustration, is used to __________
Not learned
1640. The device shown in the illustration can be automatically or manually activated for self-desludging. The desludging process is initiated by which of the labeled components listed below
Not learned
1641. During the normal operation of the fuel oil centrifuge shown in the illustration, the flow from the port labeled "B" should be __________
Not learned
1642. The device shown in the illustration and indicated as the part labeled "B" is the __________
Not learned
1643. Part "I" of the device shown in the illustration is known as the __________
Not learned
1644. Port "C" of the device shown in the illustration is used as the __________
Not learned
1645. Part "M" of the device shown in the illustration shown, is referred to as the __________
Not learned
1646. The component labeled "F" on the device shown in the illustration is known as the __________
Not learned
1647. The component labeled "O" on the device shown in the illustration is called the __________
Not learned
1648. The port labeled "D" in the device shown in the illustration is used for discharging __________
Not learned
1649. The component labeled "E" on the device shown in the illustration is the __________
Not learned
1650. The port labeled "H" in the device shown in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
1651. The temperature of the contaminated fuel oil fed to the centrifuge shown in the illustration should be __________
Not learned
1652. The temperature of contaminated heavy fuel oil fed to the centrifuge, shown in the illustration, should be at 95°C (203°F) to no greater than 99°C (210°F) in order to __________
Not learned
1653. When centrifuging heavy fuel oil, an important factor to consider is the __________. flow rate viscosity of the fuel oil
Not learned
1654. The device labeled "A", shown in the illustration, is known as the __________
Not learned
1655. The device labeled "B", shown in the illustration is known as the __________
Not learned
1656. The device shown in the illustration, is known as a __________
Not learned
1657. The device labeled 'C' shown in the illustration is known as the __________
Not learned
1658. The device labeled "D", as shown in the illustration, is the bowl __________
Not learned
1659. The item indicated by the letter "F" of the device shown in the illustration is the __________
Not learned
1660. The device labeled "H", shown in the illustration is referred to as the __________
Not learned
1661. The force developed by the liquid within space "J" of the device shown in the illustration depends upon __________
Not learned
1662. During normal operation, the liquid retained in space 'J' of the device shown in the illustration is __________
Not learned
1663. The volume of liquid retained in space "J" of the device shown in the illustration is __________
Not learned
1664. Which of the following statements describes what will occur if the annular spaces, indicated by the letter "K" of the device shown in the illustration, became restricted
Not learned
1665. The area indicated by the letter "L" of the device shown in the illustration is properly called the __________
Not learned
1666. Which of the following statements describes "N" shown in the illustration
Not learned
1667. Item "O" of the device shown in the illustration is the __________
Not learned
1668. The wear liner shown in the illustration is indicated by the letter __________
Not learned
1669. The discharge nozzle shown in the illustration, is indicated by the letter __________
Not learned
1670. The gasket "U" shown in the illustration, is used to seal the liquid space below the __________
Not learned
1671. The port "X" shown in the illustration allows water to enter the adjoining chamber. During what cycle of operation will this occur
Not learned
1672. The area indicated by the letter "W", shown in the illustration is correctly termed the __________
Not learned
1673. What is used as the primary operating medium during the sludge discharge cycle, shown in the illustration
Not learned
1674. Where does the shoot cycle operating liquid first come in contact with the rotating forces of the device shown in the illustration
Not learned
1675. The unit shown in the illustration is beginning the sludge discharge cycle. The operating liquid solenoid valve has been energized and space "J" is filling up. Which of the following actions should occur next
Not learned
1676. What terminates the sludge discharge cycle of the device shown in the illustration
Not learned
1677. During the normal operation of the centrifuge shown in the illustration, the operating liquid solenoid and bypass valves for the cleaning cycle should be in which position
Not learned
1678. After removing the bowl hood of the device shown in the illustration, excessive quantities of sludge are visible. Which of the following statements represents the approach to rectify the situation
Not learned
1679. When tightening the lock ring "G" of the device shown in the illustration, two events are simultaneously accomplished. Which of the following statements represents these events
Not learned
1680. From the graph shown in the illustration, determine the size of the regulating ring required for the proper operation of the fuel oil centrifuge if the fuel oil specific gravity is 0.9 kg/dm3 at 68°F, and the separating temperature is 158°F
Not learned
1681. If a particular liquid has a specific gravity of 0.96 kg/dm3 at 77°F, what will be the specific gravity of the liquid, as determined from the graph shown in the illustration, if the temperature is increased to 167°F
Not learned
1682. Using the graph shown in the illustration, the oil being separated has a specific gravity of 0.87 kg/dm3 at 72.5°C. What will be the specific gravity if the temperature is lowered to 40°C
Not learned
1683. If the separating temperature is to remain constant, what is the relationship between the specific gravity of the oil and the required size of the regulating ring
Not learned
1684. From the graph shown in the illustration, if the separating temperature required is to be 167°F, and the specific gravity of the oil is 0.98 kg/dm3 at 59°F, what size regulating ring is required
Not learned
1685. The system shown in the illustration utilizes a water transducer which is __________
Not learned
1686. Which of the following statements represents the working principle of the water transducer used with the separator shown in the illustration
Not learned
1687. Which of the following statements represents the working principle of the water transducer used with the separator shown in the illustration
Not learned
1688. Which of the following statements is accurate concerning the vibration sensing device used with the separator shown in the illustration
Not learned
1689. How may water be removed from the bowl of the separator as shown in the illustration
Not learned
1690. What activates the water drain valve (V5) of the separator as shown in the illustration
Not learned
1691. If fuel oil were being discharged from the waste water outlet of a fuel oil disk type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should __________.
Not learned
1692. Which factor determines the size of the ring dam for a fuel oil centrifugal purifier?
Not learned
1693. While operating the fuel oil centrifuge shown in the illustration, the fuel oil is being continuously ejected with the sludge and the seal water. The probable cause is the __________
Not learned
1694. A modern centrifuge, similar to the device shown in the illustration, is opened for periodic cleaning. The most common cause of operating failure after reassembling is due to __________
Not learned
1695. When reassembling the bowl of the centrifuge, shown in the illustration, the alignment mark on the locking ring passes the bowl cover mark in excess of the manufacturer's specifications. This is due to __________
Not learned
1696. During the operation of the fuel oil centrifuge shown in the illustration, liquid is passing continuously through the sludge outlet, or the bowl is unintentionally 'shooting'. The probable cause is the __________
Not learned
1697. While operating the fuel oil centrifuge shown in the illustration, the bowl fails to open for sludge ejection. The probable cause is that __________
Not learned
1698. During the operation of the fuel oil centrifuge shown in the illustration, it is found that the 'clean' oil discharge contains water. The most probable cause is the __________
Not learned
1699. If item "F" begins leaking during operation, which of the following operating conditions will NOT occur
Not learned
1700. An improperly assembled centrifuge, of the type shown in the illustration, may result in which of the following operating conditions to occur
Not learned
1701. As shown in the illustration, which of the following conditions would be responsible for a "low-pressure in oil outlet" alarm to be indicated
Not learned
1702. As shown in the illustration, which of the following conditions would cause the 'low pressure in oil outlet' alarm to be illuminated
Not learned
1703. As shown in the illustration, which of the following conditions would be responsible for a 'low pressure in oil outlet' alarm indication
Not learned
1704. A 'low pressure in oil outlet' alarm indication, as shown in the illustration, may be caused by __________
Not learned
1705. If the regulating valve V4 shown in the illustration vibrated open, which of the following alarm conditions would be indicated at the program unit panel
Not learned
1706. As shown in the illustration, which of the following conditions may be the cause for the 'low pressure in oil outlet' alarm to be illuminated
Not learned
1707. Which of the following steps should be taken if the 'high oil temperature after preheater' LEDS, as shown in the illustration, are illuminated
Not learned
1708. Which of the following conditions would cause the 'high oil temperature after preheater' alarm as shown in the illustration to be indicated
Not learned
1709. Which of the following conditions would be the most probable cause for the 'low oil temperature after preheater' LED indicators, as shown in the illustration, to be illuminated
Not learned
1710. Which of the following conditions would be the most probable cause for the 'low oil temperature after preheater' LED indicators, as shown in the illustration, to be illuminated
Not learned
1711. Which of the following conditions would cause the LEDS for the alarm 'emergency stopping or vibrations' shown in the illustration to illuminate
Not learned
1712. As shown in the illustration, the alarm indicated by 'emergency stopping or vibrations' may be caused by __________
Not learned
1713. If uneven sludge deposits accumulate in the sludge space of the bowl assembly of the device shown in the illustration, __________
Not learned
1714. Which of the following conditions will occur if the height position of the paring disc or bowl spindle is incorrect in the device shown in the illustration
Not learned
1715. If the control unit as shown in the illustration indicates alarm A01 'abnormal water content', the operator should suspect __________
Not learned
1716. Which of the following conditions can be a cause for the control unit of the separator shown in the illustration to indicate alarm A06
Not learned
1717. If the air supply to the 'liquid sensor' of the device shown in the illustration is secured accidently, which of the following alarms will be indicated
Not learned
1718. How is oil supplied to the device shown in the illustration
Not learned
1719. Which of the following precautions should be taken prior to starting the separator shown in the illustration
Not learned
1720. Prior to starting the device shown in the illustration, the operator should __________
Not learned
1721. Before starting the device shown in the illustration, the operator should always check the __________
Not learned
1722. Once the separator shown in the illustration has been started, which of the following procedures should be followed
Not learned
1723. All alarms occurring on the control unit of the device shown in the illustration will __________
Not learned
1724. In order to maximize the performance of a centrifuge, you can adjust the __________. Number of disks in the stack Frequency of shooting the bowl
Not learned
1725. The temperature of the contaminated fuel oil fed to the centrifuge shown in the illustration should be __________
Not learned
1726. How is oil supplied to the device shown in the illustration
Not learned
1727. The device labeled "A", shown in the illustration, is known as the __________
Not learned
1728. The device labeled 'C' shown in the illustration is known as the __________
Not learned
1729. The device labeled "B", shown in the illustration is known as the __________
Not learned
1730. The device labeled "D", as shown in the illustration, is the bowl __________
Not learned
1731. The device labeled "H", shown in the illustration is referred to as the __________
Not learned
1732. During normal operation, the liquid retained in space 'J' of the device shown in the illustration is __________
Not learned
1733. Which of the following statements describes "N" shown in the illustration
Not learned
1734. Item "O" of the device shown in the illustration is the __________
Not learned
1735. The wear liner shown in the illustration is indicated by the letter __________
Not learned
1736. What is used as the primary operating medium during the sludge discharge cycle, shown in the illustration
Not learned
1737. When tightening the lock ring "G" of the device shown in the illustration, two events are simultaneously accomplished. Which of the following statements represents these events
Not learned
1738. Item labeled "R" as shown in Fig. 5 of the illustration is identified as the __________
Not learned
1739. Telescopic pipes which are attached to water cooled pistons of large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engines are designed to ________.
Not learned
1740. The water inlet manifold for the diesel engine shown in the illustration is represented by the letter or number __________
Not learned
1741. The cooling water system for the diesel engine shown in the illustration flows through the inlet manifold, to the jumpers, through cylinder liner/head assembly, and out the water discharge manifold. Which of the listed lettered sets represents this circuit
Not learned
1742. What is the function of component "13" shown in the illustration
Not learned
1743. According to the illustration, if water is ejected from an open indicator cock when the engine is rotated by the turning motor, a leak or crack may have developed at the __________
Not learned
1744. Jacket water heaters are used on diesel engines to __________.
Not learned
1745. According to Coast Guard regulations, keel cooler installations are __________.
Not learned
1746. According to 46 CFR Part 56, isolation valves used in keel cooler installations may be constructed of __________.
Not learned
1747. Cooling water pumps driven by direct-reversing diesel engines are usually __________.
Not learned
1748. Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing to __________.
Not learned
1749. Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing to __________.
Not learned
1750. The cooling water pump driven by a direct reversing diesel engine is usually of the straight impeller vane type with a concentric housing to ________.
Not learned
1751. What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration
Not learned
1752. What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration
Not learned
1753. What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration
Not learned
1754. In the engine shown in the illustration, the part labeled "W" is cooled by __________
Not learned
1755. The large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engine shown in the illustration, the part labeled 'B' contains __________
Not learned
1756. The highest pressure in any closed diesel engine freshwater cooling system is at the __________.
Not learned
1757. Why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed freshwater cooling systems vary the flow of jacket water through the cooler instead of through the engine?
Not learned
1758. What would be considered a normal temperature increase between the inlet and outlet jacket cooling water of a medium or high-speed diesel engine operating at normal load?
Not learned
1759. Which operating parameter may need to be decreased when running a large main propulsion diesel engine at low load conditions?
Not learned
1760. Using a cooling water temperature of 225°F (107.2°C), instead of 180°F (82.2°C), in an auxiliary diesel engine will __________.
Not learned
1761. Operating a diesel engine for prolonged periods at temperatures lower than the normal design temperature may cause __________.
Not learned
1762. As a general rule, what would be the recommended operating water jacket outlet temperature range for medium-speed marine diesels setup with closed treated fresh water cooling systems and fitted with vented expansion tanks?
Not learned
1763. A closed freshwater cooling system is commonly used with marine diesel engines because the __________.
Not learned
1764. In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the cooling water pressure drop through the engine is 10 psig, and the pressure drop through the heat exchanger is 4 psig at maximum flow rates. The cooling water pump must produce a discharge head of at least __________.
Not learned
1765. Which of the following precautions must be taken if an electric immersion heater is used to keep the coolant warm in a diesel engine when the engine is secured?
Not learned
1766. In a diesel engine jacket water cooler, with sea water cooling the fresh water, the __________.
Not learned
1767. In an operating diesel engine, which of the following is true concerning a tube and shell type jacket water heat exchanger?
Not learned
1768. In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system employing a radiator, proper water temperature can be obtained by __________.
Not learned
1769. The operation of the lube oil cooler, shown in the illustration as item No.4, will be characterized by which of the following statements
Not learned
1770. The operation of the lube oil cooler, shown in the illustration as item No.4, will be characterized by which of the following statements
Not learned
1771. What is the function of the item "7" shown in the illustration
Not learned
1772. Where is the latent heat obtained to create vapor from the feed water in the illustrated distiller
Not learned
1773. Which of the listed effects would mixtures of ethylene glycol and phosphate compounds have on the metal surfaces of the cooling system of a diesel engine?
Not learned
1774. What would be the result of adding phosphate compounds into the cooling system of a diesel engine? Protect the coolant from freezing. Protect metallic surfaces from corrosion.
Not learned
1775. What would be the result of adding phosphate compounds into the cooling system of a diesel engine? Protect the coolant from freezing. Protect metallic surfaces from corrosion.
Not learned
1776. What would be the result of adding phosphate compounds into the cooling system of a diesel engine? Protect the coolant from freezing. Protect metallic surfaces from corrosion.
Not learned
1777. Immediately after starting a diesel engine, normal raw water and jacket water pressures are indicated. However, the jacket water temperature continues to rise. If there is no change in the sea temperature, you should suspect __________.
Not learned
1778. The main propulsion diesel engine jacket water temperature rises above normal, with the raw water sea suction and the expansion tank water level being normal. Which of the following problems is most likely the cause?
Not learned
1779. If the jacket water temperature in an auxiliary diesel engine cooling system is lower than normal, the probable cause is __________.
Not learned
1780. If the cooling water temperature and the lube oil temperature in a diesel engine are too high, the cause can be __________.
Not learned
1781. High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by __________.
Not learned
1782. High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by __________.
Not learned
1783. Which of the following problems will cause above normal cooling water temperatures in a diesel engine using a closed freshwater cooling system?
Not learned
1784. If the coolant temperature of a closed cooling water system for a diesel engine gradually increases, the trouble usually is __________.
Not learned
1785. Which of the following conditions will develop if the flow of 'raw' cooling water to a diesel engine is obstructed?
Not learned
1786. Higher than normal jacket water temperatures occurring in all cylinders of a diesel engine can result from a/an __________.
Not learned
1787. If the jacket water temperature of an operating diesel engine suddenly rises above normal, the cause can be attributed to __________.
Not learned
1788. If the raw water supply pressure for a diesel engine cooling system is below normal, you should check for a __________.
Not learned
1789. Failure to ensure proper venting of the cooling system of a diesel engine can result in __________.
Not learned
1790. Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature from all cylinders begins to rise above normal, you should suspect __________.
Not learned
1791. Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature from an individual cylinder begins to rise, you should suspect __________.
Not learned
1792. You are operating a main propulsion diesel engine at a constant load when the jacket water temperature begins to rise. This could be caused by __________.
Not learned
1793. Improper cooling of a diesel engine cylinder liner due to the accumulation of scale deposits may cause __________.
Not learned
1794. If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a diesel engine, you should FIRST __________.
Not learned
1795. If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a diesel engine, you should FIRST __________.
Not learned
1796. Prolonged operation of a diesel engine with a closed cooling water system at lower than normal designed operating temperatures can __________.
Not learned
1797. If the coolant temperature is too low as it passes through internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors can be damaged by __________.
Not learned
1798. Keel coolers fouled with marine growth, will result in __________.
Not learned
1799. In a diesel engine cooling system, the high temperature alarm contact maker will be activated on excessively high water discharge temperature from the __________.
Not learned
1800. If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration, which of the events listed will occur
Not learned
1801. In a closed cooling water system, which of the following problems can cause the water pressure to fluctuate?
Not learned
1802. In a closed cooling system for a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, fluctuating water pressure can be caused by __________.
Not learned
1803. Which of the following problems can cause fluctuating pressures in the closed cooling system of a main propulsion diesel engine?
Not learned
1804. Lube oil accumulating in the cooling water system of a diesel engine will result in __________.
Not learned
1805. A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water to directly cool the __________.
Not learned
1806. Reduction gear lube oil temperatures for keel cooler installations are generally __________.
Not learned
1807. Which of the following statements is correct concerning diesel engine cooling water systems?
Not learned
1808. Which of the following statements is correct for the design and installation of diesel engine cooling water systems?
Not learned
1809. Which of the listed conditions represents the greatest problem if item #8 in the illustration fails while underway at sea
Not learned
1810. Classification society requirements stipulate that main sea water cooling pumps be furnished with redundancy with either two dedicated pumps or with one dedicated pump and one standby pump available for other sea water services. Referring to the illustrated motor ship sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning meeting these classification society requirements
Not learned
1811. Referring to the illustrated motor ship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control system
Not learned
1812. Referring to the illustrated motorship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling system heat recovery capability as associated with generating fresh water
Not learned
1813. Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the jacket water heater
Not learned
1814. Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the standby heating coil
Not learned
1815. For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?
Not learned
1816. Referring to the illustrated motorship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the evaporator
Not learned
1817. Referring to the illustrated motor ship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling system
Not learned
1818. Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, which set of cooling water pumps would MOST likely require a priming maintenance system or the use of deep-well pumps
Not learned
1819. Referring to the illustrated motor ship freshwater cooling system drawing, which cooling system has cooling water passing through passages within components that are continuously undergoing motion
Not learned
1820. Referring to the illustrated motorship freshwater cooling system drawing, which cooling system tanks are MOST likely to have oil separation capability
Not learned
1821. Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the jacket water heater
Not learned
1822. Corrosion inhibitors and/or soluble oils are added to diesel engine cooling systems to __________.
Not learned
1823. A diesel engine cooling water system with a pH factor of 3.0 indicates a condition of __________.
Not learned
1824. In a diesel engine cooling water system, a pH of 6.0 indicates a/an __________.
Not learned
1825. The pH value of water in a diesel engine closed cooling water system should be maintained between __________.
Not learned
1826. Ethylene glycol, when used as a coolant in a closed cooling system for a diesel engine, is more advantageous than untreated raw water because it __________.
Not learned
1827. According to the chart shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is true concerning antifreeze solutions for diesel engine cooling systems
Not learned
1828. Antifreeze solutions containing ethylene glycol should not be mixed with corrosion protection oils, as the resultant mixture __________.
Not learned
1829. Coolant can be lost from a diesel engine jacket cooling water system by leakage from __________.
Not learned
1830. The expansion tank for a diesel engine closed cooling system is designed to maintain a constant head on the system and __________.
Not learned
1831. Which of the following statements describes the function of an expansion tank in a diesel engine cooling system?
Not learned
1832. The device allowing for the change in volume of the cooling water in a propulsion diesel engine closed cooling system is the __________.
Not learned
1833. The outlet from an expansion tank of a closed fresh water cooling system should be piped to the __________.
Not learned
1834. The expansion tank in a diesel engine closed fresh water cooling system is located at __________.
Not learned
1835. Combustion gas venting through the expansion tank can be caused by a __________.
Not learned
1836. If the water level dropped rapidly in the expansion tank of a closed diesel engine cooling water system, you should suspect a __________.
Not learned
1837. Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell-and-tube type cooler may be provided for by the __________.
Not learned
1838. Regarding the oil cooler shown in the illustration, the purpose of the internal shell baffles is to __________
Not learned
1839. Which of the following statements is true concerning a main diesel engine oil cooler?
Not learned
1840. Heat exchangers are most commonly found in a small auxiliary diesel engine __________.
Not learned
1841. Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat exchangers to __________.
Not learned
1842. Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat exchangers to __________.
Not learned
1843. When checking zincs in a saltwater cooled heat exchanger, you should __________.
Not learned
1844. When tightening the plate type heat exchangers shown in the illustration, care must be taken to __________
Not learned
1845. Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration
Not learned
1846. Which of the following factors tends to increase scale formation on the saltwater side of a heat exchanger used in a diesel engine cooling water system?
Not learned
1847. Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water leakage in the illustrated device
Not learned
1848. When checking zincs in a saltwater cooled heat exchanger, you should __________.
Not learned
1849. A three-way thermostatic control valve regulates the diesel engine cooling water temperature by passing a portion of the water __________.
Not learned
1850. In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the amount of engine coolant flowing through the heat exchanger is controlled by the __________.
Not learned
1851. Temperature control valves installed in the jacket cooling water system of a diesel engine, modulates the rate of water flow through the __________.
Not learned
1852. The jacket water temperature in a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system is normally controlled by __________.
Not learned
1853. Why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed freshwater cooling systems vary the flow of jacket water through the cooler instead of through the engine?
Not learned
1854. The temperature at which an adjustable bellows type thermostatic valve operates is determined by __________.
Not learned
1855. The thermostatic valve in the illustration is used for controlling the coolant temperature in a main propulsion diesel engine. Which of the following can be used to verify proper valve operation with the valve disassembled
Not learned
1856. A faulty thermostatic bypass valve, in a diesel engine cooling system, can result in __________.
Not learned
1857. An emergency diesel generator cooling system is equipped with an automotive type thermostat. If the thermostat bellows loses its charge, the thermostat will __________.
Not learned
1858. If the operating element of a thermostatic valve installed in a diesel engine cooling system malfunctions, it may result in __________.
Not learned
1859. If an auxiliary diesel engine coolant temperature is higher than normal, but the thermostat is determined not to be defective, you would suspect a/an __________.
Not learned
1860. In an operating diesel engine, preignition can be caused by __________.
Not learned
1861. From the engine data given in the illustration, what is the full load air manifold pressure
Not learned
1862. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is directly associated with engine __________.
Not learned
1863. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is directly affected by engine __________.
Not learned
1864. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volumetric efficiency of the intake air charge is mainly influenced by the __________.
Not learned
1865. When removing carbon that has accumulated at the air inlet ports of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, you should take precautions to prevent carbon particles from ______.
Not learned
1866. A restricted air intake to a diesel engine may result in the engine __________.
Not learned
1867. An indication of a diesel engine air intake being partially clogged, is __________.
Not learned
1868. An increase in the air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will result in a/an __________.
Not learned
1869. The intake air ducting to a diesel engine should not draw from an area on deck where flammable vapors released from tanks are present, because __________.
Not learned
1870. Which of the following devices will increase the power output of a diesel engine without increasing its frictional load?
Not learned
1871. Which of the air intake systems listed will require the least amount of brake horsepower to operate?
Not learned
1872. The process of supplying a diesel engine cylinder with air at a pressure greater than atmospheric is called _________.
Not learned
1873. Which of the following beneficial results can be expected from supercharging a previously naturally aspirated engine?
Not learned
1874. A supercharged diesel engine, when compared to a similar naturally aspirated diesel engine, will develop an increase in __________.
Not learned
1875. A diesel engine is supercharged in order to __________.
Not learned
1876. Compared to a naturally aspirated diesel engine, a supercharged diesel engine has _________.
Not learned
1877. Cooling the intake air supplied to a diesel engine will __________.
Not learned
1878. Higher than normal temperature air passing through the intake of a diesel engine will result in __________.
Not learned
1879. Some diesel engines are supercharged with a __________.
Not learned
1880. The power consumed during the scavenging process of a diesel engine is known as the _______.
Not learned
1881. The relative air pressure in the inlet manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine is usually __________.
Not learned
1882. Which letter represents the scavenging air system non-return valve in the illustration
Not learned
1883. What method is used to supply air to the cylinders of the diesel engine illustrated
Not learned
1884. What method is used to supply air to the cylinders of the diesel engine illustrated
Not learned
1885. In the diesel engine shown in the illustration, the purpose of the part labeled "P" is to __________
Not learned
1886. Which of the following conditions can cause below normal air pressure in the intake manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine?
Not learned
1887. Which of the following conditions is indicated by the presence of water in the scavenging air receiver?
Not learned
1888. Item labeled "S" as shown in section 4 of the illustration is identified as the __________
Not learned
1889. The method of engine cylinder scavenging shown in the illustration is known as __________
Not learned
1890. The method of engine cylinder scavenging shown in the illustration is known as __________
Not learned
1891. Which of the combustion parameters listed is used in a diesel engine, but is NOT related to the injection system?
Not learned
1892. On an opposed-piston engine, which of the listed operating conditions will result from increasing the lower crank lead?
Not learned
1893. The intake ports of a two-stroke cycle diesel engine are opened and closed by the action of the __________.
Not learned
1894. The exhaust ports of a diesel engine using the cross flow scavenging method are opened and closed by the __________.
Not learned
1895. The exhaust ports shown in the illustration are initially uncovered in figure __________
Not learned
1896. The process of scavenging a two-stroke cycle diesel engine serves to __________.
Not learned
1897. Air scavenging of a diesel engine cylinder __________.
Not learned
1898. The term 'diesel engine cylinder scavenging' means __________.
Not learned
1899. Clearance volume scavenging in a turbocharged, four-stroke cycle diesel engine is accomplished __________.
Not learned
1900. Scavenging in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine occurs during the __________.
Not learned
1901. In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the process of scavenging begins as the __________.
Not learned
1902. Clearance volume scavenging in a turbocharged, four-stroke cycle diesel engine is accomplished __________.
Not learned
1903. A loop-scavenged engine utilizes the motion of its pistons and a turbocharger to provide scavenging air. Which of the listed mechanical designs prevents the air under the pistons from being pumped back through the scavenge ports during the piston power stroke?
Not learned
1904. The diesel engine cylinder scavenging system illustrated is an example of __________
Not learned
1905. Loop,' 'uniflow,' 'cross flow,' and 'return-flow' are terms used to describe various types of __________.
Not learned
1906. The principal difference between loop scavenging and cross flow scavenging, as used in single acting diesel engines, is the __________.
Not learned
1907. Which of the following cylinder scavenging methods will include an exhaust valve located in the cylinder head?
Not learned
1908. Forcing the exhaust gases from the cylinder of an operating two cycle diesel engine with the aid of a blower is known as __________.
Not learned
1909. In the large, slow-speed, loop-scavenged main propulsion diesel engine shown in the illustration, the upward motion of the piston draws in scavenging air into the piston undersides through __________
Not learned
1910. Maintaining the lowest possible scavenging air temperature at all times is not recommended due to the possibility of the __________.
Not learned
1911. What is required for crosshead type engines that have a scavenging space in open connection to the cylinder?
Not learned
1912. In which of the following areas of a crosshead engine is a permanently connected fire extinguishing system required?
Not learned
1913. In a Roots-type rotary blower, the volume of air delivered is directly proportional to __________.
Not learned
1914. Which of the designs listed will keep the lobes from making contact in a Roots-type blower?
Not learned
1915. In the positive displacement rotary supercharging blower illustrated, where does the air become compressed
Not learned
1916. Which of the following terms best describes the Roots-type blower used to supercharge a diesel engine?
Not learned
1917. Which of the operating characteristics listed applies to the Roots-type blower shown in the illustration
Not learned
1918. On a diesel engine equipped with a Roots-type blower, __________.
Not learned
1919. The small clearances existing between each of the blower lobes, and between the lobes and casing of a Roots-type blower, must be maintained to __________.
Not learned
1920. A Roots-type blower installed on a direct reversible engine __________.
Not learned
1921. In the rotary blower shown in the illustration, which direction of rotation do the rotors turn
Not learned
1922. The quantity of air delivered at any given speed by a Roots-type blower, as shown in the illustration, decreases as the pressure ratio increases. This is due to the __________
Not learned
1923. In the positive displacement rotary supercharging blower illustrated, where does the air become compressed
Not learned
1924. Most Roots-type blowers have two rotors which __________.
Not learned
1925. Which of the Roots blower rotors listed below, will supply air to a two-stroke/cycle, medium-speed, diesel engine with the least amount of turbulence and pulsation?
Not learned
1926. The lobes of a Roots-type blower are sometimes twisted into a spiral formed around the axes of rotation to __________.
Not learned
1927. In the positive displacement rotary supercharging blower illustrated, where does the air become compressed
Not learned
1928. Some diesel engines are equipped with a Roots-type blower to provide __________.
Not learned
1929. A Roots-type blower installed on some diesel engines, serves to __________.
Not learned
1930. In a two-stroke cycle diesel engine, a Roots-type blower is usually __________.
Not learned
1931. Which of the operating characteristics listed is correct concerning the blower shown in the illustration
Not learned
1932. The diesel engine shown in the illustration is provided with an auxiliary blower to __________
Not learned
1933. When the timing gear backlash for a Roots-type blower has become excessive, the problem is properly repaired by __________.
Not learned
1934. A thin film of oil on the lobes of a Roots-type blower indicates __________.
Not learned
1935. By which of the following means is force efficiently provided to vary the pitch of the blades on a modern controllable pitch propeller?
Not learned
1936. Item labeled "L" as shown in section 6 of the illustration is identified as the __________
Not learned
1937. The item labeled "T" as shown in figure 4 of the illustration is identified as the __________
Not learned
1938. On a turbocharged, medium-speed, diesel engine, which of the following problems is an indication of a restricted air intake passage?
Not learned
1939. If over a period of weeks the air-box pressure of a turbocharged, diesel engine, operating at full load, appears to be dropping off, the cause can be __________.
Not learned
1940. Which of the following conditions may be attributed to a fouled turbocharger compressor inlet screen or filter?
Not learned
1941. Why will a turbocharged diesel engine produce black smoke if excessive additional load is applied too quickly?
Not learned
1942. If the turbocharger failed on an auxiliary four cycle diesel engine, which of the following conditions would probably occur?
Not learned
1943. If the turbocharger of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine fails to operate properly, which of the following statements best describes the probable effect?
Not learned
1944. Large, two-stroke/cycle, main propulsion, diesel engine cylinders can be successfully pressure charged during normal operation by using the __________.
Not learned
1945. Which of the turbocharging systems listed operates with the least average back pressure in the exhaust manifold?
Not learned
1946. One characteristic of a pulse type turbo charging system is __________.
Not learned
1947. Which of the following turbo charging systems channels the exhaust gases of each individual cylinder directly into the turbine rotor blades?
Not learned
1948. Which of the turbocharging methods listed directs the exhaust gases to the turbine at fairly uniform velocity and pressure?
Not learned
1949. The section of the turbocharger which would be connected to the aftercooler inlet is labeled __________
Not learned
1950. In a turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve remains open until after top dead center and the intake valve opens before top dead center to __________.
Not learned
1951. Which of the listed adjustments must be made to a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine if a turbocharger is to be installed?
Not learned
1952. Clearance volume scavenging in a turbocharged, four-stroke cycle diesel engine is accomplished __________.
Not learned
1953. A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve overlap than a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, in order to increase the __________.
Not learned
1954. A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve overlap than a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, in order to increase the __________.
Not learned
1955. During the valve overlap period, the exhaust pressure of a turbo-charged, four-stroke cycle diesel engine must be less than the intake manifold pressure to ensure __________.
Not learned
1956. Which of the changes in the valve timing listed should be carried out when a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is converted to a supercharged engine?
Not learned
1957. At rated engine load and RPM, the diesel engine turbocharger is powered by __________.
Not learned
1958. A turbocharged diesel engine will have an intake manifold pressure __________.
Not learned
1959. The high air velocity leaving the air impeller of an exhaust gas turbocharger is converted to pressure in the __________.
Not learned
1960. The turbocharger diffuser ring of the compressor element shown in the illustration, is indicated by the part labeled __________
Not learned
1961. Regarding the turbocharger shown in the illustration, the diffuser ring of the blower is indicated by the letter __________
Not learned
1962. In a turbocharger, inlet air velocity is increased in the __________.
Not learned
1963. Regarding the turbocharger shown in the illustration, the piece labeled "F" is a __________
Not learned
1964. Regarding the turbocharger shown in the illustration, the part labeled "B" would be attached to the __________
Not learned
1965. In the turbocharger shown in the illustration, the engine exhaust line would be connected to the part labeled __________
Not learned
1966. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________
Not learned
1967. The impeller in area "A", shown in the illustration, is powered by __________
Not learned
1968. In a main propulsion turbocharged diesel engine, the speed of the turbocharger varies according to the __________.
Not learned
1969. An increase in power output of a turbocharged diesel engine operating at a constant engine speed results in __________.
Not learned
1970. The speed of the turbocharger for a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine driving a generator at constant speed depends on the __________.
Not learned
1971. If the speed of a turbocharged diesel engine is maintained constant as the load on the engine is increased, the speed of the turbocharger will __________.
Not learned
1972. Intake air flow from a diesel engine turbocharger is directly proportional to engine __________.
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1973. If the speed of a turbocharged diesel engine is maintained constant the turbocharger speed will __________.
Not learned
1974. When would the available energy of the exhaust gases of a two-stroke cycle diesel engine be insufficient to drive an exhaust gas turbocharger, resulting in the incorrect amount of air for combustion?
Not learned
1975. When would the available energy of the exhaust gases of a two-stroke cycle diesel engine be insufficient to drive an exhaust gas turbocharger, resulting in the incorrect amount of air for combustion?
Not learned
1976. Which of the listed types of superchargers will NOT have a volumetric capacity proportional to engine speed?
Not learned
1977. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a turbocharged four-stroke cycle diesel- generator?
Not learned
1978. When the load is increased on a turbocharged diesel engine, the amount of increased air supplied by the turbocharger will __________.
Not learned
1979. An increase in the load on a turbocharged diesel engine operating at constant speed will result in an increase in __________.
Not learned
1980. The operating speed of a turbocharger is directly dependent upon __________.
Not learned
1981. Which of the operating characteristics listed would apply to the turbocharger shown in the illustration
Not learned
1982. Which of the following conditions would require the removal of a turbocharger for repair?
Not learned
1983. Which of the following precautions should be taken when cleaning the air filter on a diesel engine equipped with a turbocharger?
Not learned
1984. Which of the following conditions may contribute to the formation of deposits on the blades of the turbocharger turbine?
Not learned
1985. Following the failure of one turbocharger on a large, crosshead, main propulsion diesel engine, fitted with multiple turbochargers, which of the following actions should be taken prior to further operation of the engine?
Not learned
1986. Which of the following problems can cause an above normal air temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a turbocharged and after cooled diesel engine?
Not learned
1987. An operating diesel engine that suddenly loses power, is due to a/an __________.
Not learned
1988. An operating diesel engine that suddenly loses power, is due to a/an __________.
Not learned
1989. Corrosion and grooving on the blading of an exhaust driven turbocharger is caused by certain components of residual fuel oils. These components are vanadium, sodium, and __________.
Not learned
1990. A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine is an indication of a/an __________.
Not learned
1991. While maneuvering, you discover heavy smoke coming from the turbocharger casing, you should __________.
Not learned
1992. Leaking oil seals on a diesel engine turbocharger can cause __________.
Not learned
1993. A turbocharged and after cooled diesel engine can over speed due to __________.
Not learned
1994. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________
Not learned
1995. What statement is true concerning the charge air system of a modern turbocharged slow-speed two- stroke cycle diesel engine?
Not learned
1996. What statement is true concerning the charge air system of a modern turbocharged slow-speed two- stroke cycle diesel engine?
Not learned
1997. On a typical turbo-charged marine diesel engine, what type of blower/compressor is used within the turbocharger?
Not learned
1998. Item labeled "R" as shown in Fig. 5 of the illustration is identified as the __________
Not learned
1999. Air scavenging of the cylinder shown in the illustration begins between figures __________
Not learned
2000. The item labeled "T" as shown in figure 4 of the illustration is identified as the __________
Not learned
2001. Which of the engine components listed increases air charge density and helps to improve engine operating efficiency?
Not learned
2002. Performance of a turbocharged engine can be improved by __________.
Not learned
2003. The purpose of an after cooler is to __________.
Not learned
2004. The air supplied to the cylinders by a turbocharger is often reduced in volume by a/an __________.
Not learned
2005. Which of the engine components listed increases air charge density and helps to improve engine operating efficiency?
Not learned
2006. What is the function of the after coolers installed in the diesel engine air intake system?
Not learned
2007. The function of the after cooler installed between the turbocharger and intake manifold on some diesel engines, is to __________.
Not learned
2008. An after cooler installed between the turbocharger and the cylinder air inlet __________.
Not learned
2009. When used in conjunction with a turbocharger, the main function of an after cooler is to __________.
Not learned
2010. Which of the conditions listed will occur as a result of having an intercooler installed in the diesel engine intake system shown in the illustration
Not learned
2011. Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in _________.
Not learned
2012. Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in _________.
Not learned
2013. The power output of a turbo-charged diesel engine will drop if the cooling water flow through the after cooler is interrupted because the __________.
Not learned
2014. If cooling water flow through the after cooler is interrupted, the power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop because the __________.
Not learned
2015. Which of the following procedures should be carried out to permit the continued operation of a crosshead engine with a leaky aftercooler?
Not learned
2016. Which condition indicates the air side fouling of an aftercooler on a turbocharged diesel engine?
Not learned
2017. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations apply?
Not learned
2018. Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for continuity with a multimeter, you should disconnect the pyrometer because __________.
Not learned
2019. A two stroke diesel engine exhaust temperature will be lower than a four stroke diesel engine of the same displacement because the __________. mep is lower and the scavenging air is cooling the exhaust gases valve overlap in a four stroke diesel engine is greater
Not learned
2020. A two stroke diesel engine exhaust temperature will be lower than a four stroke diesel engine of the same displacement because the __________. mep is lower and the scavenging air is cooling the exhaust gases valve overlap in a four stroke diesel engine is greater
Not learned
2021. Which letter represents the exhaust gas exit point for the diesel engine shown in the illustration
Not learned
2022. Low cylinder compression pressure and a high exhaust temperature may indicate __________.
Not learned
2023. Before being shut down, a diesel engine should idle a few minutes in order to __________.
Not learned
2024. Diesel engine exhaust gas temperatures can be used to determine individual cylinder __________.
Not learned
2025. For a diesel engine, individual cylinder performance is commonly determined by exhaust gas __________.
Not learned
2026. The exhaust system for a turbocharged two-stroke/cycle diesel engine functions to __________.
Not learned
2027. The exhaust system for a diesel engine is usually designed to remove exhaust gases and to __________.
Not learned
2028. The diesel engine shown in the illustration, the exhaust manifold is indicated by the letter __________
Not learned
2029. A water jacket is placed around the exhaust manifolds of propulsion diesel engines to __________.
Not learned
2030. One of the purposes for water cooling the exhaust manifold in marine diesel engine is to __________.
Not learned
2031. The exhaust gases in a supercharged two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are expelled from the cylinder by __________.
Not learned
2032. In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust gases are expelled from the cylinder by the __________.
Not learned
2033. A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine exhaust is designed to drain off __________.
Not learned
2034. Operating a diesel engine under light loads and at low temperatures for an extended period can result in __________.
Not learned
2035. Oil accumulating in the exhaust piping or manifold of a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2036. Excessive diesel engine back pressure may be an indication of __________.
Not learned
2037. Clogged or partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can cause __________.
Not learned
2038. High exhaust back pressure will result in an increase in __________.
Not learned
2039. Excessive diesel engine cylinder exhaust back pressure will be caused by __________.
Not learned
2040. Which of the equal horsepower diesel engines listed, running at the same speed, is least affected by exhaust back pressure?
Not learned
2041. Partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can cause __________.
Not learned
2042. A restricted diesel engine exhaust manifold operating under a normal load is indicated by __________.
Not learned
2043. A diesel engine is operating under a normal load with low firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures. The most probable cause of this condition is __________.
Not learned
2044. A V-12 four-stroke/cycle 500 horsepower diesel engine is operating under a normal load, the firing pressures are low and the exhaust temperatures are high. Which of the following problems is the most probable cause of this condition?
Not learned
2045. Any increase in the exhaust back pressure of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine will __________.
Not learned
2046. An accumulation of carbon on one of its thermocouples of an exhaust gas pyrometer will __________.
Not learned
2047. If carbon accumulates on a pyrometer thermocouple, it will cause __________.
Not learned
2048. Diesel engine exhaust temperatures may be used to indicate __________.
Not learned
2049. The exhaust gas temperature prior to entering the turbocharger, of the system shown in the illustration, is 100°-150° (37.8°-65.5°C) higher than the individual cylinder temperatures. This indicates __________
Not learned
2050. In a diesel engine exhaust system, the cooling of the exhaust gases below their dew point, will result in __________.
Not learned
2051. One of the factors limiting the amount of load which can be put on a modern marine diesel engine is the __________.
Not learned
2052. High exhaust temperature and black smoke exhausting from an auxiliary diesel engine can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2053. If a diesel engine's exhaust temperature is abnormally high, the cause could be __________.
Not learned
2054. To successfully reduce an excessively high diesel engine exhaust gas temperature, you should __________.
Not learned
2055. The average exhaust temperature of a two-stroke cycle diesel engine with a turbine-driven supercharger is lower than a similar four-stroke cycle diesel engine at equal loads because __________.
Not learned
2056. Exhaust pipes for separate main propulsion diesel engines can be combined only when __________.
Not learned
2057. The exhaust system for a turbocharged diesel engine functions to ________.
Not learned
2058. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) regarding internal combustion engine exhaust manifold installations, which of the following statements is true?
Not learned
2059. Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) require a horizontal dry exhaust pipe from a diesel engine must __________.
Not learned
2060. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require a horizontal dry exhaust pipe from a diesel engine must __________.
Not learned
2061. Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) require a horizontal dry exhaust pipe from a diesel engine must __________.
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2062. Exhaust pipes of multiple engine installations are not to be interconnected, but are to be run separately to the atmosphere __________.
Not learned
2063. An exhaust pipe from an internal combustion engine may not need to be insulated when __________.
Not learned
2064. Which of the following statements pertains to propulsion engines with bores exceeding 200 mm?
Not learned
2065. A practical way of checking for excessive fuel injection in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine is to __________.
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2066. When monitoring diesel engine performance, the most useful instrument to use is the __________.
Not learned
2067. Exhaust gas pyrometers are useful for __________.
Not learned
2068. By comparing the exhaust gas temperature of each cylinder, the operator can determine if the load is balanced throughout the engine. The device most commonly used is a __________.
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2069. The device most commonly used to measure the exhaust gas temperature of a diesel engine cylinder is called a __________.
Not learned
2070. Comparing the exhaust gas output of each cylinder of a diesel engine is one method of determining if the engine load is balanced. This can be determined by the use of a __________.
Not learned
2071. Which of the following instruments can be used to compare the exhaust gas output of each cylinder of a diesel engine to determine if the engine load is balanced?
Not learned
2072. Individual cylinder performance in a diesel engine is routinely determined by exhaust gas __________.
Not learned
2073. Which of the following conditions is likely to develop if the thermocouple element of a pyrometer becomes coated with excessive amounts of combustion by-products?
Not learned
2074. Exhaust pyrometer readings provide an indication of the __________.
Not learned
2075. If the instrument sensing element, shown in the illustration, became coated with foreign matter, which of the listed conditions would be likely to occur
Not learned
2076. All of the diesel engine cylinder firing pressures are normal, yet all of the exhaust temperatures are low. Which of the following situations is responsible for this condition?
Not learned
2077. Which of the listed characteristics is common to both wet and dry type diesel engine exhaust muffler systems?
Not learned
2078. Diesel engine mufflers reduce noise by __________.
Not learned
2079. Diesel engine mufflers or silencers reduce the engine exhaust noise by __________.
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2080. Diesel engine mufflers accomplish noise reduction by __________.
Not learned
2081. The exhaust system for a diesel engine is usually designed to remove exhaust gases and to __________.
Not learned
2082. Diesel engine exhaust noise can be reduced in an exhaust muffler by __________.
Not learned
2083. Which of the diesel engine exhaust mufflers listed is usually equipped with a spark arrestor?
Not learned
2084. A dry-type spark arrestor removes sparks from a diesel engine exhaust by __________.
Not learned
2085. Marine diesel engine dry-type mufflers reduce noise by __________.
Not learned
2086. Wet-type exhaust silencers, that are used with some lifeboat diesel engines, utilize which design feature?
Not learned
2087. A dry-type exhaust silencer clogged with soot, will cause __________.
Not learned
2088. A dry-type exhaust silencer clogged with soot, will cause __________.
Not learned
2089. If a diesel engine were running at 20% overload with a smoky exhaust, you should __________.
Not learned
2090. The formation of carbon monoxide in diesel exhaust gases is reduced by __________.
Not learned
2091. Engine operating conditions may be indicated by the color of the exhaust smoke. Black smoke could indicate __________.
Not learned
2092. A diesel engine emits blue exhaust smoke as a result of __________.
Not learned
2093. Diesel engine operating conditions are indicated by the color of the exhaust smoke. Blue smoke can indicate __________.
Not learned
2094. Bluish smoke in the exhaust of an operating diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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2095. The color of the exhaust gas from a diesel engine under normal load should be __________.
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2096. The color of the exhaust gas from a diesel engine under normal load should be __________.
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2097. The color of the exhaust gas from a diesel engine under normal load should be __________.
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2098. A smoking exhaust from an operating diesel engine could be caused by __________.
Not learned
2099. White smoke issuing from the exhaust of an auxiliary diesel engine could mean __________.
Not learned
2100. White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can result from __________.
Not learned
2101. White smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine may indicate __________.
Not learned
2102. White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by a __________.
Not learned
2103. White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2104. A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapor is noted in the exhaust, this could indicate __________.
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2105. Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine is an indication of poor combustion which may be caused by __________.
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2106. Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine may be caused by __________.
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2107. Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine indicates __________.
Not learned
2108. What color exhaust will be exhibited when a slow speed two-stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine, designed to operate on light and heavy fuel oil, is operated on insufficiently preheated heavy fuel oil?
Not learned
2109. Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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2110. A dark exhaust from a running diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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2111. Grey smoke exhausting from a running diesel engine can be caused by __________.
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2112. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations apply?
Not learned
2113. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable Sulphur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area?
Not learned
2114. Casing drains may be required on a waste heat boiler gas passage side to __________.
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2115. Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes used in waste heat boilers to __________.
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2116. Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes, used in waste heat boilers, to __________.
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2117. Fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces in waste heat boilers to __________.
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2118. Generating tubes in waste heat boilers are finned to __________.
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2119. In general, diesel engine waste heat boiler construction is usually of the _________.
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2120. The purpose of designing some waste heat boilers with sinuous fire tubes, is to __________.
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2121. An exhaust gas bypass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order to __________.
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2122. When a waste heat boiler is installed in the exhaust of a main propulsion diesel engine, the exhaust gas bypass would be used __________.
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2123. The diesel engine exhaust gas bypass, as fitted with some waste heat boilers, is installed to __________.
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2124. A bypass line provided around a waste heat auxiliary boiler in a diesel engine exhaust system, may be used to avoid boiler __________.
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2125. An exhaust gas bypass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order to __________.
Not learned
2126. A waste heat boiler is installed on some diesel propelled vessels to __________.
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2127. The PRIMARY function of a waste heat boiler is to __________.
Not learned
2128. A SECONDARY function of a waste heat boiler is to __________.
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2129. Which of the following is necessary for all waste heat boiler installations, regardless of design or manufacturer?
Not learned
2130. Which of the following is necessary for all waste heat boiler installations, regardless of design or manufacturer?
Not learned
2131. The maximum pressure developed by a waste heat boiler is determined by the main engine exhaust __________.
Not learned
2132. With which of the following types of diesel engine arrangements is a waste heat boiler most likely to produce the maximum steam pressure, temperature, and flow conditions?
Not learned
2133. Waste heat boilers may be equipped with vents on the feed water heater heads to __________.
Not learned
2134. An 8000 horsepower diesel engine has a specific fuel consumption of 0.4 lbs. of fuel per horsepower hour. If each pound of fuel contains 18,500 BTU's and 25% of the available heat leaves the engine with the exhaust, how many BTU's per hour are theoretically available for use in a waste heat boiler?
Not learned
2135. Which of the following methods is typically employed in the design of waste heat boilers to obtain maximum heat transfer, while maintaining low overall weight?
Not learned
2136. As shown in the illustration, the function of component "1" is to ________
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2137. As shown in the illustration, the function of component "1" is to ________
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2138. As shown in the illustration, the function of component "3" is to ________
Not learned
2139. As shown in the illustration, the main function of the valve labeled "6" would be to ________
Not learned
2140. As shown in the illustration, the main function of the valve labeled "6" would be to ________
Not learned
2141. As shown in the illustration, what component would normally be installed at location "I"
Not learned
2142. As shown in the illustration, what component would normally be installed at location "I"
Not learned
2143. As shown in the illustration, what component would normally be installed at location "I"
Not learned
2144. Which of the following components may be installed at location "B", as shown in the illustration
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2145. As shown in the illustration, if the vessel was operating at full sea speed, the area labeled "L" would be used to ________
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2146. As shown in the illustration, if the vessel was operating at full sea speed, the area labeled "L" would be used to ________
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2147. As shown in the illustration, the component labeled "N" would be identified as a ________
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2148. As shown in the illustration, the component labeled "N" would be identified as a ________
Not learned
2149. As shown in the illustration, the component labeled "N" would be identified as a ________
Not learned
2150. As shown in the illustration, the function of the component labeled "G" would be to ________
Not learned
2151. As shown in the illustration, the area labeled as "C" would be identified as the ________
Not learned
2152. As shown in the illustration, the function of component "1" is to ________
Not learned
2153. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require the temperature of the water leaving an oil fired, cast iron, low pressure, hot water heating boiler must not exceed __________.
Not learned
2154. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that the temperature of the water for a hydrostatic test on a fire-tube boiler will be not less than 70° and not more than __________.
Not learned
2155. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), what is the highest steam temperature to which fusible plugs may be exposed?
Not learned
2156. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), fusible plugs are not permitted on auxiliary boilers where the maximum steam temperature to which they are exposed exceeds __________.
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2157. Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________.
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2158. Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________.
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2159. Auxiliary boilers can be classified as __________.
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2160. The purpose of the separating nozzle in the accumulator of a water-tube, coil-type, steam generator is to separate __________.
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2161. Large steam drums are not required in the design of a coil-type auxiliary water-tube boiler because __________.
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2162. The flash chamber attached to the auxiliary boiler illustrated, __________
Not learned
2163. In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler __________.
Not learned
2164. Within the cycle of a forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, part of the water flashes into steam, and the remaining hot water is __________.
Not learned
2165. In a forced circulation auxiliary boiler, steam is formed in the __________.
Not learned
2166. In a coil-type auxiliary water-tube circulation boiler __________.
Not learned
2167. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct?
Not learned
2168. In a coil-type forced circulation water-tube boiler, __________.
Not learned
2169. Which of the following statements about a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct?
Not learned
2170. The gauge glass on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is connected to the __________.
Not learned
2171. Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?
Not learned
2172. The rate of heat transfer in a water-tube auxiliary boiler can be increased by __________.
Not learned
2173. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.
Not learned
2174. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.
Not learned
2175. The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________
Not learned
2176. In an auxiliary boiler steam and water system, the highest pressure will be in the __________.
Not learned
2177. Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boilers are protected from direct contact with hot gases by __________.
Not learned
2178. The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by _________.
Not learned
2179. Where is a fusible plug installed on a Scotch or auxiliary boiler?
Not learned
2180. The fusible plugs used in fire-tube auxiliary boilers are installed in the __________.
Not learned
2181. A waterside fusible plug, installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler __________.
Not learned
2182. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to ________.
Not learned
2183. The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to __________.
Not learned
2184. The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to __________.
Not learned
2185. Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on a boiler, are __________.
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2186. Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on a boiler, are __________.
Not learned
2187. Automatically fired auxiliary boilers use fuel oil strainer arrangements of either the simplex type or __________.
Not learned
2188. The fuel oil strainers in the fuel oil service system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler are permitted by the Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be either the simplex type or the __________.
Not learned
2189. The fuel oil strainers located in the fuel oil service system of an automatic auxiliary heating boiler are either the duplex type or the __________.
Not learned
2190. Which type of pump is typically used to supply fuel to a unit type auxiliary boiler?
Not learned
2191. The burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with variable capacity, pressure atomizing burners, maintains steam pressure by __________.
Not learned
2192. The variation in the amount of fuel oil burned in the operation of an auxiliary boiler, utilizing a return flow type atomization system, is a function of the __________.
Not learned
2193. An auxiliary boiler is equipped with a return flow fuel atomization system, which uses a/an __________.
Not learned
2194. An auxiliary boiler equipped with a return flow fuel atomization system, has a __________.
Not learned
2195. The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.
Not learned
2196. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements is true concerning the water level indicating device for the auxiliary boiler shown in the illustration
Not learned
2197. You are preparing to undertake the re-piping of a water column for an auxiliary fire-tube boiler exceeding a 15 psig operating pressure and is piped similarly to the arrangement shown in the illustration. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR, Part 52), which of the following statements is true
Not learned
2198. The safety valve installed on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is located on the __________.
Not learned
2199. The purpose of the safety relief valves installed on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.
Not learned
2200. It is desirable for an auxiliary boiler safety valve to pop open and reseat firmly to __________.
Not learned
2201. When replacing tubes in a water-tube auxiliary boiler, to eliminate the possibility of leaks at the tube seats, the replacement tubes should be __________.
Not learned
2202. Which of the listed parts on a fire-tube auxiliary boiler requires a written report to the Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspection when renewed?
Not learned
2203. According to 46 CFRs, which of the following devices is prohibited for use on automatic auxiliary boilers?
Not learned
2204. Coast Guard Regulation (46 CFR) requires that after undergoing extensive repairs, an auxiliary boiler, with a maximum allowable working pressure of 60 psig (411.89 kPa), should be hydrostatically tested at a pressure of __________.
Not learned
2205. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require electric hot water supply boilers to be provided with a/an __________.
Not learned
2206. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require electric hot water supply boilers to be provided with a/an __________.
Not learned
2207. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.
Not learned
2208. The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.
Not learned
2209. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, for a passenger vessel, what is the interval in years between when hydrostatic tests must be performed on an oil-fired water-tube auxiliary boiler as witnessed by a marine inspector?
Not learned
2210. The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________
Not learned
2211. Excessive vibration from an auxiliary boiler could be caused by __________.
Not learned
2212. Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by __________.
Not learned
2213. A feed pump for an auxiliary boiler might lose suction if the __________.
Not learned
2214. A safety valve on an auxiliary boiler simmers constantly and cannot be stopped by several quick blow-offs using the hand-relieving gear. The problem may be __________.
Not learned
2215. If a tube ruptures in a water-tube auxiliary boiler due to low water, you should ___________.
Not learned
2216. The gauge glass on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is connected to the __________.
Not learned
2217. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), which of the following statements is true concerning the inspection of water-tube boilers?
Not learned
2218. Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of a fire-tube type auxiliary boiler approaches the crown sheet?
Not learned
2219. Which of the listed fuel oil ignition methods are commonly found on automatically fired auxiliary boilers aboard merchant vessels?
Not learned
2220. Why should the main steam stop valve of an auxiliary boiler be eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off?
Not learned
2221. The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an auxiliary boiler can increase as a result of __________.
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2222. The concentration of dissolved solids in the boiler water of an auxiliary boiler could increase as a result of __________.
Not learned
2223. The correct procedure for giving an auxiliary boiler a bottom blow, is to begin __________.
Not learned
2224. Which of the following procedures decreases the total dissolved solids concentration in the water of an auxiliary boiler?
Not learned
2225. The procedures recommended for auxiliary boilers having high salinity include __________.
Not learned
2226. The amount of chloride content in the water of an auxiliary boiler can be reduced by __________.
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2227. The water in an auxiliary boiler should be tested for chloride content to determine __________.
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2228. The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for __________.
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2229. The water in an auxiliary boiler should be chemically tested daily for alkalinity and __________.
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2230. The water in an operating auxiliary boiler should be tested for alkalinity and chloride content each __________.
Not learned
2231. For proper operation, auxiliary boiler feed water must have which of the following characteristics?
Not learned
2232. If an operating auxiliary boiler has a water pH reading of 7, you should __________.
Not learned
2233. Before an auxiliary boiler is shutdown for an extended period of time, the water in the boiler should have a pH value of __________.
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2234. The boiler water alkalinity in a coil-type auxiliary boiler should be maintained at the pH recommended by the boiler manufacturer to __________.
Not learned
2235. A coil-type automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to be laid up wet for an indefinite period. The boiler water should be treated to ensure that __________.
Not learned
2236. When checking for the presence of sulfite in the feed water of an auxiliary boiler, you are in essence checking __________.
Not learned
2237. How is the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the feed water of an auxiliary boiler maintained at acceptable limits?
Not learned
2238. Why should hand hole gaskets not be allowed to leak on an auxiliary boiler?
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2239. The most common cause of scale formation in an auxiliary boiler is __________.
Not learned
2240. Excessive alkalinity of the water in an auxiliary boiler can cause __________.
Not learned
2241. In readying an auxiliary water-tube boiler for a routine hydrostatic test, which of the following procedures should be undertaken prior to filling the boiler with fresh water?
Not learned
2242. When conducting a hydrostatic test on a water-tube auxiliary boiler, the test water should be heated to a temperature of at least 70°F (21°C). This is done to __________.
Not learned
2243. When conducting a hydrostatic test on a water-tube auxiliary boiler, the test water should be heated to a temperature of at least 70°F (21°C). This is done to __________.
Not learned
2244. During maintenance inspections of a fire tube auxiliary boiler, you should check for __________.
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2245. Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should always __________.
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2246. Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should always __________.
Not learned
2247. Improper maintenance of an automatic auxiliary boiler oil burner could result in __________.
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2248. Improper maintenance of the fuel oil burners in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, could result in __________.
Not learned
2249. A burner responsible for producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler would be caused by a __________.
Not learned
2250. A dirty atomizer sprayer plate in the burner of an auxiliary boiler, would be indicated by __________.
Not learned
2251. Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by __________.
Not learned
2252. If oil is dripping from the burner of a coil-type auxiliary steam generator, the cause may be __________.
Not learned
2253. Excessive vibration from an auxiliary boiler could be caused by __________.
Not learned
2254. Excessive vibration of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2255. A pulsating flame, accompanied by a burner developing black smoke in an auxiliary boiler, is an indication that the __________.
Not learned
2256. A smoking burner with a pulsating flame in an auxiliary boiler, is an indication that the __________.
Not learned
2257. Which of the following conditions could cause black smoke to be discharged from the stack of an auxiliary boiler equipped with turbine-driven rotary cup atomizers?
Not learned
2258. When an auxiliary boiler is panting and emitting black smoke, you should __________.
Not learned
2259. Which of the following conditions would cause 'panting' in a steaming auxiliary boiler?
Not learned
2260. Throttling a burner air register on an auxiliary boiler could result in __________.
Not learned
2261. If the fuel/air ratio in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is insufficient, the result could lead to __________.
Not learned
2262. If poor combustion occurs in an auxiliary boiler due to an air damper linkage being out of adjustment, you would adjust the linkage and then __________.
Not learned
2263. If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fails to sustain burner ignition after a normal shutdown, you should check for a/an __________.
Not learned
2264. An automatically fired auxiliary boiler with carbon deposits formed on its burner electrodes, will experience __________.
Not learned
2265. When lighting off an auxiliary boiler, which of the problems listed could cause the burners to sputter?
Not learned
2266. In the event of a flame failure in an auxiliary water-tube boiler, you must __________.
Not learned
2267. If the fire goes out in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler and the burner continues to supply fuel, there is a potential danger of __________.
Not learned
2268. A firebox explosion in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler may be the result of __________.
Not learned
2269. High stack temperature occurring in an auxiliary boiler could be a result of __________.
Not learned
2270. A burner producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler, would be caused by a/an __________.
Not learned
2271. In a fire-tube auxiliary boiler, you should expect to find the thickest scale on the waterside of the __________.
Not learned
2272. Waterside scale in a fire-tube boiler may cause __________.
Not learned
2273. A distorted furnace in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler may be the result of __________.
Not learned
2274. A feed pump for an auxiliary boiler might lose suction if the __________.
Not learned
2275. If the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler fails to deliver the feed water to the boiler, the cause may be __________.
Not learned
2276. Failure of the feed pump to deliver feed water to an auxiliary boiler could be caused by __________.
Not learned
2277. If a tube ruptures in a water-tube auxiliary boiler due to low water, you should ___________.
Not learned
2278. Which of the following conditions could cause the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler to lose suction?
Not learned
2279. Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation?
Not learned
2280. Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation?
Not learned
2281. Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation?
Not learned
2282. Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation?
Not learned
2283. The daily inspection of an operating auxiliary boiler should include __________.
Not learned
2284. When an auxiliary boiler is secured and you expect to relight the unit within six hours, you should __________.
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2285. After lighting off a cold, automatically fired, auxiliary boiler, as steam begins to form, you should __________.
Not learned
2286. Prior to lighting off a cold automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should __________.
Not learned
2287. You are standing watch in the engine room of a steam vessel. You should blow down a gauge glass periodically to __________.
Not learned
2288. A photoelectric cell is installed in an oil fired boiler safeguard system to introduce proper resistance values to the electronic control circuit. This device is primarily sensitive to __________.
Not learned
2289. Combustion control systems on automatic boilers are designed to prevent immediate burner ignition after a normal or safety shutdown in order to allow time for __________.
Not learned
2290. If the low water level alarm sounds on an automatically fired boiler, and the low water cutout fails to function, you must immediately __________.
Not learned
2291. If an automatically fired burner ignites, but repeatedly goes out within two seconds, the cause could be a/an __________.
Not learned
2292. In the water level electrode assembly, shown in the illustration, the feed pump should restart when the level of the water reaches the position indicated by arrow '____'
Not learned
2293. In the water level electrode assembly, shown in the illustration, the leads indicated by letter "F" would be wired to the __________
Not learned
2294. Regarding the water level electrode assembly shown in the illustration, normal water level would be indicated __________
Not learned
2295. Regarding the water level electrode assembly shown in the illustration, the normal water level will ordinarily rise and fall between __________
Not learned
2296. Regarding the water level electrode assembly shown in the illustration, arrow "C" indicates the point at which the __________
Not learned
2297. The auxiliary boiler feed water level control shown in the illustration, utilizes __________
Not learned
2298. An automatically fired auxiliary boiler is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be shutdown as a result of __________.
Not learned
2299. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require all automatically fired low pressure heating boilers to have an automatic __________.
Not learned
2300. Some automatically fired auxiliary boilers are equipped with the water level electrode assembly shown in the illustration. In this type of water level control, the burner circuit is completed through the __________
Not learned
2301. The submerged electrode low water cutoff used in some automatically fired auxiliary boilers, will secure the burner fuel supply if the boiler water level __________
Not learned
2302. The fuel supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will automatically shutdown if the boiler __________.
Not learned
2303. Two solenoid control valves are required on large automatic auxiliary boilers and will simultaneously shut off the fuel in the event of __________.
Not learned
2304. The fuel oil supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will automatically shutdown if the boiler __________.
Not learned
2305. Which of the following types of feedwater regulators is commonly used with a water-tube, natural circulation, auxiliary boiler?
Not learned
2306. Constant capacity pressure atomizing fuel oil burners installed on automatically fired auxiliary boilers, respond to variations in load demand by __________.
Not learned
2307. Which of the following methods is used with a varying load on an auxiliary boiler equipped with the burner assembly shown in the illustration
Not learned
2308. Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burners on and off in response to __________.
Not learned
2309. Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burners on and off in response to __________.
Not learned
2310. Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are designed to cycle burners on and off in response to __________.
Not learned
2311. When the steam pressure drops below a set value on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with rotary cup atomizers, the combustion control system will __________.
Not learned
2312. The solenoid valves in the fuel oil supply line to an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, are automatically closed by __________.
Not learned
2313. While an auxiliary boiler is operating at design load, which of the following actions will occur if the automatic combustion control system detects a steam pressure drop?
Not learned
2314. On an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, the steam pressure limit switch is wired into the burner electric circuit to __________.
Not learned
2315. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) specify that the fuel oil ignition system, on a small automatically fired auxiliary boiler, shall be energized __________.
Not learned
2316. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that small automatic auxiliary boilers shall be equipped with a pre-purge programming control that will assure at least __________.
Not learned
2317. The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent what condition?
Not learned
2318. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the flame safeguard control system for an automatic boiler, should __________.
Not learned
2319. A failure to any component of a flame safeguard control for an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, will result in __________.
Not learned
2320. The flame safeguard controls of a large automatically fired auxiliary boiler, may consist of a __________.
Not learned
2321. The purpose of a temperature sensing device installed in the stack of a small automatically fired auxiliary steam boiler is to secure the oil burner __________.
Not learned
2322. Which of the listed sequence of events occurs when an automatic auxiliary boiler is pre-purged?
Not learned
2323. The programmed control system of an automatic auxiliary boiler will terminate the light off process during the pre-purge period if air flow is not sensed and __________.
Not learned
2324. After a normal, or safety shutdown, automatic combustion control systems for an auxiliary boiler are designed to prevent the immediate refiring of a burner in order for the __________.
Not learned
2325. At the beginning of the pre-purge period on an automatic auxiliary boiler equipped with a programmed control system, the unit will not restart if airflow is not sensed and __________.
Not learned
2326. The purpose of the programmed purge cycle on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to __________.
Not learned
2327. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit the use of which of the following fuel oil ignition methods on automatic auxiliary boilers?
Not learned
2328. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the "trial for ignition period" on boilers must not exceed __________.
Not learned
2329. A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________.
Not learned
2330. During unsafe firing conditions in a large automatic auxiliary boiler, various control actuators are interlocked with the burner circuit to prevent start-up, in addition to safety shutdown. These controls are referred to as __________.
Not learned
2331. Which of the listed types of control systems is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) for large automatic auxiliary boiler heating equipment?
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2332. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require the controls for automatically fired auxiliary boilers, must be fitted with visible indicators to signal __________.
Not learned
2333. The pressuretrol which is installed on an auxiliary boiler senses steam pressure changes and __________.
Not learned
2334. In an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, restarting from the normal shutdown cycle in response to steam demand is initiated by a/an __________.
Not learned
2335. Which of the following statements is true concerning pressure limit switches and pressuretrols installed on auxiliary boilers?
Not learned
2336. Which of the following statements concerning the alarms for automatically controlled auxiliary boilers complies with applicable Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR).
Not learned
2337. Which of the following actions takes place in the control circuit of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler when the desired steam pressure is obtained?
Not learned
2338. The flame safeguard control system of a large automatic auxiliary boiler will provide fuel shut off in the case of high __________.
Not learned
2339. Control of the fuel oil metering valve in an automatically fired boiler is accomplished by a __________.
Not learned
2340. Which of the automatic boiler controls listed should be tested prior to lighting off an auxiliary boiler?
Not learned
2341. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require the programming control sequence for auxiliary boiler operation to include __________.
Not learned
2342. All oil-fired boilers, regardless of intended mode of operation, with automatic safety control systems must automatically close the burner valve when___________.
Not learned
2343. All oil-fired boilers, regardless of intended mode of operation, with automatic safety control systems must automatically close the burner valve when___________.
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2344. To test the operation of the flame failure switch of an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should __________.
Not learned
2345. When an auxiliary boiler is on the line, the output of the flame scanner can be checked by placing a microammeter in series with the photoelectric cell circuit. The readings on high fire should be __________.
Not learned
2346. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), water level controls utilized in a small automatically fired auxiliary heating boiler shall be tested __________.
Not learned
2347. Flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result from a/an __________.
Not learned
2348. Flame failure in an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result from a __________.
Not learned
2349. Burner ignition failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler would be caused by __________.
Not learned
2350. Failure of the burner flame in an automatic auxiliary boiler would probably be a result of __________.
Not learned
2351. When there is a flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, the __________.
Not learned
2352. If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fails to sustain burner ignition after a normal shutdown, you should check for a/an __________.
Not learned
2353. Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler could be caused by __________.
Not learned
2354. Ignition failure in an auxiliary boiler can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2355. Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2356. A sudden flame failure in an operating auxiliary boiler, equipped with an automatic combustion control system and burning light fuel, could be attributed to a __________.
Not learned
2357. Under which of the following conditions must the combustion control system for a small automatic auxiliary boiler secure the burner?
Not learned
2358. A failure of any component of a flame safeguard control for an auxiliary boiler will result in __________.
Not learned
2359. If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fails to restart from the normal shutdown mode, you should check for __________.
Not learned
2360. Which of the following conditions will cause only one of the burner solenoid valves to close on an automatically fired, two burner unit, auxiliary boiler?
Not learned
2361. If the flame of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler tends to move away from the burner tip when the firing rate is changed from low to high, you should __________.
Not learned
2362. Automatic burner shutdown in an auxiliary boiler, as a result of a component failure in the flame safeguard controls, will __________.
Not learned
2363. Over firing of a hot water boiler may be caused by __________.
Not learned
2364. What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration
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2365. What is the function of device "C" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2366. What is the function of item 'D' shown in the illustration
Not learned
2367. Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown in the illustration
Not learned
2368. What occurs in the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustration
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2369. What occurs in the space labeled "D" of the device shown in the illustration
Not learned
2370. What occurs in the area labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustration
Not learned
2371. What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2372. For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the connection labeled "I"
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2373. The primary function of line 'J' shown in the illustration is to ______
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2374. Line "K" shown in the illustration is the __________
Not learned
2375. Item "M" shown in the illustration is the __________
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2376. The function of device "O" shown in the illustration is to ______
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2377. Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in the illustration
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2378. Which of the listed fluids exits the flange labeled "Q" shown in the illustration
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2379. Which of the listed fluids exits the device at flange "R" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2380. The line shown in the illustration, identified by the letter "S", is the __________
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2381. The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________
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2382. In an actual installation, the flange identified by the letter "U", shown in the illustration, can be directly connected from the brine ejector discharge to the __________
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2383. In an actual installation, the flange identified by the letter "U", shown in the illustration, can be directly connected from the brine ejector discharge to the __________
Not learned
2384. In an actual installation, which of the flanges are connected to the condenser section of the water maker
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2385. In an actual installation, which of the flanges are connected to the engine jacket water system for the water maker shown in the illustration
Not learned
2386. The heat exchanger plates, used in the device shown in the illustration, are produced from which of the listed materials
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2387. The heat exchanger plates, used in the device shown in the illustration, are produced from which of the listed materials
Not learned
2388. Which of the following represents the motivating power fluid used in conjunction with the ejector pumps on plate type evaporators?
Not learned
2389. Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the illustration may be the result of __________
Not learned
2390. What is the function of the device labeled "3" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2391. Excluding line losses, how many distinct pressure drops will occur as sea water flows through all the heat exchangers in the cooling system shown in the illustration
Not learned
2392. What is the primary function of item '15' shown in the illustration
Not learned
2393. The graphic dotted line between items "27", "12", "9", and "20", shown in the illustration, is used to indicate the use of __________
Not learned
2394. Which of the following statements represents the two major functions provided by the item labeled "20" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2395. The items labeled "21" and "22", shown in the illustration are used to remove __________
Not learned
2396. What occurs within the tubes of the device labeled "23" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2397. Which of the following statements describes what will occur to the volume of water vapor as it is exposed to the lower temperatures existing in the device labeled "24" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2398. Device "27" shown in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
2399. Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distiller
Not learned
2400. Which of the valve arrangements listed would be correct for operating the distillation plant shown in the illustration
Not learned
2401. Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal operation by __________
Not learned
2402. During operation which device listed removes air and non-condensable gases from the unit shown in the illustration
Not learned
2403. Which of the following statements concerning the systems shown in the illustration is correct
Not learned
2404. Which of the following statements concerning the systems shown in the illustration is correct
Not learned
2405. Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feedwater entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed
Not learned
2406. Which set of valves will be opened intentionally to remove heat from the main engine jacket cooling water system shown in the illustration
Not learned
2407. Item "10" shown in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
2408. If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which of the following will occur
Not learned
2409. If the wearing rings of device "7" shown in the illustration become worn, how will the evaporation rate in "23" be affected
Not learned
2410. If valve "H" shown in the illustration is opened wide while the distiller is in operation, __________
Not learned
2411. What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"
Not learned
2412. Which of the conditions listed would indicate a large condenser tube leak within the distiller shown in the illustration
Not learned
2413. What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in operation
Not learned
2414. Irregular feeding or surging of the feedwater supply to a flash evaporator may be attributed to __________.
Not learned
2415. Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of __________.
Not learned
2416. The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________
Not learned
2417. What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in operation
Not learned
2418. What is the function of the item "7" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2419. What is the primary function of item '15' shown in the illustration
Not learned
2420. Device "27" shown in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
2421. Item "10" shown in the illustration is used to __________
Not learned
2422. Lubrication for the main reduction gears used with diesel engines is usually supplied by __________.
Not learned
2423. When more than one propulsion diesel engine is connected to a single propeller shaft through reduction gears, the gears are usually __________.
Not learned
2424. In the reversing reduction gear shown in the illustration, the forward and reverse main pinions are in constant mesh with the main gear. This means the __________
Not learned
2425. When passing through mesh contact, the teeth of a reduction gear first go through a series of actions best described as __________.
Not learned
2426. A magnetic strainer is primarily used in diesel engine reduction gear oil systems to remove small particles of __________.
Not learned
2427. Direct reversible main propulsion diesel engines would normally be fitted with a/an __________.
Not learned
2428. Proper operation of the main engine reduction gear set requires the operator to monitor __________.
Not learned
2429. Which of the types of reduction gearing listed is best suited for medium-speed main propulsion units?
Not learned
2430. What type of reduction gear would most commonly be used with twin medium-speed propulsion diesel engines driving a single shaft?
Not learned
2431. Some medium and high-speed diesel engines require reduction gear units to provide a useful propeller speed. In most reduction gears, the bull gear __________.
Not learned
2432. In most marine single reduction gear units, the bull gear is driven by the __________.
Not learned
2433. When used with reversing reduction gears, main propulsion diesel engines should be bolted tight to their foundations with fitted bolts at the output drive end and snug bolts with elongated bolt holes at the opposite end. This is done to __________.
Not learned
2434. Which of the following characteristics is true relative to meshing spur gears?
Not learned
2435. Helical reduction gears, as used with main propulsion drive trains, are constructed so that several teeth are meshed at the same time to __________.
Not learned
2436. The pinion gear shown in the illustration, is located __________
Not learned
2437. In the reduction gear set shown, the output shaft is identified as number _______
Not learned
2438. Reduction gear casings are vented in order to __________.
Not learned
2439. When a diesel engine is attached to a reduction gear, diesel engine speed is reduced and the torque available for work __________.
Not learned
2440. In reducing engine speed to an efficient propeller speed by the use of reduction gears, __________.
Not learned
2441. A diesel engine with a full speed of 1000 RPM drives a propeller at 300 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio?
Not learned
2442. The RPM of "A" is 150 and hobbed with 82 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 62, 20, and 38 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2443. The RPM of "A" is 150 and hobbed with 84 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 64, 24, and 36 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2444. The RPM of "A" is 150 and hobbed with 86 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 66, 22, and 48 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2445. The RPM of "A" is 150 and hobbed with 94 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 80, 30, and 46 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2446. The RPM of "D" is 900 and hobbed with 36 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 72, 64, and 24 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2447. Gear "D" hobbed with 42 teeth and rotates at a speed of 700 RPM. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 42, 60, and 32 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2448. The RPM of gear "D" is 900 and it is hobbed with 48 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 88, 66, and 22 teeth respectively, the RPM of gear "A" in the gear train illustration is ________
Not learned
2449. The RPM of "D" is 800 and hobbed with 38 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 80, 62, and 20 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2450. The RPM of "D" is 500 and hobbed with 42 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 42, 60, and 32 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2451. The RPM of "D" is 500 and hobbed with 36 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 72, 64, and 24 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2452. A diesel engine is operating at 1800 RPM and driving a propeller at 600 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio?
Not learned
2453. The RPM of "D" is 600 and hobbed with 48 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 84, 66, and 22 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2454. The RPM of "D" is 600 and hobbed with 46 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 94, 80, and 30 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2455. The RPM of "D" is 700 and hobbed with 38 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 82, 62, and 20 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2456. The RPM of "A" is 100 and hobbed with 76 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 60, 32, and 42 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2457. The RPM of "D" is 600 and hobbed with 48 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 84, 66, and 22 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2458. The RPM of "D" is 600 and hobbed with 46 teeth. If gears "A", "B", and "C" have 94, 80, and 30 teeth respectively, the RPM of "A" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2459. The RPM of "A" is 100 and hobbed with 80 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 62, 20, and 38 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2460. The RPM of "A" is 100 and hobbed with 88 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 66, 22, and 48 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2461. In the illustration, If gear A has 72 teeth, gear B has 64 teeth, gear C has 24 teeth and gear D has 36 teeth, what is the RPM of the gear D if gear A is turning at 100 RPM
Not learned
2462. The RPM of "A" is 100 and hobbed with 76 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 60, 32, and 42 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2463. The RPM of "A" is 100 and hobbed with 80 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 62, 20, and 38 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2464. The RPM of "A" is 100 and hobbed with 88 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 66, 22, and 48 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2465. The RPM of "A" is 100 and hobbed with 96 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 80, 30, and 46 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2466. The RPM of "A" is 100 and hobbed with 72 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 64, 24, and 36 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2467. The RPM of "A" is 150 and hobbed with 78 teeth. If gears "B", "C", and "D" have 60, 32, and 42 teeth respectively, the RPM of "D" in the gear train illustration is __________
Not learned
2468. In the set of reduction gears shown in the illustration, what type of bearing is used
Not learned
2469. The driving force of a propeller is transmitted to the hull through the_____________.
Not learned
2470. For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?
Not learned
2471. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a double reduction?
Not learned
2472. Regarding the overrunning clutch shown in the illustration, you would expect __________
Not learned
2473. Gear-type flexible couplings are often used in diesel engine drive trains because they __________.
Not learned
2474. In using reduction gears to obtain efficient propeller speeds, __________.
Not learned
2475. Which of the couplings listed will prevent shock loads from being transmitted to an engine?
Not learned
2476. Fluid forces that are generated inside the coupling shown in the illustration, tend to separate the runner and impeller during operation when the __________
Not learned
2477. Hydraulic couplings will transmit torque equal to the input torque by means of energy changes in a rotating vortex of liquid. For the vortices to form there must be __________.
Not learned
2478. Effective operation of a hydraulic coupling depends upon a specified amount of __________.
Not learned
2479. One advantage of hydraulic clutches over mechanical clutches in diesel engine installations is __________.
Not learned
2480. The axial thrust of the coupling shown in the illustration, tends to draw the runner and impeller together when the __________
Not learned
2481. The power loss associated with slip in a fluid coupling appears as __________.
Not learned
2482. Effective operation of a hydraulic coupling depends upon a specified amount of __________.
Not learned
2483. The purpose of the rotating seal located at the aft end of the reversing reduction gear shown in the illustration, is to __________
Not learned
2484. Clutching takes place nearest the bearing shown in the illustration, located at number _____
Not learned
2485. Torque capacity of the air clutch shown in the illustration, may be increased by __________
Not learned
2486. When changing the direction of propeller shaft rotation in a diesel plant equipped with a pneumatic clutch, you must pause at neutral to allow the __________.
Not learned
2487. The clutch glands of the gear unit, shown in the illustration, rotate at __________
Not learned
2488. When air is delivered under pressure to one of the glands of an air-bladder clutch, the __________.
Not learned
2489. One operating characteristic of the reversing reduction gear unit, shown in the illustration, is that once a clutch is engaged, the __________
Not learned
2490. Two inflatable clutch glands are provided in the main engine reduction gear illustrated because __________
Not learned
2491. Which of the following statements concerning the marine type reversing reduction gear set shown in the illustration is correct
Not learned
2492. Which of the operating functions listed applies to the clutch glands of the unit shown in the illustration
Not learned
2493. The volume of available air supply required by an air clutch varies with the __________.
Not learned
2494. Which of the clutch types listed is shown in the illustration of the reversing reduction gear unit
Not learned
2495. The air bladder clutch used with some reversing reduction drive gears, consists of __________.
Not learned
2496. Airflex clutches are used to transmit power from a diesel engine to the propeller shaft. A restricted orifice is used in the control air system of this unit to __________.
Not learned
2497. Slippage of an air-operated friction clutch can result from __________.
Not learned
2498. One advantage of electromagnetic slip couplings is __________.
Not learned
2499. Which of the following statements represents an advantage of an electromagnetic clutch?
Not learned
2500. In an electromagnetic coupling, torque to the driven shaft is limited by the __________.
Not learned
2501. When two direct air start reversible medium speed diesel engines are coupled in parallel to a common propeller shaft, which of the operating conditions listed will apply during extended periods of maneuvering?
Not learned
2502. In an electromagnetic slip coupling, the slip __________.
Not learned
2503. The magnetic lock between the armature and field in an electromagnetic coupling is established by __________.
Not learned
2504. The torque transmitted by an electromagnetic induction coupling for an auxiliary diesel is dependent upon excitation and the __________.
Not learned
2505. When two medium speed diesel engines are electrically coupled in parallel to a common propeller shaft which will operate at a speed less than 100 RPM, which of the operating conditions listed will apply?
Not learned
2506. Which of the coupling types listed is shown in the illustration
Not learned
2507. Which of the couplings listed is normally not repairable, and is usually replaced if completely damaged?
Not learned
2508. The best method for determining the amount of eccentricity or offset misalignment between the disconnected propeller shaft coupling flange and the reduction gear output flange is by using a __________.
Not learned
2509. Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be detected by using a dial indicator or __________.
Not learned
2510. Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be detected by using a dial indicator or __________.
Not learned
2511. When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine which is using an inadequately inflated air bladder clutch unit, you can expect __________.
Not learned
2512. When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine which is using an inadequately inflated air bladder clutch unit, you can expect __________.
Not learned
2513. Which of the following couplings or clutches would be able to prevent the transmission of torsional vibrations from an engine to a reduction gear?
Not learned
2514. Which of the following couplings or clutches allows, within limits, a certain degree of slip?
Not learned
2515. An oil-operated, direct-reversing mechanism on a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, can serve to __________.
Not learned
2516. The reversing mechanism on a large four stroke main propulsion diesel engine, can be operated by __________.
Not learned
2517. While underway, which of the following would be the FIRST step in reversing a direct reversing large, slow-speed, main propulsion, diesel engine?
Not learned
2518. During maneuvering operations for a direct reversing large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the following actions is used to stop the shaft from turning prior to changing the engine rotation for a vessel with moderate headway?
Not learned
2519. In order to reverse the rotation of a two-stroke/cycle loop scavenged, direct reversing, propulsion diesel engine, the cam positions must be changed for the __________.
Not learned
2520. The reversing cams of some four-stroke cycle diesel engines are brought into position by __________.
Not learned
2521. Your vessel is about to begin maneuvering, in order to carry out easy restarting of a large heavy fuel diesel engine that has been stopped for some time, you should have __________.
Not learned
2522. Which of the listed types of starting systems is often used on large, low-speed, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines?
Not learned
2523. A large two-stroke/cycle direct reversing diesel engine is to be reversed. Prior to the admission of starting air you must __________.
Not learned
2524. Which of the following statements represents the reason for rolling over a diesel engine with the cylinder indicator cocks open prior to starting?
Not learned
2525. Which of the listed devices is often used in combination with the flywheel of small and medium size diesel engines for the purpose of starting?
Not learned
2526. Which of the following statements describes the action of the unit shown in the illustration
Not learned
2527. Which of the following statements describes the action of the unit shown in the illustration
Not learned
2528. What is the function of component "G" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2529. What is the function of component "G" shown in the illustration
Not learned
2530. The cylinders labeled "B" and "C" in the illustration are used to __________
Not learned
2531. The function of the device shown in the illustration is to __________
Not learned
2532. Which of the following statements describes the function of the unit shown in the illustration as found on some medium speed diesel engines
Not learned
2533. The function of the device shown in the illustration is to __________
Not learned
2534. The function of the device shown in the illustration is to __________
Not learned
2535. The component labeled "A" on the engine reversing device shown in the illustration, performs its function by transmitting _______
Not learned
2536. Which of the following should always be checked prior to starting a diesel engine?
Not learned
2537. Prior to starting most medium-speed propulsion diesel engines, which of the procedures listed should be observed?
Not learned
2538. Which of the listed diesel engine operating conditions should be checked immediately after any diesel engine is started?
Not learned
2539. Immediately after starting a diesel engine, you should first check and monitor the __________.
Not learned
2540. Which of the following operating procedures should be carried out immediately after any diesel engine is started?
Not learned
2541. As soon as a diesel engine has started, which of the listed engine operating parameters should be checked FIRST?
Not learned
2542. When attempting to restart a warm high-speed engine, which of the following reactions can you expect?
Not learned
2543. Following an overhaul of a crosshead type diesel engine, the engine is jacked over with the turning gear as part of the pre-start procedure. Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out?
Not learned
2544. Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out prior to starting a crosshead type diesel engine after an overhaul?
Not learned
2545. Before starting a diesel engine that has an engine driven lube oil pump, the engineer should __________.
Not learned
2546. What could be the cause of inadequate starting speed during the cranking of a cold diesel engine?
Not learned
2547. The minimum speed an engine must attain before ignition can occur depends upon __________.
Not learned
2548. In the starting process of a diesel engine, the main object is to attain the compression conditions sufficient to _________.
Not learned
2549. When restarting a heavy fuel diesel engine that has been stopped for some time, the engineer should __________.
Not learned
2550. If a diesel engine can be turned over at normal cranking speed but fails to start, the cause could be late fuel injection or __________.
Not learned
2551. If a diesel engine turned over at normal cranking speed but failed to start, the cause could be late fuel injection or __________.
Not learned
2552. A diesel engine may fail to start when being cranked, due to __________.
Not learned
2553. If a diesel engine fails to start, one of the likely causes is __________.
Not learned
2554. If while attempting to start a diesel engine, the cranking speed is too low, __________.
Not learned
2555. If cranking a diesel engine is too slow while attempting to start, it will result in __________.
Not learned
2556. A diesel engine may fail to start due to __________.
Not learned
2557. Which of the following statements is correct concerning available astern power for diesel main propulsion systems?
Not learned
2558. Concerning diesel propelled vessels, the astern power is to provide for continuous operation astern __________.
Not learned
2559. The cylinders labeled "B" and "C" in the illustration are used to __________
Not learned
2560. The cylinders labeled "B" and "C" in the illustration are used to __________
Not learned
2561. Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for starting air receivers?
Not learned
2562. Starting systems for large, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines are usually __________.
Not learned
2563. Which of the following statements is true concerning the air starting valve, labeled "III", as shown in the illustration
Not learned
2564. The four cams shown in the illustration are in position with their respective pistons at top dead center. Which of the cams is the air starting cam
Not learned
2565. Cams used to activate mechanically operated air starting valves on four-stroke/cycle diesel engines should have which of the valve lift profiles listed?
Not learned
2566. Which of the following methods is used to prevent throttling of compressed air through the diesel engine air starting valves?
Not learned
2567. The pilot valves in an air pilot starting system for a two-stroke cycle, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engine are operated by either a ported distributor disc or a/an __________.
Not learned
2568. The timing of diesel engine air starting valves is controlled by __________.
Not learned
2569. Diesel engine air start valve timing is controlled by __________.
Not learned
2570. Which of the following statements is true concerning the air starting valve, labeled "III", as shown in the illustration
Not learned
2571. During the starting of a diesel engine, compression gases are prevented from backing into the air starting system, shown in the illustration, by the __________
Not learned
2572. The items, shown in the illustration, labeled "P" are __________
Not learned
2573. What type of valve, shown in the illustration, is indicated by the letter "I"
Not learned
2574. Which type of diesel engine air start system is shown in the illustration
Not learned
2575. Starting air check valves are held firmly on their seats by __________.
Not learned
2576. Diesel engine air start system check valves are opened by __________.
Not learned
2577. The air start check valve shown in the illustration is opened by __________
Not learned
2578. A six-cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is fitted with a rotary distributing air starting system. The speed of the rotating distributor disc is __________.
Not learned
2579. A six-cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is fitted with a rotary distributing air starting system. The speed of the rotating distributor disc is __________.
Not learned
2580. The admission valve, shown in the illustration, is fitted to an air supply manifold for opening and closing off the supply of compressed air to the starting valves, as well as air distribution to the main propulsion diesel engine. The admission valve is opened by __________
Not learned
2581. Which of the following statements best represents how the start air valve, shown in the illustration, operates to admit starting air to the main engine cylinder
Not learned
2582. The control air distributor shown in the illustration functions to __________
Not learned
2583. In a direct cylinder admission air starting system, once the engine begins to fire, the air starting check valve illustrated, is closed by __________
Not learned
2584. When an air started, four-stroke cycle diesel engine is being cranked over, the starting air is admitted to each cylinder during the beginning of its ________.
Not learned
2585. If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is started by admitting high pressure air into the cylinders, the pistons receiving the charge of starting air must be __________.
Not learned
2586. In a medium-speed marine propulsion engine equipped with direct admission air starting valves, the cylinders without air starting valves fire first because the __________.
Not learned
2587. An eight cylinder, air started, two-stroke/cycle, direct reversing, marine diesel engine can be rotated from any crankshaft position by the air start system only if it has __________.
Not learned
2588. The air start timing in the system shown in the illustration can be advanced by __________
Not learned
2589. Air motors used for starting some auxiliary diesel engines are generally the type known as __________.
Not learned
2590. Air motors used for starting some auxiliary diesel engines are generally the type known as __________.
Not learned
2591. Which internal combustion engine starting system uses a vane type fluid motor?
Not learned
2592. The diesel engine starting motor shown in the illustration, is driven by __________
Not learned
2593. In addition to the main starting air compressor, another air compressor, driven by a separate power source, is installed to __________.
Not learned
2594. The starting air supply for a diesel engine is generally produced by a/an __________.
Not learned
2595. Where is the air charge for an air starting system stored?
Not learned
2596. Intercoolers installed on starting air compressors, reduce the possibility of __________.
Not learned
2597. Intercoolers installed on starting air compressors, reduce the possibility of __________.
Not learned
2598. The purpose of an intercooler installed on a high pressure starting air compressor is to _______.
Not learned
2599. A two-stroke cycle diesel engine requires less starting air than a four-stroke cycle diesel engine, of equal displacement, because the two-stroke cycle diesel engine ______.
Not learned
2600. The illustration is of a/an __________
Not learned
2601. In the illustration, pieces #31 and #29, have 16 and 55 teeth respectively. In order to start the engine, the Bendix drive must turn 3000 RPM. Therefore, the air motor assembly must rotate at __________
Not learned
2602. When the air valve is opened to admit starting air to a diesel engine pneumatic starting motor, the valve should be opened rapidly to __________.
Not learned
2603. Which of the listed items should be secured before performing any maintenance on a solenoid operated air start valve?
Not learned
2604. Which of the listed items should be secured before performing any maintenance on a solenoid operated air start valve?
Not learned
2605. Which of the following problems can occur if you continually fail to drain off condensate from a starting air receiver?
Not learned
2606. Which of the following problems can occur if accumulating condensate is not drained off from a starting air receiver?
Not learned
2607. On a diesel engine with direct-cylinder admission air starting, a leaking air starting valve would be indicated by __________.
Not learned
2608. In an operating diesel engine, which of the following conditions is an indication of a leaking air starting valve?
Not learned
2609. Improper seating of an air starting check valve in an operating diesel engine is indicated by __________.
Not learned
2610. A pilot-operated, main air starting valve begins leaking in one cylinder while the engine is operating. This malfunction is indicated by __________.
Not learned
2611. On a diesel engine, using a distributor type air starting system, that is not running, which of the following methods may be used to detect leaking air starting valves?
Not learned
2612. Two air compressors are provided for the starting air system and should be capable of __________.
Not learned
2613. Air receivers installed in starting air systems are to be __________.
Not learned
2614. Each receiver in a starting air system which can be isolated from a relief valve __________.
Not learned
2615. Vessels having main engines arranged for air starting are to be provided with at least __________.
Not learned
2616. The total starting air capacity required for reversible main engines is to be sufficient for a least __________.
Not learned
2617. The total air capacity for non-reversible main engines is to be sufficient for __________.
Not learned
2618. If control air systems are supplied from starting air receivers, the capacity of the receivers should be sufficient __________.
Not learned
2619. What may be used to protect starting air mains against explosions arising from improperly functioning starting valves?
Not learned
2620. Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame arrestor is fitted __________.
Not learned
2621. Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame arrestor is fitted __________.
Not learned
2622. The illustration is of a/an __________
Not learned
2623. Fluid type starting motors used for starting auxiliary diesel engines may either be of the piston type or the __________.
Not learned
2624. An accumulator used in a hydraulic starting system is generally located between the __________.
Not learned
2625. The device used to store a charged pressure for an hydraulic starting system is called the __________.
Not learned
2626. In a hydraulic starting system, oil to the starting motor flows from the __________.
Not learned
2627. The accumulator shown in the illustration can be charged by the __________
Not learned
2628. Which of the following statements is true concerning the hydraulic starting system shown in the illustration
Not learned
2629. The accumulator shown in the illustration is pressurized by __________
Not learned
2630. The hydraulic starting motor is operated by hydraulic fluid flow under pressure from the __________.
Not learned
2631. Hydraulic starters are installed on many lifeboat diesel engines instead of comparable air start systems, because __________.
Not learned
2632. Which type of starter motor is sometimes utilized in a diesel engine hydraulic starting system?
Not learned
2633. Which type of motor listed is most commonly used in hydraulic starting systems for diesel engines?
Not learned
2634. When an engine fitted with a hydraulic starting system starts up, the starter is protected from the higher speed of the engine by ________.
Not learned
2635. The purpose of the engine-driven hydraulic pump in an auxiliary diesel engine hydraulic starting system is to __________.
Not learned
2636. Before any auxiliary diesel engine hydraulic starting system is opened for servicing or repair, you must __________.
Not learned
2637. The starter control valve in the hydraulic system shown in the illustration is malfunctioning. Before removing the valve, you must first __________
Not learned
2638. If a hydraulic starting motor turns, but the diesel engine does not, the most likely cause is __________.
Not learned
2639. If a diesel engine hydraulic starting motor fails to disengage from the engine, your FIRST check should be the __________.
Not learned
2640. When a diesel engine is equipped with a hydraulic starting system designed to operate at pressures of 150 psi or more, Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the hydraulic fluid shall __________.
Not learned
2641. An auxiliary diesel engine may fail to start due to __________.
Not learned
2642. If an auxiliary diesel engine will not crank but can be barred over, the trouble may be __________.
Not learned
2643. For a diesel engine, approximately how long can an electric starter motor be operated continuously before damage may begin to occur due to overheating?
Not learned
2644. The pinion of an auxiliary diesel-electric starting motor normally engages the flywheel ring gear by means of a/an __________.
Not learned
2645. Electric starting motors for diesel engines require high current for operation and __________.
Not learned
2646. Electric starting motors for diesel engines require high current for operation and __________.
Not learned
2647. Electric starting motors for diesel engines require high current for their operation. As a result of this, they __________.
Not learned
2648. Auxiliary diesel engine electric starting motors use __________.
Not learned
2649. Diesel engine electric starting motors generally require heavier duty motors and operate at higher voltages than comparable starting motors for gasoline engines due to __________.
Not learned
2650. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if the electric starter motor pinion gear fails to disengage from the flywheel of a diesel engine after the engine has started?
Not learned
2651. A diesel engine electric starting motor is operated under a no-load condition. Continuing to operate the motor unloaded will __________.
Not learned
2652. The illustrated starting motor disengages the drive/clutch mechanism after the engine has started due to __________
Not learned
2653. The diesel engine starting motor returns the drive/clutch mechanism to the position illustrated by __________
Not learned
2654. The illustrated starting motor disengages the drive/clutch mechanism after the engine has started due to __________
Not learned
2655. The device used to engage a diesel engine starting motor with the flywheel ring gear is the __________
Not learned
2656. The Bendix drive on the starting motor illustrated is indicated by piece number __________
Not learned
2657. Marine auxiliary diesel engine starters utilizing Bendix drive gear are powered by an electric starting motor or __________.
Not learned
2658. The diesel engine starting motor, shown in the illustration, utilizes which of the following types of drive/clutch mechanisms
Not learned
2659. An air starting motor for a diesel engine is protected from over speeding by __________.
Not learned
2660. In the overrunning clutch shown in the illustration, if "A" was rotating faster than "B", the clutch is considered to be __________
Not learned
2661. In a Bendix starter drive, the pinion engagement with the flywheel ring gear is initiated by __________.
Not learned
2662. In a diesel engine starting motor equipped with a Bendix drive, the pinion moves and meshes with the flywheel ring gear due to __________.
Not learned
2663. Which of the following operating characteristics of the Bendix drive friction clutch is associated with a Bendix drive starter?
Not learned
2664. In some Bendix drive electric starting systems, the sudden shock of the pinion gear being engaged with the flywheel is absorbed by the __________.
Not learned
2665. A Bendix drive starting motor disengages the drive gear from the flywheel by __________.
Not learned
2666. After an engine has been started using a Bendix drive unit, the drive pinion disengages from the flywheel due to __________.
Not learned
2667. If the diesel engine starter-drive mechanism fails to disengage after the engine starts, which of the following situations will occur?
Not learned
2668. Starting a large low-speed propulsion diesel engine on diesel fuel during cold weather conditions will be made easier by __________.
Not learned
2669. Starting a large low-speed propulsion diesel engine on diesel fuel during cold weather conditions will be made easier by __________.
Not learned
2670. Diesel engine starting difficulties due to cold intake air temperatures, can be overcome by using a/an __________.
Not learned
2671. When starting a diesel engine at temperatures below 70°F, the frictional resistance to turning will be __________.
Not learned
2672. Cold weather starting of a diesel engine is more difficult than warm weather starting due to __________.
Not learned
2673. Which of the listed diesel engine starting systems is most susceptible to difficulties in cold weather?
Not learned
2674. Which of the following effects will excessively cold lube oil have on the operation of a diesel engine?
Not learned
2675. An electric heater built into some smaller diesel engines is used to __________.
Not learned
2676. Which of the following precautions must be taken if an electric immersion heater is used to keep the coolant warm in a diesel engine when the engine is secured?
Not learned
2677. With respect to diesel fuel, the ease with which a cold engine will start is dependent upon the __________.
Not learned
2678. Starting aids, such as glow plugs, are usually installed on __________.
Not learned
2679. Starting aids, such as glow plugs, are usually installed on __________.
Not learned
2680. Which of the listed devices is the only method allowed by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), to ease the starting of emergency generator engines?
Not learned
2681. Cold weather starting of a diesel engine may be made easier by __________.
Not learned
2682. When inspecting pistons, liners, and rings of a large two-stroke/cycle diesel engine through the cylinder ports, a wet piston crown would indicate a __________.
Not learned
2683. Which of the conditions listed could cause the cylinder relief valves on a large, low-speed, propulsion diesel engine to lift?
Not learned
2684. The most practical way of detecting an overload in one cylinder of an operating large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is to __________.
Not learned
2685. An indication of an overloaded main propulsion diesel engine is __________.
Not learned
2686. Which operating condition of a diesel engine is indicated by excessive firing pressures?
Not learned
2687. If it becomes necessary to cutout an individual cylinder of a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, the fuel to that cylinder should be secured and its __________.
Not learned
2688. Which of the following procedures should be carried out when a large, low-speed, diesel engine is operated with one cylinder secured?
Not learned
2689. If an auxiliary diesel engine will not crank but can be barred over, the trouble may be due to __________.
Not learned
2690. If an small auxiliary diesel engine will not crank but is able to be barred over, the trouble may be __________.
Not learned
2691. If a small auxiliary diesel engine will not crank but can be barred over, the trouble may be due to __________.
Not learned
2692. If an auxiliary diesel engine will not crank but can be barred over, the trouble may be due to __________.
Not learned
2693. If an auxiliary diesel engine will not crank but can be barred over, the trouble may be due to __________.
Not learned
2694. A sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2695. Low compression pressure in a diesel engine cylinder can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2696. The loss of the diesel engine cylinder air charge through leaky valves, piston rings, worn or scored liners, would be indicated by which of the following sets of conditions?
Not learned
2697. A sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2698. If you notice smoke coming from the crankcase exhaust fan outlet of an operating diesel engine, you would suspect __________.
Not learned
2699. If the relief valve on a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could be due to __________.
Not learned
2700. A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of __________.
Not learned
2701. An increase in diesel engine crankcase pressure generally indicates excessive __________.
Not learned
2702. A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of a/an __________.
Not learned
2703. An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates __________.
Not learned
2704. A 18 cylinder medium speed direct reversible main propulsion diesel engine is being operated with one cylinder secured. When the engine was stopped, the affected cylinder stopped in a position preventing the engine from being restarted. Which of the following actions should be taken to correct the situation?
Not learned
2705. If an auxiliary diesel engine equipped with an electric starting system cranks very slowly after repeated attempts to start, the cause could be a/an __________.
Not learned
2706. If a diesel engine, with an electric starter cranks very slowly after repeated attempts to start, the cause could be __________.
Not learned
2707. A diesel engine fails to start, even though it can be barred over, but not cranked over. The probable cause is __________.
Not learned
2708. When starting air is admitted, a diesel engine turns over very slowly without firing. The cause may be __________.
Not learned
2709. On small diesel engines, a noticeable decrease in the time interval between the replacement of the lube filter cartridge indicates __________.
Not learned
2710. Which of the following conditions would result in the necessity for an increased frequency of oil and oil filter changes for an auxiliary diesel engine.
Not learned
2711. Which of the following conditions may be responsible for allowing lube oil to contaminate the jacket water cooling system of an auxiliary diesel engine?
Not learned
2712. Which of the listed conditions can cause lacquer to be deposited on a piston skirt?
Not learned
2713. In extremely cold weather, an engine turns over too slowly and fails to start. This problem is most likely the result of __________.
Not learned
2714. High lube oil temperature developing in a diesel engine generally results from __________.
Not learned
2715. Misfiring in a diesel engine at light loads can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2716. When the normal compression ratio of a diesel engine is not very high, misfiring at light loads may be caused by __________.
Not learned
2717. Which of the listed diesel engine systems is likely to create the problem of a cylinder regularly misfiring?
Not learned
2718. Which of the following conditions can cause oil to accumulate in the cooling system of a diesel engine?
Not learned
2719. A diesel engine could fail to start because of __________.
Not learned
2720. If the firing pressures in a diesel engine are high, although the exhaust temperatures are normal, the cause may be __________.
Not learned
2721. One cause of diesel engine surging can be a result of __________.
Not learned
2722. If a single cylinder relief valve on a diesel engine lifts frequently while the engine is running, the cause may be an __________.
Not learned
2723. If a diesel engine driving a generator turns over freely but fails to fire properly, the cause could be __________.
Not learned
2724. A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed and no ignition occurs. This could be the result of __________.
Not learned
2725. If an auxiliary diesel engine frequently stalls, the trouble may be caused by __________.
Not learned
2726. A diesel engine cranks properly during starting but immediately stalls. Which of the following systems is most likely at fault?
Not learned
2727. If a diesel engine turned over freely but failed to start, the cause could be __________.
Not learned
2728. A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed and no ignition occurs. This could be the result of __________.
Not learned
2729. A possible cause for an individual piston to knock when at TDC on a slow-speed, two-stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine could be due to __________.
Not learned
2730. One cylinder of a diesel engine is persistently knocking and does not cease when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. Which of the following problems may be the cause?
Not learned
2731. Irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2732. Irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2733. A four-stroke cycle main propulsion diesel engine fails to start at normal cranking speed with normal fuel pressure and ambient temperature. The reason for the failure could be __________.
Not learned
2734. The starting air rotates a diesel engine at the proper speed, but the engine fails to start. You should check __________.
Not learned
2735. If a diesel engine rotates slowly when cranked, but does not fire, the __________.
Not learned
2736. If a diesel engine is difficult to start when operating in low ambient temperature conditions, you should suspect that the __________.
Not learned
2737. The knock occurring when a cold diesel engine is started and continues while running at low speed, but stops when the engine reaches normal operating speed and temperature, is __________.
Not learned
2738. Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by __________.
Not learned
2739. A 16 cylinder main propulsion diesel engine is operating at 95% of full load. No. 7 cylinder is in alarm condition and indicating 1000°F exhaust temperature. All fuel racks are at 21-22 mm except No. 7 which is at 18mm. A new fuel injector nozzle for No. 7 cylinder had been recently installed. Which of the listed actions should be carried out NEXT?
Not learned
2740. A diesel engine may be hard to start if the __________.
Not learned
2741. Which of the following conditions can cause above normal air temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a four-stroke/cycle, turbocharged, diesel engine?
Not learned
2742. If a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve compartment of a diesel engine, the cause may be __________.
Not learned
2743. A loud clicking noise from the valve compartment of an operating diesel engine would indicate __________.
Not learned
2744. A diesel engine experiences a sudden loss in speed, accompanied by black exhaust smoke, with the fuel rack at maximum, and the speed remaining below normal. The probable cause is __________.
Not learned
2745. Excessive exhaust temperatures in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine can be caused by a/an __________.
Not learned
2746. High exhaust temperatures from all of the cylinders of a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine can be caused by an __________.
Not learned
2747. In a multi-cylinder, constant pressure, turbocharged diesel engine, the combined exhaust temperature at the turbocharger inlet reads higher than the individual cylinder exhausts. This means the __________.
Not learned
2748. You are operating a 16-cylinder diesel engine at 75% load, turning 900 RPM. All exhaust temperatures are between 900°F and 950°F, except the #3 cylinder, with an indicated reading of 750°F. All fuel rack settings are between 21 and 22 millimeters, with the exception of a 17 millimeter setting for the #3 cylinder. Which of the following corrections should be carried out?
Not learned
2749. High firing pressures and a low exhaust temperature in a diesel engine may result from __________.
Not learned
2750. An operating diesel engine may gradually lose output power due to a/an __________.
Not learned
2751. If you observe smoke coming from the turbocharger of an auxiliary diesel engine, you should __________.
Not learned
2752. Which of the listed conditions could result in the failure of an auxiliary diesel engine to stop running when a normal shutdown is attempted?
Not learned
2753. If a diesel engine continues to run after attempting to shut it down, the probable cause is __________.
Not learned
2754. If the auxiliary diesel engine will not shut down, the trouble could be __________.
Not learned
2755. Excessive vibration in an operating diesel generator may be caused by __________.
Not learned
2756. Which of the following conditions may cause an engine to over speed on initial startup?
Not learned
2757. When attempting to start a main propulsion diesel engine, the engine turns at the proper speed but will not start. You should check the __________.
Not learned
2758. During main engine performance testing it is noticed that the firing pressure of one cylinder is higher than the average, but cylinder compression pressure is normal. Which of the following would most likely be the cause?
Not learned
2759. During main engine performance testing it is noticed that one cylinder has firing and compression pressures lower than average. Which of the following would most likely be the cause?
Not learned
2760. During main engine performance testing it is noticed that the firing pressure in one cylinder is lower than the average, but cylinder compression pressure and fuel pump delivery rate are normal. Which of the following would most likely be the cause?
Not learned
2761. While at sea, the first engineer reports the jacket water expansion tank water has become discolored and has a smell of exhaust on a slow speed two stroke engine. Which would be the most likely cause?
Not learned
2762. Oil analysis for a crosshead type diesel engine indicates the TBN of the crankcase lubricating oil is increasing. This is most likely associated with which of the following?
Not learned
2763. A large low speed main propulsion diesel engine may become overloaded by_______________. a heavily fouled hull strong head winds and heavy seas
Not learned
2764. An auxiliary diesel-generator continues to run after you try to shut down. Your next course of action should be to _________.
Not learned
2765. A main propulsion diesel engine is normally shutdown by __________.
Not learned
2766. Before shutting off the fuel supply to stop and secure a diesel engine, why is it necessary to allow the engine to idle for a few minutes?
Not learned
2767. Before starting a diesel engine, you should always __________.
Not learned
2768. Immediately after any diesel engine is started, the engineer should first check the __________.
Not learned
2769. Immediately after starting a diesel engine, you should first check and monitor the __________.
Not learned
2770. Due to excessive water in the fuel, a diesel engine fails to start. Before the engine can be started, the water must be removed from the __________.
Not learned
2771. A diesel engine fails to start due to excessive water in the fuel. Before the engine can be started, the water should be removed from the __________.
Not learned
2772. One result of operating a diesel engine at light load with excessively low cooling water temperatures is a/an __________.
Not learned
2773. A four-stroke, cycle, turbocharged, 1000 horsepower diesel engine has been operating under load. The load suddenly increases, causing excessive black exhaust smoke, and a rapid rise in the lube oil temperature. In response to this condition, you should __________.
Not learned
2774. A diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust temperatures at all cylinders. To correct this condition, you should FIRST __________.
Not learned
2775. If a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is over speeding due to leakage of lube oil into the cylinders, what should you do to stop the engine?
Not learned
2776. What is the best way of stopping an overspeeding diesel engine?
Not learned
2777. You have just received a call from the watch stander in the engine room reporting that a high temperature alarm for a main engine bearing has just sounded. Your next instruction to the watch stander should be to _________.
Not learned
2778. You have just been notified by the watch stander in the engine room, a main engine bearing high temperature alarm is indicated and remotely displayed as 145° Fahrenheit, you should _________.
Not learned
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