MEWB - Engineering Safety & Environmental Protection, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?Not learned 2. 2.5.7.2A2-78) What is the minimum required number of fire axes that must be carried on a mobile offshore drilling unit?Not learned 2. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 3. Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?Not learned 4. Which is the best way to ensure adequate oxygen is present for safe entry into a seldom used cargo tank?Not learned 5. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?Not learned 6. Fire prevention during welding or burning aboard any vessel should include __________.Not learned 7. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 92), a bulkhead capable of preventing the passage of smoke and flame for one hour would be classified as a/an __________.Not learned 8. The Coast Guard requires machinery spaces and enclosed mud handling spaces to have __________.Not learned 9. According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR), A fire door that is held open by magnets may be found in the __________.Not learned 10. According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR), A fire door that is held open by magnets may be found in the __________.Not learned 11. Fire doors are released by a/an __________.Not learned 12. After completing an international oil pollution prevention (IOPP) certificate survey under Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR Part 151), no significant change may be made in the construction, equipment, fittings, arrangements, or materials covered by the survey without the sanction of the __________.Not learned 13. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to __________.Not learned 14. When a ship is expected to encounter rough seas, it is a good safety practice to __________.Not learned 15. You are replacing a section of heavy piping on deck and using a chain fall to lift the pipe. Which of the following precautions should be taken to prevent personal injury?Not learned 16. What safety precautions should be observed by the crew while working around machinery in an engine room?Not learned 17. To safeguard the operator and other personnel working on or near a hoisting operation, which of the following precautions should be observed?Not learned 18. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), all exposed and dangerous areas around machinery, such as gears and rotating parts, shall be properly protected with __________.Not learned 19. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require gears, couplings, flywheels, and all rotating machinery capable of injuring personnel to be __________.Not learned 20. For the protection of personnel, moving parts of rotating machinery are required to be fitted with ________.Not learned 21. Which of the actions listed and instituted on your part will have the greatest lasting effect on the crew with respect to safety?Not learned 22. Which of the listed conditions can be considered as the single greatest cause of accidents?Not learned 23. If accidents are considered as an 'unexpected contact', you will be able to perform a better job by observing which of the following practices?Not learned 24. Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents?Not learned 25. Which of the following conditions can contribute to accidents?Not learned 26. When working around deck machinery it is a good safety practice to avoid standing in a 'bight' of a rope because __________.Not learned 27. Under Title 33 CFR, at or above what level of "Blood Alcohol Concentration" would constitute a crew member as being considered "Under the Influence of Alcohol" on a commercial vessel?Not learned 28. On a MODU, the possibility of a blowout makes which type of diesel engine shutdown desirable?Not learned 29. Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should NOT follow which of the listed practices?Not learned 30. Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness. Order may be maintained by __________.Not learned 31. Which of the following is NOT a recommended safe practice?Not learned 32. Special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include __________.Not learned 33. According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?Not learned 34. On a barge carrying bulk liquid hazardous cargo, remote controls for quick-closing shut off valves are required in how many location(s)?Not learned 35. Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object?Not learned 36. What is the best protection against hand injuries from pinch points associated with being required to perform maintenance or repairs on rotating machinery?Not learned 37. Steel-toed safety shoes are recommended for many types of work. What type of work activity would be an exception to the rule and where steel-toed shoes would NOT be recommended?Not learned 38. What type of eye protection affords the best protection from dust and airborne abrasives?Not learned 39. What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use?Not learned 40. When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned 41. Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?Not learned 42. When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned 43. Under what conditions is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 44. As chief engineer of an oceangoing passenger vessel, it is important to know the effect of trim and stability of your ship in the event of damage to a compartment. To minimize the impact of flooding in the event of a grounding, what should be your ship's safe practice regarding watertight doors and hatches?Not learned 45. Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10 day voyage. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 78, what should be your ship's standard operating procedures regarding the inspection of watertight hatches and doors?Not learned 46. The order to abandon a MODU should only be given by the __________.Not learned 47. Which of the following emergency signals are used to report for boat stations or boat drills?Not learned 48. When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?Not learned 49. Seven short blasts and one long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bell is sounded, this signal indicates __________.Not learned 50. Seven short blasts and one long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bell is sounded, this signal indicates __________.Not learned 51. The signal for abandon ship is __________.Not learned 52. The signal for lowering the ship's lifeboats is sounded on the ship's whistle as __________.Not learned 53. While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.Not learned 54. What is the signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats?Not learned 55. When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, what does one short blast mean?Not learned 56. While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.Not learned 57. What is the signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats?Not learned 58. Which of the following represents the emergency signal for fire aboard ship?Not learned 59. Which of the following represents the emergency signal for fire aboard ship?Not learned 60. The fire alarm signal onboard United States flag merchant vessels is a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds. Where can this information be readily found aboard ship?Not learned 61. You hear the general alarm bells and ships whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.Not learned 62. Which of the following signals represents the emergency signal for a fire aboard a U.S. flag merchant vessel?Not learned 63. A continuous sounding of the vessel's whistle, supplemented by a continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for a period of not less than 10 seconds, is the signal for __________.Not learned 64. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a __________.Not learned 65. A continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous sounding of the general alarm for a period of not less than 10 seconds, is the __________.Not learned 66. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a __________.Not learned 67. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a __________.Not learned 68. The signal to man emergency stations on MODU's is __________.Not learned 69. The signal for a fire emergency on an OSV is __________.Not learned 70. When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells, which action should you take?Not learned 71. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.Not learned 72. When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells, which action should you take?Not learned 73. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.Not learned 74. According to 46 CFR Part 199, emergency signals for use on passenger vessels are to be conspicuously posted and listed __________.Not learned 75. The signal for fire alarm on a MODU must be indicated __________.Not learned 76. Which is the abandon ship signal?Not learned 77. The abandon ship signal sounded by the vessels whistle is __________.Not learned 78. When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?Not learned 79. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 80. When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.Not learned 81. Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?Not learned 82. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 83. When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, how should you activate the signal?Not learned 84. When should distress flares and rockets be used?Not learned 85. Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?Not learned 86. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?Not learned 87. When should distress flares and rockets be used?Not learned 88. When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.Not learned 89. Which signaling devices are required on inflatable liferafts?Not learned 90. Which signaling device(s) is/are required on inflatable liferafts?Not learned 91. BOTH INTERNATIONAL & INLAND Which of the following is TRUE of a distress signal?Not learned 92. All of the following are recognized distress signals under the Navigation Rules EXCEPT which signal?Not learned 93. A man aboard a vessel, is signaling by raising and lowering his outstretched arms to each side. What does this signal indicate?Not learned 94. Distress signals may be __________.Not learned 95. When a vessel signals its distress by means of a gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be at approximately which time intervals?Not learned 96. How can you indicate that your vessel is in distress?Not learned 97. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?Not learned 98. What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for?Not learned 99. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a survival craft?Not learned 100. By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?Not learned 101. Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?Not learned 102. A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire?Not learned 103. An example of class "A" fire is a/an __________.Not learned 104. A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a class __________.Not learned 105. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 106. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 107. If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________Not learned 108. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 109. Burning wood is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire?Not learned 110. Burning rubber is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire?Not learned 111. Burning magnesium is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire?Not learned 112. A fire discovered in an operating laundry room dryer is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire?Not learned 113. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 114. A fire in the paint locker would probably be __________.Not learned 115. Burning paint, turpentine, or grease would be an example of which of the following classes of fire?Not learned 116. Fires are grouped into what categories?Not learned 117. A galley grease fire would be classified as __________.Not learned 118. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.Not learned 119. Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class "B" fire?Not learned 120. Burning diesel oil should be treated as which class of fire?Not learned 121. A fire in a fuel oil settling tank is a __________.Not learned 122. A galley grease fire would be classified as __________.Not learned 123. Which of the following substances is to be considered as fuel for a class "B" fire?Not learned 124. On a tank vessel, which of the following substances would be burning in a class "B" fire?Not learned 125. The material or substance involved in a class "B" fire can be burning __________.Not learned 126. If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?Not learned 127. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 128. Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the engine room bilges?Not learned 129. A class "B" fire would most likely occur in the __________.Not learned 130. Which of the following would be considered a Class "B" fire?Not learned 131. A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________.Not learned 132. A fire in an electrical generator is considered to be __________.Not learned 133. A class "C" fire would most likely occur in the __________.Not learned 134. A class "C" fire would occur in __________.Not learned 135. A class "C" fire is burning __________.Not learned 136. Which of the listed materials would be considered as a burning class "C" fire?Not learned 137. A burning AC motor would be considered what class of fire?Not learned 138. Which of the listed classes of fire is considered as one involving electrical equipment?Not learned 139. Which of the listed classes of fire would apply to a main switchboard fire?Not learned 140. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________.Not learned 141. A class "D" fire would be considered as burning __________.Not learned 142. Fires involving combustible metals are classified as __________.Not learned 143. A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class __________.Not learned 144. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.Not learned 145. How are fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium classified?Not learned 146. A Type A fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene?Not learned 147. You are conducting training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized by the burning of flammable liquids, greases, etc., where a blanketing effect is essential?Not learned 148. A Type A fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene?Not learned 149. You are conducting training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized by the burning of electrical equipment where the use of a non-conducting extinguishing agent is of first importance?Not learned 150. A Type A fire has been reported onboard your vessel. What type of materials would your fire teams expect to find at the scene?Not learned 151. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.Not learned 152. A fire can be extinguished by removing __________.Not learned 153. The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat, oxygen and a chain reaction. Which of the following statements best describes what must be eliminated to extinguish a fire?Not learned 154. A fire cannot exist if which of the listed elements is removed from the fire?Not learned 155. Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?Not learned 156. The three basic elements necessary for any fire are __________.Not learned 157. Besides heat, fuel, and oxygen, which of the following is necessary for a fire to exist?Not learned 158. The four basic components of a fire are chain reaction, heat, fuel, and __________.Not learned 159. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 160. When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog __________.Not learned 161. A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.Not learned 162. Which defines the "flammable limits" of an atmosphere?Not learned 163. What would be considered the normal percentage of oxygen contained in the earths atmosphere at sea level?Not learned 164. When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog __________.Not learned 165. When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent, the fire is extinguished principally by the __________.Not learned 166. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest capacity for heat absorption?Not learned 167. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.Not learned 168. Low velocity fog extinguishes a fire by __________.Not learned 169. A low velocity fog applicator is used in firefighting to __________.Not learned 170. The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is _________.Not learned 171. Which of the firefighting agents listed is the least hazardous to personnel?Not learned 172. The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning mattress fire is the use of __________.Not learned 173. Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be suitable for use on an oil fire, but dangerous on an electrical fire?Not learned 174. Which of the listed classes of fires can best be extinguished with a water fog?Not learned 175. Which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire?Not learned 176. Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be incorrect for the direct use on a gasoline or oil fire?Not learned 177. Low velocity water fog is very effective in __________.Not learned 178. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________.Not learned 179. Water applied as a "fog" can be more effective than water applied as a "solid stream", because __________.Not learned 180. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.Not learned 181. When using foam, a "Class B" fire is extinguished by __________.Not learned 182. Foam tends to extinguish a fire by __________.Not learned 183. Extinguishing an oil fire when using foam is a result of __________.Not learned 184. Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.Not learned 185. Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.Not learned 186. Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced by __________.Not learned 187. Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced by mechanically mixing and agitating __________.Not learned 188. Aqueous film forming firefighting foam is also known as __________.Not learned 189. Which of the listed firefighting agents produces a buoyant blanket to separate the burning vapors from air?Not learned 190. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.Not learned 191. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.Not learned 192. Which of the following statements is true concerning Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)?Not learned 193. Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving __________.Not learned 194. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as "light water", is especially suitable for fighting __________.Not learned 195. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?Not learned 196. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?Not learned 197. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?Not learned 198. Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.Not learned 199. Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.Not learned 200. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.Not learned 201. The use of which type of fire extinguishing agent involves covering the burning surface by deflecting the agent from a bulkhead to avoid undue agitation?Not learned 202. When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the stream of foam is most effective when directed __________.Not learned 203. When a fire occurs in a ruptured oil cargo tank, caused by an explosion or collision, the best firefighting agent to use is __________.Not learned 204. Foam is effective in combating which of the listed classes of fire?Not learned 205. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is best suited for use on a large class "B" fire occurring on the open deck of a vessel?Not learned 206. Which of the listed fire extinguishing agent combinations is the best for simultaneous use on a large oil fire?Not learned 207. Which of the following statements concerning Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) is correct?Not learned 208. The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire on a MODU is __________.Not learned 209. Which of the following statements describes the advantage of using a Halon fire extinguisher versus a CO₂ fire extinguisher?Not learned 210. Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301?Not learned 211. Which statement is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment?Not learned 212. Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment?Not learned 213. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 214. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 215. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed uses a chain breaking action to put out a fire?Not learned 216. Fire fighting agents, such as Halon and Purple K, suppress the fire by __________.Not learned 217. Halogenated fire extinguishing agents such as Halon 1301 extinguish fires by __________.Not learned 218. The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is that _________.Not learned 219. Due to the hazards involved with Halon type fire extinguishers on a MODU, the size II extinguisher may only be used __________.Not learned 220. There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, which is the other?Not learned 221. A disadvantage of using CO₂ for firefighting is that __________.Not learned 222. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 223. The fire extinguishing action of CO₂ comes mostly from __________.Not learned 224. The fire extinguishing action of CO₂ comes mostly from __________.Not learned 225. The fire extinguishing action of CO₂ comes mostly from __________.Not learned 226. For which of the listed classes of fire combinations would carbon dioxide be most suitable as the extinguishing agent?Not learned 227. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?Not learned 228. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?Not learned 229. One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________.Not learned 230. What danger to personnel exists when a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is discharged in a small enclosed space?Not learned 231. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 232. Which statement is TRUE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 233. To extinguish an electrical fire, you should use __________.Not learned 234. Which of the listed fire extinguishers would be most effective to use on a fire in a small electric motor?Not learned 235. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the safest to use when combating a class C fire?Not learned 236. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the most effectively used for putting out a paint locker fire?Not learned 237. In which of the circumstances listed would a carbon dioxide fire extinguishing agent be most effective?Not learned 238. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.Not learned 239. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.Not learned 240. Which of the following extinguishing effects for dry chemical extinguishing agents is considered the most prevalent?Not learned 241. Which of the following extinguishing effects for dry chemical extinguishing agents is considered the most prevalent?Not learned 242. Dry chemical extinguishing agents are effective when used __________.Not learned 243. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire, which of the listed fire extinguishing agents should NEVER be sprayed directly into the fire?Not learned 244. When an electrical fire has been extinguished with a dry chemical agent, there is always a possibility of the __________.Not learned 245. The MAIN objection to the use of a dry chemical fire extinguisher on an electrical fire is that the __________.Not learned 246. To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________.Not learned 247. Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be effectively used on which of the listed classes of fires?Not learned 248. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire?Not learned 249. Which of the listed extinguishing agents could be used to fight a class "B" fire involving the duct work for the galley stove?Not learned 250. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered hand portable/semi-portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire?Not learned 251. According to 46 CFR part 95, which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered hand portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire?Not learned 252. Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?Not learned 253. Which of the listed fire extinguishers should be used on an electrical fire aboard ship?Not learned 254. The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the agent to be __________.Not learned 255. The most important property of any extinguishing agent used in fighting class "C" fires is the agent's __________.Not learned 256. "Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire?Not learned 257. Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire?Not learned 258. The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is _________.Not learned 259. Your chemical tanker was built to the IBC Code and has foam as the main firefighting medium. During one of your safety meetings you review the properties of foam as an extinguishing agent. Which of the following is a correct statement that would be appropriate to share during the meeting?Not learned 260. Any firefighting equipment carried in addition to the minimum requirements on a MODU must __________.Not learned 261. If your vessel is to carry ten portable foam fire extinguishers, you must maintain a supply of at least __________.Not learned 262. A portable foam fire extinguisher carried aboard a tank vessel must be recharged every __________.Not learned 263. At what interval must a foam fire extinguisher be recharged if the vessel's Certificate of Inspection is issued for a period of two years?Not learned 264. Inspection of a portable CO₂ fire extinguisher involves checking the hose, handle, nozzle, and __________.Not learned 265. After using a portable Halon fire extinguisher, it should be __________.Not learned 266. The amount of Halon remaining in a fire extinguisher cylinder is determined by __________.Not learned 267. Inspection of a portable CO₂ fire extinguisher involves checking the hose, handle, nozzle, and __________.Not learned 268. According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), portable Halon fire extinguishers used on a MODU may be charged with __________.Not learned 269. According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), portable Halon fire extinguishers used on a MODU may be charged with __________.Not learned 270. If the empty weight of a B-III semi-portable CO₂ fire extinguisher is 35 lbs (15.9 kg), what is its full charged weight?Not learned 271. The empty weight of a B-II CO₂ fire extinguisher is 34 pounds, therefore, the full charged weight is __________.Not learned 272. If the empty weight of a B-II, portable, CO₂, fire extinguisher bottle is 34 pounds (15.4 kg), the cylinder must be recharged if the gross weight decreases to __________.Not learned 273. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the listed CO₂ (carbon dioxide) fire extinguishers by size is classified as B-II?Not learned 274. In a semi portable CO₂ system, the latch shown in the illustration is used to lock the __________Not learned 275. Which of the listed characteristics applies to a semi-portable CO2 system?Not learned 276. To operate a CO₂ fire extinguisher equipped with a squeeze grip handle, you are to remove the locking pin and __________.Not learned 277. To use a portable CO₂ fire extinguisher, you must FIRST __________.Not learned 278. A safety 'ring pin' is usually inserted in the handle of a CO₂ fire extinguisher to prevent __________.Not learned 279. Fire extinguishers designated by the Roman numerals I and II are __________.Not learned 280. Fire extinguishers designated as size III, IV, and V are considered __________.Not learned 281. Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers should be sent ashore to be recharged __________.Not learned 282. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST take which action?Not learned 283. Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?Not learned 284. How often must fixed CO₂ fire extinguishing systems be inspected to confirm the cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full charge weight?Not learned 285. Carbon dioxide extinguishers must be recharged when the charge weight is less than _____.Not learned 286. Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge has diminished to what percent?Not learned 287. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________.Not learned 288. Which of the listed fire extinguishers cannot be easily recharged aboard ship?Not learned 289. If a portable carbon dioxide fire extinguisher has been partially discharged, it should be immediately __________.Not learned 290. Which of the fire extinguishers listed is to be weighed annually and sent ashore for recharging if the weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of a full charge?Not learned 291. When is it required for carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be recharged?Not learned 292. Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers must be recharged __________.Not learned 293. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. What is the proper action to take?Not learned 294. What would be the approximate internal pressure of a fully charged hand/portable 15 lb. CO₂ fire extinguisher, stored at average room temperature?Not learned 295. What would be the approximate internal pressure of a hand/portable 15 lb. CO₂ fire extinguisher that has been partially discharged and lost 50% of its charge and stored in a "Used Extinguisher Locker" at room temperature?Not learned 296. Which of the listed fire extinguishers is recommended for use on an electrical switchboard fire?Not learned 297. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.Not learned 298. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000 horsepower steam propelled vessel?Not learned 299. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers are required to be installed in a machinery space containing an 8,000 horsepower main propulsion diesel engine?Not learned 300. A vessel has eight B-II CO₂ fire extinguishers. How many spare extinguishers must the vessel carry?Not learned 301. A vessel has eight B-II CO₂ fire extinguishers. How many spare extinguishers must the vessel carry?Not learned 302. A vessel carries a total of ten B-II CO₂ fire extinguishers. How many spare extinguishers must the vessel carry?Not learned 303. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection?Not learned 304. After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.Not learned 305. On a MODU, a CO₂ fire extinguisher is checked by __________.Not learned 306. A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.Not learned 307. Aboard a MODU, a CO₂ fire extinguisher must be weighed __________.Not learned 308. The unit shown in the illustration is pressurized and operated by __________Not learned 309. The purpose of the puncture lever on the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 310. The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration requires the use of the puncture lever indicated by piece number __________Not learned 311. To operate the dry chemical fire extinguisher shown in the illustration, you must FIRST __________Not learned 312. Regarding the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration, the small cylinder, labeled as #4, contains __________Not learned 313. Which of the following statements is true regarding the device illustratedNot learned 314. The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by __________.Not learned 315. One advantage of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher, over that of a stored pressure dry chemical extinguisher is the former __________.Not learned 316. When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?Not learned 317. The fire extinguishing agent used in the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 318. The fire extinguishing agent used in the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 319. The fire extinguishing agent used in the fire extinguisher shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 320. The fire extinguisher shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 321. Which of the following statements is true concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the illustrationNot learned 322. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), portable and semi-portable fire extinguishers are classified by a letter and numeric designator. The letter designation indicates __________.Not learned 323. In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________.Not learned 324. Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher aboard ship would include ensuring that the __________.Not learned 325. The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher __________.Not learned 326. Which of the following procedures should be used to examine a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher?Not learned 327. Proper maintenance of a dry chemical fire extinguisher will include __________.Not learned 328. Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher aboard ship would include ensuring that the __________.Not learned 329. If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry chemical fire extinguisher has been punctured, you must __________.Not learned 330. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.Not learned 331. In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?Not learned 332. According to CFR 91.25-20, the performance of annual preventive maintenance on the fire extinguisher illustrated, by the vessel's crew, would include what itemNot learned 333. Which of the following statements is true concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the illustrationNot learned 334. According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a 10 pound dry chemical extinguisher is equivalent to a __________.Not learned 335. According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a 10 pound dry chemical extinguisher is equivalent to a __________.Not learned 336. If a mobile offshore drilling unit has four hand portable fire extinguishers that can be recharged by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges must be carried?Not learned 337. Cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguishers used on MODUs, should have the propellant cartridge weighed every __________.Not learned 338. On a MODU, a fire extinguisher charged with 15 pounds of CO₂ or 10 pounds of dry chemical is a size __________.Not learned 339. On a MODU, hand portable extinguishers are size(s) __________.Not learned 340. On a MODU, size I and II fire extinguishers are considered ____________,Not learned 341. Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.Not learned 342. On a MODU, size "III", 'IV', and "V" fire extinguishers are considered __________.Not learned 343. Semi-portable fire extinguishers used on MODUs are of the sizes __________.Not learned 344. The inspection of portable fire extinguishers on a MODU must be __________.Not learned 345. Each hand portable fire extinguisher on a MODU must be marked with __________.Not learned 346. If a mobile offshore drilling unit has four hand portable fire extinguishers that can be recharged by personnel on the unit, how many spare charges must be carried?Not learned 347. The minimum number of portable C-II fire extinguishers required on the drill floor of a MODU is __________.Not learned 348. Where would you look to find the number of hand portable fire extinguishers required on an uninspected towing or fishing industry vessel?Not learned 349. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) for uninspected vessels, all hand portable fire extinguishers must be approved by the __________.Not learned 350. On an uninspected vessel, all portable fire extinguishers are required by law to be approved by the __________.Not learned 351. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that the maximum number of type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required aboard a 299 gross ton uninspected motor vessel with 7000 BHP main propulsion diesel engine is __________.Not learned 352. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a 299 gross ton 2800 horsepower uninspected motor towing vessel would require __________.Not learned 353. Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) state that all handheld portable fire extinguishers required aboard uninspected motor vessels shall be type __________.Not learned 354. How many approved B-II fire extinguishers must be carried in the machinery space of a 3000 HP vessel?Not learned 355. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), what quantity of B-II extinguishers would be required in an oil fired boiler space on a 25,000 gross ton cargo vessel in which no sand, soda impregnated sawdust, or other approved dry materials are provided?Not learned 356. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 95.50), how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in a space containing two 4000 bhp main propulsion diesel engines?Not learned 357. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 95), a 25,000 gross ton cargo vessel on an ocean route, having two 10,000 HP oil fired boilers, requires a certain quantity of hand portable and semi-portable fire extinguishing systems in the engine room. Which of the following quantities of extinguishing agents would meet these requirements?Not learned 358. If your vessel's Certificate of Inspection requires six B-II, two A-II and one B-V fire extinguisher, which of the listed combinations will provide the amount and type required?Not learned 359. How many portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge during cargo transfer, if the barge has no cargo pumps of her own?Not learned 360. How many, and what type, fire extinguishers are required on an unmanned oil barge during transfer operations, if the barge has no cargo pumps aboard?Not learned 361. According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge while engaged in transferring grade B flammable liquids?Not learned 362. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. Which statement is true concerning the fire control plan for a vessel?Not learned 363. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. What type of drawings are generally furnished in the fire control plan?Not learned 364. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the general arrangement drawing. What type of drawing is the general arrangement drawing?Not learned 365. Pre-fire survey forms are particularly useful for collecting information pertaining to fire emergency response efforts. On what basis is this information collected?Not learned 366. Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information pertaining to general instructions, fire and emergency instructions and signals, abandon ship instructions and signals, and assigns individual emergency response duties and responsibilities for each crew member by position?Not learned 367. Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew member by position AND name?Not learned 368. Of the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component when used with stability charts would be particularly useful in decision-making as it applies to the effect of water accumulated during firefighting efforts and the free surface effect?Not learned 369. While reviewing emergency response plans onboard your vessel, you have questions regarding the response for damage control conditions and the ship's construction, related to mitigating risks from structural damage. Which of the following sources of information would contain what you are looking for?Not learned 370. Your vessel has just been struck by another vessel. After meeting with the captain and chief mate, you have immediately ordered the vessel specific damage control procedures in the vessel's approved stability booklet to be enacted. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 371. While maneuvering up the East River your vessel runs aground. As the chief engineer of the vessel how would you proceed?Not learned 372. In the event of a vessel fire in port, shoreside firefighters can find details on vessel's fire control plans in which of the following locations?Not learned 373. Your vessel is traveling on an international voyage. Regarding the assistance of shore side fire fighters to combat a vessel fire while in port, what document, if any, is required, and where would it be located?Not learned 374. Which of the following statements are true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage of oil?Not learned 375. Which of the following statements are true regarding U.S. flag vessel response plans for the carriage of oil?Not learned 376. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.Not learned 377. Except in rare cases, the most difficult condition to modify when fighting an oil fire in the engine room bilge would be __________.Not learned 378. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.Not learned 379. The heat generated by a compartment that is on fire can be transferred through a metal bulkhead or deck. This process describes heat transfer by ____________.Not learned 380. Combustible material which is stored adjacent to a compartment where there is a fire, may also be ignited. This ignition can occur by __________.Not learned 381. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 382. The heat generated by a compartment that is on fire can be transferred through a metal bulkhead or deck. This process describes heat transfer by ____________.Not learned 383. How can the spread of fire be prevented?Not learned 384. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________.Not learned 385. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 386. Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.Not learned 387. Convection spreads a fire by __________.Not learned 388. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 389. Fire may be spread by which means?Not learned 390. How are fusible link fire dampers operated?Not learned 391. Fire dampers installed in the ships galley ventilation system, which automatically close during a fire, are normally operated by the use of a __________.Not learned 392. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.Not learned 393. In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action of a stainless-steel cable, spring and a __________.Not learned 394. To initially combat a fire, the ventilation system to a compartment should be secured to __________.Not learned 395. Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?Not learned 396. At the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel, you must FIRST __________.Not learned 397. A fire is considered "under control" when __________.Not learned 398. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 399. Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.Not learned 400. You are in compartment "A" as shown in Figure 2 of the illustration, and suspect there is a fire in compartment "B". In order to check for and confirm the fire in compartment "B" you should __________Not learned 401. Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely out, which of the following conditions must be established?Not learned 402. If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of __________.Not learned 403. What safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is posted or available in booklet form on your ship?Not learned 404. The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is _________.Not learned 405. After you have put water on a burning mattress, and the fire appears to have been extinguished, you should then __________.Not learned 406. When entering a compartment which is on fire, __________.Not learned 407. When entering a burning compartment equipped with a fire hose and an all-purpose nozzle, you should first direct __________.Not learned 408. To fight a large class "A" fire contained in a closed compartment, the nozzleman should open a door enough to insert the hose nozzle and initially __________.Not learned 409. When entering a burning compartment equipped with a fire hose and an all-purpose nozzle, you should first direct __________.Not learned 410. The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by __________.Not learned 411. The most practical method of extinguishing a class "A" fire, involving burning dunnage, is to use __________.Not learned 412. Which is the best method of extinguishing a class A fire?Not learned 413. To effectively and safely combat a passageway fire, __________.Not learned 414. Why should passageway fires be fought from one end only?Not learned 415. When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard ship, water fog can be used to extinguish the fire and __________.Not learned 416. Which of the following methods should be used to prevent a class "A" fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkheads, from spreading to the adjacent compartments?Not learned 417. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.Not learned 418. Which of the following methods should be used to prevent a class "A" fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkheads, from spreading to the adjacent compartments?Not learned 419. A straight stream of water should be used to extinguish __________.Not learned 420. Which of the listed types of fires should be extinguished with a straight stream of water?Not learned 421. A solid stream of water might be useful in fighting a burning oil fire on deck when it is used __________.Not learned 422. When fighting the fire depicted in figure 1 of the illustration, which letter denotes where the attack hose line would be usedNot learned 423. You are assigned to patrol the boundaries of the fire shown in figure 1 of the illustration. What signs would indicate the fire was spreading to an adjacent compartmentNot learned 424. What is the purpose of opening the doors and portholes in figure 2 of the illustrationNot learned 425. In order to complete ventilation of the compartments shown in figure 2 of the illustration, you should___________Not learned 426. In the illustration shown, the type of ventilation depicted in figure 1 and figure 2 respectfully is __________Not learned 427. The air flow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilationNot learned 428. As shown in figure 2, fresh air entering through windward doorways and portholes while pushing heat and smoke out leeward doorways and portholes is known as _________Not learned 429. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by the following method: radiation convection conduction See illustration SF-0013.Not learned 430. You are in charge of the hose team assigned to cool the upper boundaries of the fire shown in figure 1 of the illustration. Which hose would you use to safely accomplish this task? Hose I Hose II See illustration SF-0013.Not learned 431. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to __________.Not learned 432. A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire, you should __________Not learned 433. A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire, you should __________Not learned 434. A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire, you should __________Not learned 435. A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". You should __________Not learned 436. A large fire has developed in the HFO purifier room accessed by door "E". To combat this fire you should __________Not learned 437. When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are setting a _________.Not learned 438. Which fire boundary should be set FIRST, after the discovery of a fully evolved fire in a ship's laundry room which is too hot for a direct entry?Not learned 439. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 440. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 441. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 442. A large fire has developed in the main space of your vessel and you are assigned to the hose team and have suited up in a firefighter's ensemble suit. What will determine the time allowed to combat the fire before you should be relieved?Not learned 443. You are assigned to the hose team and have suited up in a firefighting ensemble to fight a large fire in the engine room. What will determine the time allowed to combat the fire before you should be relieved?Not learned 444. Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?Not learned 445. Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated applications provide the largest shielding effect for the fire fighter?Not learned 446. One of the uses for low velocity fog is to __________.Not learned 447. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.Not learned 448. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 449. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 450. While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single "wye" gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________.Not learned 451. Fighting a rig fire in the ballast pumproom with hoses would adversely affect the stability of the rig most by __________.Not learned 452. Fighting a rig fire in a watertight compartment with hoses could reduce the stability of the rig by __________.Not learned 453. When an oil fire has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should be kept covered with foam to prevent __________.Not learned 454. Immediately after a class "B" fire has been extinguished by the use of foam, crewmen should __________.Not learned 455. The rekindling of a fire can occur when a fire, extinguished by smothering, is resupplied with oxygen. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed, when properly used on an oil fire, will prevent rekindling?Not learned 456. The most effective means for combating an oil fire on the water surrounding a vessel is to use __________.Not learned 457. When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should __________.Not learned 458. Which is the BEST method of applying foam to a fire?Not learned 459. The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use __________.Not learned 460. The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the use of a __________.Not learned 461. Which of the listed factors should be considered most important when combating an engine room fire with a fixed Halon 1301 system in a motor vessel?Not learned 462. Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be directed __________.Not learned 463. Halon extinguishers used on a class "C" fire should be directed at the __________.Not learned 464. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action is for the space to be __________.Not learned 465. A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on a vessel equipped with a combination smoke detection/carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing system. After ensuring the space is unoccupied and properly sealed off, you should NEXT __________.Not learned 466. If heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from a partially open door of a paint locker having a CO₂ fire extinguishing system, the FIRST firefighting attack should be to __________.Not learned 467. The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide from a portable extinguisher to a fire is by __________.Not learned 468. Before you initiate the engine room fixed CO₂ system to extinguish a serious fire, you would __________.Not learned 469. Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after using a 15 pound CO₂ fire extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floor plates?Not learned 470. You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the engine room with a 15 pound CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should you now be preparing to handle?Not learned 471. If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers?Not learned 472. Burning electrical insulation is best extinguished by __________.Not learned 473. Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO₂, it is advisable to __________.Not learned 474. You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the engine room with a 15 pound CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should you now be preparing to handle?Not learned 475. When re-entering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should initially __________.Not learned 476. Following an engine room bilge fire which is believed to be extinguished after using a fixed CO₂ fire extinguishing system, the investigating team should reenter the closed space __________.Not learned 477. The most effective method in the use of a CO₂ fire extinguisher is for the discharge to be directed at the __________.Not learned 478. Which of the following statements describes the correct method to use when applying CO₂ from a portable fire extinguisher?Not learned 479. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.Not learned 480. When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you should always __________.Not learned 481. The best way to effectively use a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in fighting a fire, is to __________.Not learned 482. For the best extinguishing effect, the discharge from a dry chemical type fire extinguisher should be directed at the __________.Not learned 483. When using a dry chemical fire extinguisher to fight a fuel oil fire, you should __________.Not learned 484. Which of the listed methods, is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?Not learned 485. When using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in a windy location, you should direct the stream from __________.Not learned 486. When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should __________.Not learned 487. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by which action?Not learned 488. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 489. If a fire occurs in the fire room as a result of fuel oil leaking from the boiler fuel oil manifold, the FIRST action taken should be to __________.Not learned 490. If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a leaking fuel line, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 491. When fighting a spreading fire resulting from a broken fuel line, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 492. The FIRST step to take in fighting an engine room fire resulting from a ruptured fuel oil service line, is to __________.Not learned 493. An initial attempt to extinguish a galley grease fire may be made by using __________.Not learned 494. Which of the listed type of fires would the fire extinguisher, shown in the illustration, be suitable for extinguishingNot learned 495. The device illustrated would be used to extinguish __________Not learned 496. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________.Not learned 497. When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________.Not learned 498. Before attempting to put out a class "C" fire involving an electric-driven centrifugal pump, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 499. If an electric motor catches fire, you should first __________.Not learned 500. You are transferring fuel from the storage tanks to the day tanks by means of an electric fuel oil transfer pump. If the pump motor catches fire, you would FIRST __________.Not learned 501. To extinguish an electrical fire, your FIRST action should be to __________.Not learned 502. When fighting an electrical fire, you should first __________.Not learned 503. When there is a fire in a large electric motor, what is normally the very FIRST step to perform?Not learned 504. If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation have burned, you should FIRST _______.Not learned 505. When combating a class "C" fire, which of the following dangers may be present?Not learned 506. Class C fires may be combated using a __________.Not learned 507. Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 508. When involved in fighting a fire aboard a ship with an aluminum superstructure, it is important to remember that aluminum structures exposed to the high heat __________.Not learned 509. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________.Not learned 510. To extinguish a fire in an oil cargo tank, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 511. The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil tank is to __________.Not learned 512. Which of the actions listed should be taken FIRST to control an oil fire in a fuel oil tank?Not learned 513. In firefighting, the term "protecting exposures" means __________.Not learned 514. A fire in a ballast pumproom can be brought under control with minimal impact on stability by __________.Not learned 515. Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.Not learned 516. What is generally the first action in extinguishing a liquefied gas fire caused by escaping gas?Not learned 517. Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by __________.Not learned 518. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by which action?Not learned 519. To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would _________Not learned 520. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 521. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by__________Not learned 522. A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________.Not learned 523. If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________.Not learned 524. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 525. The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use __________.Not learned 526. A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________.Not learned 527. You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire pump(s)?Not learned 528. If there was a fire out of control on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fireNot learned 529. Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represent?Not learned 530. You are conducting training on firefighting procedures. What type of fire is characterized by the burning of ordinary combustible materials where the quenching and cooling effects of quantities of water, or solutions containing large percentages of water, are of first importance?Not learned 531. As chief engineer, you are discussing with a new third engineer the methods of fighting an engine room fire. You ask the junior engineer to explain how to proceed in the event of an engine room fire when you cannot gain entry to the control room. Which of the following should be included in the junior engineer's response?Not learned 532. To activate a foam type portable fire extinguisher, you must __________.Not learned 533. You are the engineer on a vessel with a periodically unattended machinery space. A fire has been reported in the engine room and you cannot make entry into the space. How would you direct the emergency squad team leader to charge the fire main?Not learned 534. Your ship has a low-pressure carbon dioxide system that covers the engine room. Fire has been reported in the engine room and the decision has been made to dump the carbon dioxide system into the engine room. While following the procedures to release carbon dioxide you find one engine room supply fan damper that will not close. How should you proceed?Not learned 535. As the senior engineer of a vessel, you have just activated the CO2 release handle for the engine room to extinguish a fire. How would you direct the emergency team to re-enter the engine room?Not learned 536. While in the engine control room you smell smoke and see it coming from the vent in the main switchboard panel. Which of the many different types of extinguishers, if any, are required to be in that space and why would it be best suited to extinguish this class of fire?Not learned 537. An oil fire is reported in the purifier room bilge. How would you combat this fire?Not learned 538. If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________.Not learned 539. As an engineer on a tanker, how would you direct the fire team to combat a large cargo space fire?Not learned 540. As chief engineer sailing aboard chemical tankers you frequently review the best practices regarding firefighting during safety meetings. Which of the following would align with industry best practice regarding the use of water in extinguishing chemical fires?Not learned 541. A fire has been reported in the ship's galley, as chief engineer you direct the team leader of the #2 emergency squad to secure ventilation to the space. What would your next command be to the emergency team leader, before they can actually start extinguishing the fire?Not learned 542. As team leader of the ship's No.2 emergency squad, you have just informed the bridge that the fire in the galley has been extinguished. What would you instruct your squad to do next?Not learned 543. As first engineer you are the senior engineering officer in Emergency Squad #1. The fire alarm sounds and you report to the muster station where the bridge informs you smoke has been reported coming from the ship's laundry room. What should your first action be?Not learned 544. As team leader of the No.2 emergency squad you arrive at the scene of a fire in the Bosun's storeroom on the weather deck. How would you proceed to fight this fire?Not learned 545. A fire has been reported in the ship's laundry room. As the senior engineer, you direct the team leader of the No.1 emergency squad to secure ventilation to the space. What would your next command be to the emergency team leader, before they can actually start extinguishing the fire?Not learned 546. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 547. While in port working cargo, a fire is reported on the forward car deck. After the captain sounds the general alarm, the crew musters and starts fighting the fire. As chief engineer you inform the captain that shoreside firefighting assistance needs to be called. How would you then proceed?Not learned 548. You are the chief engineer of a vessel, while in port working cargo a fire is reported in the engine room. Shoreside firefighting assistance has been requested. How would you proceed?Not learned 549. The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use __________.Not learned 550. Your vessel has two fire pumps and a low pressure CO₂ system, which protect the cargo holds and the engine room. A fire is reported on the #3 car deck aft hold. The emergency teams are on air. The first team reports from the forward end of the #3 car deck that there is heavy black smoke coming from the aft end of the hold and there is very limited visibility. They also report they cannot see any flames from their location. The second emergency team reports paint burning and blistering on the hull in the area of #3 car deck aft, as seen from the weather deck. How would you combat this fire?Not learned 551. The discharge side of every fire pump must be equipped with a __________.Not learned 552. Which of the listed devices is required to be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?Not learned 553. For the safety of personnel working with fire hoses, fire pumps are fitted with a/an __________.Not learned 554. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), on a freight vessel, each fire pump must be capable of supplying the two highest outlets simultaneously, at a Pitot tube pressure of __________.Not learned 555. The relief valve for a fire pump should be set at 25 psi above the pressure necessary to maintain the required fire hose streams, or at a minimum pressure of ______, whichever is greater.Not learned 556. Where multiple fire pumps are installed, they may be used for other purposes, provided that one pump is __________.Not learned 557. When fire pumps are used for other than firefighting services, each pipe connecting the other service (except for branch lines used for deck washing) must have which item to be incompliance with regulations?Not learned 558. Which of the following statements is true concerning fire pumps used aboard cargo vessels of 1,500 gross tons and over, contracted for on, or after May 26, 1965?Not learned 559. A fire pump used on a MODU requires 175 psi discharge pressure to maintain the required 50 psi pitot tube pressure at the two highest hydrants. The maximum pressure setting for this installation relief valve is __________.Not learned 560. On a MODU, a fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.Not learned 561. Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gauge located at __________.Not learned 562. Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with the __________.Not learned 563. Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire main in a manner which will allow __________.Not learned 564. Normally, fire hose should be stowed with the __________.Not learned 565. A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the __________.Not learned 566. Fire hose should always be stowed at the fire station in the hose rack __________.Not learned 567. If the threads and gasket of a fire hose coupling are in good condition, the minimum mechanical advantage necessary for making a watertight connection to another hose coupling can be developed with __________.Not learned 568. Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect fire hose couplings?Not learned 569. Hose spanner wrenches should be used to connect __________.Not learned 570. Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting and disconnecting fire hose couplings?Not learned 571. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.Not learned 572. To properly maintain fire hoses, you should __________.Not learned 573. Which of the following statements concerning fire hose couplings is true?Not learned 574. A fire hose is subject to damage if the swivel on the female coupling is lubricated with __________.Not learned 575. Which of the conditions listed make it difficult to indefinitely maintain fire hoses?Not learned 576. What will happen if a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off?Not learned 577. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the type of fire hose coupling threads required for vessel fire equipment, on or after July 1, 1954, shall be __________.Not learned 578. Which of the following statements is correct concerning fire hoses used within the machinery spaces of cargo vessels, on which the fire main installations were contracted for on, or after 26 May 1965?Not learned 579. Which of the following statements is correct concerning fire hoses used within the machinery spaces of cargo vessels, on which the fire main installations were contracted for on, or after 26 May 1965?Not learned 580. Which of the following statements is true concerning fire hose stations used in the engine room of a tank or cargo vessel?Not learned 581. Which of the following statements is true concerning fire hose used in the engine room of a offshore supply vessel?Not learned 582. When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and _______.Not learned 583. Fire hose can be used for purposes other than firefighting service when __________.Not learned 584. How often are fire hoses required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?Not learned 585. All fire hoses on a mobile offshore drilling units must be tested to a pressure of at least __________.Not learned 586. According to 46 CFR, a ships fire main system must have enough fire hydrants for each accessible space to be reached with __________.Not learned 587. Which of the following correctly identifies the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 588. Fire main shore connections on a 1,000 gross ton cargo vessel are required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be provided with __________.Not learned 589. According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements concerning fire main shore connections for a 20,000 gross ton cargo vessel on an international voyage is correct?Not learned 590. Each fire hose coupling on a MODU must have threads to meet the specifications of the __________.Not learned 591. In discussing with a new junior officer the provisions aboard the vessel for shore side firefighters to connect into the vessel's fire main, what item should be included in the discussion?Not learned 592. The bayonet catch on an all purpose nozzle is used to latch in place the __________.Not learned 593. The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting nozzle should always be __________.Not learned 594. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.Not learned 595. The device shown in the illustration and indicated by the letter "E" holds the __________Not learned 596. The all-purpose, or combination nozzle is capable by itself of producing a solid stream of water __________.Not learned 597. A solid stream of water is produced by an all-purpose firefighting nozzle when the handle is __________.Not learned 598. With the handle in the position labeled "A", shown in the illustration, the nozzle will deliver __________Not learned 599. The correct name for the device shown in the illustration, is a/an __________Not learned 600. With the handle in position "A", the device shown in the illustration will produce __________Not learned 601. In order to produce a high velocity water fog using an all-purpose nozzle, you must __________.Not learned 602. When the handle "A" is in the mid-position of the combination nozzle shown in the illustration, which of the following statements will be correctNot learned 603. When the handle is in position "B", and piece "D" is in place, the device shown in the illustration will produce __________Not learned 604. With the handle in position "A", the device shown in the illustration will produce __________Not learned 605. With the handle of the device shown in the illustration is in the position labeled "C" the nozzle will deliver __________Not learned 606. The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle are __________.Not learned 607. A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the handle position is changed from __________.Not learned 608. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the firefighting devices listed is not permitted for use in the engine room?Not learned 609. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.Not learned 610. The low velocity fog applicator used in conjunction with the all-purpose firefighting nozzle, should always be __________.Not learned 611. The correct name for the devices shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 612. Which of the following statements is true concerning a low velocity fog tip?Not learned 613. Prior to inserting a low velocity fog applicator into the nozzle shown in the illustration, you must __________Not learned 614. Before inserting a low velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose combination nozzle, you must __________.Not learned 615. To prepare a low velocity fog applicator for use, __________.Not learned 616. Before inserting a low velocity fog applicator into the device shown in the illustration, you must place the handle in __________Not learned 617. To produce a low velocity water fog spray with an all-purpose fire hose nozzle, you must __________.Not learned 618. The significant difference between the high velocity fog tip and the low velocity fog applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is the __________.Not learned 619. The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by the high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to __________.Not learned 620. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that low velocity fog spray applicators be provided for the combination hose nozzles in the machinery spaces of tank vessels. How many applicators are required to be maintained in the machinery spaces of these vessels?Not learned 621. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require each machinery space fire hose to be equipped with an approved combination nozzle and applicator. The maximum allowable length of the applicator __________.Not learned 622. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require each machinery space fire hose to be equipped with an approved combination nozzle and applicator. The maximum allowable length of the applicator __________.Not learned 623. The device shown in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 624. How are solid materials kept from fouling a fire hose nozzle?Not learned 625. If not attached to the nozzle, each low velocity spray applicator on a MODU must be stowed __________.Not learned 626. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.Not learned 627. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.Not learned 628. Which type of firefighting foam listed is supplied in both 3% and 6% concentrations?Not learned 629. Which of the firefighting foams listed would require the mechanical mixing of air and foam concentrate?Not learned 630. The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used in conjunction with a fire hose to produce which of the listed fire extinguishing agentsNot learned 631. The device shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 632. Which of the devices listed must be used in conjunction with the portable in-line foam proportioner to produce foam?Not learned 633. The device shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 634. The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used with a fire hose to produce __________Not learned 635. The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit shown in the illustration is produced by __________Not learned 636. The fire fighting device shown in the illustration would be called a _________Not learned 637. What must be provided on a MODU helicopter deck that is equipped with fueling facilities?Not learned 638. Where foam extinguishing systems are provided on a MODU, each machinery flat in the protected space must have a/an __________.Not learned 639. If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is not of the premix type, a sample of the foam liquid must be tested by __________.Not learned 640. The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit shown in the illustration is produced by __________Not learned 641. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the fog applicators used in conjunction with the combination nozzle?Not learned 642. A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray pattern when the water pressure is not less than __________.Not learned 643. As the senior engineer onboard a vessel, how would you instruct a new engineer to use the firefighting apparatus illustrated to fight an oil fire at the bunker stationNot learned 644. Fire axes required on MODUs must be stored in the enclosure for fire hoses with the location marked '_________________.'Not learned 645. Each fire hydrant serving machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers, internal combustion machinery, or oil fuel units must be equipped with a __________.Not learned 646. The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.Not learned 647. Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one spanner wrench and at least one __________.Not learned 648. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), each fire hydrant must have at least __________.Not learned 649. A fire station located in the engine room, is required by regulations to have __________.Not learned 650. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require fire hydrants to be located in the propulsion machinery spaces containing oil fired boilers. In addition, vessels of 1,000 gross tons and over are to be equipped with a __________.Not learned 651. According to 46 CFR part 95, each shipboard fire hydrant is required to have at least one spanner wrench, one length of fire hose and one __________.Not learned 652. Quick cleaning strainers are installed in the fire main system at individual fire hydrants to __________.Not learned 653. The fire main system should be flushed with fresh water whenever possible to __________.Not learned 654. Lower level fire main stations in the engine room should undergo regular routine maintenance, including __________.Not learned 655. Fire main outlet valves, or hydrants shall be installed __________.Not learned 656. No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.Not learned 657. The fire hydrant outlet may be positioned from the horizontal to any position pointing __________.Not learned 658. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall be _________.Not learned 659. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), fire main cut out valves shall be sealed open at all times except when the __________.Not learned 660. There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure?Not learned 661. Pressure within a firemain system will vary from point to point due to __________.Not learned 662. Which of the following statements is correct concerning fire main system details used aboard 2500 gross ton cargo vessels on international voyages?Not learned 663. Which of the following components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system?Not learned 664. While in dry-dock in a U.S. port, you discover that the spool piece for the fire pump sea suction is wasted away. You should __________.Not learned 665. A cutoff valve in the fire main system of a MODU may be closed to protect a portion of the system on an exposed deck from __________.Not learned 666. The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over pressurization is called a __________.Not learned 667. In the fire main system, quick cleaning strainers are located at the ______.Not learned 668. According to 46 CFR, a ships fire main system must have enough fire hydrants for each accessible space to be reached with __________.Not learned 669. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter H (Passenger Vessels), which of the following statements is true regarding sprinkler heads which are normally activated by the melting of a fusible link?Not learned 670. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter H (Passenger Vessels), which of the following statements is true regarding sprinkler heads which are normally activated by the melting of a fusible link?Not learned 671. The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________.Not learned 672. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.Not learned 673. Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?Not learned 674. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the following requirements?Not learned 675. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the following requirements?Not learned 676. According to 46 CFR's, a fixed foam system aboard a tank vessel constructed in 1968, must be designed to supply foam for a minimum of __________.Not learned 677. According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 34), if a fixed foam system is activated aboard a tank vessel, the foam supply must be sufficient to last for a minimum of __________.Not learned 678. When the machinery spaces on a tank vessel are protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system, what additional protection is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) outside of the machinery space entrance?Not learned 679. A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing system on a MODU must be marked with the __________.Not learned 680. On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.Not learned 681. Halon 1301 enters the fire area as a __________.Not learned 682. Which of the following statements holds true for both CO₂ and Halon 1301 fixed extinguishing systems?Not learned 683. Which of the following conditions are true concerning shipboard fire extinguishing systems?Not learned 684. Which of the following statements is correct concerning fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems?Not learned 685. Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the __________.Not learned 686. Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting the __________.Not learned 687. Which of the following statements describes how the main bank of CO₂ bottles is released into an engine room from most fixed CO₂ fire extinguishing systems?Not learned 688. Operation of the release control valve on a fixed CO₂ fire extinguishing system, must automatically __________.Not learned 689. When the engine room fixed CO₂ system is activated, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST if the automatic fuel oil and ventilation shutoffs have failed to operate?Not learned 690. When discharging the main bank of fixed CO₂ into a major engine room fire, CO₂ pressure is used to __________.Not learned 691. What is the function of the small gas accumulator cylinder attached to the discharge piping of the engine room fixed CO₂ system?Not learned 692. In a fixed CO₂ system, the 'pilot' cylinders are used to __________.Not learned 693. CO₂ cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.Not learned 694. When fighting a machinery space fire, you should operate a fixed CO₂ system by opening the control valve to the space protected and __________.Not learned 695. In order to release CO₂ to the machinery spaces, you must physically open the engine room __________.Not learned 696. Control valves for a CO₂ fire extinguishing system may be located within the protected space when __________.Not learned 697. In order to release CO₂ to the machinery spaces from a fixed fire extinguishing system, you must __________.Not learned 698. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.Not learned 699. In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________.Not learned 700. Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push- buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 701. The empty weight of a '100 pound' (45.4 kg) cylinder in a fixed CO₂ system is 130 pounds (58.9 kg). What is the minimum acceptable total weight of the cylinder before recharging is required?Not learned 702. On a cargo ship equipped with a combination fire detection/carbon dioxide extinguishing system, the presence of fire is indicated at the cabinet simultaneously in two spaces: No.3 hold upper between decks, containing bagged coffee beans; and No.4 lower hold containing fertilizer. To combat these fires, you should __________.Not learned 703. If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must be of a type approved by the __________.Not learned 704. Which of the listed fixed fire extinguishing systems is most effective for use in the cargo holds?Not learned 705. In the event of a fire, automatic activation of a fixed CO₂ extinguishing system can result in which of the following areas?Not learned 706. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 707. What would be a major consequence of allowing the refrigeration system of a low-pressure fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain inoperable?Not learned 708. When a ship's low-pressure CO₂ fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO₂ that will be released into the selected compartment?Not learned 709. A ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is normally designed for a storage tank pressure and temperature of approximately __________.Not learned 710. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?Not learned 711. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?Not learned 712. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?Not learned 713. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?Not learned 714. According to 46 CFR Part 95, which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the regulations pertaining to the carbon dioxide cylinder room for a CO₂ fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 715. Normally manned machinery spaces protected by a fixed carbon dioxide system are required to be fitted with audible alarms so arranged that the alarm will be sounded prior to the discharge of CO₂ by at least _________.Not learned 716. Normally manned machinery spaces protected by a fixed carbon dioxide system fitted with storage cylinders of at least 300 pounds in extinguishing gas weight are required to be fitted with audible alarms so arranged that the alarm will be sounded prior to the discharge of CO₂. According to CG regulations pertaining to CO₂ fire protection systems, what is the minimum delay period?Not learned 717. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for manually releasing the CO2 at which location?Not learned 718. When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, how many pilot cylinders are required?Not learned 719. If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room, you should ________.Not learned 720. Spaces protected by a fixed CO₂ system must be equipped with an alarm which is to sound __________.Not learned 721. Why is it necessary to warn engine room personnel before activating the fixed CO₂ system?Not learned 722. Before releasing the CO2 into the space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 system must sound for at least __________.Not learned 723. How much warning must be provided by the CO₂ warning alarm before CO₂ is discharged into a space?Not learned 724. As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause ______.Not learned 725. A safety outlet is provided on the CO₂ discharge piping to prevent __________.Not learned 726. During the annual servicing of your ship's fixed CO2 system, you receive the report shown in the illustration. Which CO2 cylinders require rechargingNot learned 727. You receive the record of cylinder weights, shown in the illustration, at the annual servicing of your ship's CO₂ system. Which pair of CO₂ cylinders requires rechargingNot learned 728. The empty weight of a '100 pound' (45.4 kg) cylinder in a fixed CO₂ system is 130 pounds (58.9 kg). What is the minimum acceptable total weight of the cylinder before recharging is required?Not learned 729. The stamped full weight of a 100 lb. CO₂ cylinder is 314 pounds. What is the total minimum weight of the cylinder before it must be recharged?Not learned 730. CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?Not learned 731. Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?Not learned 732. The fixed CO₂ fire extinguishing system has been activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible products from the engine room?Not learned 733. When any fire has been extinguished with carbon dioxide, there is always the danger of the __________.Not learned 734. If a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room bilges, in which of the following sequences should the fire extinguishing agents or systems be used?Not learned 735. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 34) state that any space containing charged CO₂ cylinders, shall be properly ventilated to prevent a temperature higher than __________.Not learned 736. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements is true concerning fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems?Not learned 737. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) for carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing systems require __________.Not learned 738. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following power sources would be acceptable for the carbon dioxide warning alarm?Not learned 739. When a cylinder is used to store CO₂ in a fixed firefighting system and is retested in accordance with regulations, all flexible connections between cylinders and distribution piping must be renewed or tested at __________.Not learned 740. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the piping, valves, and fittings for a fixed CO₂ fire extinguishing system shall have a bursting pressure of not less than __________.Not learned 741. According to 46 CFR Part 95, a fixed CO₂ fire fighting system which contains a maximum of 2450 pounds of carbon dioxide to be maintained aboard the vessel, the minimum nominal pipe size of the fixed system branch lines to the various spaces must be __________.Not learned 742. According to 46 CFR Part 147, a cylinder used for storing CO₂ in a fixed firefighting system must be hydrostatically retested and restamped every __________.Not learned 743. A fixed CO₂ fire extinguishing system on a MODU. with a capacity of over 300 lbs (136 kilograms) CO₂, protecting spaces other than tanks, must have __________.Not learned 744. On a MODU, a fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing or other approved system, must be installed __________.Not learned 745. What is best suited for fighting a fire in a ballast control room?Not learned 746. The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________Not learned 747. When fire detecting systems, fire extinguishing systems, and associated equipment are not required by the Coast Guard but are installed on a cargo vessel at the option of the vessel's owner, they __________.Not learned 748. The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________Not learned 749. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that where reasonable and practicable, the steam pressure in a steam smothering system should be at least ______.Not learned 750. The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________Not learned 751. During vessel familiarization, you find the vessel you are newly assigned to as chief engineer has a high-pressure CO system for the engine room. In what way are the high-pressure CO bottles 2 2 released in the event of an engine room fire?Not learned 752. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that where reasonable and practicable, the steam pressure in a steam smothering system should be at least ______.Not learned 753. Concerning the illustrated fire detection and alarm system, what statement is true concerning the wiring within a zoneNot learned 754. Concerning the illustrated fire detection and alarm system, what statement is true concerning the wiring between zonesNot learned 755. Concerning the illustrated fire detection and alarm system, when the system is operating normally and under supervision, what is the status of the ground detector and the fire alarm relaysNot learned 756. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systemsNot learned 757. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet?Not learned 758. Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________.Not learned 759. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________.Not learned 760. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________.Not learned 761. In a typical fire detection control unit, what would be indicated by an illuminated yellow light?Not learned 762. Which of the following fixed temperature heat-actuated fire detectors can be reused after it has detected a fire?Not learned 763. Which of the following fixed temperature heat-actuated fire detectors is the most prone to false alarms?Not learned 764. Which of the following gases represents the greatest threat to personnel safety in an engine room where the exhaust gas is leaking from a diesel engine?Not learned 765. The required fireman's outfits required for MODU's are not to be used for any other purpose EXCEPT for the __________.Not learned 766. How many people onboard a MODU must be trained in the use of the fireman's outfit?Not learned 767. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.Not learned 768. How many fireman's outfits are required on a MODU?Not learned 770. Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit?Not learned 771. What Coast Guard Regulations apply to the equipment of a fireman's outfit?Not learned 772. Coast Guard Regulations apply to which of the following requirements of the equipment required to be in a fireman's outfit?Not learned 773. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), which of the following statements is true concerning the equipment required in a fireman's outfit?Not learned 774. Which of the following statements represents U.S. Coast Guard regulations concerning the equipment used with firemen's outfits?Not learned 775. According to U.S. regulations, how many emergency outfits are required to be carried onboard all tankships over 1,000 gross tons?Not learned 776. As part of the emergency outfit required to be carried onboard all tank vessels over 1000 gross tons, flashlights must be __________.Not learned 777. A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels, must have a __________.Not learned 778. The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________.Not learned 779. The equipment shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 780. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?Not learned 781. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?Not learned 782. A fully charged standard SCBA can be expected to supply air under non-stressful conditions for approximately _______.Not learned 783. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?Not learned 784. What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?Not learned 785. You are wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus while fighting a fire in an enclosed space. If sudden strong resistance to breathing is experienced, your first action should be to __________.Not learned 786. When you are wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus, you should immediately return to fresh air if you feel __________.Not learned 787. While wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus the alarm bell begins ringing. Which of the following conditions does this indicate?Not learned 788. When the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds, how much air supply remains?Not learned 789. (1.7.4.1.1-2) Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life?Not learned 790. Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment to fight a fire?Not learned 791. Which statement is TRUE to safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system?Not learned 792. Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering the engine room after the fixed CO₂ system has been discharged to combat a major fire?Not learned 793. While wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus, the user must be aware of the bulkiness of the unit in order to avoid confined spaces. Of what other limitations should the user be aware?Not learned 794. What operational limitation should the user of a self-contained breathing apparatus be concerned with when using the device?Not learned 795. What is a major advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus?Not learned 796. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.Not learned 797. While donning the positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus, you discover that the air cylinder pressure gauge and the regulator pressure gauge differ from each other by 500 psi. Which of the listed actions should you consider as appropriate?Not learned 798. The pressure gages on the air cylinder and the regulator should be checked and compared before putting on a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus. Which of the following is the maximum acceptable differential readings permitted to exist between the two gages?Not learned 799. Which of the components listed are interchangeable between different backpack self-contained breathing apparatus produced by various manufacturers?Not learned 800. The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by __________.Not learned 801. Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type self- contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?Not learned 802. On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must __________.Not learned 803. A MODU must have a self-contained breathing apparatus to be used as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit. To meet this requirement, you may use __________.Not learned 804. For use as protection from gas leaking from a refrigeration unit, each MODU must be equipped with a __________.Not learned 805. Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in __________.Not learned 806. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?Not learned 807. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 35), a pressure-demand, open circuit, self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) shall have a minimum of how many minutes air supply.Not learned 808. Manufacturers of self contained breathing apparatus use color coded face pieces to indicate different sizes. Which of the following statements is true concerning the colors of SCBA face pieces?Not learned 809. The condition of asphyxia arises from which of the following?Not learned 810. During an inspection of a ships storeroom, you find sealed containers of chemicals labeled "potassium bicarbonate" and "potassium chloride". These chemicals are most commonly used aboard ship for _______.Not learned 811. Where in the Code of Federal Regulations will you find information about the compatibility of cargoes?Not learned 812. A health hazard term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is __________.Not learned 813. A chemical that causes a substantial proportion of exposed people or animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) as a __________.Not learned 814. A health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), that can cause cancer in exposed individuals is called a __________.Not learned 815. A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), which can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is called a __________.Not learned 816. A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), that can damage the fetus during development is called a __________.Not learned 817. A category of health hazard, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which includes teratogens and mutagens, is called a __________.Not learned 818. The temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), will change to a gas is called its __________.Not learned 819. A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that can undergo a sudden and violent release of pressure and heat is called __________.Not learned 820. A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that supplies oxygen required to start or support fire is called a/an __________.Not learned 821. Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that violently self-reacts under commonly occurring conditions is called __________.Not learned 822. A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), that can spontaneously burst into flames when exposed to air at temperatures below 130°F (55.5°C) with no ignition source needed, is called __________.Not learned 823. What term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazards?Not learned 824. Physical data on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which describes chemicals that produce health effects requiring medical attention where damage may be permanent but is neither life-threatening nor seriously disabling, is called __________.Not learned 825. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.Not learned 826. A written document identifying chemical material, listing its physical properties, describing health hazards, required controls, correct procedures for firefighting, spill or leak cleanup, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage of the material, is called an __________.Not learned 827. Which health hazard term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact?Not learned 828. Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) referring to more than one chemical is called a __________.Not learned 829. If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) identify?Not learned 830. The physical data term on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) describing whether a liquid is lighter or heavier than water is __________.Not learned 831. The physical data term on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________.Not learned 832. What does the vapor pressure listed in Section III of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) indicate?Not learned 833. A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that reacts with water or moist air, and produces a health or physical hazard, is called __________.Not learned 834. Which of the following reacts dangerously with vinyl chloride?Not learned 835. You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 836. What is the minimum required protective clothing that must be worn while sampling hazardous cargo on a tankship?Not learned 837. The flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its __________.Not learned 838. The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the __________.Not learned 839. The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor to momentarily flash into flame when ignited is defined as the __________.Not learned 840. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.Not learned 841. The temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit, at which a liquid gives off a flammable vapor when heated in an open cup tester is called the __________.Not learned 842. Which defines the flash point of a liquid?Not learned 843. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.Not learned 844. The flash point of a liquid is the __________.Not learned 845. Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?Not learned 846. What is the lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame?Not learned 847. The lowest temperature at which the vapor formed from a liquid ignites in the presence of an ignition source and continues to burn steadily is called the ________.Not learned 848. The lowest temperature at which fuel combustion becomes self-sustaining in the presence of a source of ignition, is defined as the __________.Not learned 849. The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor to burn continuously when ignited is defined as the __________.Not learned 850. Which term defines the lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition?Not learned 851. Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?Not learned 852. The annual reinspection of a tank vessel, holding a two year Certificate of Inspection endorsed, 'Inspected and Approved for the Carriage of Flammable or Combustible Liquids of Grade A' must __________.Not learned 853. The annual reinspection of a tank vessel, holding a two year Certificate of Inspection endorsed, 'Inspected and Approved for the Carriage of Flammable or Combustible Liquids of Grade A' must __________.Not learned 854. Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?Not learned 855. Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?Not learned 856. The temperature of the fuel oil received during bunkering operations is critical in determining the __________.Not learned 857. You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?Not learned 858. According to 46 CFR, Part 30, a Grade "E" petroleum product is __________.Not learned 859. According to 46 CFR Part 35, containers which exceed a capacity of five gallons and contain flammable liquids and gases other than diesel fuel must be stowed __________.Not learned 860. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) classify a liquid having a flash point of 175°F (79.4°C) as a combustible liquid, __________.Not learned 861. Any combustible liquid having a flash point of 150°F or above is grade __________.Not learned 862. Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid?Not learned 863. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR 30), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8-1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below, is a grade __________.Not learned 864. A grade "A" petroleum product is __________.Not learned 865. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.Not learned 866. Bunker "C", a grade "E" combustible liquid, will __________.Not learned 867. A grade "E" combustible liquid is one having a flash point of 150°F or above. An example of a grade "E" product is __________.Not learned 868. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.Not learned 869. An example of a combustible liquid is __________.Not learned 870. By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which __________.Not learned 871. Any liquid with a flash point above 80°F is a __________.Not learned 872. Which of the following substances would be classified as a combustible liquid?Not learned 873. Which of the following substances would be classified as a flammable liquid?Not learned 874. Which of the following fuels would be classified as a combustible liquid rather than a flammable liquid?Not learned 875. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.Not learned 876. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are heavier than air and are __________.Not learned 877. Which of the following statements is true concerning Bunker "C" vapors?Not learned 878. As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________.Not learned 879. The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid to __________.Not learned 880. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is __________.Not learned 881. Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are __________.Not learned 882. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) divide petroleum products into combustible liquids and flammable liquids. Flammable liquids __________.Not learned 883. Any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below 80°F, as determined by flash point from an open cup tester, describes a __________.Not learned 884. Diesel fuel is relatively safe to handle due to its low volatility, but the fumes will self-ignite and continue to burn steadily if the fuel is heated to the __________.Not learned 885. A petroleum liquid has a flash point of 85°F. This is a grade __________.Not learned 886. Which of the petroleum products listed has the lowest flash point?Not learned 887. Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150°F?Not learned 888. Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?Not learned 889. If flammable liquids are being pumped with a centrifugal pump, you should __________.Not learned 890. If flammable liquids are being pumped with a centrifugal pump, you should __________.Not learned 891. When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________.Not learned 892. For typical crude oils, approximate values for the lower flammable limit and upper flammable limit, would be in the range of _________.Not learned 893. A liquid, as listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), having a flash point below 100°F (37.78°C) is called a/an __________.Not learned 894. The lowest temperature at which a liquid, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source is called its __________.Not learned 895. Which of the following terms is the minimum temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off sufficient vapor concentration to ignite in the presence of an ignition source?Not learned 896. In a closed container of liquid, the force exerted by vapor on the walls of the container above the liquid surface is called __________.Not learned 897. Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?Not learned 898. Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________.Not learned 899. Which of the following is an example of an example of a grade D product?Not learned 900. If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________.Not learned 901. Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of Liquefied Gas?Not learned 902. What are the primary concern(s) for safely transporting and handling liquefied gas?Not learned 903. What is one major advantage of transporting gas under refrigeration?Not learned 904. Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?Not learned 905. What should LFG tank and pipeline maintenance include?Not learned 906. The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank is determined by __________.Not learned 907. Who must approve the carriage of a liquefied gas not appearing in table 4 of 46 CFR Part 154?Not learned 908. The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapors as compared to air is __________.Not learned 909. Liquefied flammable gas is defined as any flammable gas having a Reid vapor pressure exceeding how many pounds?Not learned 910. What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas?Not learned 911. What is the primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas?Not learned 912. Which of the following describes one of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas?Not learned 913. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.Not learned 914. Which of the following would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product?Not learned 915. What are the flammable limits for motor gasoline?Not learned 916. What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air?Not learned 917. Which of the following terms defines the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present?Not learned 918. The explosive range of a fuel lies between the lower explosive limit and the __________.Not learned 919. Which of the following describes (auto) ignition temperature?Not learned 920. With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids __________.Not learned 921. What do the designations A, B, C, D, and E grades of cargo define?Not learned 922. Most crude oils are classified as grade __________.Not learned 923. For the purpose of regulating tank vessels, which defines the term flammable liquids?Not learned 924. The heat value of a fuel is best described as __________.Not learned 925. A chemical additive to LPG give it a characteristic __________.Not learned 926. What is Reid Vapor Pressure?Not learned 927. To determine the pressure and temperature limitations under which LFG is required to be transported on a barge, you should look at the __________.Not learned 928. Which of the following describes one of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas?Not learned 929. A combustible liquid is defined as any liquid having a flash point above what temperature?Not learned 930. What is the general name given to propane, butane, and mixtures of the two?Not learned 931. Which statement is correct?Not learned 932. The boiling point of Methane is -161°C. How is the substance carried?Not learned 933. Which of the following describes a liquefied gas?Not learned 934. What is the most common liquefied gas cargo?Not learned 935. Which of the following terms best defines the spontaneous mixing of a tank's liquid contents when a heavier layer forms above a less dense lower layer?Not learned 936. Most liquefied gas cargoes are flammable, and are carried at or close to their boiling point. What will happen if they are released into the atmosphere?Not learned 937. According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) lamp, paint and oil lockers, and similar compartments shall __________.Not learned 938. According to Coast Guard regulation (46 CFR), an "A" class division, bulkhead or deck shall be constructed __________.Not learned 939. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the regulations (46 CFR) regarding internal combustion engine exhausts, boiler and galley uptakes, and similar sources of ignition?Not learned 940. According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR Part 92), a standard fire test is one __________.Not learned 941. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.Not learned 942. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.Not learned 943. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.Not learned 944. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.Not learned 945. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?Not learned 946. When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space __________.Not learned 947. When welding or burning aboard a vessel, precautions should always include that __________.Not learned 948. The device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is called a __________.Not learned 949. The heat given to or given up by a substance in changing state is called __________.Not learned 950. Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel storage tanks must have the tanks installed as far as practicable from the __________.Not learned 951. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.Not learned 952. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.Not learned 953. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.Not learned 954. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.Not learned 955. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?Not learned 956. By definition, spontaneous combustion is a result of __________.Not learned 957. Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________.Not learned 958. Where would spontaneous combustion most likely occur?Not learned 959. Which of the following is the chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard tankers?Not learned 960. Fires resulting from "spontaneous combustion" are usually caused by the improper disposal of __________.Not learned 961. Spontaneous combustion can result from __________.Not learned 962. Spontaneous combustion can occur in __________.Not learned 963. In which of the areas listed is a fire resulting from spontaneous combustion most likely to occur?Not learned 964. The most likely place for a fire to start through the process of spontaneous combustion is in __________.Not learned 965. Where would spontaneous combustion most likely occur?Not learned 966. Which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous combustion?Not learned 967. Which may ignite fuel vapors?Not learned 968. What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?Not learned 969. Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?Not learned 970. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 971. Locations on a MODU, where flammable hydrocarbon gas or vapors may accumulate due to drilling operations, are defined as __________.Not learned 972. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 973. Which of the practices listed should be avoided since it represents a fire hazard?Not learned 974. Smoking in bed on a MODU is dangerous __________.Not learned 975. One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is __________.Not learned 976. The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.Not learned 977. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?Not learned 978. If diesel fuel vapors in a compartment are considered to be within the flammable range __________.Not learned 979. Which of the listed tanks presents the greatest potential for an explosion?Not learned 980. Repair of structures on a MODU in the vicinity of liquid mud handling areas presents what possible hazard?Not learned 981. Explosive and flammable gases are most likely to be encountered on a MODU __________.Not learned 982. What must be present in order for combustion to occur inside a piping system such as a vapor collection header in a marine emission control system?Not learned 983. Some cargoes can react with air to form unstable oxygen compounds which could __________.Not learned 984. One of the common hazards onboard a vessel is represented by the accumulation of harmful gases in tanks, holds, etc. Which of the following gases is the most dangerous to personnel safety in confined atmospheres, as it is absorbed by the blood 300 times more quickly than oxygen?Not learned 985. If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended period, it will be unsafe to enter the steam and water drum immediately after it has been opened, as there may be __________.Not learned 986. Which of the following can result in an oxygen deficiency in a closed space?Not learned 987. A tank which has been sealed for a long period of time can be dangerous because __________.Not learned 988. Which of the listed conditions could cause a dangerous reduction in oxygen in a shipboard compartment?Not learned 989. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.Not learned 990. To determine that a compartment contains sufficient oxygen to sustain life, you should use a/an __________.Not learned 991. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.Not learned 992. The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.Not learned 993. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?Not learned 994. After a fire has been extinguished in a closed space, personnel may safely enter the space when __________.Not learned 995. According to Federal Regulations, a confined or enclosed space on a ship which is being prepared for "HOT WORK", should be inspected, tested and designated "SAFE FOR HOT WORK" if _______.Not learned 996. According to Federal Regulations, a confined or enclosed space on a ship which is being prepared for "HOT WORK", should be inspected, tested and designated "SAFE FOR HOT WORK" if _______.Not learned 997. According to Federal Regulations, a confined or enclosed space on a ship which is being prepared for "HOT WORK", should be inspected, tested and designated "SAFE FOR HOT WORK" if _______.Not learned 998. Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared as which of the following?Not learned 999. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?Not learned 1000. If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be the most hazardous to perform?Not learned 1001. The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________.Not learned 1002. The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and air lies between the lower and upper explosive limits. These limits are specified as a percentage of __________.Not learned 1003. The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and air lies between the lower and upper explosive limits. These limits are specified as a percentage of __________.Not learned 1004. The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8% by volume in air. The instrument shown in the illustration is used to sample a tank that had contained benzene and a 90% reading is obtained. What percentage of benzene vapor would be indicated at the sampling pointNot learned 1005. The explosive range of benzene is 1.4% to 8% by volume in air. If you sample an empty tank that had contained benzene and obtained a reading of 50% L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator, then the __________.Not learned 1006. The flammable limits of methane by volume is 5% to 15%. If the combustible gas indicator reading is 50% when sampling a compartment containing methane, the flammable vapor concentration at the sample point is __________.Not learned 1007. The flammable limits of kerosene are 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in air. The combustible gas indicator reading is 50% of the lower explosive level. The flammable vapor concentration at the sample point is __________.Not learned 1008. The flammable limits of kerosene is 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in air. If a tank having contained kerosene is tested with the combustible gas indicator, shown in the illustration, and a reading of 50% is obtained, this means __________Not learned 1009. The vapor explosive range of gasoline by volume is 1.0% to 6.0% in air. If a gasoline tank is sampled with an explosimeter, and the reading obtained is 30% L.E.L., the vapor concentration at the sample point is __________.Not learned 1010. When using the combustible gas indicator to test a cargo tank, and the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the upper explosive limit (UEL), __________.Not learned 1011. A vapor sample is drawn into the combustible gas indicator shown in the illustration. The needle deflects to the explosive range of the scale and then returns to rest at 20%. What does this indicateNot learned 1012. Combustible gas indicators measure the concentration of combustible gases as a percentage of the lower explosive limit of the gas. If the hydrocarbon content of the sample exceeds the upper explosive limit __________.Not learned 1013. The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8.0% by volume in air. If a reading of 50% of the lower explosive limit is obtained, using the meter shown in the illustration, the vapor concentration at the sample point is __________Not learned 1014. The flammable limits of Benzene are 1.4% to 8% by volume in air. If a combustible gas indicator is used to sample a tank that contains a Benzene vapor/air mixture of 0.7% Benzene vapor by volume in air, which of the listed indications will be observed on the meter?Not learned 1015. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.Not learned 1016. Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.Not learned 1017. A combustible gas indicator is used to determine __________.Not learned 1018. What is the purpose of an explosimeter?Not learned 1019. Which of the following conditions is an important consideration to remember when using a combustible gas indicator?Not learned 1020. When testing the atmosphere of a compartment with a combustible gas indicator, the operator must remember that __________.Not learned 1021. Combustible gas indicators are used to detect flammable gases or vapors in the atmosphere. As a safety feature, they are equipped with __________.Not learned 1022. The reading on the combustible gas indicator, shown in the illustration, is obtained by burning the vapor sample within the instrument. How is the flame prevented from igniting the vapor within the space being testedNot learned 1023. Combustible gas indicators detect flammable gases, or vapors present in the atmosphere by an intricate system which includes __________.Not learned 1024. Combustible gas indicators are used to detect flammable gases or vapors present in a tank. This is accomplished by an intricate instrument incorporating a/an __________.Not learned 1025. Which of the following statements is true concerning the meter shown in the illustrationNot learned 1026. When taking samples of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter, you should __________.Not learned 1027. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a _____.Not learned 1028. Hydrocarbon vapors are usually detected by the use of the __________.Not learned 1029. An instrument used to detect explosive gas/air mixtures, usually measures the concentration in terms of the lower explosive limit, and is known as a __________.Not learned 1030. The instrument shown in the illustration is used to indicate the __________Not learned 1031. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an __________.Not learned 1032. The instrument shown in the illustration has not been used for several weeks. Prior to its use for testing a compartment, you should __________Not learned 1033. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?Not learned 1034. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?Not learned 1035. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?Not learned 1036. Before making any welded repairs to the internals of a vessel's fuel tank in a U.S. port, the tank must be examined by __________.Not learned 1037. You are about to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If you're not wearing a self- contained breathing apparatus, you should test the compartment's atmosphere to determine if there is/are __________.Not learned 1038. Prior to entering a compartment containing an atmosphere potentially dangerous to life or health and deficient in oxygen, you should don an approved breathing apparatus. Which of the listed devices would be suitable?Not learned 1039. One precaution to take prior to working in a freshly painted compartment where there are an excessive amount of paint fumes, is to __________.Not learned 1040. According to Federal Regulations, a confined or enclosed space that is being prepared for crew members to enter, should be tested and designated "NOT SAFE FOR WORKERS" if the oxygen content of the atmosphere in the compartment is LESS than ____.Not learned 1041. Ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2.0% and an upper explosive limit of 100% by volume in air. This means __________.Not learned 1042. The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of __________.Not learned 1043. Diesel fuel vapors __________.Not learned 1044. A characteristic of most petroleum vapors is that they are __________.Not learned 1045. Petroleum vapors are heavier than air and __________.Not learned 1046. Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________.Not learned 1047. Breathing petroleum vapors is hazardous and may cause __________.Not learned 1048. The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the __________.Not learned 1049. The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________.Not learned 1050. If a mixture containing air and a concentration of flammable vapor, is capable of ignition when exposed to a spark or other source of ignition, it is said to be __________.Not learned 1051. Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________.Not learned 1052. Each tank ship having an inert gas system must have portable instruments to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres. The ship must also carry instruments that can measure concentrations of _________.Not learned 1053. Tankers that are in service carrying "sour crudes" are faced with additional problems for their safe operation. One such problem is called "polyphoric oxidation" and results in ________.Not learned 1054. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?Not learned 1055. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?Not learned 1056. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?Not learned 1057. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?Not learned 1058. If personnel are required to enter a cargo tank that has not been certified as "gas free", __________.Not learned 1059. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.Not learned 1060. Which of the following conditions must be met before a marine chemist will issue a certificate for a compartment to be "safe for workers, safe for hot work"?Not learned 1061. The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested and designated "gas free". Which of the following statements is correct concerning this tank?Not learned 1062. If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate?Not learned 1063. The designation "Not safe for men - Not safe for fire" means __________.Not learned 1064. A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being "Safe for Men" and "Safe for fire." This condition may change if ___________.Not learned 1065. The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________.Not learned 1066. If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be _______.Not learned 1067. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the gas free status of a compartment?Not learned 1068. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is __________.Not learned 1069. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.Not learned 1070. While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is not available?Not learned 1071. While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is not available?Not learned 1072. When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, what is the MOST important symptom to check for?Not learned 1073. Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?Not learned 1074. What would likely happen if you were exposed to a 100% methane atmosphere for more than 15 minutes?Not learned 1075. What type of gas detection device is used to determine when gassing up is complete?Not learned 1076. Span gas is used for what process?Not learned 1077. Where is a permanently installed system of gas detection required?Not learned 1078. What is an enclosure which will withstand ignition of a flammable gas, and which will prevent the transmission of any flame able to ignite a flammable gas, which may be present in the surrounding atmosphere called?Not learned 1079. The vapor pressure of a gas is defined as the pressure necessary to keep it in what state?Not learned 1080. The flash point of vinyl chloride is __________.Not learned 1081. A combustible gas indicator will operate correctly ONLY when the __________.Not learned 1082. Methane gas is __________.Not learned 1083. Which of the following describes a chemical gas?Not learned 1084. The process of adding mercaptans to gas, is known as __________.Not learned 1085. Asphyxia is generally limited to enclosed spaces, and the deficiency of breathable air in an enclosed space can occur with any of the following conditions. Indicate the condition that will NOT cause asphyxia.Not learned 1086. Ventilation spaces for a gas safe space within the cargo area must be __________.Not learned 1087. What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken?Not learned 1088. Which of the following statements is true concerning canister-type gas masks?Not learned 1089. Which of the following devices allows the user to remain in an oxygen deficient space for the longest period of time without interruption?Not learned 1090. Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an __________.Not learned 1091. For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of H2S and which of the following factors?Not learned 1092. The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________.Not learned 1093. Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________.Not learned 1094. A compartment is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by volume, permissible concentrations of toxic materials, and concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower flammable limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials or flammable concentrations, what would be the designation listed on the marine chemist's certificate?Not learned 1095. Which of the following limitations is correct regarding gas masks, otherwise called filter masks?Not learned 1096. If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, __________.Not learned 1097. As chief engineer on a vessel, you and the first engineer are planning a welding job in the cargo-hold. How would you ensure that all safety precautions are reviewed prior to starting this job?Not learned 1098. A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed?Not learned 1099. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.Not learned 1100. The maximum concentration of hydrogen sulfide to which workers may be regularly exposed without adverse effects is __________.Not learned 1101. When hydrogen sulfide is burned (flared) on a MODU, which of the following conditions can be expected to occur?Not learned 1102. The characteristic odor of "rotten eggs" is normally associated with which toxic and poisonous gas?Not learned 1103. Hydrogen sulfide gas has an odor of "rotten eggs" and can be extremely toxic and dangerous when above threshold limit values because ________.Not learned 1104. Requirements for H2S preparation and equipment usage aboard MODU's in U.S. offshore waters are administered by which of the following organizations?Not learned 1105. Hydrogen sulfide in explosive concentrations has been detected on the drill floor and the abandon rig signal has been sounded. Which of the following would be the safest way to evacuate?Not learned 1106. On a MODU, if there is a probability of encountering hydrogen sulfide during the drilling of a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be installed to dilute the concentration of gas at the __________.Not learned 1107. Since accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas on a MODU can be dangerous to personnel, it is important to know that this gas is __________.Not learned 1108. What additional precautions should be taken when making temporary repairs to a MODU that is operating when hydrogen sulfide is present?Not learned 1109. When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pumproom to repair a leaking pump?Not learned 1110. Hydrogen sulfide is the constituent giving sour crude oil the characteristic odor of rotten eggs. One of the hazards associated with hydrogen sulfide is __________.Not learned 1111. Hydrogen sulfide gives crude oil the sour odor of rotten eggs. A hazard to personnel regarding hydrogen sulfide is __________.Not learned 1112. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.Not learned 1113. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.Not learned 1114. Hydrogen sulfide gas (H₂S) is highly toxic and has a characteristic odor of rotten eggs. The sense of smell cannot always be depended upon to detect hydrogen sulfide gas because __________.Not learned 1115. When H2S has been encountered on a MODU, or is anticipated, monitoring devices must sound an alarm (which differs from the lower concentration alarm) or otherwise warn employees when concentration of H2S reaches or exceeds how many parts per million?Not learned 1116. If H2S exposure is anticipated, fixed monitoring devices aboard a MODU should have a low level concentration alarm to alert personnel. at what concentration level will the alarm activate?Not learned 1117. The lethal concentration of hydrogen sulfide that will result in death with short-term exposure is a minimum of __________.Not learned 1118. What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?Not learned 1119. Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?Not learned 1120. The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________.Not learned 1121. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 1122. Prior to entering a cargo pump room, you should ensure that __________.Not learned 1123. A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that all tanks and pumprooms are potentially dangerous. You should immediately leave an area whenever __________.Not learned 1124. When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates the tank __________.Not learned 1125. An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a __________.Not learned 1126. Liquid petroleum products will become electrically charged as a result of the __________.Not learned 1127. Fuel tanks should never be filled by cascading liquid through an open hatch or manhole because __________.Not learned 1128. When petroleum products are handled, static electricity can be generated by __________.Not learned 1129. When handling petroleum products, static electricity is generated by moving machinery and __________.Not learned 1130. Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a tanker?Not learned 1131. When taking on fuel it is important to remember that petroleum vapors are __________.Not learned 1132. Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark?Not learned 1133. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), pump room ventilation on a U.S. flag tanker may be accomplished by __________.Not learned 1134. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.Not learned 1135. Where grades A, B, C, and D liquid cargoes are involved, power-driven or manually-operated spark producing devices shall not be used in the cargo pump room unless __________.Not learned 1136. Which of the following precautions are necessary when using any electrical equipment in a hazardous location, such as a cargo pumproom?Not learned 1137. To prevent an explosion when the pump room has not been certified gas free and repairs are to be carried out, the only type of portable electric equipment allowed in the pump room would be an approved __________.Not learned 1138. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require electric hand lamps, approved for use in fuel tanks, to be battery powered and __________.Not learned 1139. What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?Not learned 1140. What is required of the access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes?Not learned 1141. Branch venting from safety relief valves on barges shall be constructed to discharge the gas at a vertical height above the weather deck to a minimum of __________.Not learned 1142. Regulations require that cargo tanks in which grades B or C liquids are carried must be vented with which of the following?Not learned 1143. Your tank vessels carrying grade B liquids. Regulations required that the cargo pumps be separated from all sources of vapor ignition by which item?Not learned 1144. Which states the requirements for the access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D liquid cargo?Not learned 1145. What do regulations require that pumprooms on tank vessels carrying grade C liquid cargo with machinery spaces below the freeboard deck be ventilated with?Not learned 1146. What are flame screens used for?Not learned 1147. If a repair team is to enter a confined space for repair work, what minimum level of oxygen should be present?Not learned 1148. As first engineer, you are standing by the #3 deep fuel oil storage tank as a crew member is working inside the tank. Before entering the tank, the atmosphere was checked and determined safe for men to work. While standing by you notice that the crew member is not moving. After attempts to communicate with the downed mariner receives no response, what action would you take?Not learned 1149. On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100 ppm oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record must be __________.Not learned 1150. In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by a/an __________.Not learned 1151. When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should be __________.Not learned 1152. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by the _________.Not learned 1153. If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book, you should __________.Not learned 1154. When making entries in the Oil Record Book, the date, operational code, and item number shall be inserted in the appropriate columns. Furthermore, the required particulars shall be __________.Not learned 1155. Oil Record Books, as per U.S. regulations, have two sections, Part I and Part II. What is defined in the pages preceding the log example listing for Oil Record Book Part I?Not learned 1156. U.S. flag ships may obtain an Oil Record Book from the __________.Not learned 1157. The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for __________.Not learned 1158. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?Not learned 1159. Oil Pollution Regulations (33 CFR), require any transfer, or discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be recorded in the __________.Not learned 1160. Oil Pollution Regulations (33 CFR), require any transfer, or discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be recorded in the __________.Not learned 1161. Which of the following machinery space operations is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1162. A MODU is required to carry an Oil Record Book to log entries in the book regarding the __________.Not learned 1163. A MODU is required to carry an Oil Record Book, and must maintain the book on board for __________.Not learned 1164. The regulations regarding Oil Record Books do not apply to MODU's that __________.Not learned 1165. The requirement to carry an Oil Record Book does not apply to a MODU that __________.Not learned 1166. Passenger vessels shall maintain an Oil Record Book, if the vessel is __________.Not learned 1167. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book is given to the __________.Not learned 1168. With regards to a ship's Oil Record Book, an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above must maintain entries in ________.Not learned 1169. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships ________.Not learned 1170. Which ship must maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast Operations) of the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1171. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the Oil Record Book shall be fully recorded __________.Not learned 1172. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book?Not learned 1173. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. This includes disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge water that has accumulated in machinery spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the Oil Record Book entry for the specific operation?Not learned 1174. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1175. You are the Chief Engineer onboard a general cargo vessel in excess of 1600 gross tons. To remain in compliance with the 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for non-tank vessel machinery space operations, which of the following requires an entry to be made in the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1176. According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to the Oil Record Book, what person or entity has ownership of the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1177. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), how long must the Oil Record Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply?Not learned 1178. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following statements is true concerning the signature of the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1179. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), how often must the Oil Record Book be updated with entries?Not learned 1180. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book?Not learned 1181. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1182. When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must _________.Not learned 1183. According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), what is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI coupling?Not learned 1184. U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), state that ocean going ships of 400 gross tons and above must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection for the discharge of oily waste from machinery space bilges to reception facilities. The flange of this discharge connection must be __________.Not learned 1185. According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle diameter is required for this shore connection to transfer oily ballast to a shoreside reception facility?Not learned 1186. An ocean going ship of 4000 gross tons must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection for the discharge of oily wastes to a reception facility. The dimensions for the connection are specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations under Part __________.Not learned 1187. Which of the following statements is true concerning oil transfer connections?Not learned 1188. When completing the ballasting operation of a contaminated tank, which of the following problems must be guarded against?Not learned 1189. Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be discharged overboard without being processed through an oily water separator?Not learned 1190. If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the coupling bolts, you should __________.Not learned 1191. If a leak in a fueling hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the coupling joint, you should __________.Not learned 1192. If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the coupling bolts, you should __________.Not learned 1193. Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________.Not learned 1194. While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water. What action should you take?Not learned 1195. What causes the most frequent incidents of pollution during tanker operations?Not learned 1196. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.Not learned 1197. Small oil spills on deck may be prevented from entering the water by __________.Not learned 1198. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from contaminating the surrounding waters by __________.Not learned 1199. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), a vessel built in 1977 with a gross registered tonnage of 219 tons, must __________.Not learned 1200. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require a 1500 gross ton vessel (constructed before July 1, 1974) equipped with a fill fitting for which discharge containment is impractical to __________.Not learned 1201. An ocean going ship of 6000 gross tons or above must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) or be substituted with a __________.Not learned 1202. An ocean going ship of 400 gross tons or above must be fitted with a standard oil discharge shore connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) or be substituted with a suitable __________.Not learned 1203. Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery may NOT be __________.Not learned 1204. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) prohibit draining __________.Not learned 1205. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) prohibits draining __________.Not learned 1206. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state that a ship's oily bilge slops may be pumped in port only if the __________.Not learned 1207. If it becomes necessary to pump bilges while a vessel is in port, which of the following procedures should be followed?Not learned 1208. Bilges may be pumped __________.Not learned 1209. The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate on a MODU is valid for a period of __________.Not learned 1210. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O, shipboard pollution prevention regulations are enforced by the __________.Not learned 1211. An International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate ceases to be valid on a U.S. Ship when __________.Not learned 1212. According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard?Not learned 1213. A "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard must be fixed in a conspicuous place in each machinery space, or at the bilge and ballast pump control station as required by __________.Not learned 1214. Exemption or partial exemption from compliance with any requirement in the Oil or Hazardous Material Pollution Prevention Regulations prescribed in (33 CFR 155) may be granted by the __________.Not learned 1215. Some Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), only apply to "new ships." Under these regulations, a new ship is a ship __________.Not learned 1216. Used engine oil may be properly disposed of by __________.Not learned 1217. While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?Not learned 1218. If a vessel moored at a U.S. terminal does not comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the __________.Not learned 1219. Where are "prohibited oil spaces" specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR Subchapter O?Not learned 1220. Prohibited oil spaces as specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 155) provide regulations for which of the following?Not learned 1221. Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from mandatory requirements on ballast water management for control of non-indigenous species in waters of the United States?Not learned 1222. The tanks used for oily waste on a new ocean going cargo ship of 6000 gross tons must meet certain requirements for isolation between oil and bilge systems. These requirements are set forth in __________.Not learned 1223. According to 33 CFR Part 155, a 1500 gross ton freight vessel, with a keel laid in 1969, must have a fuel oil discharge containment for the fuel tank vents. This containment must consist of __________.Not learned 1224. Fuel oil and bulk lubricating oil discharge containment on a 200 gross ton ship (constructed before July 1, 1974) may consist of a/an __________.Not learned 1225. According to U.S. regulations which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment around loading manifolds?Not learned 1226. According to U.S. regulations which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment around loading manifolds?Not learned 1227. For a ship of 10,000 gross tons, constructed after 30 June 1974, a fixed container, or enclosed deck area, must exist under or around each fuel oil tank vent. The container must have a capacity of at least __________.Not learned 1228. According the Pollution Prevention Regulations, a tank vessel with a total capacity of over 250,000 barrels of cargo oil, having two loading arms with a nominal pipe size diameter of 10 inches, must have under each loading manifold a fixed container or an enclosed deck area having a minimum capacity of __________.Not learned 1229. U.S. Coast Guard Regulations require that no person may transfer oil or fuel to a vessel of 3000 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974, unless each fuel tank vent overflow and fill pipe is equipped with a/an __________.Not learned 1230. A tank vessel with an oil cargo capacity of 5000 barrels is required by regulations to have a fixed container, or enclosed deck area under or around each oil loading manifold and each oil transfer connection point. The capacity of these containment areas is based upon __________.Not learned 1231. A ship of 6000 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974, must have a fixed container, or enclosed deck area under or around each fuel oil vent, overflow, and fill pipe. This fixed container, or enclosed deck area must have a capacity of at least __________.Not learned 1232. Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 1233. When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________.Not learned 1234. In the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck occurring while fueling, you should __________.Not learned 1235. In the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck occurring while fueling, you should __________.Not learned 1236. When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________.Not learned 1237. The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of __________.Not learned 1238. A method NOT usually allowed for cleaning up oil spills would be the use of __________.Not learned 1239. The use of sinking and dispersing agents for the removal of surface oil is __________.Not learned 1240. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical agents would __________.Not learned 1241. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?Not learned 1242. If 1/4 liter of oil is spilled during fueling and causes a sheen upon the water, it __________.Not learned 1243. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require that all oil spills in United States waters be reported immediately to the __________.Not learned 1244. If 1/4 liter of oil is spilled during fueling and causes a sheen upon the water, it __________.Not learned 1245. According to U.S. regulations, tank vessels with greater than 250 barrels capacity are required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device does which of the following?Not learned 1246. What do the emergency shutdown requirements of U.S. regulations apply to?Not learned 1247. Which of the following represents an emergency procedure used to stop the oil flow aboard tank vessels, of 250 tons or greater, as required by U.S. regulations?Not learned 1248. When you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel, what should your first action be?Not learned 1249. You are taking on fuel when you notice oil in the water around your vessel. You should immediately stop fueling and __________.Not learned 1250. What is the FIRST action to take if you detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging petroleum products?Not learned 1251. While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the water around the vessel. What should you do FIRST?Not learned 1252. Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shoreside facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?Not learned 1253. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations, any discharge of oil, or oily mixture into the sea from any oil tanker, or from any ship of 400 gross tons and above, other than an oil tanker, is prohibited while in a "special" area. These "special areas" are designated in __________.Not learned 1254. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations, any ship operating under the authority of the United States which engages in coastwise or international voyages is prohibited from discharging any oil or oily mixture overboard while in a "special area". The descriptions of the "special areas" are designated in __________.Not learned 1255. The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR Subchapter O, means __________.Not learned 1256. The term "oil" as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) means: __________.Not learned 1257. The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) includes __________.Not learned 1258. Which of the following is considered "discharge" as it applies to the pollution regulations?Not learned 1259. The word "discharge" as used in Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 151) applies to oil __________.Not learned 1260. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), which of the following qualifies as a discharge of oil?Not learned 1261. The Exclusive Economic Zone extends from the baseline of territorial sea of the United States seaward ___________.Not learned 1262. The International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate required by MARPOL is issued to U.S. flag MODUs by the __________.Not learned 1263. Under the regulations implementing MARPOL, a mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have an International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate when the unit __________.Not learned 1264. International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificates are required for each U.S. oil tanker at or above how many gross registered tons?Not learned 1265. According to MARPOL, the definition of gray water includes drainage from __________.Not learned 1266. In accordance with MARPOL (), the definition of oil does NOT include which of the following?Not learned 1267. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless the __________.Not learned 1268. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless __________.Not learned 1269. According to U.S. regulations, which of the following describes the declaration of inspection?Not learned 1270. A oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless which of the following conditions is present?Not learned 1271. U.S. regulations require all tankships of 150 GT and above and all other ships of 400 GT and above, to prepare and maintain which of the following?Not learned 1272. According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________.Not learned 1273. Which of the following is NOT a mandatory requirement of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?Not learned 1274. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?Not learned 1275. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 1276. When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.Not learned 1277. Which of the following is required to have a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 1278. According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires after __________.Not learned 1279. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required to be reviewed __________.Not learned 1280. Which statement is TRUE when reviewing a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 1281. Which of the following describes heavy fuel oils when they have been spilled?Not learned 1282. What would be the minimum distance from any shoreline that a vessel must be located before it is permitted to perform a complete ballast water exchange to be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management Regulations?Not learned 1283. Ocean vessel Ballast Water Management Regulations can be found in __________.Not learned 1284. To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage?Not learned 1285. To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage?Not learned 1286. Which of the following is considered "discharge" as it applies to the pollution regulations?Not learned 1287. Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws?Not learned 1288. The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to what duration?Not learned 1289. What does the MARPOL 73/78 convention deal with?Not learned 1290. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for vessels of 400 gross tons and above which are all required to carry an oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is the design criteria in terms of maximum oil content of the overboard discharge?Not learned 1291. In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for U.S. non- oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?Not learned 1292. In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for U.S. non- oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?Not learned 1293. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?Not learned 1294. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?Not learned 1295. In accordance with the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), continuing violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 1296. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?Not learned 1297. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in any waters?Not learned 1298. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all garbage applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 1299. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all garbage applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 1300. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 1301. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 1302. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of 400 gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which of the following discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description of the contents of the garbage?Not learned 1303. In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for U.S. non- oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?Not learned 1304. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?Not learned 1305. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 1306. A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by ______.Not learned 1307. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O, which of the following is NOT a MARPOL, Annex V, special area?Not learned 1308. According to Coast Guard regulations (33 CFR), which of the following describes items pertinent to waste management plans?Not learned 1309. According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 CFR 151), who is responsible for insuring that a ship is not operated unless a waste management plan is utilized?Not learned 1310. According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 Part 151), which of the following statements is accurate concerning the discharge of garbage?Not learned 1311. According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 Part 151), pertaining to the discharge of plastic or garbage mixed with plastic, what statement is true?Not learned 1312. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a vessel operating upon the Great Lakes shall __________.Not learned 1313. Victual waste is __________.Not learned 1314. According to Code of Federal Regulations 33, grinders or comminuters used for the discharge of garbage between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the nearest land must be __________.Not learned 1315. A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration located 10 nautical miles from nearest land MAY discharge which of the following?Not learned 1316. No person may discharge garbage from a vessel located near a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration at a distance of less than __________.Not learned 1317. A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least __________.Not learned 1318. Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 1319. In accordance with MARPOL (33 CFR Subchapter O), the definition of medical waste does NOT include which of the following?Not learned 1320. Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea?Not learned 1321. Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea?Not learned 1322. How many miles out to sea must a vessel be located before it can pump overboard an untreated sewage holding tank?Not learned 1323. According to 33 CFR, records of garbage disposal are required to be maintained __________.Not learned 1324. Which statement regarding garbage disposal is correct?Not learned 1325. According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________.Not learned 1326. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when off-loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and which of the following?Not learned 1327. According to 33 CFR Part 151, when off loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify the ships name and __________.Not learned 1328. The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________.Not learned 1329. According to 33 CFR Part 151, a vessel sailing through specific "special areas" may discharge or dispose of __________.Not learned 1330. Plastic garbage bags containing comminuted paper and rags may only be discharged __________.Not learned 1331. Comminuted or ground garbage which will be discharged into the sea must be able to pass through a screen with a mesh size no larger than __________.Not learned 1332. Which CFR regulation identifies the placard to be posted on the vessel describing the proper disposal of garbage?Not learned 1333. Regulations concerning the recordkeeping requirements of shipboard garbage disposal can be found in _______.Not learned 1334. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in any waters?Not learned 1335. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all garbage applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 1336. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 1337. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of plastics into the sea or the navigable waters of the United States is strictly prohibited. Which of following statements is true concerning the legal disposal of plastics?Not learned 1338. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of 400 gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which of the following discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description of the contents of the garbage?Not learned 1339. How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank vessels to be tested?Not learned 1340. Which of the listed pressure vessels is normally exempt from hydrostatic testing at the regular Coast Guard inspection for certification occurring four years after the initial inspection?Not learned 1341. It is necessary to test the hydraulic system of a controllable pitch propeller. According to 46 CFR what should be done?Not learned 1342. According to Title 46 CFR, of the equipment listed below, which equipment must be tested NOT more than 12 hours prior to getting underway from a U.S. port when the voyage is to be of 48 hours or greater duration?Not learned 1343. U.S. regulations require any tankship making a voyage of over 48 hours duration to conduct certain tests not more than 12 hours prior to leaving port. Which of the following must be tested to meet this requirement?Not learned 1344. According to 46 CFR Part 61, which of the following machinery remote control shutdowns is/are required to be tested during each regular inspection for certification?Not learned 1345. According to 46 CFR Part 61, which of the following machinery remote control shutdowns is/are required to be tested during each regular inspection for certification?Not learned 1346. Prior to the burning or welding of a fuel tank on a MODU, regulations require that an inspection be made. An entry in the unofficial logbook is required if this inspection is made by __________.Not learned 1347. The record of tests and inspection of firefighting equipment on board a MODU must include __________.Not learned 1348. How long must the records of tests and inspections of fire fighting equipment for a MODU be retained on board?Not learned 1349. What must be entered in the unofficial logbook by the master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit after conducting a fire drill?Not learned 1350. After conducting a boat drill, the master or person in charge of MODU shall log __________.Not learned 1351. After conducting a boat drill on a mobile offshore drilling unit, which of the following is the master or person in charge required to enter into the logbook?Not learned 1352. With regard to the opening and closing of watertight integrity appliances not fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system, what must the Master or person in charge of a MODU enter in the logbook?Not learned 1353. Lifeboat winches on a MODU are required to be inspected and an entry made in the logbook. What should this entry include?Not learned 1354. The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to log __________.Not learned 1355. Coast Guard regulations for small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons require drydocking or hauling out at intervals not to exceed 18 months if operated in __________.Not learned 1356. Small passenger vessel of less than 100 gross tons shall be drydocked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 36 months if it is operated in saltwater a total of___________.Not learned 1357. Small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons shall be drydocked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 60 months if it operates __________.Not learned 1358. During the inspection for certification of small passenger vessel of less than 100 gross tons, a hydrostatic test of 1-1/4 times the maximum allowable working pressure shall be made to __________.Not learned 1359. On small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons, watertight doors and watertight hatches are __________.Not learned 1360. According to 46 CFR Part 199, on a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced is more than __________.Not learned 1361. A fire and boat drill on a tank vessel shall, by regulation, include __________.Not learned 1362. Which of the following events shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?Not learned 1363. According to 46 CFR Part 199, on a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced is more than __________.Not learned 1364. On a MODU, a fire drill shall be conducted once every __________.Not learned 1365. During a fire drill on a MODU, which of the following actions is required to be carried out?Not learned 1366. How often must the emergency generator be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?Not learned 1367. Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least __________.Not learned 1368. On a MODU, firefighting equipment must be inspected once every __________.Not learned 1369. On a MODU, watertight doors should be operated __________.Not learned 1370. The date of each fire and boat drill conducted on a MODU must be recorded __________.Not learned 1371. Each hand portable, semi-portable, and fixed fire extinguishing unit on a MODU must be tested and inspected at least once every __________.Not learned 1372. Records of tests and inspections of all fire extinguishing systems onboard a cargo vessel shall be kept onboard __________.Not learned 1373. Which of the following statements is true regarding the operational testing and inspecting of a cargo vessel's lifesaving equipment by the ship's force?Not learned 1374. During the required periodic abandon ship drill aboard a MODU, each person not assigned duties in the muster list is __________.Not learned 1375. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them __________.Not learned 1376. According to U.S. regulations, how often are you are required to test cargo discharge piping?Not learned 1377. If your asphalt barge has operated more than 12 months in saltwater in the 24-month period since it was last dry-docked, when is it required to be hauled out again?Not learned 1378. Who will certify the vessel to be gas free before entering the shipyard?Not learned 1379. Dry-docking for a vessel not enrolled in an underwater survey program in lieu of drydocking is due at what interval?Not learned 1380. The firefighting equipment on your general cargo vessel was last inspected by a shore side contractor 12 months ago. To remain in compliance with the Federal Code of Regulations (46 CFR), as Chief Engineer, what should your appropriate action be?Not learned 1381. Prior to getting underway on the navigable waters of the United States your vessel must conduct tests according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways safety that test equipment necessary for vessel propulsion, maneuvering, emergency power, communications, alarms, and control. Within how many hours of getting underway must these tests be performed?Not learned 1382. Prior to getting underway on the navigable waters of the United States, within 12 hours, according to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety, certain tests are required. Which of the following are included in the tests that must be performed? 1) Operation of the main propulsion machinery, ahead and astern. 2) Operation of the low lube oil pressure trip on the main engine. 3) Operation of the reverse power relay on the emergency generator. 4) Operation of the over speed trip on the ship's service diesel generator. 5) Operation of the emergency generator.Not learned 1383. Your ship is leaving port after almost a complete crew change out. The captain has ordered a fire drill simulating a fire in the engine room with full emergency gear and all hoses run out. What is the reason for drilling with this kind of simulation?Not learned 1384. Watertight doors on cargo vessels must be examined and tested by a Coast Guard inspector __________.Not learned 1385. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a single steel hull cargo vessel operating exclusively in freshwater, shall be drydocked, or hauled out, at intervals not to exceed __________.Not learned 1386. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the hailing port marked on the stern of a vessel indicates __________.Not learned 1387. An international and coastwise load line assignment and certificate has been issued to a vessel by the American Bureau of Shipping, under the authority of Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), for a period of __________.Not learned 1388. Who is responsible for completing the Muster List ("Station Bill") or muster list and posting it in a visible area aboard the vessel?Not learned 1389. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency?Not learned 1390. The unlicensed crew requirements listed on the Certificate of Inspection reads as follows: 3 firemen/water tenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to depart on a foreign voyage, and has in the crew: 3 firemen/water tenders, 2 oilers, and one man, whose merchant mariner's document is endorsed QMED, any rating. You should __________.Not learned 1391. The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to operate your vessel can be determined by checking the __________.Not learned 1392. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a steam propelled cargo vessel over 25 gross tons may have a Certificate of Inspection issued for __________.Not learned 1393. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a steam propelled cargo vessel over 25 gross tons may have a Certificate of Inspection issued for __________.Not learned 1394. Temporary Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are effective until the __________.Not learned 1395. According to 46 CFR Part 91, a temporary Certificate of Inspection, Form CG-854, may be issued to a self propelled cargo vessel __________.Not learned 1396. According to 46 CFR Part 91, which of the following statements concerning a vessel's Coast Guard Certificate of Inspection and associated inspections is correct?Not learned 1397. The Certificate of Inspection for your vessel was issued in January. In March of the same year, you need to replace a cooling water pump for the refrigeration system. What action would be appropriate?Not learned 1398. The minimum firefighting equipment to be maintained onboard a tank vessel, can be determined from the __________.Not learned 1399. The vessel's firefighting equipment is listed on the __________.Not learned 1400. Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?Not learned 1401. To determine the number of industrial personnel allowed on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.Not learned 1402. To determine the number of inflatable liferafts required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.Not learned 1403. According to the regulations for mobile offshore drilling units, 'industrial personnel' are considered to be all persons carried on the MODU for the sole purpose of carrying out the industrial business of the unit, except for __________.Not learned 1404. Certificates of Inspection for offshore drilling units are issued for a period of __________.Not learned 1405. To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on a mobile offshore drilling unit, you should check the __________.Not learned 1406. Many uninspected vessels require load lines to indicate the maximum __________.Not learned 1407. Which document will describe lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?Not learned 1408. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.Not learned 1409. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the __________.Not learned 1410. In order to find out which liferaft you are assigned, you should look on the __________.Not learned 1411. Where should muster lists be posted?Not learned 1412. In order to find out which liferaft you are assigned, you should look on the __________.Not learned 1413. In order to find out which liferaft you are assigned, you should look on the __________.Not learned 1414. Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?Not learned 1415. Your assigned emergency stations aboard your vessel can be found on the ship's __________.Not learned 1416. You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the __________.Not learned 1417. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the __________.Not learned 1418. Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?Not learned 1419. You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the __________.Not learned 1420. Your assigned emergency stations aboard your vessel can be found on the ship's __________.Not learned 1421. Coast Guard Regulations 46 CFR, stipulate that in addition to emergency signals, muster lists must specify _________.Not learned 1422. Coast Guard Regulations 46 CFR, stipulate that in addition to emergency signals, muster lists must specify _________.Not learned 1423. Coast Guard Regulations 46 CFR, stipulate that in addition to emergency signals, muster lists must specify _________.Not learned 1424. The Muster List ("Station Bill") of a MODU must be signed by the __________.Not learned 1425. What information must be entered on the MODU Muster List ("Station Bill")?Not learned 1426. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 199), all United States merchant vessels are required to have muster lists to be posted __________.Not learned 1427. Each person on the rig has a designated area to proceed to in the event of a fire. This assignment is shown clearly on which of the following documents?Not learned 1428. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) states that duties assigned to the crew by the Muster List ("Station Bill") will __________.Not learned 1429. A re-inspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?Not learned 1430. What is NOT a requirement of the reinspection for a tank barge with a certificate of inspection valid for two years?Not learned 1431. What certificate verifies that a liquefied gas tanker complies with the requirements with regard to their structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, and materials?Not learned 1432. Your ship's Second Engineer falls while working in the engine room in port and is taken to the hospital and found unfit for duty. As Chief Engineer you inform the USCG of the accident. The Coast Guard officer you talk with asks if you have the correct complement of crew to proceed to your next port. How would you determine if the ship has the correct number of persons with the corresponding ratings required to proceed to the next port?Not learned 1433. A Coast Guard engineer's license can be suspended or revoked for __________.Not learned 1434. Your Coast Guard engineer's license __________.Not learned 1435. A Coast Guard issued engineer's license may be suspended or revoked for __________.Not learned 1436. How often must a U.S. Coast Guard engineering license be renewed?Not learned 1437. The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include __________.Not learned 1438. Which of the following conditions require the Coast Guard Officer in Charge of Marine Inspection be notified?Not learned 1439. Which of the following would require the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection be notified?Not learned 1440. A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $30,000(USD) damage to the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________.Not learned 1441. Oil sprays on to a hot piece of machinery, catches fire and causes $35,000 damage to your vessel. By law this must be reported to the __________.Not learned 1442. If hot oil comes in contact with a diesel engine turbocharger, catches fire, and causes in excess of $(USA)25,000 damage to your ship, by law this must be reported to the __________.Not learned 1443. A saltwater leak shorts out your switchboard causing a fire which does $(USA)27,500 damage to the electrical equipment. This must be reported to the __________.Not learned 1444. An air tank rusts out, explodes and causes $(USA) 24,000 damage to the engine room. By law, this accident is required to be reported to __________.Not learned 1445. According to 46 CFRs, the master of a commercial vessel is required to submit a marine casualty report form CG 2692 to the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office if ______.Not learned 1446. An air tank rusts out, explodes, and causes in excess of $(USA)25,000 damage to the engine room. By law according to 46 CFR Part 4, this accident must be reported to the __________.Not learned 1447. A 'Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death', Coast Guard form 2692, must be filed with the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection when a shipboard casualty results in __________.Not learned 1448. According to 46 CFR, when estimating the cost of collision damage to a tank vessel after a marine accident, which of the following should NOT be included in the repair cost estimate?Not learned 1449. According to 46 CFR, when estimating the cost of collision damage to a tank vessel after a marine accident, which of the following should NOT be included in the repair cost estimate?Not learned 1450. Major repairs or alterations affecting the safety of small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons shall __________.Not learned 1451. After a fire aboard a MODU, the Coast Guard must be notified if there is death, an injury resulting in more than 72% incapacitation, or property damage in excess of __________.Not learned 1452. Who is responsible for reporting a casualty to a mobile offshore drilling unit?Not learned 1453. Who shall insure that all records required by regulations are retained onboard a mobile offshore drilling unit involved in a casualty?Not learned 1454. In the event of a casualty to a MODU, who is responsible to make records available to the Coast Guard official authorized to investigate the casualty?Not learned 1455. In the case of an injury causing a person to be incapacitated, the Master or person in charge of a mobile offshore drilling unit must submit a report to the __________.Not learned 1456. According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life __________.Not learned 1457. According to regulations, a Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a report of a loss of life __________.Not learned 1458. The master or person-in-charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an international grounding under what condition?Not learned 1459. The Master or person in charge of a MODU is required to submit a casualty report of an intentional grounding when it __________.Not learned 1460. To which of the listed authorities must a MODU report a collision with an aid to navigation?Not learned 1461. What accident situation is considered a Serious Marine Incident?Not learned 1462. According to 46 CFR's, all mariners directly involved in a "Serious Marine Incident" are required to submit a urine specimen for screening of dangerous drug use within ______.Not learned 1463. According to 46 CFR's, all mariners directly involved in a "Serious Marine Incident" are required to submit to alcohol testing within ______.Not learned 1464. Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner involved in the incident is prohibited from consuming alcohol until after being tested or which time frame?Not learned 1465. According to 46 CFR's, besides analyzing a mariner's breath for alcohol, what other specimen would be acceptable for alcohol level testing following a "Serious Marine Incident"?Not learned 1466. What will be the FIRST thing to occur if both the main and standby lube oil pumps failed to operate on a geared main propulsion steam turbine operating at full sea speed?Not learned 1467. If it should become necessary to abandon a compartment because of the danger of a large steam leak on a boiler, which of the following actions represents the best avenue of escape?Not learned 1468. As soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal, you should ensure that __________.Not learned 1469. Which of the following actions should be taken by the engine room watch when the general alarm is sounded continuously?Not learned 1470. Which of the following actions should be taken by the engine room watch when the general alarm is sounded continuously?Not learned 1471. When the general alarm is sounded continuously, the engine room personnel should __________.Not learned 1472. While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous sounding of the general alarm. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 1473. While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous sounding of the general alarm. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST?Not learned 1474. As soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal, you should ensure that the __________.Not learned 1475. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following should you do FIRST?Not learned 1476. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?Not learned 1477. You notice a large amount of smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, accompanied by the odor of burning cotton fabric. After activating the fire alarm, your next course of action should be to ______.Not learned 1478. During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST __________.Not learned 1479. Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________.Not learned 1480. Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect __________.Not learned 1481. If double bottom fuel tank levels are found to have increased after a ship's grounding, you should suspect __________.Not learned 1482. When abandoning ship in an emergency situation, you should __________.Not learned 1483. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.Not learned 1484. A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of the following?Not learned 1485. When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning a MODU?Not learned 1486. On board a mobile offshore drilling unit, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.Not learned 1487. A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of the following?Not learned 1488. On board a mobile offshore drilling unit, the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation is __________.Not learned 1489. When entering the pump room of a tank vessel to rescue an unconscious person, which items of the equipment listed are you required to be using?Not learned 1490. A crew member has been overcome by toxic fumes in the pump room. Which of the following actions should be taken before entering the pump room to rescue the victim?Not learned 1491. Which of the following is considered as the correct action for the rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere?Not learned 1492. Which of the following procedures is always recommended in the rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere?Not learned 1493. While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle, supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm bells. You should __________.Not learned 1494. If you hear more than six short blasts, followed by one long blast on the whistle, and supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm, you should __________.Not learned 1495. You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do?Not learned 1496. While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing. Your FIRST response should be to __________.Not learned 1497. Which of the following statements is true concerning the actions of a properly organized rescue party for removing an unconscious victim from a tank containing toxic vapors?Not learned 1498. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.Not learned 1499. You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do?Not learned 1500. You are making a round of the engine room and while entering the cargo pump room, you discover a person laying at the bottom of the ladder. What action should be taken first?Not learned 1501. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1502. You are reviewing emergency procedures with new crew members. How would you direct them to proceed if they hear the fire and emergency signal on the ship's general alarm or whistle?Not learned 1503. The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on a OSV is lowered to the water, launched, and operated at least once every __________.Not learned 1504. All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.Not learned 1505. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 1506. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 1507. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?Not learned 1508. Information on the specification of a rescue boat can be found by __________.Not learned 1509. For the purpose of training and drills, rescue boats on an OSV should be launched if reasonable and practicable __________.Not learned 1510. The rescue boat on an OSV is not required to carry a _____________ .Not learned 1511. The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include __________.Not learned 1512. The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include one __________.Not learned 1513. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make __________.Not learned 1514. You are picking up a person who has fallen overboard. A rescue boat should be maneuvered to normally approach the victim with the __________.Not learned 1515. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat. In a mild breeze how should the boat approach the person in the water?Not learned 1516. The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line with a breaking strain of 3,000 lbs or be strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded liferaft at which speed?Not learned 1517. If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, which is the best action to take?Not learned 1518. When jumping into water upon which there is an oil fire, you should __________.Not learned 1519. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?Not learned 1520. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.Not learned 1521. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?Not learned 1522. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?Not learned 1523. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?Not learned 1524. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?Not learned 1525. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.Not learned 1526. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.Not learned 1527. If you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning your vessel, it will __________.Not learned 1528. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?Not learned 1529. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?Not learned 1530. If you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning your vessel, it will __________.Not learned 1531. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.Not learned 1532. When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning a MODU?Not learned 1533. During an evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.Not learned 1534. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.Not learned 1535. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.Not learned 1536. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.Not learned 1537. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.Not learned 1538. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.Not learned 1539. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.Not learned 1540. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, which presents the greatest danger?Not learned 1541. In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.Not learned 1542. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.Not learned 1543. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?Not learned 1544. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?Not learned 1545. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.Not learned 1546. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to which personnel?Not learned 1547. When should food and water be provided to survivors after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?Not learned 1548. Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the drinking routine should include __________.Not learned 1549. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 1550. Drinking salt water will __________.Not learned 1551. Sea water may be used for drinking water __________.Not learned 1552. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?Not learned 1553. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?Not learned 1554. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 1555. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 1556. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 1557. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 1558. During severe storms when survival becomes a major concern, it may become necessary to relieve high anchor tensions on the windward side of the unit by __________.Not learned 1559. Survival practice in the mooring system is to slack off the tensions on the leeward side and __________.Not learned 1560. If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should first __________.Not learned 1561. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?Not learned 1562. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?Not learned 1563. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?Not learned 1564. When should food and water be provided to survivors after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?Not learned 1565. Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the drinking routine should include __________.Not learned 1566. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.Not learned 1567. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, what should be your main course of action?Not learned 1568. If you are forced to abandon ship in a survival craft, you should __________.Not learned 1569. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?Not learned 1570. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 1571. The zipper of an immersion suit should be lubricated with __________.Not learned 1572. An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.Not learned 1573. Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is correct?Not learned 1574. According to 46 CFRs Part 199, for each passenger vessel normally operating above 32 degrees north latitude, the minimum number of immersion suits to be carried for each lifeboat is at least __________.Not learned 1575. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1576. Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1577. Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is correct?Not learned 1578. Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is correct?Not learned 1579. Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is correct?Not learned 1580. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1581. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 1582. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?Not learned 1583. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 1584. You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which is the BEST action to be taken?Not learned 1585. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 1586. The immersion suit requirements for OSV apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean in which latitudes?Not learned 1587. The immersion suit requirements for OSV apply to units operating in the Atlantic Ocean in which latitudes?Not learned 1588. Each person on a MODU carrying immersion suits must wear the immersion suit in a boat drill, or participate in a drill which includes donning the suit and being instructed in its use at least once every __________.Not learned 1589. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?Not learned 1590. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?Not learned 1591. An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) ____________.Not learned 1592. Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is correct?Not learned 1593. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1594. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1595. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1596. Each emergency light must be marked with __________.Not learned 1597. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________.Not learned 1598. How shall Lifesaving equipment be stowed?Not learned 1599. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 1600. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 1601. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 1602. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 1603. When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?Not learned 1604. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.Not learned 1605. Approved buoyant work vests may be carried aboard tank vessels and shall be worn by crew members __________.Not learned 1606. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________.Not learned 1607. Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests__________.Not learned 1608. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 1609. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning life-jackets?Not learned 1610. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?Not learned 1611. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 1612. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning lifejackets?Not learned 1613. Where would you find a list of the lifesaving equipment onboard your supply boat?Not learned 1614. In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that are readily accessible, lifejackets must also be stowed at ___________.Not learned 1615. On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?Not learned 1616. Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.Not learned 1617. On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?Not learned 1618. Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.Not learned 1619. On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?Not learned 1620. On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?Not learned 1621. Of the required ring life buoys for a MODU, how many must be equipped with a water light?Not learned 1622. What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on a MODU?Not learned 1623. What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on an OSV on ocean service ?Not learned 1624. Of the required ring life buoys for an OSV on ocean service, how many must be equipped with a water light?Not learned 1625. The light on a personal flotation device on a MODU must be replaced __________.Not learned 1626. The light on a personal flotation device on a OSV must be replaced __________.Not learned 1627. A life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be worn on a MODU when a person is __________.Not learned 1628. How often is the line throwing appliance required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?Not learned 1629. Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?Not learned 1630. For an OSV not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected type line throwing appliance is a __________.Not learned 1631. Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?Not learned 1632. For an OSV not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected type line throwing appliance is a __________.Not learned 1633. How often is the line throwing appliance required to be tested on an OSV ?Not learned 1634. Each OSV must carry __________.Not learned 1635. Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.Not learned 1636. Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.Not learned 1637. Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________.Not learned 1638. Category 1 EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.Not learned 1639. After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, which is the appropriate action to take?Not learned 1640. If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to __________.Not learned 1641. Each EPIRB required on a OSV, other than an EPIRB or SART in an inflatable liferaft, shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.Not learned 1642. Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?Not learned 1643. After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, which is the appropriate action to take?Not learned 1644. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?Not learned 1645. Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.Not learned 1646. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?Not learned 1647. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a life raft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.Not learned 1648. According to 46 CFR Part 96, the recommended equipment for fireman's outfit includes a lifeline. The lifeline should be __________.Not learned 1649. The recommended equipment for a pump room rescue aboard a tank vessel is a lifeline, harness, and breathing apparatus. The regulations state that each approved lifeline must __________.Not learned 1650. The litter on a MODU must be capable of __________.Not learned 1651. A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined as a _______.Not learned 1652. A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water would be correctly called a __________.Not learned 1653. Life jackets should be marked with which item?Not learned 1654. Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?Not learned 1655. How shall Lifesaving equipment be stowed?Not learned 1656. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain which items?Not learned 1657. What is the breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliance?Not learned 1658. Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests__________.Not learned 1659. What is NOT requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a vessel?Not learned 1660. Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must __________.Not learned 1661. Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat includes __________.Not learned 1662. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.Not learned 1663. Required equipment for a lifeboat includes a __________.Not learned 1664. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.Not learned 1665. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, which action should you take?Not learned 1666. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?Not learned 1667. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?Not learned 1668. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter W, the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________.Not learned 1669. The person-in-charge of a MODU shall insure that the fuel tank of each motor-propelled lifeboat is emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once every __________.Not learned 1670. On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat fuel tanks must be emptied and the fuel changed at least once every __________.Not learned 1671. When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 1672. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.Not learned 1673. A frapping line, shown in the illustration, is indicated by number __________Not learned 1674. Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat into the vessel while boarding passengers are called __________.Not learned 1675. Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to accomplish which task?Not learned 1676. What is the purpose of rigging frapping lines on lifeboat falls?Not learned 1677. Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Where is Lifeboat No. 2 located?Not learned 1678. The No. 3 lifeboat would be __________.Not learned 1679. The No. 2 lifeboat on a US flag vessel would normally be found __________.Not learned 1680. The No. 1 lifeboat on a ship would be found __________.Not learned 1681. The No. 2 lifeboat on a vessel would be found __________.Not learned 1682. The person-in-charge shall insure that each rescue boat on a OSV is lowered to the water, launched, and operated at least once every __________.Not learned 1683. A qualified person must be assigned as the second in command of a lifeboat on a MODU if the lifeboat has a capacity of more than __________.Not learned 1684. The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue boats are launched is __________.Not learned 1685. Which of the following persons may command a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 1686. Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the lifeboats and (or) liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling unit?Not learned 1687. The Master or person-in-charge of an OSV shall insure that each deck from which rescue boats are launched is __________.Not learned 1688. All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.Not learned 1689. Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate for how many hours?Not learned 1690. Which of the following is NOT a function of the pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat?Not learned 1691. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.Not learned 1692. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.Not learned 1693. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?Not learned 1694. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 1695. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 1696. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, which is the most important item to check?Not learned 1697. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.Not learned 1698. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 1699. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 1700. Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?Not learned 1701. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the following colors?Not learned 1702. Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?Not learned 1703. A magnetic compass card is marked in how many degrees?Not learned 1704. How many degrees are there on a compass card?Not learned 1705. As a vessel changes course to starboard, which is TRUE concerning the compass card in a magnetic compass?Not learned 1706. As a vessel changes course to starboard, which is TRUE concerning the compass card in a magnetic compass?Not learned 1707. As a vessel changes course to starboard, which is TRUE concerning the compass card in a magnetic compass?Not learned 1708. The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?Not learned 1709. The lubber's line of a magnetic compass __________.Not learned 1710. What does the lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicate?Not learned 1711. Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by___________.Not learned 1712. Which would influence a magnetic compass?Not learned 1713. When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time it should __________.Not learned 1714. A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________.Not learned 1715. A vessel heading NE is on which course?Not learned 1716. A vessel heading NE is on which course?Not learned 1717. A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________.Not learned 1718. A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.Not learned 1719. A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.Not learned 1720. A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.Not learned 1721. A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.Not learned 1722. A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.Not learned 1723. A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.Not learned 1724. A vessel heading NE is on which course?Not learned 1725. If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should ________.Not learned 1726. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.Not learned 1727. The centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a lifeboat handling winch is intended to __________.Not learned 1728. According to 46 CFR Part 199, the maximum lowering speed for a lifeboat on gravity davits must not be more than __________.Not learned 1729. When operating gravity davits, the __________.Not learned 1730. When using the hand crank to retrieve and stow a lifeboat on gravity davits, which of the listed precaution should always be observed?Not learned 1731. Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat?Not learned 1732. It is important to test lifeboat davit limit switches on a regular basis to prevent _________.Not learned 1733. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?Not learned 1734. What is the function of the lifeboat davit limit switches?Not learned 1735. You will find a limit switch on which type of davit?Not learned 1736. Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.Not learned 1737. After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.Not learned 1738. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 1739. As Chief Engineer of a General Cargo Vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, you direct the Third Engineer to perform the annual maintenance on the lifeboat engine. In accordance with 46 CFR, what would you instruct the Third Engineer do when the job has been completed?Not learned 1740. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.Not learned 1741. During an evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, except when __________.Not learned 1742. In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side. This procedure is valid except when which of the following circumstances applies?Not learned 1743. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on which item?Not learned 1744. What is the function of the hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1745. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.Not learned 1746. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by which action?Not learned 1747. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 1748. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 1749. An inflatable liferaft has inflated on top of you in an upside down position. What should you do next?Not learned 1750. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.Not learned 1751. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by taking which action?Not learned 1752. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on which item?Not learned 1753. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.Not learned 1754. Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for _________.Not learned 1755. What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?Not learned 1756. Which item is a feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people inside the raft stationary in rough weather?Not learned 1757. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.Not learned 1758. What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?Not learned 1759. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 1760. Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?Not learned 1761. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?Not learned 1762. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. Which action should you take?Not learned 1763. If you hear the sound of a gas escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated, you should __________.Not learned 1764. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with __________.Not learned 1765. Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.Not learned 1766. Inflatable liferafts are provided with which item?Not learned 1767. The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.Not learned 1768. Inflatable liferafts are provided with which item?Not learned 1769. Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.Not learned 1770. Which item is a safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts?Not learned 1771. What must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1772. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.Not learned 1773. How should an inflatable liferaft be manually released from its cradle?Not learned 1774. What is the most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?Not learned 1775. To launch a liferaft by hand, you should take which actions?Not learned 1776. An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.Not learned 1777. If a raft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?Not learned 1778. Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?Not learned 1779. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.Not learned 1780. If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.Not learned 1781. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1782. What must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?Not learned 1783. Which is TRUE concerning a hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft?Not learned 1784. Under normal conditions, how is a liferaft released from its cradle?Not learned 1785. Where are the lifelines connected to the liferaft?Not learned 1786. Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?Not learned 1787. The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.Not learned 1788. What is the correct procedure to follow when manually launching an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1789. After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, how is the liferaft inflated?Not learned 1790. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1791. To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.Not learned 1792. What is the correct procedure to follow when manually launching an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1793. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?Not learned 1794. After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.Not learned 1795. After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, how is the liferaft inflated?Not learned 1796. To launch a liferaft by hand, you should take which actions?Not learned 1797. The first step to manually launch an inflatable liferaft is to _______.Not learned 1798. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as which item?Not learned 1799. The operating cord of the inflatable liferaft has a length of __________.Not learned 1800. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?Not learned 1801. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 1802. An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. Which of the following actions occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO₂ bottles to inflate the raft?Not learned 1803. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?Not learned 1804. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.Not learned 1805. When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, which task must be done to aid in your rescue?Not learned 1806. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which action will aid in your rescue?Not learned 1807. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which action will aid in your rescue?Not learned 1808. After launching, how can the inside of an inflatable raft be kept dry?Not learned 1809. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, what should be your main course of action?Not learned 1810. The greatest danger in cold temperatures, when at sea in an inflatable liferaft is __________.Not learned 1811. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 1812. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 1813. An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using __________.Not learned 1814. Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship which item(s) would you use?Not learned 1815. An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using __________.Not learned 1816. On most makes of inflatable liferafts, the batteries to operate the light on the inside of the rafts can be made to last longer by __________.Not learned 1817. How is the inside light in an inflatable liferaft activated?Not learned 1818. On most makes of inflatable liferafts, the batteries to operate the light on the inside of the rafts can be made to last longer by __________.Not learned 1819. How do the lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate?Not learned 1820. In accordance with SOLAS regulations, which of the following is true concerning inflatable liferaft battery powered lights?Not learned 1821. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?Not learned 1822. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.Not learned 1823. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.Not learned 1824. What does the air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft provide protection against?Not learned 1825. What does the air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft provide protection against?Not learned 1826. When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.Not learned 1827. Each liferaft container without an indicated maximum stowage height above the waterline, must be stowed at a height not more than __________.Not learned 1828. Each liferaft container without an indicated maximum stowage height above the waterline, must be stowed at a height not more than __________.Not learned 1829. When inspecting a stored inflatable liferaft on deck, you should make sure that the operating cord is _________.Not learned 1830. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?Not learned 1831. Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using which item(s)?Not learned 1832. When making a permanent repair to an inflatable liferaft using a repair kit, how long after the repair is made should you hold off 'topping up' the lost air?Not learned 1833. When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable life raft, the personnel on the raft should __________.Not learned 1834. According to the MODU regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be marked __________.Not learned 1835. The painter on a rigid life raft must have a length sufficient to reach the highest waterline plus an additional __________.Not learned 1836. In the illustration shown, the weak link is identified as item number _____Not learned 1837. In the illustration shown, the hydrostatic release is identified as item number _____Not learned 1838. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____Not learned 1839. The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts on a MODU are a requirement of the __________.Not learned 1840. The instructions for launching lifeboats and liferafts on a MODU are a requirement of the __________.Not learned 1841. The instructions for the launching procedures of controls rescue boats and life rafts on an OSV must be approved by the __________.Not learned 1842. Once the liferaft has cleared the vessel, which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency situation?Not learned 1843. Once the liferaft has cleared the vessel, which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency situation?Not learned 1844. You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?Not learned 1845. The required periodic inspection of MODU lifeboat winch control apparatus must include __________.Not learned 1846. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?Not learned 1847. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?Not learned 1848. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1849. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1850. The float free link attached to a sea painter on an inflatable liferaft has a breaking strength of __________.Not learned 1851. On a rigid liferaft which is equipped with all the required equipment you will NOT find a __________.Not learned 1852. If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.Not learned 1853. Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?Not learned 1854. How should an inflatable liferaft be manually released from its cradle?Not learned 1855. If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.Not learned 1856. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1857. After launching, how can the inside of an inflatable raft be kept dry?Not learned 1858. Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?Not learned 1859. If you find an inflatable liferaft container with the steel bands still in place around its case, which action should you take?Not learned 1860. Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using which item(s)?Not learned 1861. Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using which item(s)?Not learned 1862. Which item is a feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people inside the raft stationary in rough weather?Not learned 1863. What is the function of the hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1864. The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.Not learned 1865. The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.Not learned 1866. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?Not learned 1867. Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1868. Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1869. The painter of an inflatable liferaft must have a minimum length of __________.Not learned 1870. Where are the lifelines connected to the liferaft?Not learned 1871. On vessels on an international voyage, each inflatable liferaft shall have a carrying capacity of not less than __________.Not learned 1872. A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry which items?Not learned 1873. A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry which items?Not learned 1874. When scheduled service is required on an inflatable liferaft, who should perform the tests and inspections?Not learned 1875. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?Not learned 1876. Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed which time frame?Not learned 1877. When must an inflatable liferaft that has been repacked be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility?Not learned 1878. In the illustration, the sea painter is item number __________Not learned 1879. In the illustration shown, where would you find the knifeNot learned 1880. In the illustration shown, the righting strap is shown as item number __________Not learned 1881. In the illustration, which item correctly identifies the ballast bagsNot learned 1882. The external recognition light can be seen for up to two miles and is shown as item number__________Not learned 1883. In the illustration shown, the pressure relief valve is indicated as item number __________Not learned 1884. In the illustration shown, the external lifelines are shown as item number __________Not learned 1885. As shown in the illustration, item #8 would be a(n) __________Not learned 1886. In the illustration shown, the CO₂ tripping lanyard is item number __________Not learned 1887. In the illustration shown, the weak link is item __________Not learned 1888. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____Not learned 1889. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?Not learned 1890. When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, how should you activate the signal?Not learned 1891. When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, you should __________.Not learned 1892. When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, you should __________.Not learned 1893. All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.Not learned 1894. All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.Not learned 1895. The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.Not learned 1896. The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft winch system __________.Not learned 1897. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.Not learned 1898. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 1899. At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft is required to last which duration of time?Not learned 1900. A right-handed propeller will cause the survival craft to __________.Not learned 1901. The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to __________.Not learned 1902. During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to __________.Not learned 1903. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.Not learned 1904. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF which condition exists?Not learned 1905. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________.Not learned 1906. With the air supply on, the air pressure in the survival craft will be __________.Not learned 1907. The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with __________.Not learned 1908. An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.Not learned 1909. How is the "off-load" release system on a survival craft designed to be activated?Not learned 1910. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.Not learned 1911. Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________.Not learned 1912. The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a __________.Not learned 1913. If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see __________.Not learned 1914. If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be __________.Not learned 1915. To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________.Not learned 1916. The air regeneration canister on a survival craft is designed to __________.Not learned 1917. The air regeneration canister on a survival craft should last approximately __________.Not learned 1918. When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should take which action?Not learned 1919. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 1920. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 1921. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.Not learned 1922. When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.Not learned 1923. When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.Not learned 1924. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 1925. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.Not learned 1926. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 1927. If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first __________.Not learned 1928. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 1929. With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from __________.Not learned 1930. MODU survival craft is manufactured with fire retardant __________.Not learned 1931. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.Not learned 1932. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?Not learned 1933. Davit launched lifeboats must be equipped with __________.Not learned 1934. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?Not learned 1935. During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________.Not learned 1936. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 1937. Your rescue craft is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by taking which action?Not learned 1938. When a sea anchor for survival craft is properly rigged, it will __________.Not learned 1939. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 1940. A sea anchor is __________.Not learned 1941. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using which item(s)?Not learned 1942. The sea anchor shown as item number 18 will NOT __________Not learned 1943. In the illustration, the sea anchor is shown as item number __________Not learned 1944. Archimedes' principle states that the resultant pressure acting on a body immersed in a fluid __________.Not learned 1945. In diagram "A", shown in the illustration, what is the displacement of the vessel when it is at a six foot (1.829 m) draftNot learned 1946. When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the __________.Not learned 1947. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.Not learned 1948. When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.Not learned 1949. Flooding of any ship's compartment, resulting in a serious loss of reserve buoyancy, will always __________.Not learned 1950. Flooding of any ship's compartment, resulting in a serious loss of reserve buoyancy, will always __________.Not learned 1951. If a vessel loses its reserve buoyancy, it will __________.Not learned 1952. The reserve buoyancy of a ship consists of __________.Not learned 1953. The reserve buoyancy of a vessel varies directly with changes in the vessel's __________.Not learned 1954. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?Not learned 1955. A vessel behaves as if all of its weight is acting downward through the center of gravity, and all its support is acting upward through which point?Not learned 1956. A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through which point?Not learned 1957. When a vessel is inclined due to an external force, such as the action of seas in which no cargo shifts, the tendency of the vessel to return to its original position is caused by the shift in __________.Not learned 1958. Initial stability is indicated by __________.Not learned 1959. Which of the listed initials is used to represent the indicator of initial stability?Not learned 1960. In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.Not learned 1961. The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known as the __________.Not learned 1962. With regards to the metacentric height, which of the following statements is true?Not learned 1963. Why can the vessel's GM not be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination?Not learned 1964. Which term is used for the horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces?Not learned 1965. The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and which other item?Not learned 1966. The value of the maximum righting arm is dependent upon the position of the center of buoyancy and the __________.Not learned 1967. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.Not learned 1968. Which term defines the upward pressure of displaced water of a vessel?Not learned 1969. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.Not learned 1970. At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.Not learned 1971. Initial stability refers to stability __________.Not learned 1972. If the buoyant force on a ship's hull is equal to or greater than the displacement tonnage, the ship will __________.Not learned 1973. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?Not learned 1974. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.Not learned 1975. The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the method for determining the exact location of the __________.Not learned 1976. The purpose of the a vessels "inclining experiment" is to __________.Not learned 1977. Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel. These points are the center of buoyancy and the __________.Not learned 1978. When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is referred to by which term?Not learned 1979. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.Not learned 1980. The important initial stability parameter, GM, is which of the following?Not learned 1981. The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the __________.Not learned 1982. When a vessel is floating upright, which term is used to define the distance from the keel to the metacenter of a vessel?Not learned 1983. When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is referred to by which term?Not learned 1984. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.Not learned 1985. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.Not learned 1986. If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are no movable or moving weights onboard, the center of gravity will __________.Not learned 1987. If additional weight is placed on the main deck of the vessel shown in the illustration __________Not learned 1988. If weight is added at the keel, the ship's center of gravity will __________.Not learned 1989. If weight is added at "K" to the ship shown in the illustration, __________Not learned 1990. The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest when all double-bottom fuel and water tanks are full because the __________.Not learned 1991. A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the __________.Not learned 1992. The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest when all double-bottom fuel and water tanks are full because the __________.Not learned 1993. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.Not learned 1994. Any single ship's compartment sustaining partial flooding with free communication to the sea will __________.Not learned 1995. Clogged limber holes can endanger a ship's stability by __________.Not learned 1996. At all angles of inclination, which is the true measure of a vessel's stability?Not learned 1997. A vessel which has been holed as shown in the illustration, will probably __________Not learned 1998. Longitudinal stability indicates the tendency of a ship to resist a _______.Not learned 1999. What standard mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels waterplane area for stability purposes?Not learned 2000. The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called __________.Not learned 2001. Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as __________.Not learned 2002. The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called __________.Not learned 2003. Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 2004. The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as __________.Not learned 2005. Heave is the motion of a vessel along the __________.Not learned 2006. Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is known as __________.Not learned 2007. Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 2008. Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 2009. Transverse oscillating rotation about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as __________.Not learned 2010. Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 2011. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 2012. A vessel having a concentration of weight toward the top of the vessel is said to be __________.Not learned 2013. A ballast tank is one-third full when additional ballast is added until it is two-thirds full. The increased amount of liquid in the tank will have the greatest influence on the __________.Not learned 2014. What is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above the main deck?Not learned 2015. What is the usual effect of moving weight from the main deck to a position lower in the vessel?Not learned 2016. You can generally improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous situation by __________.Not learned 2017. Which of the listed conditions will occur to the ship's center of gravity if 200 tons of steel is transferred to the ships cargo hold from shore side?Not learned 2018. The factor contributing to the greatest effect on the ship's period of roll is the __________.Not learned 2019. The factor contributing to the greatest effect on the ship's period of roll is the __________.Not learned 2020. If your vessel has a starboard list after taking on fuel, you would transfer fuel __________.Not learned 2021. A vessel would most likely develop a list if you were __________.Not learned 2022. If fuel is burned from only the starboard tanks, the ship will __________.Not learned 2023. If fuel oil is burned from the port side tanks alone, the ship will __________.Not learned 2024. If a vessel initially has no list and no significant trim, which of the developments shown in the illustration will result in the greatest listNot learned 2025. A vessel trimmed down by the bow has __________.Not learned 2026. The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after a change in load has occurred is known as __________.Not learned 2027. The trim of a vessel is the __________.Not learned 2028. Which term defines the difference between the forward and aft drafts?Not learned 2029. Which term defines the difference between the forward and aft drafts?Not learned 2030. What is the difference between the starboard and port drafts due to the wind or seas called?Not learned 2031. A stiff wind has caused a difference to occur between the port and starboard drafts. This condition is known as __________.Not learned 2032. The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is __________.Not learned 2033. For a vessel with a block coefficient of 1, the addition of weight at the center of flotation will __________.Not learned 2034. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.Not learned 2035. Which term is given to the difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely in the vessel?Not learned 2036. What effect will transferring fuel oil from No.1P double bottom to No.3P double bottom have on the trim of a vessel?Not learned 2037. The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.Not learned 2038. For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and which other item?Not learned 2039. The average of the observed drafts is known as __________.Not learned 2040. Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the __________.Not learned 2041. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?Not learned 2042. The symbol shown in the illustration used to represent displacement is __________Not learned 2043. Symbol #1, as shown in the illustration, refers to __________Not learned 2044. The symbol labeled #2, as shown in the illustration, represents a vessels __________Not learned 2045. The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number __________Not learned 2046. The symbol labeled #2, as shown in the illustration, represents a vessels __________Not learned 2047. Symbol number "3" shown in the illustration represents which of the followingNot learned 2048. The symbol shown in the illustration to represent the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars is __________Not learned 2049. The symbol shown in the illustration and used to represent amidships, is indicated by number __________Not learned 2050. The symbol shown in the illustration, which is used as the reference from which transverse measurements are made, is __________Not learned 2051. Symbol #5 shown in the illustration, represents __________Not learned 2052. You may improve a vessel's stability by __________.Not learned 2053. You may improve a vessel's stability by __________.Not learned 2054. The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.Not learned 2055. The principal effect of liquid free surface is dependent upon the volume of displacement of the vessel and the __________.Not learned 2056. The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with the increase of which item?Not learned 2057. The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.Not learned 2058. What does reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduce?Not learned 2059. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.Not learned 2060. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.Not learned 2061. A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which of the listed conditions would develop the greatest adverse effect?Not learned 2062. Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying liquid cargo should be avoided in order to __________.Not learned 2063. Vessel stability is greatly affected when water or fuel tanks are partially filled as a result of the __________.Not learned 2064. When any tank or compartment is partially filled with a liquid free to move as the ship rolls, the free surface effect is present. This condition will usually __________.Not learned 2065. Ships are less stable when water or fuel tanks are partially filled because of the __________.Not learned 2066. A vessel whose fuel tanks are half full is subject to __________.Not learned 2067. Vessel stability can be adversely affected by __________.Not learned 2068. Vessel stability can be adversely affected by __________.Not learned 2069. Free surface effect occurring in partially filled cargo or fuel storage tanks on board a vessel should be avoided to __________.Not learned 2070. Adverse effects due to free surface will result when __________.Not learned 2071. For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.Not learned 2072. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.Not learned 2073. A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.Not learned 2074. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.Not learned 2075. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.Not learned 2076. When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.Not learned 2077. The purpose of the inclining experiment on a MODU is to determine __________.Not learned 2078. Although 'KG' for a MODU in a lightweight condition is relatively high, the vessel is stiff because __________.Not learned 2079. When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly less than the angle of loll, she will __________.Not learned 2080. When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly less than the angle of loll, she will __________.Not learned 2081. If the metacentric height is small, a floating MODU will __________.Not learned 2082. If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.Not learned 2083. A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.Not learned 2084. Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.Not learned 2085. Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects from the height of the longitudinal metacenter of a MODU yields __________.Not learned 2086. Forces within a vessel may cause a difference between the starboard and port drafts. What is this difference called?Not learned 2087. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.Not learned 2088. The angle to which a floating MODU, with a negative initial metacentric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of __________.Not learned 2089. When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.Not learned 2090. A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.Not learned 2091. A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.Not learned 2092. A floating MODU with an initial negative metacentric height __________.Not learned 2093. If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.Not learned 2094. For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.Not learned 2095. For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.Not learned 2096. For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.Not learned 2097. For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.Not learned 2098. For a MODU with transverse inclination, an increase in GMT causes __________.Not learned 2099. For a MODU with longitudinal inclination, an increase in GML causes __________.Not learned 2100. When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.Not learned 2101. The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.Not learned 2102. The volume of a floating MODU above the waterline that can be made watertight is its __________.Not learned 2103. What will cause the free surface effects of a partially full tank on a vessel in motion to increase?Not learned 2104. Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.Not learned 2105. Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.Not learned 2106. What will cause the free surface effects of a partially full tank on a vessel in motion to increase?Not learned 2107. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty tanks will __________.Not learned 2108. During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. Which action should you take?Not learned 2109. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.Not learned 2110. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed?Not learned 2111. During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. Which action should you take?Not learned 2112. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in which condition?Not learned 2113. The symbol shown in the illustration used to represent displacement is __________Not learned 2114. Symbol number "3" shown in the illustration represents which of the followingNot learned 2115. After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.Not learned 2116. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.Not learned 2117. The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number __________Not learned 2118. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is known by which term?Not learned 2119. As chief engineer or first assistant engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "transverse" stability?Not learned 2120. As chief engineer or first assistant engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "positional motion" stability?Not learned 2121. As chief engineer or first assistant engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "lateral motion" stability?Not learned 2122. By what method is the final light ship weight, longitudinal and vertical centers of gravity of a vessel, and final assignment of the load lines determined?Not learned 2123. As chief engineer of an oceangoing passenger vessel, it is important to know the effect of trim and stability of your ship in the event of damage to a compartment. To minimize the impact of flooding in the event of a grounding, what should be your ship's safe practice regarding watertight doors and hatches?Not learned 2124. As chief engineer you should understand the concept of loll and its cause. An angle of loll is commonly caused by which of the following conditions?Not learned 2125. As chief engineer you should understand the concept of loll and its cause. An angle of loll is commonly caused by which of the following conditions?Not learned 2126. IMO Resolution A167, 1968, Res. No. 749(18) 3.1 (1995, amended 1999), and section 2.2 in the 2008 IS Code, sets the general criterion for vessels of more than 100 meters in length. Your vessel is covered by this regulation. In review of your vessel's stability data, after refueling you notice that the GM of the vessel is less than the required 0.15 meters. What should you instruct the 2nd engineer to do with the fuel just received?Not learned 2127. After refueling your vessel, you notice that the GM of the vessel is less than the required 0.15 meters. What do you do?Not learned 2128. After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.Not learned 2129. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.Not learned 2130. The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number __________Not learned 2131. As chief engineer you should understand the concept of corrective measures and their purpose. The following four actions will have which affect on the vessel? 1) Add weight low and symmetrically about the centerline. 2) Remove high weight symmetrically. 3) Move weight down symmetrically. 4) Eliminate any free surface present.Not learned 2132. Your vessel was damaged in a collision and one compartment has partially flooded. The vessel has free communication with the sea with water flowing in and out as the vessel rolls. Which of the following is the most important factor contributing to free communication loss of stability?Not learned 2133. Your vessel has been damaged in a grounding and one compartment has partially flooded. As a result, you have lost buoyancy. If transverse stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Which of the following should you ensure is maintained?Not learned 2134. The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after a change in load has occurred is known as __________.Not learned 2135. As an engineer, you should be familiar with the conditions that will cause a vessel to transversely incline, list, or trim. Which of the following conditions causes a vessel to trim?Not learned 2136. While serving as chief engineer on a partially loaded containership the vessel is involved in a collision. An empty starboard side wing tank becomes open to the sea and the ship takes a starboard list. After investigating the damage it is found that no other adjoining tanks are open to the sea. What action should be recommended to ensure the ship maintains an even keel position?Not learned 2137. As 1st A/E on a large container vessel you should be familiar with the vessel's stability and the concepts of same. Regarding trimming of a vessel, and the location of the LCG, LCB and LCF, in which direction, and about which point, will the vessel trim based upon their relative locations?Not learned 2138. Your vessel has been damaged in a grounding and one compartment has partially flooded. As a result, you have lost buoyancy. If transverse stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Which of the following should you ensure is maintained?Not learned 2139. The 2nd assistant engineer has just finished fueling operations. After entering the fuel data into the loading computer, you notice a greater than allowable at-sea bending stress. After the chief mate checks the voyage cargo data the vessel still has an excessive at-sea hogging bending stress. As chief engineer and after consulting with the chief mate, what should your instructions be to reduce the bending moment when ballasting the vessel?Not learned 2140. Following cargo loading operations, your vessel is experiencing an excessive at-sea hogging bending stress as shown in the illustration. What should you do to reduce the bending momentNot learned 2141. Following cargo loading operations, your vessel is experiencing an excessive at-sea sagging bending stress as shown in the illustration. What should you do to reduce the bending momentNot learned 2142. The 3rd engineer on watch reports than the ship has an erratic rolling behavior and it does not appear to stabilize at an even keel position. As Chief Engineer, after consultation with the Chief Mate, what instruction would you give him?Not learned 2143. The motion of a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration affects the governing "motion ahead and astern" stabilityNot learned 2144. The motion of a vessel impacts its stability. Which of these motions shown in the illustration affects the governing "motion ahead and astern" stabilityNot learned 2145. Your passenger vessel has departed port with 1,235 passengers on board for a 10-day voyage. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 78, what actions must be taken to verify that your vessel was in compliance with stability requirements?Not learned 2146. The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.Not learned 2147. Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will ensure that the unit has adequate __________.Not learned 2148. Load line regulations are designed to ensure that a MODU has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________.Not learned 2149. The document that certifies the correctness of the load line marks on a MODU is called the __________.Not learned 2150. A load line is assigned to a MODU to insure adequate stability and __________.Not learned 2151. Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a MODU must be made at intervals not exceeding __________.Not learned 2152. Many uninspected motor vessels require load lines. For the purpose of the Load Line Regulations, the term "surveyor" means __________.Not learned 2153. A load line for a MODU is assigned by the __________.Not learned 2154. The maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________.Not learned 2155. Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a MODU is the responsibility of the __________.Not learned 2156. When renewing a portion of damaged hull plating with a new insert plate, which of the listed guidelines should be followed?Not learned 2157. In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be lost if __________.Not learned 2158. When opening a watertight door to check a compartment suspected of flooding, which of the dogs shown in the illustration should you back off FIRSTNot learned 2159. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.Not learned 2160. Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving which item?Not learned 2161. Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.Not learned 2162. The stability which exists after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a MODU is called __________.Not learned 2163. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 2164. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?Not learned 2165. The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU serves what purpose?Not learned 2166. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 2167. If double bottom fuel tank levels are found to have increased after a ship's grounding, you should suspect __________.Not learned 2168. In damage control, a flat block placed at the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is referred to as a __________.Not learned 2169. A flat block placed under the end of a wooden shore for the purpose of distributing pressure against a damaged structure is referred to as a __________.Not learned 2170. Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer than __________.Not learned 2171. Main wooden shoring for use in damage control, is usually less than 10 feet long and has a nominal cross-section dimension of ______.Not learned 2172. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 2173. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoringNot learned 2174. Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to __________.Not learned 2175. The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for this conditionNot learned 2176. The wooden shoring, shown in the illustration, is bearing against a hatch coaming. The load is applied in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is trueNot learned 2177. After an emergency shoring installation has been completed, the __________.Not learned 2178. In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the waterline, not over three inches in diameter, can be temporarily sealed by __________.Not learned 2179. It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________.Not learned 2180. The lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may be prevented by __________.Not learned 2181. A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.Not learned 2182. Stress concentrations may be reduced at the ends of a crack which has formed in the steel plating of a ship by __________.Not learned 2183. A hole in the hull above the waterline may be temporarily patched with __________.Not learned 2184. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.Not learned 2185. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.Not learned 2186. Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?Not learned 2187. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces which threat?Not learned 2188. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.Not learned 2189. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.Not learned 2190. When patching holes in the hull, how can pillows, bedding, and other soft materials be used?Not learned 2191. Which is the best action to take when plugging holes below the waterline for the safety of the vessel?Not learned 2192. Which term describes the strengthening of damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel?Not learned 2193. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to take which action?Not learned 2194. In plugging submerged holes; why are rags, wedges, and other materials used in conjunction with plugs?Not learned 2195. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.Not learned 2196. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?Not learned 2197. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 2198. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?Not learned 2199. The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU serves what purpose?Not learned 2200. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 2201. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.Not learned 2202. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoringNot learned 2203. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.Not learned 2204. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.Not learned 2205. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoringNot learned 2206. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.Not learned 2207. The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.Not learned 2208. Which of the listed procedures should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?Not learned 2209. Which of the listed procedures should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?Not learned 2210. Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.Not learned 2211. Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?Not learned 2212. What is the most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia?Not learned 2213. The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.Not learned 2214. A crew member suffering from generalized hypothermia should be given __________.Not learned 2215. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 2216. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 2217. How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be treated?Not learned 2218. How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be treated?Not learned 2219. How should you treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion?Not learned 2220. Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?Not learned 2221. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?Not learned 2222. As a last resort, what can a tourniquet be used for?Not learned 2223. A seaman has sustained a small, gaping laceration of the arm requiring sutures to close if medical facilities were available. Which of the following remedies can be done to temporarily close the wound?Not learned 2224. Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear __________.Not learned 2225. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 2226. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?Not learned 2227. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 2228. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 2229. The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________.Not learned 2230. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 2231. Bleeding from a vein can be characterized as __________.Not learned 2232. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 2233. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?Not learned 2234. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 2235. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 2236. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 2237. How should a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries be treated?Not learned 2238. What is the primary purpose of a splint when applied in first aid treatment?Not learned 2239. How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture?Not learned 2240. A compound fracture is a fracture __________.Not learned 2241. Which of the listed types of bone fractures would be considered as the most serious?Not learned 2242. Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what action is taken?Not learned 2243. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?Not learned 2244. What are the symptoms of a fractured back?Not learned 2245. If a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries is correctly being administered first aid, what statement is true?Not learned 2246. What is the primary purpose of a splint when applied in first aid treatment?Not learned 2247. In any major personal injury, first aid is to include the treatment of the injury and what additional treatment?Not learned 2248. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?Not learned 2249. Which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock?Not learned 2250. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in shock?Not learned 2251. Which of the following conditions is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock?Not learned 2252. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?Not learned 2253. The fundamental treatment for preventing traumatic shock following an accident is to __________.Not learned 2254. After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?Not learned 2255. If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient in shock should be placed in which of the positions listed?Not learned 2256. The general signs and symptoms of a patient suffering from shock are _______.Not learned 2257. If a crew member faints, you should __________.Not learned 2258. Which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?Not learned 2259. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an __________.Not learned 2260. Which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?Not learned 2261. An unconscious person should NOT be __________.Not learned 2262. Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?Not learned 2263. A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and various symptoms indicate a concussion. Proper treatment should include __________.Not learned 2264. In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which of the following treatments would you AVOID using?Not learned 2265. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?Not learned 2266. A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology what type of burn is this?Not learned 2267. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, what type of burn is this?Not learned 2268. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to __________.Not learned 2269. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?Not learned 2270. For small, first-degree burns, what is the quickest method to relieve pain?Not learned 2271. A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper first aid treatment for this injury?Not learned 2272. Surface burns should first be treated by __________.Not learned 2273. What should you do if a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm?Not learned 2274. In treating a person for first degree thermal burns, it is important to prevent or reduce __________.Not learned 2275. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?Not learned 2276. What can be caused by severe airway burns?Not learned 2277. The FIRST action in the treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.Not learned 2278. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.Not learned 2279. When treating a chemical burn, what is the minimum amount of time you should flood the burned area?Not learned 2280. Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with what substance(s)?Not learned 2281. Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?Not learned 2282. What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with tank residue from a cargo of leaded gasoline?Not learned 2283. If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with __________.Not learned 2284. If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can ________.Not learned 2285. If a person is unconscious from electric shock, the first action is to remove him from the electrical source. What is the secondary action?Not learned 2286. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, what is the FIRST medical indicator to check for?Not learned 2287. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 2288. If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and _______.Not learned 2289. Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock?Not learned 2290. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.Not learned 2291. What causes heat exhaustion?Not learned 2292. To effectively treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.Not learned 2293. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?Not learned 2294. Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.Not learned 2295. Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.Not learned 2296. What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?Not learned 2297. Treatment of frostbite is to __________.Not learned 2298. A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of his right foot. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?Not learned 2299. What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?Not learned 2300. A crew member suffering from generalized hypothermia should be given __________.Not learned 2301. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?Not learned 2302. Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of __________.Not learned 2303. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 2304. What are the symptoms of sugar diabetes?Not learned 2305. A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injury. What symptoms would indicate the onset of a diabetic coma?Not learned 2306. If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.Not learned 2307. If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.Not learned 2308. If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of __________.Not learned 2309. Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.Not learned 2310. What should you do if a crew member is having an epileptic convulsion?Not learned 2311. While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.Not learned 2312. Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in the abdomen located in the __________.Not learned 2313. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?Not learned 2314. When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to __________.Not learned 2315. How should the pain be relieved when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis?Not learned 2316. When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary surveys, what should you be familiar with?Not learned 2317. Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in what body part?Not learned 2318. What are the symptoms of seasickness?Not learned 2319. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient?Not learned 2320. What is an effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board?Not learned 2321. What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?Not learned 2322. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 2323. What is normal mouth temperature?Not learned 2324. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?Not learned 2325. Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 2326. Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 2327. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?Not learned 2328. What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?Not learned 2329. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.Not learned 2330. Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?Not learned 2331. Antiseptics are used principally to __________.Not learned 2332. Antiseptics are used principally to __________.Not learned 2333. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water?Not learned 2334. What is the most useful drug to reduce a high fever?Not learned 2335. Which of the following best defines First Aid?Not learned 2336. You are in the mess room when a shipmate suddenly begins to choke, is unable to speak and starts to turn blue. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 2337. For a victim who is coughing and gagging, as a result of a partial obstruction of the airway by a foreign body, a rescuer should __________.Not learned 2338. What should you do if a crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed?Not learned 2339. Which procedure should NOT be done for a person whom has fainted?Not learned 2340. What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?Not learned 2341. Where can a rescuer most easily check to determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse?Not learned 2342. An unconscious person should NOT be __________.Not learned 2343. Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?Not learned 2344. In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which of the following treatments would you AVOID using?Not learned 2345. A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.Not learned 2346. A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with what liquid?Not learned 2347. If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can ________.Not learned 2348. What should a observer do if a victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway?Not learned 2349. What action should you take if a shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue?Not learned 2350. While providing assistant to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.Not learned 2351. What does first aid mean?Not learned 2352. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 2353. Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of __________.Not learned 2354. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 2355. What are the symptoms of a fractured back?Not learned 2356. What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?Not learned 2357. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient?Not learned 2358. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?Not learned 2359. Cryogenic burns can result in frostbite. What is the proper immediate treatment?Not learned 2360. What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye?Not learned 2361. Which of the following medical conditions has symptoms of: burning pain with redness of the skin, an irritating rash, blistering or loss of skin and or toxic poisoning?Not learned 2362. If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and _______.Not learned 2363. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 2364. You are instructing new crew members in engine room safety and first aid. You use an example of "One crew member, while working in the engine room, finds another crew member lying unconscious on the deck." What would you instruct the crew do first when faced with the rescue of this crew member?Not learned 2365. When administering only mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should continue the victim's ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?Not learned 2366. When administering artificial resuscitation to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________.Not learned 2367. When artificial respiration is being given to an adult that shows indications of having a pulse, it should be administered __________.Not learned 2368. When administering artificial resuscitation to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about __________.Not learned 2369. When artificial respiration is being given to an adult that shows indications of having a pulse, it should be administered __________.Not learned 2370. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 2371. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 2372. A person suffering from a heart attack may show which of the following symptoms?Not learned 2373. Where can a rescuer most easily check to determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse?Not learned 2374. A person suffering from a heart attack may show which of the following symptoms?Not learned 2375. You are administering chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________.Not learned 2376. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 2377. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 2378. While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out?Not learned 2379. The most essential element in the administration of CPR is __________.Not learned 2380. What should you do before CPR is started?Not learned 2381. When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost importance to __________.Not learned 2382. When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost importance to __________.Not learned 2383. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 2384. The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be recognized by the victim's __________.Not learned 2385. Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of __________.Not learned 2386. What should a person do after being revived by artificial respiration?Not learned 2387. After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should be __________.Not learned 2388. If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is __________.Not learned 2389. What should you do in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim?Not learned 2390. While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out?Not learned 2391. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 2392. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 2393. When administering mouth to mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?Not learned 2394. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?Not learned 2395. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 2396. You are administering chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________.Not learned 2397. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 2398. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned