MEWB - Steam Plants, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. Energy existing in a system as a result of the relative velocities of the objects is defined as __________.Not learned 2. Which of the following statements is NOT one of Newton's laws?Not learned 3. A theoretical engine cycle is a process that _________.Not learned 4. Boyle's law can best be defined as _________.Not learned 5. Which of the following best describes the adiabatic pressure/volume relationship with regards to a fixed amount of a saturated gas?Not learned 6. Which of the statements listed concerning heat transfer is correct?Not learned 7. A turbine exhaust pressure of 14.7 psia is equal to __________.Not learned 8. What is the gain in potential energy of an object weighing 10 pounds when it is raised to a height of 10 feet?Not learned 9. How much work would be accomplished if a 15 pound box were raised to the top of a 25 foot platform?Not learned 10. What is the potential energy of an object weighing 10 pounds (4.54 kg) at a height of 10 feet (3.05 m)?Not learned 11. Which unit of measurement is used to measure mechanical potential energy?Not learned 12. The heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance one degree is called its __________.Not learned 13. Temperature measurement is an indication of the __________.Not learned 14. The heat added at line #5 shown in the illustration represents __________Not learned 15. Which segment of the graph shown in the illustration represents the latent heat of fusionNot learned 16. Which segment of the graph shown in the illustration represents the latent heat of fusionNot learned 17. The sum of the sensible heat and the latent heat of any substance is known as __________.Not learned 18. The heat identified by only a change in temperature is known as __________.Not learned 19. The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid while at its freezing temperature, is known as the latent heat of __________.Not learned 20. The heat required to change a substance from a liquid to a gas without experiencing a temperature change, is defined as the latent heat of __________.Not learned 21. Heat which brings about a change in the physical state of a substance without a change in temperature, is called __________.Not learned 22. Latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be added to a substance in order to change it from a __________.Not learned 23. Which of the listed methods of heat transfer takes place when two substances of different temperatures are in physical contact with each other?Not learned 24. Heat may be transferred by __________.Not learned 25. Which of the following conditions must exist for heat to flow from one object to another?Not learned 26. Mechanical energy in transition is referred to as __________.Not learned 27. Mechanical energy in transition is referred to as __________.Not learned 28. Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require any physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?Not learned 29. Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require any physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?Not learned 30. Power is defined as the __________.Not learned 31. The energy associated with molecules is known as __________.Not learned 32. The energy associated with atoms forming molecules is known as __________.Not learned 33. Thermal energy is commonly referred to as __________.Not learned 34. If 1 Horsepower equals 42.45 BTU's per minute, then the energy required to lift a 1 pound (.454 kg) weight, 778 feet (.24 km), against the force of gravity, would be the same as the number of BTU's required to raise the temperature of __________.Not learned 35. The type of heat indicated in section "2" in the illustration is known as __________. latent heat of fission latent heat of fusion See illustration SG-0001.Not learned 36. The type of heat indicated in section "4" in the illustration is known as __________. latent heat of condensation latent heat of vaporization See illustration SG-0001.Not learned 37. The heat removed from a fluid as indicated by line "3" in the illustration is known as __________. sub cooling latent heat of condensation See illustration SG-0001.Not learned 38. Which of the following terms is used to indicate that the addition of heat will result in a temperature change?Not learned 39. Which of the following terms is used to indicate that the addition of heat will result in a temperature change?Not learned 40. A vapor under pressure stays in contact with, and at the same temperature as the liquid from which it was generated. The vapor and liquid in this situation are, therefore, said to be in a/an __________.Not learned 41. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1° is known as __________.Not learned 42. Which of the following terms would best describe the temperature at which a liquid boils at a given pressure?Not learned 43. Which of the following statements concerning energy is correct?Not learned 44. Which of the listed values represents the temperature at which water will change to saturated vapor at a pressure of 14.7 psia?Not learned 45. Which of the listed values represents the temperature at which water will change to saturated vapor at a pressure of 14.7 psia?Not learned 46. The equation 'energy in = energy out' is a simple way of stating the principle of the __________.Not learned 47. A stopper is inserted into the spout of a closed container in which water has been heated to a temperature of 212°F. If additional thermal energy is imparted, what changes will occur to the pressure and temperature inside the container?Not learned 48. Which of the following forms of energy is usually associated with the motion of large bodies or objects?Not learned 49. Which of the following forms of energy concerns the forces which bind atoms together in a molecule?Not learned 50. Which of the following conditions must be carried out before the superheating of saturated vapor can occur?Not learned 51. Which of the following forms of energy is released through the process of fuel combustion?Not learned 52. Which of the following terms could be applied to the simple definition 'the energy of motion'?Not learned 53. As steam accomplishes work in an engine or turbine, the pressure of the steam is reduced because it __________.Not learned 54. As steam accomplishes work in an engine or turbine, it expands and __________.Not learned 55. In which of the listed components is chemical energy converted to thermal energy with regards to boiler operation?Not learned 56. If a quantity of saturated steam consists of 90 percent steam and 10 percent moisture, the quality of the mixture is __________.Not learned 57. The percentage by weight of steam in a mixture of steam and water is called the __________.Not learned 58. Why is superheated steam used in the main propulsion turbines instead of saturated steam?Not learned 59. Which type of energy conversion is associated with an operating steam boiler?Not learned 60. When vapor is in contact with and remains at the same temperature as the boiling liquid from which it was generated, the vapor and liquid are said to be in which of the following?Not learned 61. According to the data given in illustration, which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 28.09 inches Hg, and 117.99 degrees FahrenheitNot learned 62. According to the data given in illustration, which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 28.09 inches Hg, and 117.99 degrees FahrenheitNot learned 63. According to the data given in illustration, which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 28.09 inches Hg, and 117.99 degrees FahrenheitNot learned 64. According to the data given in illustration, which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 28.09 inches Hg, and 117.99 degrees FahrenheitNot learned 65. Which of the following statements is true concerning the information tabulated in the tableNot learned 66. With an increase in the saturation pressure of a fluid, the value represented by line "5" on the graph will __________Not learned 67. If the saturation pressure of water is increased, the relative values shown on the illustrated graph will change. According to pertinent information found in the steam tables of SG-0004, this will result in __________Not learned 68. With reference to the chart, if a boiler generates saturated steam at 385.3 psig, how much heat per pound was required to change the water into steam if the feedwater temperature was initially 220°FNot learned 69. If a boiler generates saturated steam at 75.3 psig, how much heat is required to change the water into steam if the feedwater temperature is 220°FNot learned 70. Assume that steam has formed in a boiler in which all of the steam stop valves are closed, and the water level is held constant. When there is an increase in the temperature of the steam and water in the boiler, which of the following effects will occur on the pressure and the specific volume of the steam?Not learned 71. What physical changes will occur to the steam within a boiler that has been properly bottled up when additional heat is applied?Not learned 72. When the boiling temperature of a steam boiler is increased, which of the following effects will occur with relation to the pressure and the specific volume of the steam?Not learned 73. Steam tables can be used to obtain the __________.Not learned 74. In what section of a boiler would you find a steam quality of 90%?Not learned 75. Which of the devices listed is used to convert thermal energy to useful mechanical work?Not learned 76. As steam first enters the main propulsion turbine, which of the following energy conversions takes place?Not learned 77. Which is TRUE concerning the vapor pressure of a substance?Not learned 78. The temperature at which water vapor in an atmosphere condenses to a liquid is known as which of the following?Not learned 79. In order to raise the temperature of water from 60°F to 180° F, you must add ___________.Not learned 80. According to the data given in illustration, which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 28.09 inches Hg, and 117.99 degrees FahrenheitNot learned 81. According to the data given in illustration, which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 28.09 inches Hg, and 117.99 degrees FahrenheitNot learned 82. The best conductor of heat in a marine boiler is __________.Not learned 83. The purpose of a "peep" hole in the boiler casing is to _________.Not learned 84. Longitudinal expansion of a boiler water drum is permitted by the __________.Not learned 85. Which of the following statements represents the purpose of boiler sliding feet?Not learned 86. Which of the problems listed could occur if the sliding-foot bearing surfaces, shown in the illustration, are not properly lubricatedNot learned 87. Longitudinal expansion of a boiler water drum is allowed for at the boiler __________.Not learned 88. To allow for water drum expansion and contraction, most main propulsion boilers are fitted with __________.Not learned 89. As compared with a typical front fired boiler, which of the listed conditions represents an advantage of a top fired boiler?Not learned 90. A natural circulation water-tube boiler, with one or more water drums, would be classified as a/an __________.Not learned 91. The boiler wrapper sheet, shown in the illustration, is indicated by arrow __________Not learned 92. Component "B" shown in the illustration is properly identified as the __________Not learned 93. The tube sheet shown in the illustration is indicated by the letter '____'Not learned 94. That portion of the steam drum, containing a manhole for internal access to the drum, for the purpose of cleaning, inspecting, and carrying out repairs, is called the __________.Not learned 95. Which of the boiler components listed receives feed water and serves as an area for the accumulation of saturated steam?Not learned 96. Which of the following is the purpose of the steam drum in a D-Type marine boiler?Not learned 97. A water-tube type boiler when compared to a fire-tube type boiler has an advantage of __________. a water-tube boiler requiring less chemical compounding the fire-tube boiler providing a greater amount of heat transfer to the water as the hot gases pass through the tubesNot learned 98. A water-tube type boiler is more efficient than a fire-tube type boiler as __________.Not learned 99. Which of the following conditions is true concerning the boiler water drum foundations?Not learned 100. The purpose of firebrick in a water tube boiler furnace is to __________. protect the generating tubes from flame impingement protect the boiler furnace inner casingNot learned 101. Arrow "B" shown in the illustration indicates the __________Not learned 102. Which of the devices listed is shown in the boiler illustrationNot learned 103. The component lettered "J" shown in the illustration serves as a __________Not learned 104. In the boiler shown in the illustration, the arrow "C" indicates a __________Not learned 105. One function of the component labeled "C" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 106. Which of the following statements represents the major difference between a boiler drum and a header?Not learned 107. Which of the listed boiler components is used to equalize the distribution of water to the generating tubes and provide an area for the accumulation of loose scale and other solid matter present in the boiler water?Not learned 108. The purpose of boiler tube curvature shown in the illustration in the area labeled "L" is to __________Not learned 109. Which of the following statements represents the primary function of handholes used on a boiler?Not learned 110. In the boiler shown in the illustration, the arrow "E" indicates a __________Not learned 111. Circulation of boiler water to the water wall tubes is maintained by the __________.Not learned 112. Steam baffles are used in the steam drum of a water-tube boiler to __________.Not learned 113. The steam drum installed in "D" type boilers serve to provide __________. a water reserve necessary for proper boiler operation an area for steam and moisture to separateNot learned 114. In a single furnace boiler, where is the steam typically cooled for use as auxiliary steam?Not learned 115. Scavenging air lines are connected to boiler stack periscopes to __________.Not learned 116. Which of the methods listed would be most effective in repairing a steam cut on a seating surface of a superheater handhole plate?Not learned 117. Which of the methods listed would be most effective in repairing a steam cut on a seating surface of a superheater handhole plate?Not learned 118. Routine maintenance of boiler sliding feet should include __________.Not learned 119. Routine maintenance of boiler sliding feet should include __________.Not learned 120. The boiler superheater shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 121. The action of water circulating within a natural circulation boiler, is the direct result of ______.Not learned 122. Water circulation in a water-tube boiler is a result of the __________.Not learned 123. Water circulates in a natural circulation boiler due to the __________.Not learned 124. Natural circulation in a marine boiler is a result of __________.Not learned 125. Water circulates in a natural circulation boiler due to the __________.Not learned 126. Circulation in a water-tube boiler is caused by the difference in the __________.Not learned 127. In a boiler, water flows downward in tubes furthest from the fires and flows upward in tubes nearest the fires because __________.Not learned 128. Circulation in a water-tube boiler is caused by the difference in the __________.Not learned 129. Water circulation in a water-tube boiler is a result of the __________.Not learned 130. What is the advantage of a forced water circulation boiler over a natural circulation boiler?Not learned 131. How is boiler water forced to circulate faster in accelerated natural circulation boilers as compared to free natural circulation boilers?Not learned 132. The means of circulation commonly found in water-tube boilers is __________.Not learned 133. In a water tube boiler, circulation is developed by the difference in the __________. tube length and various diameters densities of the hot and cold waterNot learned 134. Circulation of water and the steam/water mixture within a natural circulation boiler is retarded by __________.Not learned 135. Which of the stated pressure conditions identifies the boiler design pressure?Not learned 136. Depending upon the design of the boiler, the constant pressure maintained at the steam drum or the superheater outlet is known as the __________.Not learned 137. The steam generating capacity of a boiler depends upon the __________.Not learned 138. The total heating surface of any steam generating unit is comprised of which of the listed surfaces?Not learned 139. The required number of pounds of steam generated per hour to develop contract shaft horsepower and maintain the specified pressures and temperatures in the plant, when divided by the number of installed boilers, will give the __________.Not learned 140. Reaching which "end point" will result in the most severe damage to the boiler?Not learned 141. Overheating of the generating tubes will occur when a boiler reaches its end point of __________.Not learned 142. The generating tubes in an operating boiler will overheat and possibly fail when the boiler reaches the end point of __________.Not learned 143. The designed 'end point for combustion' for a boiler furnace is reached when __________.Not learned 144. When a mixture of steam and water in a boiler has reached the point at which NO further change in state can occur with the addition of heat, the mixture is considered to have reached its __________.Not learned 145. In a properly designed boiler, which of the end points should be reached first?Not learned 146. The 'end point for combustion' for a boiler furnace is reached whenever __________.Not learned 147. Reaching which of the boiler end points listed could cause the most damage to a boiler?Not learned 148. Which set of boiler end points listed is considered to be the normal order of occurrence?Not learned 149. The limiting factor in determining the end point for combustion is usually the __________.Not learned 150. In a properly designed boiler, which end point is most likely to occur first?Not learned 151. Which of the boiler end points should be reached first?Not learned 152. As the rate of combustion is increased in a boiler, more steam is generated because the __________.Not learned 153. The greatest deterrent to heat transfer from the fireside to the waterside of a boiler is __________.Not learned 154. The greatest resistance to heat transfer from the fireside to the waterside of a water-tube boiler takes place in the __________.Not learned 155. Corrosion due to electrolytic action in modern water-tube boilers is uncommon because __________.Not learned 156. What type of boiler is shown in the illustrationNot learned 157. In a water tube boiler, waterwall tubes are effectively used to __________. decrease the amount of refractory material necessary in non-waterwall installations allow for significant increases in the combustion ratesNot learned 158. The advantage of installing waterwall tubes in a boiler furnace is to __________.Not learned 159. One advantage of installing water wall tubes in a boiler furnace is to __________.Not learned 160. Rows of tubes installed along the walls, floor, and roof of the furnace are called __________.Not learned 161. The boiler shown in the illustration has its screen tubes connecting the steam drum and the component label '____'Not learned 162. The screen tubes shown in the illustration are indicated by arrow '____Not learned 163. The boiler screen tubes shown in the illustration connect the __________Not learned 164. Water-tube boiler screen tubes protect which of the listed components from high furnace temperatures?Not learned 165. The primary purpose of screen tubes installed in a marine boiler is to __________.Not learned 166. Water-tube boiler screen tubes protect which of the listed components from high furnace temperatures?Not learned 167. Which of the listed components is used to protect the boiler superheater against the radiant heat of the furnace?Not learned 168. Which of the statements represents an advantage of the 'bent tube' method of installing boiler tubes?Not learned 169. In order for a maximum number of boiler generating and circulating tubes to be installed without weakening the tube sheet, which of the listed procedures should be carried out?Not learned 170. In a D-type boiler, which of the tubes listed would be located in the generating tube bank?Not learned 171. A boiler superheater support tube differs from a standard generating tube in that the __________.Not learned 172. Which of the tube types listed can be considered to serve as downcomers at low firing rates, and as generating tubes at high firing rates on some boilers?Not learned 173. In most marine boilers, the primary reason the first few rows of generating tubes, called screen or furnace row tubes, are made larger in diameter than the rest of the generating tubes is because __________.Not learned 174. The proportion of downcomers installed in relation to riser tubes in a vertical tube type of boiler, is dependent upon the __________.Not learned 175. Which of the listed tubes provides circulation to the water wall tubes?Not learned 176. The function of downcomers installed in water-tube boilers is to __________.Not learned 177. Downcomers installed in water-tube boilers function to __________.Not learned 178. Downcomers installed in water-tube boilers function to __________.Not learned 179. Downcomers are used in modern boilers to __________.Not learned 180. Downcomers are frequently mounted outside the boiler casing on a water-tube boiler for the purpose of __________.Not learned 181. The boiler downcomers shown in the illustration are __________Not learned 182. Which area shown in the illustration will offer the most resistance to heat transfer from the fireside to the waterside of a boiler tubeNot learned 183. Advances in metallurgy and improved methods of boiler tube fabrication has led to lighter tubes with wall thicknesses in the vicinity of 0.1 inches. A characteristic of these thin walled tubes is __________.Not learned 184. The downcomer tubes installed in modern water tube boilers would normally be located _________.Not learned 185. Which of the following statements represents the advantage of using a small diameter boiler tube over a larger diameter tube?Not learned 186. Which of the following statements represents the advantage of using a small diameter boiler tube over a larger diameter tube?Not learned 187. Which of the following statements represents the advantage of using a small diameter boiler tube over a larger diameter tube?Not learned 188. Downcomers are installed between the boiler inner and outer casing to __________. increase circulation rates decrease the amount of heat that they can absorb from the furnaceNot learned 189. Downcomers are installed between the inner and outer boiler casings to __________. increase the end point of combustion increase the end point of circulationNot learned 190. Downcomers are installed between the inner and outer boiler casings to __________. increase the end point of combustion increase the end point of circulationNot learned 191. Downcomers are installed between the inner and outer boiler casings to __________. increase the end point of combustion increase the end point of circulationNot learned 192. Tubes may be seal welded into fittings or headers of boilers and superheaters after they have been expanded and flared, provided the material in the fitting or header does not contain carbon in excess of __________.Not learned 193. The correct method of expanding a generating tube at the boiler drum tube sheet is to roll __________.Not learned 194. What is the primary function of the water screen tubes in a "D" type marine boiler?Not learned 195. Which of the tools listed is used to remove a boiler tube from a header?Not learned 196. Which of the following repairs should be made to a badly warped boiler tube?Not learned 197. A hole should be made in the sagged tube occurring in a water-tube boiler, prior to plugging the tube to prevent a __________.Not learned 198. If a water-tube boiler tube has sagged and must be plugged, a hole must be made in the tube wall to prevent __________.Not learned 199. After a boiler generating tube has been plugged, __________.Not learned 200. A badly warped boiler water tube can be reworked and bent back into shape by __________. heating it with a torch and reforming it with a soft mallet cold pressing it back into shape with a hydraulic jackNot learned 201. A ruptured boiler tube should be removed by __________. splitting the remaining tube sections with a safety ripping chisel cutting out most of the tube and then allowing the remaining portion to disintegrate as the boiler is normally firedNot learned 202. Which of the following problems can occur when an excessive number of water screen tubes are plugged?Not learned 203. Waterside abrasion of boiler tubes can be caused by __________.Not learned 204. Waterside grooving is usually very difficult to locate in a boiler tube before leakage occurs because __________.Not learned 205. The development of pinhole leaks where the boiler tubes enter the water drums and headers, may be evidence of __________.Not learned 206. The MOST common cause of heat blisters developing on boiler generating tubes is due to __________.Not learned 207. Blisters developing on boiler tubes can be caused by __________.Not learned 208. Heat blisters forming on the first row of the generating tubes are caused by __________.Not learned 209. At which point of the blistered boiler tube shown in illustration will the temperature be the greatestNot learned 210. What is the cause of "laning" in a boiler tube bank?Not learned 211. What is the cause of 'laning' in a boiler tube bank?Not learned 212. Cratering and water tracking in boiler tubes is caused by __________.Not learned 213. The formation of a pit in the surface of a boiler tube is most likely to occur when __________.Not learned 214. Heavy slagging and high temperature corrosion of boiler tubes can result from using a fuel oil with high amounts of __________.Not learned 215. The formation of a pit in the surface of a boiler tube is most likely to occur when __________.Not learned 216. An advantage of using boiler furnace studded water wall tubes packed with refractory is that __________.Not learned 217. An advantage of using boiler furnace studded water wall tubes packed with refractory is _________.Not learned 218. A corbel in the furnace of a water-tube boiler is a fillet of plastic refractory used as a __________.Not learned 219. A corbel in the furnace of a water-tube boiler is a __________.Not learned 220. A corbel is used in a boiler furnace to __________.Not learned 221. Boiler refractory firebrick is secured to the casing by __________.Not learned 222. Boiler refractory anchor bolts are secured to the casing by __________.Not learned 223. Brick bolts, tile bolts, and pennant anchors are attached to the inner casing by __________.Not learned 224. Which of the following devices can be used to secure or hold furnace refractory in position?Not learned 225. The life of the furnace lining can be affected by __________.Not learned 226. The useful life of furnace refractory is affected most by __________.Not learned 227. Boiler refractory previously baked out and fired is most sensitive to __________.Not learned 228. Nichrome wire is used when patching boiler furnaces for __________.Not learned 229. Which of the following refractory materials contains a hydraulic-setting binder and develops strength without needing to be heated in a manner similar to concrete?Not learned 230. Which of the following refractory materials is preferred for small repairs, particularly where standard size brick or tile cannot be used?Not learned 231. As a general rule, for proper results castable fireclay must be air cured for __________.Not learned 232. Which of the listed refractory materials will develop required strength only after being heated at a temperature of 1095°C (2000°F) or higher?Not learned 233. Due to of the curing characteristics of plastic refractory, its use should be avoided in __________.Not learned 234. When heated, brickwork in a boiler is kept from buckling by the installation of __________.Not learned 235. Which of the listed refractory materials can be used in an area directly exposed to the highest heat in the furnace?Not learned 236. Which of the listed refractory materials is capable of providing structural stability?Not learned 237. Which of the listed refractory materials is composed of wool fibers and clay binders?Not learned 238. The primary purpose of insulating cement is __________.Not learned 239. Which of the following refractory materials can provide a straight backing surface for insulation block where minor casing warp has occurred?Not learned 240. Which of the listed refractory materials may be used with other machinery insulation arrangements outside of the boiler?Not learned 241. Which of the following statements represents the function of insulating brick?Not learned 242. Which of the following statements represents the function of insulation block?Not learned 243. Which of the following statements represents the advantage of castable insulation over either insulating brick or insulating block installations?Not learned 244. Which of the listed refractory materials would NOT be suitable for use in a wall previously provided with 2-inch thick insulation block, or in the construction of floors, or as a gas-side layer?Not learned 245. The primary purpose of refractory mortar is __________.Not learned 246. A secondary function of the refractory installed in a marine boiler is to __________.Not learned 247. The purpose of the refractory lining of a water-tube boiler furnace is to __________.Not learned 248. The purpose of the boiler furnace corbel is to __________. protect the water drum from direct flame impingement support the furnace wallNot learned 249. According to the illustration of a typical boiler furnace rear wall, which item number would best represent "standard firebrick"Not learned 250. According to the illustration of a typical boiler furnace rear wall, which item number would best represent "standard firebrick"Not learned 251. According to the illustration of a typical boiler furnace rear wall, which item number would best represent "standard firebrick"Not learned 252. When you are installing a new furnace floor in an oil fired boiler, the clearance between the firebricks should be large enough to __________.Not learned 253. When you are installing a new furnace floor in an oil fired boiler, the clearance between the firebricks should be large enough to __________.Not learned 254. When you are installing a new furnace floor in an oil fired boiler, enough clearance should be left between firebrick to allow for __________.Not learned 255. To assure a long service life for boiler refractory materials after installation, the most effective method is to __________.Not learned 256. Which of the listed procedures is the most important factor to take into consideration when making repairs to the refractory surrounding the burner openings?Not learned 257. To prevent a small plastic refractory wall patch repair from falling into the furnace of a boiler, you should __________.Not learned 258. A furnace wall in which there are open spaces around the brick as a result of firebrick shrinkage, is __________.Not learned 259. When drying and baking are impractical, or time is not available, which of the listed materials could be used to repair both burner openings and gas baffles?Not learned 260. Which of the listed statements is true concerning the application and use of plastic fireclay furnace refractory?Not learned 261. Which of the listed refractory materials should be used for patching a burner front formed of plastic, castable, or tile?Not learned 262. To make temporary emergency repairs to brickwork in a boiler furnace, which of the materials listed should be used?Not learned 263. After patching refractory with plastic firebrick, holes are poked in the patch on 1 1/2 inch centers in order to __________.Not learned 264. Slagging of boiler furnaces is a slow progressive action which is accelerated by __________.Not learned 265. Slag buildup on boiler furnace refractory is undesirable because it causes __________.Not learned 266. Burning fuel with entrained saltwater, will cause a glassy slag formation on furnace refractory. This slag will __________.Not learned 267. Which of the conditions listed occurs when glassy slag, formed by the burning of fuel oil contaminated with salt water, melts and runs over the furnace wall?Not learned 268. The peeling of boiler refractory associated with slagging, is caused by the __________.Not learned 269. Which of the following conditions will occur when a glassy film forms on the furnace wall due to the burning of fuel oil contaminated with salt water?Not learned 270. Radial cracks have developed in the castable refractory of the burner cones after the first firing since the installation of new furnace front refractory. This is an indication of __________.Not learned 271. Which of the following conditions is indicated by an external bulge or bowed area of the boiler furnace wall?Not learned 272. The primary purpose of the refractory in a marine boiler is to __________.Not learned 273. The burner front refractory should be replaced when the slag accumulation causes __________.Not learned 274. Boiler furnace brickwork can be fractured and broken by thermal shock caused by __________.Not learned 275. During each two and one-half year inspection, which test or examination of a cargo vessel water tube boiler is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR)?Not learned 276. Which of the following statements concerning boiler steam drum surface blow piping is correct?Not learned 277. Steam baffles are installed in the steam drum of a water-tube boiler to __________.Not learned 278. Where is the "dry pipe" located in a boiler?Not learned 279. One function of the internal fitting labeled "C" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 280. The primary purpose of the boiler internal dry pipe is to __________.Not learned 281. Which of the following statements represents one operational characteristic of a cyclone steam separator?Not learned 282. The main purpose of the boiler steam drum component shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 283. The component shown in the illustration depicts a/an __________Not learned 284. The internal feed pipe of a power boiler distributes the feed water into the __________.Not learned 285. Which of the following represents one of the most important considerations in the design and location of the boiler internal feed pipe?Not learned 286. A boiler internal feed pipe is perforated to __________.Not learned 287. A boiler internal feed pipe is perforated to __________.Not learned 288. The internal feed pipe in a D-type marine boiler __________.Not learned 289. The internal feed pipe in a D-type marine boiler provides __________. distribution of feed water evenly throughout the water drum guidance and distribution of chemicals throughout the steam drumNot learned 290. The internal feed pipe in a D-type marine boiler provides ______.Not learned 291. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), main propulsion water-tube boilers are not required to be fitted with a surface blow-off valve if the design pressure is which of the following?Not learned 292. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), feed water nozzles shall be fitted with sleeves, or have other suitable means employed to reduce the effects of temperature differentials on all boilers designed for operating pressures of __________.Not learned 293. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 294. One function of the desuperheater installed in a boiler steam drum is to __________.Not learned 295. The main function of a desuperheater is to __________.Not learned 296. Steam leaving the desuperheater is used to __________.Not learned 297. A boiler fitting used to protect the superheater and to provide reduced temperature steam for use by auxiliaries is the __________.Not learned 298. One purpose of a desuperheater installed in a boiler steam drum is to __________.Not learned 299. Water-tube boilers having integral uncontrolled superheaters are equipped with internal desuperheaters to __________.Not learned 300. Spray attemperators are commonly used to __________.Not learned 301. Which of the following locations could desuperheated steam be considered to occur?Not learned 302. The primary purpose of a control desuperheater installed in the steam drum of a boiler is to __________.Not learned 303. The control desuperheater of most boilers functions to control __________.Not learned 304. A boiler desuperheater is installed in high pressure boilers to __________. maintain flow through the superheater raise the steam temperature in the steam drumNot learned 305. One of the functions of a boiler desuperheater installed in a high pressure boiler is to __________. maintain the essential flow of feed water into the drum heat the boiler water in the steam drumNot learned 306. One function of a steam drum desuperheater installed in a high pressure boiler would be to __________.Not learned 307. A leaking boiler desuperheater may be indicated by a/an __________. >I. gradual, but continual rise in phosphate readings in only one boiler >II. inability to maintain normal working pressure in the auxiliary steam systemNot learned 308. Which of the test pressures listed is considered to be satisfactory when conducting a hydrostatic test on a desuperheater, which has undergone a welding repair, and has been reinstalled in a boiler having a MAWP of 900 psi?Not learned 309. Which of the following would indicate a moderate leak in the desuperheater?Not learned 310. Leakage into an internal desuperheater may be caused by __________.Not learned 311. An indication of a moderate leak existing in a desuperheater is __________.Not learned 312. A leak in a desuperheater could be indicated by an __________.Not learned 313. A leak in the internal desuperheater located in one of the two main boilers on a ship can be indicated by a/an __________.Not learned 314. A small leak in the desuperheater of an operating boiler could cause an __________.Not learned 315. The inability to maintain proper boiler water alkalinity, phosphate, or pH levels in a steam boiler, indicates a leak in the __________.Not learned 316. While your vessel is steaming at a constant rate, the alkalinity in one of the boilers is decreasing steadily without requiring the use of extra makeup feed water. This condition could be caused by a leak in the __________.Not learned 317. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 318. The purpose of the boiler drum air cock is to __________.Not learned 319. Which of the following is the best reason for opening the air cock when draining a water-tube boiler?Not learned 320. Desuperheated steam can be found at the __________.Not learned 321. After a boiler has been taken off the line and is cooling, the air cock is opened to __________.Not learned 322. After which of the following is the air cock to be closed when raising steam on a cold boiler?Not learned 323. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that main propulsion water-tube boilers are required to be fitted with a surface blow off valve if the design pressure is __________.Not learned 324. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that boiler mountings shall be removed and studs examined by a Coast Guard inspector __________.Not learned 325. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a 1200 psig maximum allowable working pressure boiler, with external blow off piping is required to have the blow off piping withstand a minimum of __________.Not learned 326. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), blow off piping external to a boiler with a maximum allowable working pressure of 600 psig must be capable of withstanding a minimum pressure of __________.Not learned 327. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following is classified as a boiler mounting?Not learned 328. The disc of a relief valve has an area of 0.85 square inches when seated, lifts at a set point pressure of 250 psi. When the valve lifts, the area of the disc exposed to pressure increases by 20%. At what pressure does the valve reseat?Not learned 329. The disc of a relief valve has an area of 0.75 square inches (483.87 square mm) when seated, and lifts at a set point pressure of 250 psi (1723.50 kPa). When the valve lifts, the area of the disc exposed to pressure increases by 10%. At what pressure does the valve re-seat?Not learned 330. A safety valve with a 2-inch diameter disk has a compressed spring applying 2,400 pounds of force to the top of the valve disk in opposition to system pressure. Which one of the following is the approximate system pressure at which the safety valve will open?Not learned 331. Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?Not learned 332. When seated, the disc of a safety valve has an area of 0.75 square inches (1.9 sq cm). When the valve lifts the area is increased by 10%. If the valve lifts at 300 psig (2170 kPa), at approximately what pressure will the valve reseat?Not learned 333. How is the nozzle in a nozzle reaction safety valve held in place?Not learned 334. The fittings labeled "P" shown in the illustration are known as the __________Not learned 335. Which of the listed types of safety valves is shown in the illustrationNot learned 336. On a boiler safety valve, the blowdown adjusting ring is locked in place by a __________.Not learned 337. To change the amount of blow down of the safety valve shown in the illustration, you must change the position of the __________Not learned 338. A nozzle reaction safety valve will lift at a pressure lower than required if the __________.Not learned 339. What is the primary operational difference between a nozzle reaction safety valve and a huddling chamber safety valve?Not learned 340. What is the primary operational difference between a nozzle reaction safety valve and a huddling chamber safety valve?Not learned 341. When excessive static boiler pressure has resulted in the initial lift of the valve disc, a huddling chamber safety valve will continue to lift open as a result of ___________,Not learned 342. In a huddling chamber type safety valve, initial valve opening is caused by static pressure acting on the __________.Not learned 343. In a huddling chamber safety valve, the initial valve opening is caused by __________.Not learned 344. The function of a safety valve on a marine boiler is to prevent the pressure in the boiler from rising above __________.Not learned 345. The set point pressure at which the first boiler safety valve is to lift is the __________.Not learned 346. Safety valves should be set to lift at or below the maximum working pressure allowed by the __________.Not learned 347. A boiler safety valve must be capable of __________.Not learned 348. Which of the conditions listed will provide 'blow down' after the safety valve has lifted?Not learned 349. To adjust the amount of safety valve blow down, as shown in the illustration, you would reposition the part indicated by arrow '_______Not learned 350. Increasing the blow down of a boiler nozzle reaction safety valve is normally accomplished by __________.Not learned 351. To increase the blow down of a nozzle reaction safety valve, __________.Not learned 352. The principal means of increasing the amount of blow down for safety valve shown in the illustration, remove the set screw labeled __________Not learned 353. The popping pressure of the safety valve, shown in the illustration, is controlled by the __________Not learned 354. To change the lifting pressure of the safety valve shown in the illustration, you must readjust the part labeled __________Not learned 355. To increase the popping pressure of the safety valve shown in the illustration, __________Not learned 356. Which of the following statements concerning the safety valve shown in the illustration is correctNot learned 357. A boiler accumulation test is used to measure the __________.Not learned 358. Accumulation tests are conducted in order to determine the __________.Not learned 359. Proper bracing and support of the boiler safety valve escape piping is necessary to __________.Not learned 360. On a boiler equipped with pilot actuated safety valves, which of the valves listed will be actuated first?Not learned 361. One of the important functions of the superheater safety valves is to __________.Not learned 362. Once a huddling chamber type safety valve has begun to initially open, it will then pop open due to the __________. expansion of the steam leaving the nozzle forces exerted on the projecting lipsNot learned 363. Coast Guard regulations require that the superheater safety valves __________. and the drum safety shall have a total rated capacity not less than the maximum generating capacity of the boiler be set and adjusted under pressure, regardless of the pilot pressure sourceNot learned 364. The relieving capacity of the superheater safety valves is considered to be insufficient when the working pressure of the boilers is __________. increased DecreasedNot learned 365. The relieving pressure of the superheater safety valves is permitted to be reset without exchanging the valves when the working pressure of the boilers is __________. increased DecreasedNot learned 366. The safety valve hand lifting gear should not be used if the boiler pressure is less than 75% of the safety valve popping pressure in order to __________. provide sufficient steam flow across the valve to prevent the collection of scale on the seat prevent cracking of the seat due to chattering of the feather and discNot learned 367. On an operating boiler, the superheater safety valve shown in the illustration is set to lift at 670 psi and reseat at 630 psi. To increase the lifting pressure to 700 psi, but maintain the previous reseat pressure, you would turn the compression screw __________Not learned 368. When testing boiler safeties, those valves not being tested are prevented from lifting by __________.Not learned 369. To prevent safety valves from lifting when a boiler is being hydrostatically tested, you should __________.Not learned 370. Which of the precautions listed should be taken when gagging a boiler safety valve?Not learned 371. Safety valve gags should only be installed hand tight in order to prevent __________.Not learned 372. When placing a gag on the safety valve shown in the illustration, it is necessary to remove the __________Not learned 373. When installing new safety valve escape piping, precautions should include assuring that __________.Not learned 374. While your vessel is underway at normal speed, a steam drum safety valve develops a significant leak. Your first corrective action should be to __________.Not learned 375. If a boiler superheater safety valve is leaking at normal working pressure, the quickest method of determining and possibly solving the problem is to __________.Not learned 376. Which of the conditions will occur FIRST if the steam flow to the main engine, when at full power, is suddenly stopped?Not learned 377. Which of the conditions listed could be the cause of chattering in a boiler safety valve?Not learned 378. Coast Guard regulations require that the relieving capacity of boiler safety valves must be checked __________.Not learned 379. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit repairs and adjustments to boiler safety valves while installed on a main propulsion boiler and may be made by ________.Not learned 380. According to Coast Guard Regulations, boiler safety valves __________.Not learned 381. Coast Guard Regulations, 46 CFR Part 54, require steam safety and relief valves to be provided with a substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disc from its seat at what percentage of the set pressure?Not learned 382. If the maximum steam generating capacity of a boiler is increased, 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering) requires that the safety valve's __________.Not learned 383. If the maximum steam generating capacity of a boiler is increased, 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering) requires that the safety valve's __________.Not learned 384. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements is true concerning safety valve construction and/or operation used on propulsion boilers?Not learned 385. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the final setting of boiler safety valves be conducted in presence of the __________.Not learned 386. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) for boiler safety valves, require that __________.Not learned 387. The MAWP of a boiler is 900 psi and the normal drop across the superheater is 20 psi. If the superheater safety valve is set to lift at 825 psi, the minimum settings of the drum safety valves allowed by Coast Guard Regulations would be _______.Not learned 388. A boiler superheater safety valve is set to lift at 450 psi (3102 kPa). Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that if there is a pressure drop of 10 psi (69 kPa) across the superheater, the drum safety valve should set to lift at a pressure of __________.Not learned 389. According to 46 CFR, which of the following statements is true concerning main boiler safety valve escape piping?Not learned 390. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) concerning superheater safety valves require that the valve __________.Not learned 391. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 52) concerning boiler superheater safety valves require that the valve ________.Not learned 392. The safety valve nominal size for propulsion boilers and superheaters must be not less than 1 1/2 inches and not more than 4 inches. The term 'nominal size' refers to the __________.Not learned 393. A properly adjusted safety valve for an auxiliary boiler will __________.Not learned 394. The maximum allowable working pressure on a packaged auxiliary boiler is 200 psig. The normal working pressure for one particular packaged boiler is 175 psig. Which of the following safety relief valve settings would be proper for this boiler?Not learned 395. A safety valve on an auxiliary boiler simmers constantly and cannot be stopped by several quick blow-offs using the hand-relieving gear. The problem may be __________.Not learned 396. Which of the listed types of safety valves is shown in the illustrationNot learned 397. A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to __________.Not learned 398. The process of breaking up fuel oil into fine particles to ensure good combustion is called __________.Not learned 399. Fuel oil atomizers are used in boilers to __________.Not learned 400. Fuel oil passing through the burners is divided into fine particles by the __________.Not learned 401. The degree of fuel oil atomization is dependent upon the __________.Not learned 402. In addition to a nozzle, a fuel oil atomizer uses which of the listed parts?Not learned 403. In addition to a orifice plate, a fuel oil atomizer uses which of the listed parts?Not learned 404. The primary purpose of the sprayer plate in a mechanical atomizing oil burner is to __________.Not learned 405. What is indicated by the code number 32Y20 stamped on a burner sprayer plate?Not learned 406. Which group of numbers would indicate the largest fuel capacity for a sprayer plate in a mechanical fuel oil atomizer?Not learned 407. Which atomizing sprayer plate has the largest capacity?Not learned 408. Which of the following statements is true concerning the burner atomizer shown in the illustrationNot learned 409. The number '29' on a fuel oil burner sprayer plate marked '2909' indicates the __________.Not learned 410. The last two digits stamped on a fuel oil atomizer sprayer plate represents the cross-sectional area ratios of the tangential slots and orifice. This ratio determines the __________.Not learned 411. The illustrated burner atomizer assembly is __________Not learned 412. In a marine boiler equipped with mechanically atomized burner assemblies, proper combustion depends on the __________.Not learned 413. In a marine boiler equipped with mechanically atomized burner assemblies, proper combustion depends on the __________.Not learned 414. To obtain the best mixing of air and fuel with a fuel oil atomizer, you need to adjust the __________.Not learned 415. The amount of oil atomized by a straight mechanical fuel oil burner depends on the sprayer plate size and the __________.Not learned 416. Which of the fuel atomizers listed has the greatest firing range or turndown ratio?Not learned 417. A boiler has a steam delivery capacity of 100,000 pounds per hour, and is equipped with four steam atomizing burners. If the load range of the burners is 4 to 1, this means that __________.Not learned 418. Boilers equipped with steam atomizers can operate over a wide load range without cutting burners in and out because __________.Not learned 419. Boilers equipped with steam atomized burners can be operated without changing burner tips because steam atomization __________.Not learned 420. Boilers equipped with steam atomizers can operate over a wide load range without cutting burners in and out because __________.Not learned 421. In most installations, the firing rate of a boiler using steam atomization is indicated by the __________.Not learned 422. The firing range of a steam assisted fuel atomizer is regulated to cope with changes in the steam demand by varying the __________.Not learned 423. The amount of fuel oil atomized by a steam atomization burner depends on the atomizing steam pressure, the fuel pressure and the __________.Not learned 424. An advantage of steam atomization compared to mechanical atomization is __________.Not learned 425. A secondary function of atomization steam in a fuel oil burner is to __________.Not learned 426. A primary function of burner atomization steam is to __________.Not learned 427. In a steam assist atomizer, the fuel oil/steam mix takes place entirely within the __________.Not learned 428. Compared to the return flow oil burner system, an internally mixed steam atomizer requires __________.Not learned 429. In a steam assist fuel oil atomizer, the steam pressure is higher than the oil pressure at __________.Not learned 430. Steam assist fuel atomizers are converted to straight mechanical atomizers in order to __________.Not learned 431. Which of the following procedures represents the proper care of unused burners during low load conditions?Not learned 432. Boiler fuel oil atomizer parts should be cleaned by soaking in 'tip cleaner' or diesel fuel and __________.Not learned 433. To properly clean a burner tip, you should use __________.Not learned 434. To properly remove the burner tip nut from the burner barrel, the barrel should be __________.Not learned 435. Improper atomization can be caused by __________.Not learned 436. Which of the listed conditions would indicate a dirty atomizer sprayer plate?Not learned 437. Improper fuel oil burner atomization can be generally attributed to __________.Not learned 438. If the temperature of the fuel oil entering an atomizer is too low, the burner will __________.Not learned 439. If a burner were inserted too far into the boiler furnace, it could cause carbon deposits on the __________.Not learned 440. Which of the conditions listed could be responsible for the flame of a mechanical atomizer to blow out when attempting to light off?Not learned 441. Poor atomization accompanied by an elongated flame from a steam atomization burner is MOST likely caused by __________.Not learned 442. Accumulation of fuel oil in the boiler double casing could be caused by __________.Not learned 443. Fuel oil accumulation in a boiler double front is generally caused by __________.Not learned 444. Fluctuations in the atomizing steam pressure at the burners could be caused by a/an __________.Not learned 445. Fluctuations in the atomizing steam pressure at the burners could be caused by a/an __________.Not learned 446. In a multi-burner firebox, a burner tip with a worn and enlarged orifice will __________.Not learned 447. In a multi-burner firebox, a burner tip with a worn and enlarged orifice will __________.Not learned 448. Excessive accumulation of carbon deposits on a boiler burner throat ring and diffuser could result in __________.Not learned 449. Carbon deposits on the boiler burner throat ring is usually caused by __________.Not learned 450. When preparing to light off a cold boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system, the recirculating valve directs the flow of oil __________.Not learned 451. A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to __________.Not learned 452. Variations in the amount of fuel oil burned in a return flow type burner of an auxiliary boiler, are controlled by the __________.Not learned 453. A sprayer plate marked 32Y20, as used in a return flow fuel oil system, should only be used with a/an __________.Not learned 454. In comparison to straight flow mechanical atomizers, return flow atomizers provide relatively uniform atomization over a wide firing range due to the __________.Not learned 455. The amount of oil consumed by a return flow-type fuel atomization system, fitted with both supply and return meters, can be determined by the __________.Not learned 456. Subtracting the return flow meter reading from the supply flow meter reading on a boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system, determines the amount of oil __________.Not learned 457. The firing range of a variable capacity, return flow-type fuel atomizer is regulated to meet steam demand by varying the __________.Not learned 458. The amount of fuel oil atomized by a return flow oil burner is directly controlled by the __________.Not learned 459. A sprayer plate used in a return flow fuel oil atomizer is correctly installed if the oil __________.Not learned 460. The amount of oil atomized by the return flow variable capacity atomizer, used with some automatically fired boilers, is controlled by the __________.Not learned 461. Which of the following conditions is responsible for the fuel oil to atomize when using a steam atomizer in an auxiliary boiler?Not learned 462. Which of the following statements describes how the fuel oil enters the whirling chambers of the sprayer plates used in an auxiliary boiler return flow fuel oil system?Not learned 463. Excessive return oil pressure from a variable capacity return flow fuel oil burner system on an automatic auxiliary boiler, will cause __________.Not learned 464. The illustrated burner atomizer assembly is __________Not learned 465. Regarding the boiler shown in the illustration, the burners are to be placed at __________Not learned 466. The component labeled "F" as shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 467. The entire unit which houses the burner, air scoop, air doors and bladed cone is correctly called the __________.Not learned 468. The measured gap between the face of the burner atomizer tip nut and the diffuser plate, is determined by the setting of the __________.Not learned 469. The distance piece in a boiler burner register assembly, provides for adjustment of the __________.Not learned 470. The distance piece in a boiler burner register assembly, provides for adjustment of the __________.Not learned 471. Which of the following represents the function of the diffuser used with a mechanical atomizing oil burner?Not learned 472. The purpose of the diffuser in a boiler burner assembly is to __________.Not learned 473. The diffuser of a burner register assembly __________.Not learned 474. In an air register assembly, the majority of air passes through the __________.Not learned 475. What is the purpose of the movable air doors in an air register?Not learned 476. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "diffuser"Not learned 477. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "air doors"Not learned 478. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "air door handle"Not learned 479. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "igniter"Not learned 480. When securing a boiler, the burner registers are to be left open for a few minutes to __________.Not learned 481. A burner atomizer improperly positioned in the distance piece, may cause __________.Not learned 482. Throttling the burner air register of a lit burner could result in __________.Not learned 483. The main reason for keeping an operating boiler burner register fully open while steaming is to prevent __________.Not learned 484. Why are the burner registers closed a few minutes after a boiler has been secured to be cooled?Not learned 485. Shortly after shutting off the fuel to a boiler which is to be secured, the __________.Not learned 486. Which of the conditions listed can cause the flame of a mechanically atomized burner to be blown away from the burner tip when you are attempting to light off?Not learned 487. Carbon deposits on the diffuser and register throat ring of a burner __________.Not learned 488. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "igniter"Not learned 489. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "diffuser"Not learned 490. The components lettered "O" shown in the illustration function to __________Not learned 491. The boiler shown in the illustration, arrow "O" indicates the __________Not learned 492. The tubes projecting horizontally through the generating tube bank shown in the illustration are __________Not learned 493. The purpose of the cam-actuated steam valve used in a boiler soot blower system, is to __________.Not learned 494. The arc through which a steam soot blower element blows is regulated by the __________.Not learned 495. Combustion gases can leak into the fire room through __________.Not learned 496. The scavenging air for soot blowers is supplied by the __________.Not learned 497. Scavenging air is supplied to steam sootblower elements to __________.Not learned 498. Scavenging air is supplied to steam sootblower elements to __________.Not learned 499. Scavenging air is supplied to steam sootblower elements to __________.Not learned 500. The purpose of the pressure control disk installed in the multi-nozzle soot blower, as shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 501. If the pressure control disk in the soot blower illustrated, is moved to a higher position, the result will __________Not learned 502. The purpose of the pressure control disk installed in the soot blower illustrated is to __________Not learned 503. Before blowing tubes in a boiler equipped with steam sootblowers, you should __________.Not learned 504. Before using the steam soot blowers to blow tubes at sea, you should __________.Not learned 505. In preparing to blow tubes at sea, you should __________.Not learned 506. Boiler forced draft pressure should be increased before blowing tubes to __________.Not learned 507. Which of the listed operational precautions is necessary before blowing tubes?Not learned 508. Before using a boiler compressed air soot blower system, you should __________.Not learned 509. To avoid acid corrosion of the economizer tubes when blowing tubes __________.Not learned 510. The steam soot blower piping should be thoroughly drained before operating to prevent __________.Not learned 511. The steam soot blower piping should be thoroughly drained before operating to prevent __________.Not learned 512. The steam soot blower piping should be thoroughly drained before operating to prevent __________.Not learned 513. The combustion air pressure is increased when using the steam soot blowers to 'blow tubes' in order to __________. aid in the process of removing soot deposits prevent the steam from extinguishing the firesNot learned 514. Scavenging air pressure is provided to the steam soot blowers to __________. keep steam from accumulating in the soot blowing element while another element is being operated prevent corrosive combustion gases from entering the elements when the system is securedNot learned 515. Steam soot blower piping should be thoroughly drained before operating to prevent __________.Not learned 516. Excessive soot accumulations on boiler generating tube surfaces can result in __________.Not learned 517. An indication of a faulty superheater soot blower element is a __________.Not learned 518. If a soot blower element does not revolve freely, the most likely cause would be __________.Not learned 519. Boiler firesides must be kept free of soot accumulations because __________.Not learned 520. An indication of excessive soot accumulation on boiler water tubes and economizer surfaces is __________.Not learned 521. After routine blowing of tubes at sea, there should be a decrease in the __________.Not learned 522. Which of the following conditions must exist before the superheating of saturated steam can occur in a steam propulsion boiler?Not learned 523. In a boiler equipped with a convection type superheater, the superheater tubes are located __________.Not learned 524. Superheaters of the convection type are heated __________.Not learned 525. In a boiler equipped with a convection type superheater, the superheater tubes are located __________.Not learned 526. The boiler superheater shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 527. What type of boiler superheater is shown in the illustrationNot learned 528. The boiler superheater vent, using the illustration, would be connected to the part labeled "____"Not learned 529. Where is the superheater located in the boiler shown in the illustrationNot learned 530. Boiler superheaters are designed to __________.Not learned 531. The purpose of the division plates installed in boiler superheater headers is to __________.Not learned 532. Which of the types of superheaters listed has the flattest superheat temperature curve?Not learned 533. A convection type superheater in a D-type boiler is protected from radiant heat by __________.Not learned 534. Desuperheated steam from the control desuperheater is returned to the main superheater to control the outlet temperature by the action of __________.Not learned 535. Under steady steaming conditions, the superheater outlet temperature is regulated by the __________.Not learned 536. The plugging of an excessive number of superheater tubes will result in __________.Not learned 537. The plugging of an excessive number of superheater tubes will result in __________.Not learned 538. If a pressure drop does not exist across the superheater in a steaming boiler __________.Not learned 539. Warping of superheater screen tubes can be caused by __________.Not learned 540. Fireside burning of boiler tubes is usually the direct result of __________.Not learned 541. Fireside burning of boiler tubes is usually the direct result of __________.Not learned 542. The most serious fireside burning of the boiler superheater tubes is the result of __________.Not learned 543. Fireside burning of boiler superheater tubes is a direct result of __________.Not learned 544. Fireside burning of boiler tubes can be a result of __________.Not learned 545. The most common cause of abnormal fireside burning of the boiler superheater tubes can "indirectly" be the result of _________.Not learned 546. The most common cause of abnormal fireside burning of the boiler superheater tubes can "indirectly" be the result of _________.Not learned 547. A heavy accumulation of soot on the fireside of the superheater can cause a __________.Not learned 548. Dirty generating tube surfaces may cause higher than normal superheater outlet temperatures because __________.Not learned 549. Excessive soot deposits on the heating surfaces of a boiler uncontrolled interdeck superheater would be indicated by __________.Not learned 550. After steam has been raised and a boiler is being placed on the line, the superheater vent can be closed when __________.Not learned 551. When a boiler is up to pressure and is being placed on the line, you should secure the __________.Not learned 552. Which of the listed actions should be carried out with the superheater vent valve during the time steam is being raised in a boiler?Not learned 553. When raising steam on a boiler, the superheater drains should __________.Not learned 554. The superheater vents should always be open when __________.Not learned 555. Increasing the amount of excess air to a boiler equipped with an uncontrolled interdeck superheater will cause the steam temperature at the superheater outlet to __________.Not learned 556. An excessively high superheater temperature could be the result of __________.Not learned 557. Which statement is true concerning operational factors affecting the degree of superheat in a single furnace boiler?Not learned 558. On a boiler equipped with an uncontrolled interdeck superheater, reducing the feed water temperature to the steam drum will cause the superheater outlet temperature to __________.Not learned 559. When operating under constant load, the superheated steam temperature may rise above normal if the __________.Not learned 560. Under constant boiler load, the superheated steam temperature may rise above normal for the existing load if __________.Not learned 561. In a "D" type marine boiler, operating under constant load, which of the following conditions could cause the superheated steam temperature to rise above normal?Not learned 562. A cause of high superheater outlet temperature is _________,Not learned 563. Should the superheater outlet thermometer indicate an excessively high temperature on a single furnace boiler, the cause could be __________.Not learned 564. Under otherwise normal steaming conditions, an abnormally high temperature at the superheater outlet of a single furnace boiler would indicate __________.Not learned 565. The temperature of steam at the superheater outlet is influenced by the __________.Not learned 566. High temperature at the superheater outlet would NOT be caused by __________.Not learned 567. High temperature at the superheater outlet would be caused by __________.Not learned 568. When answering a full astern bell from half ahead, the superheater outlet temperature on a single furnace boiler will __________.Not learned 569. Under normal operating conditions, a drop in the steam temperature leaving an uncontrolled interdeck superheater could be caused by a __________.Not learned 570. In an automatically fired boiler, increasing the temperature of the feed water entering the steam drum will ultimately result in a/an __________.Not learned 571. In an automatically fired boiler, increasing the temperature of the feed water entering the steam drum will ultimately result in a/an __________.Not learned 572. Under normal firing rates, a reduction of the steam outlet temperature from an uncontrolled superheater could be caused by __________.Not learned 573. Under normal operating conditions, a drop in the steam temperature leaving an interdeck-type superheater can be caused by a decrease in the velocity of the __________.Not learned 574. Under otherwise normal operating conditions, a drop in the steam temperature leaving an uncontrolled interdeck-type superheater could be caused by a/an __________.Not learned 575. Under normal operating conditions, a drop in the steam temperature at the outlet of an interdeck superheater could be caused by a decrease in __________.Not learned 576. If there is a sudden drop in the outlet temperature of an uncontrolled superheater, you should __________.Not learned 577. A sudden unexplainable drop has occurred in the outlet temperature of an uncontrolled interdeck superheater on a boiler carrying a higher than normal TDS (total dissolved solids) reading. Which of the actions listed is required?Not learned 578. Which of the listed conditions can cause high superheater outlet steam temperature in an automated boiler?Not learned 579. Which of the listed conditions can cause excessively high superheater outlet steam temperature in an automated boiler?Not learned 580. Severe priming in a boiler can cause damage to the __________.Not learned 581. Rapid fluctuation of the superheater outlet temperature can be caused by __________.Not learned 582. A rapid fluctuation of the superheater outlet temperature on a steady steaming boiler could indicate __________.Not learned 583. Damaging scale can form on the interior of superheater tubes as a result of __________.Not learned 584. Which of the following statements represents the Coast Guard Regulation regarding a boiler installation in which the superheater outlet temperature exceeds 850°F?Not learned 585. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that alarm systems be provided for superheaters whose operating outlet temperature is capable of exceeding __________.Not learned 586. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) concerning marine boilers, require the installation of a safety valve on the __________.Not learned 587. In the boiler shown in the illustration, the arrow "E" indicates a __________Not learned 588. Where is the superheater located in the boiler shown in the illustrationNot learned 589. Which of the devices listed is shown in the boiler illustrationNot learned 590. In a boiler water gauge glass, a ball check valve is installed on the __________.Not learned 591. The phrase 'boiler water column' as defined in the regulations, refers to the __________.Not learned 592. The glass used in a flat-type boiler water gage is protected from the hot steam and water by a/an __________.Not learned 593. Bi-color water level indicators, connected directly to the boiler drum, operate on the principle of __________.Not learned 594. The purpose of the mica used in a boiler water gauge glass assembly is to prevent __________.Not learned 595. Which of the following actions, if any, should be taken if the water gage glass on a steaming boiler breaks?Not learned 596. Thin sheets of mica are installed in boiler gage glasses to __________. reduce the effects of thermal exposure on the glass enhance the ability of the operator to observe the water level from a distanceNot learned 597. Thin sheets of mica are installed in boiler gage glasses to __________.Not learned 598. You are standing watch in the engine room of a steam vessel. You should blow down a gauge glass periodically to __________.Not learned 599. The boiler water gauge glasses should be blown down __________.Not learned 600. You are standing watch in the engine room of a steam vessel. You should blow down a gauge glass periodically to __________.Not learned 601. To properly blowdown a boiler gage glass, you should __________.Not learned 602. In the absence of the manufacturer's instructions, a good procedure in reassembling a high-pressure boiler gauge glass is to tighten the nuts in pairs and __________.Not learned 603. The items labeled "D" and "M" as indicated on the illustration are commonly called ________Not learned 604. The items labeled "D" and "M" as indicated on the illustration are commonly called ________Not learned 605. If the engineer on watch has reason to doubt the accuracy of the water level showing in the boiler gauge glass, he should FIRST __________.Not learned 606. If the gage glass water level remains constant in a steaming boiler while maneuvering, the most probable cause is a __________.Not learned 607. An obstruction in the top connection of a boiler gage glass will cause the __________.Not learned 608. While the vessel is rolling in heavy seas, the level in the boiler gauge glass remains steady, this is an indication that __________.Not learned 609. If the engineer on watch has reason to doubt the accuracy of the water level showing in the boiler gauge glass, he should FIRST __________.Not learned 610. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit tubular type water gage glasses on auxiliary boilers, provided the maximum allowable working pressure does not exceed __________.Not learned 611. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the maximum allowable boiler pressure in which a tubular gage glass may be installed is __________.Not learned 612. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the maximum allowable boiler pressure in which a tubular gage glass may be installed is __________.Not learned 613. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the maximum allowable boiler pressure in which a tubular gage glass may be installed is __________.Not learned 614. Proper lagging of a single-element feedwater regulator is accomplished by applying the insulation material __________.Not learned 615. Which of the operating principles listed would apply to a single-element, thermo-hydraulic, feed water regulator?Not learned 616. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of a boiler thermo-hydraulic feed water regulator?Not learned 617. In a single-element feed water regulator, the amount of valve opening and closing is controlled by the __________.Not learned 618. Single-element automatic feed water regulators are controlled by the __________.Not learned 619. Which of the operating principles listed would apply to a single-element, thermo-hydraulic, feed water regulator?Not learned 620. Which type of feed water regulator listed provides the MOST effective regulation of boiler water level under all operating conditions?Not learned 621. A two-element boiler feedwater regulator is controlled by __________.Not learned 622. A two-element feed water regulator responds directly to changes in __________.Not learned 623. Two-element feed water regulators operate by sensing __________.Not learned 624. A two-element feed water regulator reacts to changes in the steam drum water level and the __________.Not learned 625. One of the operating conditions sensed by a two-element feed water regulator is __________.Not learned 626. A two-element feed water regulator not only responds to changes in water level, but is also designed to react to __________.Not learned 627. The two-element feedwater regulator functions similarly to the three-element feedwater regulator but does not utilize __________.Not learned 628. A pneumatic dual element, main propulsion, boiler feedwater regulating system commonly used aboard ship utilizes __________.Not learned 629. A triple element, main propulsion, boiler feedwater regulating system commonly used aboard ship utilizes __________.Not learned 630. A single element boiler feedwater regulating system used aboard ship utilizes __________.Not learned 631. The boiler feedwater control valve varies the unity relationship between steam and water flow during periods of __________.Not learned 632. If the entire pneumatic control to a multi-element feed water regulator fails, the feed water valve is controlled by __________.Not learned 633. In the event of a failure of the pneumatic control system, a multi-element feedwater regulator is designed to operate as a _________.Not learned 634. If the feed water flow sensor of a multi-element feed water regulator fails, the valve will be controlled as a __________.Not learned 635. If the steam flow input device to a two-element feed water regulator valve fails, the regulator operates as a __________.Not learned 636. A major difference between the two-element and the three-element feedwater regulator control systems, is that a three-element system will additionally measure and incorporate the __________.Not learned 637. If the bellows in a thermo-hydraulic feed water control valve ruptures, the boiler water level will __________.Not learned 638. If the bellows in a thermo-hydraulic feed water control valve ruptures, the boiler water level will __________.Not learned 639. The chemical substance initially responsible for heat loss in the combustion process is __________.Not learned 640. Boiler stack gas temperature could be higher than normal if __________.Not learned 641. In a steaming boiler, higher than normal stack gas temperature can be caused by __________.Not learned 642. Boiler stack gas temperatures will be higher than normal when __________.Not learned 643. Corrosion of the flue gas side of the economizer can be a result of the __________. stack gas temperature being lower than the dew point feed water temperature being excessively coolNot learned 644. If the theoretical quantity of dry air required to burn one pound of fuel oil is 13.75 pounds, what is the weight of air per pound of fuel when operating a boiler at 5% excess air?Not learned 645. If the theoretical quantity of dry air required to burn one pound of fuel oil is 13.75 pounds, what is the weight of air per pound of fuel when operating a boiler at 5% excess air?Not learned 646. If the theoretical quantity of dry air required to burn one pound of fuel oil is 13.75 pounds, what is the weight of air per pound of fuel when operating a boiler at 5% excess air?Not learned 647. If the theoretical quantity of dry air required to burn one pound of fuel oil is 13.75 pounds, what is the weight of air per pound of fuel when operating a boiler at 5% excess air?Not learned 648. Excess air must be provided to an operating boiler to allow for __________.Not learned 649. If the stack temperature is higher than normal, this could indicate __________.Not learned 650. Which of the terms listed represents the ratio between the highest and lowest fuel oil pressure at which the burners will remain ignited?Not learned 651. Which of the following represents the proper color of the flame end farthest from the boiler burner during normal operations?Not learned 652. Black smoke issuing from the boiler stack can be caused by an improper fuel/air ratio and by __________.Not learned 653. If a boiler is smoking black and increasing the boiler front air box pressure does not reduce the smoke, the cause can be __________.Not learned 654. If a boiler is smoking black and increasing the boiler front air box pressure does not reduce the smoke, the cause can be __________.Not learned 655. Air leaks through the inner or outer casings of a boiler will __________.Not learned 656. Air leaks through the inner or outer casing of a boiler could result in __________.Not learned 657. In an oil fired water-tube boiler, inner casing air leaks can cause __________.Not learned 658. In addition to being hazardous to personnel, gas leaks through the boiler casing can also __________.Not learned 659. The major heat loss in an oil-fired boiler is the heat __________.Not learned 660. When too much excess air is supplied to an operating boiler, the __________.Not learned 661. Too much excess air in a steaming boiler may be indicated by __________.Not learned 662. Under normal operating conditions of constant load and combustion rates, which of the following will occur when the amount of excess air to the furnace is increased?Not learned 663. Which color burner flame would indicate too much excess air?Not learned 664. An incandescent white flame in a boiler firebox would indicate __________.Not learned 665. A lower than normal boiler stack gas temperature usually indicates __________.Not learned 666. Which of the following boiler stack (smoke color) conditions indicates efficient combustion?Not learned 667. Efficient combustion in a boiler is indicated by a __________.Not learned 668. Economy and efficiency in the operation of a marine boiler have traditionally been characterized by __________.Not learned 669. A light brown haze issuing from the boiler smoke stack generally indicates __________.Not learned 670. The greatest single overall loss of efficiency in a marine propulsion steam plant cycle results from __________.Not learned 671. Excessive combustion air in a boiler is indicated by the flame ends appearing as a/an __________.Not learned 672. White smoke coming from the stack of a main propulsion boiler indicates __________.Not learned 673. White stack smoke from a main propulsion boiler could indicate __________.Not learned 674. Lower boiler efficiency results from carrying too much excess air because __________.Not learned 675. Insufficient combustion air supply to the furnace would cause __________.Not learned 676. Insufficient combustion air supply to a boiler furnace can cause __________.Not learned 677. In a boiler furnace, incomplete combustion due to insufficient air yields an excess amount of __________.Not learned 678. Insufficient combustion air supply will cause an atomizer flame to appear as a __________.Not learned 679. Insufficient air for combustion in a boiler furnace could result in a __________.Not learned 680. A higher than normal stack gas temperature could indicate __________.Not learned 681. Before an explosion can occur in a boiler furnace, there must be an accumulation of unburned fuel, sufficient air to form an explosive mixture, and a __________.Not learned 682. Prior to relieving the watch at sea, you notice black smoke coming from the stack. What would this indicate?Not learned 683. Underway on watch in the fire room, the bridge reports black smoke coming from the stack. This would indicate __________.Not learned 684. Regarding main propulsion boilers, what condition would normally be indicated if the bridge reported that white smoke was observed coming from the stack?Not learned 685. Low stack gas temperatures due to light boiler loads should be avoided in order to reduce the __________.Not learned 686. Low stack gas temperature should be avoided to reduce __________.Not learned 687. If an analysis of boiler flue gas determines there is no excess air for combustion, you should expect the nitrogen content of the flue gas to be approximately __________.Not learned 688. If an analysis of boiler flue gas determines there is 100% excess air for combustion, you should expect the flue gas to have a nitrogen content of approximately __________.Not learned 689. If an analysis of boiler flue gas determines there is 50% excess air for combustion, you should expect the nitrogen content of the flue gas to be approximately __________.Not learned 690. A flue gas analysis is performed to determine the __________.Not learned 691. A chemical based analysis of boiler stack gases is taken to __________.Not learned 692. Assuming all burners are clean and the fuel oil is at the correct temperature, it is considered good practice to adjust the excess air until a light brown haze is obtained. With the aid of a chemical based flue gas analyzer, the percentage readings (not necessarily in order) should indicate __________.Not learned 693. In which order should the chemical test analysis of boiler flue gas samples be made?Not learned 694. The efficiency of boiler combustion can be measured by the relative proportions of certain elements in the flue gases. The elements measured are __________.Not learned 695. A mechanical carbon dioxide recorder operates by detecting the difference between air and the __________.Not learned 696. Generally, a 12% to 14% content of carbon dioxide in boiler flue gases indicates __________.Not learned 697. What percentage of CO₂ in a boiler flue gas analysis would indicate perfect combustion?Not learned 698. Efficient boiler operation is indicated when the percentage by volume of carbon dioxide present in combustion gases is between __________.Not learned 699. When testing boiler flue gas with a chemical absorption apparatus, to obtain accurate results __________.Not learned 700. The absence of carbon monoxide in the flue gas of a boiler indicates __________.Not learned 701. Which of the following chemicals is used in an Orsat apparatus to absorb carbon dioxide?Not learned 702. When burning fuel oil in a boiler, a high CO2 content is desired in the stack gas because __________.Not learned 703. Which of the stack emissions listed represents a heat loss from the furnace?Not learned 704. As the percentage of CO2 in the stack gas decreases, you can assume that __________.Not learned 705. A high percentage of carbon dioxide in boiler flue gases indicates __________.Not learned 706. A high carbon monoxide content in the flue gases of a boiler indicates __________.Not learned 707. The results of a flue gas analysis indicate a very high percentage of oxygen, and a low percentage of carbon dioxide. This condition coincides with which area on the graph shown in the illustrationNot learned 708. Results of a flue gas analysis indicate a high percentage of carbon dioxide and a low percentage of carbon monoxide, approaching maximum efficiency. This condition coincides with which area(s) on the graph shown in the illustrationNot learned 709. The results of a flue gas analysis indicate a very high percentage of oxygen, and a low percentage of carbon dioxide. This condition coincides with which area on the graph shown in the illustrationNot learned 710. Which of the flue gas components listed contributes to the greatest heat loss in a boiler?Not learned 711. If the flue gas oxygen content is too high, you should __________.Not learned 712. According to regulations (46 CFR Part 58), a boiler combustion control system may be tested at __________.Not learned 713. All oil-fired main propulsion burners with automatic safety control systems must automatically close the burner valve when _________.Not learned 714. All oil-fired main propulsion burners with automatic safety control systems must automatically close the burner valve when _________.Not learned 715. All oil-fired main boilers with automatic safety control systems must be provided with _______.Not learned 716. According to 46 CFR's, all oil-fired main propulsion boilers with automatic burner safety control systems must be provided with _______.Not learned 717. The turndown ratio an automatic combustion control system is the ratio __________.Not learned 718. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of the automatic shut down solenoid valve in the fuel oil service manifold of an automatically fired boiler?Not learned 719. A combustion control system diaphragm type air flow transmitter receives its high pressure signal from the boiler __________.Not learned 720. A combustion control system, diaphragm-type, air volume regulator receives its low pressure signal from the boiler __________.Not learned 721. As found in a basic pneumatic automatic combustion control system, the function of a standardizing relay is to __________.Not learned 722. Fine adjustments to a boiler combustion control system, to bring about near perfect combustion, should be made by manually adjusting the __________.Not learned 723. When firing a boiler in local manual control, an increase in boiler load must be accompanied by a/an __________.Not learned 724. In an automatically fired boiler, the steam pressure regulator controls the supply of fuel oil to the burners by responding to variations in the __________.Not learned 725. In automated boiler operations, a dirty flame scanner will most likely result in __________.Not learned 726. Which of the listed devices may trip due to total flame failure in both boilers of an automated plant?Not learned 727. When the flame scanner senses flame failure during boiler operation, which of the listed events will occur FIRST?Not learned 728. Which of the following statements is true concerning a photocell flame scanning system?Not learned 729. Flame scanners are used with boiler combustion control systems to monitor flame quality and to __________.Not learned 730. In addition to monitoring flame quality, flame scanners are used in combustion control systems to __________.Not learned 731. The photoelectric cell installed as part of the combustion safety controls of an automatically fired boiler will __________.Not learned 732. Ultraviolet light sensing flame scanners installed on an automated main propulsion boiler, are designed so they __________.Not learned 733. A flame scanner installed in modern boiler combustion control systems, functions to __________.Not learned 734. Which of the following represents a significant system limitation to be aware of when a burner management system is operated in the "HAND" mode?Not learned 735. Which of the following represents a significant system limitation to be aware of when a burner management system is operated in the "HAND" mode?Not learned 736. In automatic combustion control systems, increasing or decreasing a loading pressure by a set amount is called __________.Not learned 737. While your vessel is steaming with one boiler, the automatic combustion control system sensing line for the idle boiler is accidentally opened. How will this affect the steaming boiler?Not learned 738. If the control air pressure for an automatic combustion control system is lost during maneuvering, you should immediately __________.Not learned 739. When the automatic combustion control fails, what should you do to control the air supply to a boiler?Not learned 740. Modern day boiler automation allows bypassing the "flame safeguard" system to permit a burner to have a "trial for ignition" period during burner light-off. This period may not exceed ______.Not learned 741. In a boiler automation system, if a burner fuel oil solenoid valve continually trips closed under normal steaming conditions, you should __________.Not learned 742. When a vessel is in port and the boiler automation system continually trips the burner fuel oil solenoid valve, you should __________.Not learned 743. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 62) for vessels propelled by steam turbines, the navigation bridge primary control system must include safety limit controls for ____________.Not learned 744. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), when an automatically fired boiler has a flameout, which of the following actions should occur FIRST?Not learned 745. In a regenerative air heater, air is bypassed around the heater while __________.Not learned 746. Stack type air heaters are bypassed when a vessel is in port in order to prevent __________.Not learned 747. One function of the air and flue gas bypass dampers installed in regenerative type air heaters is to __________.Not learned 748. A regenerative type air heater should be bypassed at low load in order to __________.Not learned 749. When a vessel is in port, stack type air heaters are bypassed in order to prevent __________.Not learned 750. Air for combustion is bypassed around the boiler air heater when the __________.Not learned 751. A flue gas air heater, when installed in a boiler, would be accompanied by the operating characteristic(s) of __________. higher furnace temperatures than a boiler without an air heater greater heat absorption per pound of fuelNot learned 752. A flue gas air heater, when installed in a boiler would be accompanied by the operating characteristic(s) of __________. higher uptake temperatures than a boiler without an air heater lower corrosion rates in the uptakes and economizerNot learned 753. Boiler fuel savings gained by the use of an economizer can amount to __________.Not learned 754. Whenever operating a boiler, whose economizer is bypassed, always keep in mind that __________.Not learned 755. If a boiler is being operated with the inlet feed water bypassing the economizer, which of the following is true?Not learned 756. Which of the devices listed is indicated by arrow "H" shown in the illustrationNot learned 757. The boiler economizer provides additional heat to the __________.Not learned 758. A check valve is located between the economizer and the steam drum to __________.Not learned 759. Which of the conditions listed could cause steam formation in the economizer?Not learned 760. The minimum feedwater inlet temperature to a boiler economizer is determined by the __________.Not learned 761. A boiler economizer should be bypassed whenever the _______.Not learned 762. When installed, the economizer relief valve should always be set __________.Not learned 763. Which of the conditions listed could cause a boiler economizer to leak?Not learned 764. When a soot fire occurs, damage to an economizer can be minimized if you __________.Not learned 765. Which of the conditions listed would indicate excessive soot buildup on the economizer?Not learned 766. Which of the problems listed will occur when the economizer temperature is below the acid dew point of the flue gases?Not learned 767. Which of the valves listed should be closed before lighting off a boiler?Not learned 768. The major heat loss in an oil-fired boiler is the heat __________.Not learned 769. The greatest heat loss in an oil fired boiler is from __________.Not learned 770. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the design pressure of an economizer integral with the boiler and connected to the boiler drum without intervening stop valves shall be at least equal to __________.Not learned 771. When a boiler economizer is fitted with a valved bypass, Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require which of the following devices to be installed?Not learned 772. The volatility of any oil may be indicated by __________.Not learned 773. The viscosity of an oil is a measure of its __________.Not learned 774. The device shown in the illustration is used to determine the __________Not learned 775. The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it __________.Not learned 776. The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer because it __________.Not learned 777. What is the harmful effect of sulfur in a fuel?Not learned 778. The percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil sample is determined by __________.Not learned 779. Burning fuel with entrained saltwater, will cause a glassy slag formation on furnace refractory. This slag will __________.Not learned 780. The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.Not learned 781. A desirable property of boiler fuel oil is __________.Not learned 782. The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy, is known as its __________.Not learned 783. Which of the significant combustible elements of fuel oil is a major source of boiler corrosion?Not learned 784. The presence of sulphur in fuel oil will most likely cause __________.Not learned 785. Which combustible element in fuel oil is considered a significant and major source of air pollution?Not learned 786. Which constituent of fuel oil determines the specific heat?Not learned 787. What is the main constituent in fuel oil which determines its heat value?Not learned 788. When heated, fuel oil will __________.Not learned 789. Fuel oil is heated before atomizing to __________.Not learned 790. The most harmful slag forming compounds found in fuel oils are __________.Not learned 791. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), what is the minimum flash point of oil to be used as fuel for the boilers?Not learned 792. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to determine the highest temperature to which the oil may be heated __________.Not learned 793. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to determine the __________.Not learned 794. When heating heavy fuel oil for use in main propulsion boilers aboard ship, the flash point may be exceeded only when __________.Not learned 795. The minimum temperature requirements for fuel oil in storage tanks is related to the _________.Not learned 796. Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?Not learned 797. Using an oil temperature-viscosity chart, you can determine the recommended __________.Not learned 798. The viscosity of a residual fuel oil is measured in Saybolt __________.Not learned 799. Modern fuel oil temperature control devices are regulated to obtain a desired viscosity rather than a specific fuel oil temperature because __________.Not learned 800. Bunker "C" fuel oil is heated prior to atomization to __________.Not learned 801. Fuel oil viscosity to the atomizer can be reduced by __________.Not learned 802. If the fuel oil temperature flowing to the burners is too low, the __________.Not learned 803. Sediment in fuel oil will cause __________.Not learned 804. Sediment in fuel oil will cause __________.Not learned 805. Water emulsified in the fuel oil when supplied to a boiler is indicated by __________.Not learned 806. The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil is __________.Not learned 807. The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil varies with the __________.Not learned 808. Which of the following systems, according to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) must have an emergency stop, protected with a glass enclosure, and located outside of the machinery space?Not learned 809. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require remote controls for stopping fuel oil service pumps. These controls shall be __________.Not learned 810. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) requires machinery driving the fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service pumps to be fitted with a remote means of stopping that machinery __________.Not learned 811. Which of the following intervals do Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require the remote cutout for the fuel oil service pumps to be tested?Not learned 812. An internal leak in a fuel oil heater can result in __________.Not learned 813. If oil is found in the main fuel oil heater steam drain system, which of the actions listed should be taken first?Not learned 814. When you are transferring fuel oil to the settling tanks, precautions to be observed should include __________.Not learned 815. When you are transferring fuel oil to the settling tanks, precautions to be observed should include __________.Not learned 816. Which of the pumps listed takes fuel oil suction from the double bottom tanks and discharges it to the settling tanks?Not learned 817. Fuel oil settling tanks are used to __________.Not learned 818. Fuel oil settling tanks are used to __________.Not learned 819. Fuel oil is transferred to the settling tanks for __________.Not learned 820. Fuel oil is transferred from storage tanks to the settling tanks to allow for __________.Not learned 821. (1.2.15-9) On US flag steam propulsion vessels, the main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to accomplish which of the following?Not learned 822. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST when water is found in the fuel oil settling tank?Not learned 823. Pumps normally used for fuel oil service are __________.Not learned 824. Pumps normally used for fuel oil service are __________.Not learned 825. Which precaution should be observed to prevent damage to the fuel oil service pump when warming up the fuel service system?Not learned 826. All fuel oil service pumps are equipped with a __________.Not learned 827. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) requires machinery driving the fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service pumps to be fitted with a remote means of stopping that machinery __________.Not learned 828. You can secure the fuel supply to the boilers from outside the fire room by __________.Not learned 829. The relief valve on the discharge side of the fuel oil service pump may discharge directly to the suction side of the pump, or to the __________.Not learned 830. The relief valve on the discharge side of the fuel oil service pump may discharge directly to the settler, or to the __________.Not learned 831. The purpose of the relief valve in a fuel oil service system is to __________.Not learned 832. Relief valves in the fuel oil service system discharge to either the service pump suction or the __________.Not learned 833. The purpose of the relief valve in a fuel oil service system is to __________.Not learned 834. The boiler fuel oil service pump normally takes suction from the __________.Not learned 835. The boiler fuel oil service pump normally takes suction from the __________.Not learned 836. The fuel oil meter in the fuel oil service system should be bypassed when __________.Not learned 837. When recirculating fuel oil prior to cold boiler start-up, which of the listed actions should be carried out?Not learned 838. Why are two fuel oil heaters "E" provided in the fuel oil system shown in the illustrationNot learned 839. In the majority of marine power plants, the fuel oil heater installations are divided into several units because __________.Not learned 840. Why are two fuel oil heaters "E" provided in the fuel oil system shown in the illustrationNot learned 841. The boiler fuel oil system 'hot' strainers are also known as __________.Not learned 842. The boiler fuel oil system suction strainers are also known as the __________.Not learned 843. Strainers are installed in boiler fuel oil service lines to __________.Not learned 844. Strainers are installed in boiler fuel oil service lines to __________.Not learned 845. Strainers are installed in boiler fuel oil service lines to __________.Not learned 846. Which of the listed types of strainers are installed between the fuel oil heater and the burner manifold?Not learned 847. When warming up a fuel oil service system, you should open the steam supply to the fuel oil heaters __________.Not learned 848. When securing a fuel oil heater you should __________.Not learned 849. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) a 'oil fuel unit' is correctly described by which of the following statements?Not learned 850. The valve located between the fuel oil header and the burner valve is known as the __________.Not learned 851. The advantage of a counterflow fuel oil heater, as compared to a parallel flow fuel oil heater, is that the counterflow heater __________.Not learned 852. The fins on the tubes of a fin type fuel oil heater are provided to __________.Not learned 853. The primary purpose of the heater used in a pressurized fuel oil system is to __________.Not learned 854. Fuel oil is heated before it reaches the burners to __________.Not learned 855. Valve "H" shown in the illustration, functions to __________Not learned 856. What is the function of valve "H" of the system shown in the illustrationNot learned 857. What is the quickest way to shutoff the boiler fuel oil supply from inside the fire room?Not learned 858. A solenoid valve in the boiler fuel oil supply line will close when the __________.Not learned 859. Fuel oil solenoid valves at the burner fronts should be of the manual reset type to __________.Not learned 860. Many steam plants are designed so that diesel oil can be provided to the burners when __________.Not learned 861. In a propulsion boiler, diesel oil is generally supplied to the burners when __________.Not learned 862. Why should the fuel oil be recirculated before lighting off a cold boiler?Not learned 863. The fuel oil has been raised to the proper temperature for the straight mechanical atomization system of the boiler shown in the illustration, and is ready to light off. Which of the valves listed must be closed just prior to igniting the fuelNot learned 864. Which normally closed valve would have to be at least partially open prior to actually lighting off a cold boiler as shown in the illustrationNot learned 865. The recirculating valve provided in a straight mechanical boiler fuel oil service system, should be opened when __________.Not learned 866. A leaky fuel oil heater relief valve could be indicated by an increase in the __________.Not learned 867. What causes carbon to adhere to the inside surfaces of a fuel oil heater?Not learned 868. Carbon deposits in a fuel oil heater are caused by __________.Not learned 869. Heating the fuel oil to an excessively high a temperature in a fuel oil heater will cause __________.Not learned 870. The overheating of fuel oil in the fuel oil heaters may result in __________.Not learned 871. If the fuel oil temperature in the fuel oil heater attains an excessive temperature, what will happen?Not learned 872. Carbonization of the conductive surfaces of a fuel oil heater results in reduced heating capacity because __________.Not learned 873. Condensate accumulation in the steam side of a fuel oil heater could result in __________.Not learned 874. Condensate accumulating in the steam side of a fuel oil heater could result in __________.Not learned 875. What will occur if the fuel oil heater condensate returns are not opened or are partially plugged?Not learned 876. The rate of fouling on the oil side of a fuel oil heater is inversely related to the __________.Not learned 877. The rate of fouling on the oil side of a fuel oil heater is inversely related to the __________.Not learned 878. The rate of fouling on the oil side of fuel oil heaters is directly related to the __________.Not learned 879. Which of the conditions listed would indicate a dirty fuel oil strainer?Not learned 880. If you noted a large difference in the pressures indicated by a duplex pressure gage to the fuel oil system strainer, you should __________.Not learned 881. Failure of the fuel oil service pump to maintain fuel oil flow to the burner could be caused by __________.Not learned 882. Automatic fuel shutoff to the burners of a main propulsion boiler could result from __________.Not learned 883. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require the duplex fuel oil discharge strainers installed in boiler fuel oil service systems to be __________.Not learned 884. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) for boiler fuel oil service systems, require that __________.Not learned 885. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) require that new fuel oil service piping between pumps and burners be subjected to __________.Not learned 886. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), all vessels having oil fired main propulsion boiler(s) must be equipped with __________.Not learned 887. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56), all vessels having oil fired boilers must be equipped with __________.Not learned 888. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that quick-closing valves on a fuel oil service system should be installed as close as is practicable to the __________.Not learned 889. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) all fuel oil service piping in the vicinity of the burners must __________.Not learned 890. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following materials may be used in short lengths between the fuel oil boiler front header manifold and the atomizer head to provide flexibility?Not learned 891. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), which of the following is permitted in boiler fuel oil service system discharge piping?Not learned 892. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) for boiler fuel oil service systems require __________.Not learned 893. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the fuel strainer installation located in the supply lines to the fuel pump of an auxiliary boiler, can be provided with __________.Not learned 894. Valve "H" shown in the illustration, functions to __________Not learned 895. Which of the casualties listed is apt to occur immediately after a high water casualty?Not learned 896. High boiler water level can cause carryover and __________.Not learned 897. In the prevention of moisture carryover from a marine boiler, one important consideration is to __________.Not learned 898. Foaming in boiler water is a result of __________.Not learned 899. Rapid fluctuation in the superheater temperature of a steady steaming boiler indicates __________.Not learned 900. In a steadily steaming boiler, carryover is indicated by a/an __________.Not learned 901. Oil accumulation in boiler water would __________.Not learned 902. Foaming and moisture carryover in a boiler can be caused by an __________.Not learned 903. Carryover in a marine boiler can be caused by __________.Not learned 904. The most likely result of water slugging in the steam supply to a ship service turbo generator is __________.Not learned 905. Water carryover in the steam entering a turbine could result in __________.Not learned 906. An unusual vibration in the main propulsion turbine unit, accompanied by a rumbling sound in the reduction gear, could be caused by __________.Not learned 907. Which of the conditions listed would indicate water carryover to a turbine?Not learned 908. Excessive priming in a propulsion boiler can cause severe damage to the_________.Not learned 909. Excessive priming in a propulsion boiler can lead to severe damage of the __________. downcomers installed in a "D" type boiler main steam turbine reduction gearsNot learned 910. Which of the following statements describes the effects that dissolved oxygen has on boiler internal surfaces with changes in temperature and pressure?Not learned 911. Which of the listed conditions will always result in dissolved oxygen being carried over from the main condenser?Not learned 912. Dissolved oxygen in the condensate can result from __________.Not learned 913. Dissolved oxygen in the condensate is generally attributed to _________.Not learned 914. A malfunction in the DC heater is indicated by __________.Not learned 915. Excessive carbon dioxide formed by improper chemical treatment in the boiler may cause corrosion in the __________.Not learned 916. A common gas dissolved in water contributing to the greatest amount of corrosion in a condensate system is __________.Not learned 917. As the pH of the boiler water approaches zero, the water becomes increasingly __________.Not learned 918. Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator to test boiler water for __________.Not learned 919. Phenolphthalein indicator is used in the boiler water test for __________.Not learned 920. The amount of sodium phosphate in treated boiler water can be measured by a/an __________.Not learned 921. What boiler water test would be given to insure that the boiler water contains sufficient chemicals to transform hard scale forming salts into harmless sludge which would eventually be removed with blow downs?Not learned 922. Any feed water testing done on a routine basis would normally include testing for __________.Not learned 923. A test of boiler water for chloride content indicates the amount of __________.Not learned 924. Testing boiler water for chloride content will indicate the amount of __________.Not learned 925. A unit of measure used to express the chloride content of boiler water is __________.Not learned 926. Boiler water samples should be circulated through a cooling coil prior to analysis because __________.Not learned 927. Boiler water samples should be circulated through a cooling coil prior to analysis because __________.Not learned 928. A sample of boiler water can be chemically tested for alkalinity by initially adding a few drops of phenolphthalein and then slowly titrating the water sample until the __________.Not learned 929. Normally a boiler water sample should be taken __________.Not learned 930. A sodium sulfite test is performed on a boiler water sample to determine if __________.Not learned 931. A sulfite test is conducted on boiler water to check for __________.Not learned 932. Sodium sulfite is added to boiler water to chemically react with any __________.Not learned 933. 8 ounces of oxygen, dissolved in 500,000 pounds of water, is a concentration of __________.Not learned 934. A dissolved oxygen concentration of 8.0 ppm represents __________.Not learned 935. When a boiler water test indicates a pH value of 6, you should __________.Not learned 936. Ferrous sulfate tends to go into solution in boiler water when the value of the hydrogen ion concentration increases. Consequently, the water in a 900 psi boiler should be _______.Not learned 937. A boiler with a water capacity of 10 tons, generates steam at the rate of 30 tons per hour. If the feed water concentration of solids was initially 0.5 PPM, and will increase at a rate of 1.5 ppm every hour, what would be the increase in the feed water concentration of solids after 24 hours?Not learned 938. A boiler with a water capacity of 10 tons, generates steam at the rate of 30 tons per hour. If the feed water concentration of solids was initially 0.5 PPM, and will increase at a rate of 1.5 ppm every hour, what would be the increase in the feed water concentration of solids after 24 hours?Not learned 939. Dissolved and suspended solids in boiler water are kept at minimum levels by __________.Not learned 940. The end product of reactions occurring when boiler water is chemically treated, remain in the boiler and increase the need for __________.Not learned 941. The most effective way to eliminate sludge from the water drum of a boiler is to __________.Not learned 942. The end product of reactions occurring when boiler water is chemically treated, remain in the boiler and increase the need for __________.Not learned 943. If a routine boiler water test indicates high salinity, you should blow down the boiler to reduce salinity and then __________.Not learned 944. In addition to the repeated use of surface blow to control boiler water chemistry, caustic soda may be used to treat high salinity, as well as __________.Not learned 945. The concentration of total dissolved solids in the boiler water can increase as a result of __________.Not learned 946. Phosphates are used in the chemical treatment of boiler water to __________.Not learned 947. What boiler water chemistry is necessary to ensure the precipitation of hard scale forming calcium?Not learned 948. Scale prevention in boiler water is accomplished by adding treatment chemicals to __________.Not learned 949. The concentration of total dissolved solids in boiler water could increase as a result of __________.Not learned 950. The primary difference between sludge and scale deposits in boiler tubes is __________.Not learned 951. Calcium minerals in boiler water are precipitated out of solution by the use of which of the listed chemicals?Not learned 952. High salinity can be reduced in a steaming boiler by adding caustic soda, phosphate, and then __________.Not learned 953. Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of hydrazine in boiler water treatment?Not learned 954. Dissolved oxygen can be removed from the boiler water by __________.Not learned 955. Chemicals are added to boiler water in order to __________.Not learned 956. Although accurate tests of boiler water for dissolved oxygen are difficult to obtain onboard ship, you can be fairly certain of proper oxygen removal by __________.Not learned 957. What are the two most common gases that dissolve in boiler water and cause corrosion on the internal parts of the boiler?Not learned 958. The most troublesome corrosive substances in boiler water are oxygen and __________.Not learned 959. Chemicals are added to boiler feed water to __________.Not learned 960. Chemicals are added to boiler water by injecting them __________.Not learned 961. Which of the following precautions should be observed when adding treatment chemicals to the boiler compound tank?Not learned 962. Treatment of boiler feedwater for the control of hardness is necessary to prevent __________.Not learned 963. Maximum heat transfer rates in a marine boiler can be obtained by __________.Not learned 964. Chemicals are added to boiler water to __________.Not learned 965. One of the purposes of chemically treating boiler water is to __________.Not learned 966. What is the purpose of chemically treating boiler water?Not learned 967. An adequate phosphate reserve should be maintained in boiler water to __________.Not learned 968. Excessive foaming in a steaming boiler can cause damage to the __________.Not learned 969. Foaming in boiler water is caused by __________.Not learned 970. Foaming in a boiler can be caused by __________.Not learned 971. The concentration of total dissolved solids in the boiler water can increase as a result of __________.Not learned 972. In a steaming boiler, most dissolved chlorides tend to concentrate at, or near, the __________.Not learned 973. In a steaming boiler, most dissolved chlorides tend to concentrate at, or near, the __________.Not learned 974. The major reason dissolved gases are removed from boiler feedwater is because they may cause __________.Not learned 975. To minimize metal corrosion, boiler water is best kept __________.Not learned 976. Excessive alkalinity of boiler water will cause ________.Not learned 977. Dissolved oxygen entrained in the feed water entering a boiler can cause __________.Not learned 978. In a water-tube boiler, waterside scale formation is caused by __________.Not learned 979. Scale formation on the waterside of boiler tubes is generally produced by __________.Not learned 980. Failure to remove calcium and magnesium from feed water before it reaches the boiler can result in tube __________.Not learned 981. Boiler water hardness is increased by __________.Not learned 982. Carbon dioxide dissolved in boiler water is dangerous in a modern power boiler because the gas __________.Not learned 983. The two most common causes of boiler corrosion attributable to boiler water are dissolved oxygen and __________.Not learned 984. The two common chemicals which are the primary cause of internal boiler corrosion are _______.Not learned 985. A sudden increase in boiler water hardness or chloride content could indicate __________.Not learned 986. Why are hard scale deposits on the inside of boiler tubes most objectionable?Not learned 987. Excessive priming in a propulsion boiler can cause severe damage to the_________.Not learned 988. Oxygen corrosion in auxiliary boilers is prevented by treating the boiler feed tank with __________.Not learned 989. The bottom blow valve on a water-tube boiler is usually attached to the __________.Not learned 990. The purpose of the boiler bottom blow valve is to __________.Not learned 991. The guarding valve installed in a boiler bottom blow line prevents __________.Not learned 992. The bottom blow valve should be used to remove sludge and solids which have settled out of circulation after the boiler __________.Not learned 993. Before giving a boiler a bottom blow, it should be taken off the line and then the __________.Not learned 994. When is the best time to give a boiler a bottom blow?Not learned 995. If it becomes necessary to remove water from a pressurized main boiler, it should be directed __________.Not learned 996. Which of the precautions listed should be taken prior to blowing down a boiler water wall header?Not learned 997. If a boiler is being steamed at a high firing rate, blowing down a water wall header without taking any other precaution could result in __________.Not learned 998. Blowing down a water wall header while steaming a boiler at a high firing rate could result in __________.Not learned 999. Under what operating conditions may water wall header drains be used for blow down?Not learned 1000. The proper way to quickly reduce high water level in a steaming boiler is to use the __________.Not learned 1001. To safely reduce a high water level in a steaming boiler, you should __________.Not learned 1002. Before giving a boiler a surface blow, you should __________.Not learned 1003. Before commencing a surface blow, the boiler __________.Not learned 1004. Before giving a boiler a surface blow, you must __________.Not learned 1005. Before giving a boiler a surface blow when underway at sea, you should __________.Not learned 1006. Proper use of the boiler surface blow will __________.Not learned 1007. Which of the listed methods can be used to blow down a boiler without securing the fires?Not learned 1008. A continuous blow is used to __________.Not learned 1009. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that main propulsion water-tube boilers are required to be fitted with a surface blow off valve if the design pressure is __________.Not learned 1010. Most marine main boilers are designed to produce __________.Not learned 1011. In a water-tube boiler, sludge is most likely to collect in the __________.Not learned 1012. When the boiler is operating at high firing rates, in addition to the generating tubes, which of the following tubes will also function as generating tubes?Not learned 1013. When conducting a routine hydrostatic test on a water-tube boiler, you should __________.Not learned 1014. When a propulsion boiler is removed from service for an extended period, why should the firesides be thoroughly dried after water washing?Not learned 1015. Maximum heat transfer rates in a marine boiler can be obtained by __________.Not learned 1016. Which of the listed mediums should be used when water washing a boiler?Not learned 1017. Which of the listed mediums should be used when water washing a boiler?Not learned 1018. Which procedure should be followed to dry out the fireside of a boiler after water washing?Not learned 1019. When water washing a boiler, the proper sequence for washing the sections should be the __________.Not learned 1020. When water washing the firesides of a boiler, which of the listed procedures should be followed?Not learned 1021. Improper water washing of the water-tube boiler firesides can cause __________.Not learned 1022. The most important consideration to take into account when water washing the firesides of a water tube boiler is ________.Not learned 1023. When cleaning the inside surfaces of the boiler tubes of a water-tube boiler with a powered rotary brush, the brush should be kept in motion to __________.Not learned 1024. Which of the listed operating practices is considered as safe, and should be followed when opening and inspecting the waterside of a boiler?Not learned 1025. Which type of waterside deposits can normally be removed by chemically boiling out a boiler?Not learned 1026. An accumulation of slag build up on the boiler furnace floor will cause __________. peeling of furnace brickwork overheating of the furnace floorNot learned 1027. Which of the following conditions in a water-tube boiler generating tube could cause tube failure, even if the water gage glass shows the proper level?Not learned 1028. One boiler of a two-boiler plant has ruptured a tube, and the water cannot be maintained in sight in the gauge glass. After securing the fires, your next action should be to __________.Not learned 1029. If a tube failure results from low water level and the water level can not be maintained in sight in the gage glass, you should __________.Not learned 1030. If a large number of tubes has failed, you can minimize damage to a boiler by __________.Not learned 1031. The boiler water level begins to fall very slowly due to the sudden failure of a water wall tube. In response to this situation, you should continue the feed water supply and immediately __________.Not learned 1032. Which of the following actions should be carried out if the boiler water level is falling due to a tube failure?Not learned 1033. If a large number of tubes fail in a steaming boiler, the __________.Not learned 1034. Steam escaping from the boiler casing is a good indication of __________.Not learned 1035. When the rate of heat transfer through tube walls is so reduced that the metal becomes overheated, which of the following conditions will result in the boiler?Not learned 1036. Boiler tube failures can result from __________.Not learned 1037. Oil or scale deposits on boiler tube walls will cause __________.Not learned 1038. If a boiler tube bank baffle carries away, or burns through, there will be __________.Not learned 1039. One factor for determining the minimum feedwater inlet temperature to a boiler economizer is the __________.Not learned 1040. While underway at sea, the feed water inlet temperature to a boiler economizer is determined by the __________.Not learned 1041. Gasket leakage around boiler hand holes may be caused by __________.Not learned 1042. If while filling the boiler a newly installed gasket on a water-tube hand-hole plate weeps, you should __________.Not learned 1043. If manual control of the water level in a steaming boiler is required, the proper method of control is with the auxiliary feed __________.Not learned 1044. If a feed pump failure causes the boiler water to drop out of sight in the gage glass, the engineer should FIRST __________.Not learned 1045. After the main engine has reached full sea speed, which of the following conditions could cause the water level in the boiler steam drum to keep falling?Not learned 1046. In order to test the lifting pressure of the deaerating feed heater relief valve, you would __________. place a gag on the relief valve increase the set point of the reduced steam pressure to the auxiliary steam systemNot learned 1047. 46 CFR requires that __________.Not learned 1048. According to 46 CFR Parts 59 and 35, which of the following is true?Not learned 1049. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST when the boiler fires begin to sputter due to water in the fuel oil?Not learned 1050. If one burner of a group of operating steam atomizing burners in a steaming boiler is cut out, the register doors for that burner should be __________.Not learned 1051. When forced draft blowers are provided with high and low speed controls, it is advisable to run the blowers at high speed during maneuvering to __________.Not learned 1052. When firing a boiler in local manual control, an increase in boiler load must be accompanied by a/an __________.Not learned 1053. Which of the actions listed should be carried out immediately after securing the fires in one boiler of a two- boiler ship?Not learned 1054. Which of the following statements about boilers is correct?Not learned 1055. A boiler is to be secured in port. After the burners have been secured, the forced draft fan and air registers should be secured __________.Not learned 1056. When a boiler has been secured and is being initially cooled, the water level showing in the steam drum gauge glass should be __________.Not learned 1057. The steam drum air cock is normally opened when cooling down a boiler to __________.Not learned 1058. What is the danger if a boiler is brought on the line with its steam pressure much higher than that of the boiler already on the line?Not learned 1059. When raising steam on a cold boiler under normal conditions, you should always __________.Not learned 1060. The time taken to raise steam on a cold boiler should always be __________.Not learned 1061. When raising steam on an idle boiler and the steam pressure has risen to about 5 pounds more than the pressure of the boiler already on the line, you can __________.Not learned 1062. When preparing to cut a boiler in on the line, you determine that the steam pressure of the incoming boiler is about 5 psig above line pressure. Which of the following steps should you take next?Not learned 1063. Prior to lighting a burner in a cold boiler, you should __________.Not learned 1064. Which of the following precautions should be taken prior to lighting off a boiler?Not learned 1065. Why should a boiler furnace be purged before the first burner is lit off?Not learned 1066. The possibility of a flareback in a boiler will be reduced if you __________.Not learned 1067. Before lighting any burner in a cold boiler you should always __________.Not learned 1068. If the fires to a steaming boiler have been accidently extinguished, you should not relight any burner until __________.Not learned 1069. Which normally closed valve would have to be at least partially open prior to actually lighting off a cold boiler as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1070. When preparing to light off a cold boiler, the fuel oil should be recirculated until it is __________.Not learned 1071. When increasing the firing rate of a boiler, which of the following should be carried out FIRST?Not learned 1072. To safely increase the firing rate of a boiler, you should always increase the forced draft pressure __________.Not learned 1073. To safely decrease the boiler firing rate, you should always reduce the fuel pressure __________.Not learned 1074. Which of the following items should be checked each time the firing rate or forced draft pressure is adjusted?Not learned 1075. The terms 'swell' and 'shrink' relate to a change in boiler water level which __________.Not learned 1076. The terms 'swell' and 'shrink' relate to a change in boiler water level which __________.Not learned 1077. The terms 'swell' and 'shrink' relate to a change in boiler water level which __________.Not learned 1078. The terms 'swell' and 'shrink' relate to a change in boiler water level which __________.Not learned 1079. Which of the listed conditions causes shrinkage in boiler water levels?Not learned 1080. The phenomenon called 'shrink' causes an apparent drop in the water level of a steaming boiler. This phenomenon is caused by a/an __________.Not learned 1081. The effects of shrink and swell on boiler water levels can be minimized by __________.Not learned 1082. Which action should be taken if the water level in the boiler gauge glass drops out of sight and the burners fail to secure automatically?Not learned 1083. Boiler efficiency and its ability to absorb heat is limited by the need to __________.Not learned 1084. A practical consideration to allow for when operating a boiler at low load with regard to heat absorption is the requirement to __________.Not learned 1085. Which of the problems listed will reduce boiler efficiency?Not learned 1086. Lower than normal steam pressure in an operating boiler may be caused by __________.Not learned 1087. If the water level cannot be seen in the lower part of the boiler gage glass, which of the following actions must be carried out immediately?Not learned 1088. If the water level in a steaming boiler is dropping rapidly and cannot be kept at the normal level by standard practices, you should __________.Not learned 1089. If a vessel is steaming at a steady rate, and the water level has dropped out of sight in the boiler gage glass, the FIRST corrective action should be to __________.Not learned 1090. Low steam pressure in a steaming boiler can be caused by __________.Not learned 1091. If the water level in the boiler water gage glass is not in sight, and the automatic feed water regulator is in the closed position, the __________.Not learned 1092. If a tube failure results from low water level and the water level can not be maintained in sight in the gage glass, you should __________.Not learned 1093. If the water level in one boiler of a two-boiler plant rapidly falls out of sight, which of the following actions should be carried out FIRST?Not learned 1094. Your vessel is steaming full ahead and operating on both boilers. If the boiler water level of one boiler drops out of sight low in the sight glass and the burners have been secured, besides slowing down the main engine, what further action should be taken?Not learned 1095. The fireman/water tender secures the fires because there is no visible water level in the gage glasses of a steaming boiler. Upon inspection, you observe condensate trickling down the inside of the gage glass. This indicates __________.Not learned 1096. The water level in a steaming boiler has risen to within 2 inches from the top of the gauge glass. Your immediate action should be to __________.Not learned 1097. After restoring the normal water level in a boiler following a high water casualty, you should __________.Not learned 1098. Vibration or panting of a boiler can be caused by __________.Not learned 1099. Pulsating boiler furnace fires can be caused by __________.Not learned 1100. If a steaming boiler is not supplied with sufficient air for proper combustion, the __________.Not learned 1101. Pulsating boiler furnace fires can be caused by __________.Not learned 1102. Panting in an oil fired marine boiler can be caused by __________.Not learned 1103. If a steaming boiler begins 'panting,' the probable cause is __________.Not learned 1104. If a boiler begins to pant and vibrate you should __________.Not learned 1105. Which actions listed should be taken if a boiler is panting?Not learned 1106. If a boiler is panting, which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 1107. When a boiler flareback occurs, you should __________.Not learned 1108. If a boiler fire is blown out by a flareback, you should immediately __________.Not learned 1109. If a major flareback occurs to a boiler, which of the following actions should be immediately taken?Not learned 1110. An explosion or flareback could occur in a boiler if __________.Not learned 1111. If an oil fire occurs in the double casing of a steaming boiler, you should __________.Not learned 1112. If an oil fire occurs in the double casing of a steaming boiler, you should __________.Not learned 1113. Under normal firing rates, which of the conditions listed could result in a low superheater outlet temperature?Not learned 1114. If the boiler fires are extinguished by water contamination in the fuel oil, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 1115. Water in the fuel supply to a steaming boiler can be detected by __________.Not learned 1116. If the fires in a boiler furnace begin sputtering or hissing, you should suspect __________.Not learned 1117. When sputtering is detected in the boiler fires indicating water in the fuel, which of the procedures listed should be followed?Not learned 1118. When boiler fires begin sputtering, indicating water in the fuel oil settling tank, you should __________.Not learned 1119. When the fires begin to sputter, you should __________.Not learned 1120. If the fires in both boilers start to sputter, you should immediately __________.Not learned 1121. If the fires start sputtering while steaming under steady conditions, which of the actions listed should be taken?Not learned 1122. When slight sputtering is detected at the boiler atomizer, you should __________.Not learned 1123. Which of the listed absorbing agents could be used in a boiler during a dry lay up period?Not learned 1124. A water-tube boiler can be laid up either wet or dry. If it is to be laid up wet, you should __________.Not learned 1125. If boiler priming occurs, you should immediately __________.Not learned 1126. In a boiler equipped with an automatic feed water regulator, erratic variations in the steam drum water level could be caused by __________.Not learned 1127. If boiler water chemicals are decreasing in one boiler and increasing in the other boiler, while both are steaming at normal rates, a leak probably exists in the __________.Not learned 1128. While standing your engine room watch at sea, you notice the D.C. heater level is gradually dropping as indicated by the remote level indicator. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 1129. While standing your engine room watch at sea, you notice the D.C. heater level dropping below the normal minimum level as indicated by the remote level indicator. Which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 1130. While standing your engine room watch at sea, you notice the D.C. heater level is dropping below normal as indicated by the remote level indicator. The boiler drum level is observed to be normal, as is the main condensate pump discharge pressure. Therefore, you should __________.Not learned 1131. When standing watch at sea, steaming full ahead, reducing the boiler forced draft pressure would also have a tendency to correct which discrepancy?Not learned 1132. While standing watch at sea and steaming full ahead, reducing the boiler forced draft pressure would also have a tendency to correct which discrepancy?Not learned 1133. When standing watch at sea, steaming full ahead, reducing the boiler forced draft pressure would also have a tendency to correct which discrepancy?Not learned 1134. When standing watch at sea, steaming full ahead, reducing the boiler forced draft pressure would also have a tendency to correct which discrepancy?Not learned 1135. An accumulation test is performed on the boiler to determine the suitability of the safety valves and the set points __________. if the boiler normal operating pressure is permanently reduced when the steam generating capacity is increasedNot learned 1136. When using the universal color contrast-type dye penetrant to examine a boiler weldment, any surface defect will appear __________.Not learned 1137. Should one boiler on a two boiler vessel suffer serious tube damage, the Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection may issue a permit (Form CG-948) to proceed to another port for repair __________.Not learned 1138. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the maximum allowable working pressure of a water-tube boiler must be stamped on the __________.Not learned 1139. Which of the following statements is true concerning boiler inspections?Not learned 1140. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that a marine inspector may require a boiler to be drilled or gaged to determine actual thickness __________.Not learned 1141. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the studs and bolts on marine boiler mountings must be removed for examination at least every __________.Not learned 1142. When conducting a periodic hydrostatic test of a boiler, Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 61) prohibit __________.Not learned 1143. To comply with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which type of boiler listed shall be subjected to a hydrostatic test at one and one half times maximum allowable working pressure?Not learned 1144. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), periodic hydrostatic tests are required to be conducted without exception on all __________.Not learned 1145. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), what is the maximum time interval for hydrostatically testing boilers on a cargo vessel having water-tube boilers?Not learned 1146. The maximum allowable working pressure of a particular boiler is 1050 psig (7340 kPa). The hydrostatic test pressure to be used during the Coast Guard required quadrennial inspection will be __________.Not learned 1147. According to U. S. Coast Regulations (46 CFR), water-tube boilers shall be hydrostatically tested on passenger vessels every __________.Not learned 1148. When preparing to hydrostatically test water-tube boilers, you should __________.Not learned 1149. When preparing water-tube boilers for hydrostatic testing, they shall be filled with water at not __________.Not learned 1150. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that in preparing a water-tube boiler for a hydrostatic test, you should fill the boiler with water at a temperature of not less than __________.Not learned 1151. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), what action should be taken if the metal thickness of a marine boiler is found to be thinner than original specifications?Not learned 1152. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following steam piping conditions, subjected to main boiler pressure, is exempted from hydrostatic testing?Not learned 1153. Which of the Coast Guard publications listed contain the information regarding allowable repairs to boilers installed on cargo vessels?Not learned 1154. Which of the items listed is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 54) to be stamped on a pressure vessel?Not learned 1155. A periodic hydrostatic test is being performed on an oil-fired auxiliary water-tube boiler with a maximum allowable working pressure of 150 psig. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, what is the required hydrostatic test pressure for this procedure?Not learned 1156. If a boiler is being prepared for a hydrostatic test as part of a periodic inspection, in accordance with 46 CFR 61, which statement is true?Not learned 1157. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, what is the interval in years between when boiler drum safety valves must be tested on a fire-tube boiler operating at less than 150 psig as witnessed by a marine inspector?Not learned 1158. Assuming the inspection interval for a boiler as specified by 46 CFR 61 is 2.5 years, which statement is true?Not learned 1159. According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for General Cargo Vessels, what determines the maximum allowable pressure that can be carried in a steam boiler?Not learned 1160. Which of the figures illustrated correctly identifies the position the journal will assume in its bearing after it has attained operating speedNot learned 1161. A journal rotating in its bearing relies on hydrodynamic principles for lubrication. Under steady load conditions, the journal rotating in the bearing will assume a position __________.Not learned 1162. The relative position of the journal and bearing at operating speed is illustrated by figure __________Not learned 1163. Which of the figures illustrated correctly identifies the position of the journal while it is stoppedNot learned 1164. Which of the figures illustrated correctly identifies the position of the journal while it is stoppedNot learned 1165. The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing depends upon a system that produces __________.Not learned 1166. If a continuous and steady flow of lube oil is provided, which of the listed pressures represents the lowest supply pressure at which a small high-speed bearing can be safely lubricated?Not learned 1167. Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?Not learned 1168. The most practical method of determining the condition of a shaft bearing while the shaft is in operation is to __________.Not learned 1169. On a main propulsion turbine bearing, the readings obtained with a bridge gauge represent the __________.Not learned 1170. Which of the devices listed can be used to determine bearing wear on a main propulsion turbine bearing?Not learned 1171. A bridge gage is used to measure __________.Not learned 1172. After one year of operating the bearing shown in the illustration, the reading obtained at point "A" would always be equal to the __________Not learned 1173. Reduction gear bearing bridge gage readings should be taken after __________.Not learned 1174. Bridge gage readings are to be taken on the bearing shown in the illustration. You would use the indicated 3 3/4"R to __________Not learned 1175. To accurately measure the amount of wear on a high speed pinion journal bearing with a bridge gage, you must __________.Not learned 1176. The original bridge gauge reading for a reduction gear bearing was measured as 0.008 inches. A year later, the bridge gauge reading for the same bearing is 0.010 inches. What would this indicate?Not learned 1177. Regarding the bearing shown in the illustration, "X" represents the __________Not learned 1178. The maximum temperature rise of oil passing through any reduction gear set, or bearing, should not exceed __________.Not learned 1179. The adjustable spherically seated self-aligning bearing housings used in turbines are provided with oil deflector rings. The function of these rings is to __________.Not learned 1180. Which of the following types of bearing lubrication schemes can carry the highest unit loading?Not learned 1181. The best indication that a bearing is being properly lubricated is by the __________.Not learned 1182. Which of the following would cause the dowel or locking lip of a split-type, precision insert, main bearing to shear and allow the bearing to rotate with the journal?Not learned 1183. The following information was recorded after a recent L.P. turbine bearing installation. The bearing temperature was logged at the indicated time intervals as: 1200-110°F (43°C)1210-123°F (51°C)1220-136°F (58°C)1230-149°F (65°C)1240-153°F (67°C)1250-155°F (68°C)1300-155°F (68°C) The shaft RPM and lube oil cooler outlet temperature remained constant. The readings indicate __________.Not learned 1184. Hot running bearings can be caused by __________.Not learned 1185. An overheated bearing in the main propulsion unit is indicated by __________.Not learned 1186. Which of the following types of bearings are used for the reduction gears in a marine steam turbine installation?Not learned 1187. Babbitt is a metal alloy commonly used for lining __________.Not learned 1188. Babbitt is a metal alloy commonly used for lining __________.Not learned 1189. Main steam turbine bearings are lined with __________.Not learned 1190. Babbitt metal is used to make __________.Not learned 1191. In steam turbine main engine installations, how are the main reduction gear bearings identical to other radial bearings?Not learned 1192. Chamfers, located at the parting edges of horizontal split sleeve type bearings, are used to facilitate oil storage and distribution. They are machined __________.Not learned 1193. Which of the following statements represents the reason why the Babbitt of a turbine journal bearing is relieved at the point of oil entry along the horizontal joint?Not learned 1194. Which of the following methods is used to securely fasten the Babbitt lining of a reduction gear bearing to its shell?Not learned 1195. Journal bearings used with turbine rotors are manufactured in two halves in order to __________.Not learned 1196. Which of the following construction methods would apply to the Babbitt lined, split-type, reduction gear bearings?Not learned 1197. Which of the devices listed are used to rigidly mount reduction gear bearings in their housings?Not learned 1198. Which of the journal bearings listed most easily accommodates the minor turbine shaft misalignment?Not learned 1199. Which type of bearing lining material is most commonly used in modern precision split type bearings?Not learned 1200. The splits located in the halves of main reduction gear bearings are aligned at an angle to the horizontal in order to resist __________.Not learned 1201. A common cause of the Babbitt linings cracking in a turbine journal bearing is from ________.Not learned 1202. If a turbine bearing high temperature alarm sounds, you should immediately __________.Not learned 1203. Rotor axial thrust developed in a reaction turbine is the result of a steam pressure drop across __________.Not learned 1204. For a large main propulsion turbine, the most commonly used turbine thrust bearing is the __________.Not learned 1205. Thrust bearings are installed in main propulsion turbines to __________.Not learned 1206. In order to reduce the oil clearance between the collar and the astern thrust element shown in the illustration, you would __________Not learned 1207. After setting the allowable end play of the thrust bearing shown, you would establish the axial position of the turbine shaft by __________Not learned 1208. The axial position of a turbine rotor is controlled by the thickness of the __________.Not learned 1209. The axial position of a turbine rotor is controlled by the thickness of the __________.Not learned 1210. The thrust bearing wear on a turbine may be determined by checking the __________.Not learned 1211. When a turbine is in operation, a rotor position micrometer is used to determine any change in rotor __________.Not learned 1212. Thrust clearances indicated on a main propulsion turbine bearing clearance diagram are __________.Not learned 1213. Sliding contact bearings are classified into two general categories: journal bearings and __________.Not learned 1214. Which of the following types of bearings is designed to limit end movement and carry loads applied in the same direction as the shaft axis?Not learned 1215. Which of the following bearings is designed to take loads applied to the axis of the shaft?Not learned 1216. As found in a reduction gear drive system, thrust bearings serve to __________.Not learned 1217. The purpose of a thrust bearing, mounted between the engine and the propeller of a steam plant power train, is to __________.Not learned 1218. Which of the following statements describes the function of a ship's propulsion plant main reduction gear thrust bearing?Not learned 1219. In a segmental pivoted-shoe thrust bearing, the thrust load among the shoes is equalized by the __________.Not learned 1220. Which of the features listed, regarding the Kingsbury thrust bearing, prevents the base ring from turning and secures it to its housing?Not learned 1221. Which component of a Kingsbury thrust bearing assembly transmits the thrust from the line shaft to the oil film and shoes?Not learned 1222. Because the entire thrust bearing assembly is normally submerged in oil, the pivoting shoe arrangement allows the formation of a continuous wedge shaped oil film shown in the illustration by arrow "B", between the __________Not learned 1223. The components in a Kingsbury thrust bearing assembly that are responsible for transmitting an equal thrust load to all the shoes are called the ______.Not learned 1224. In the thrust bearing assembly illustrated the total oil clearance can be correctly decreased by __________Not learned 1225. In the diagrammatic arrangement of the thrust bearing, shown in the illustration, the direction of shaft rotation and the direction of thrust are indicated respectively by arrows __________Not learned 1226. The base ring shown in the illustration is identified by the letter __________Not learned 1227. The disassembled thrust bearing, shown in the illustration, which of the listed parts is labeled "I"Not learned 1228. A Kingsbury, or pivot shoe type thrust bearing, can bear much greater loads per square inch of working surface than can parallel surface bearings because provisions are made in the Kingsbury bearing __________.Not learned 1229. Which of the following enables a Kingsbury, or any pivot shoe type thrust bearing, to bear a much greater load per square inch of working surface than parallel surface bearings?Not learned 1230. Which of the following statements represents the principle of operation of the Kingsbury type thrust bearing?Not learned 1231. Which of the listed parts of a Kingsbury thrust bearing tilts to permit the formation of a wedge shaped film of oil?Not learned 1232. The Kingsbury bearing is equipped with pivoted shoes in order to __________.Not learned 1233. In a Kingsbury thrust bearing, the thrust shoes are __________.Not learned 1234. Kingsbury thrust bearings are lubricated by __________.Not learned 1235. Propeller shaft Kingsbury thrust bearings are normally lubricated by __________. a totally flooded housing oil spray on collar and shoesNot learned 1236. The upper leveling plates in a Kingsbury thrust bearing are held in place by __________.Not learned 1237. The base ring shown in the illustration is identified by the letter __________Not learned 1238. Superheated steam is provided to operate the main steam turbine instead of saturated steam due to its __________. higher thermal energy per pound lesser erosive action on turbine bladingNot learned 1239. After the steam leaves the low-pressure turbine, it enters the _________.Not learned 1240. A ship is equipped with the illustrated turbine gear set and a right hand turning propeller. When steam is admitted to the astern element, with sternway on, the high-speed gear on the high-pressure side is__________Not learned 1241. A ship is equipped with the illustrated turbine gear set and a right hand turning propeller. When steam is admitted to the astern element, with sternway on, the high-speed gear on the high pressure side is__________Not learned 1242. A ship is equipped with the illustrated turbine gear set and a right hand turning propeller. When steam is admitted to the astern element, with sternway on, the high-speed pinion on the high pressure side is__________Not learned 1243. What is generally found at the end of the low-pressure turbine rotor of a cross compound turbine arrangement?Not learned 1244. In a cross-compounded turbine propulsion plant, steam enters the __________.Not learned 1245. The astern element of a main propulsion turbine is usually designed as a __________.Not learned 1246. Which of the following methods is used to counter axial thrust in a single flow reaction turbine?Not learned 1247. The purpose of the reaction turbine dummy piston is to ________.Not learned 1248. In a multistage reaction turbine, the dummy piston and cylinder function to __________.Not learned 1249. The diameter of a dummy piston installed in a reaction turbine is determined by __________.Not learned 1250. Which of the parts listed for a reaction turbine serve the same function as the nozzles of an impulse turbine?Not learned 1251. Which of the following reaction turbine components listed converts thermal energy into kinetic energy.Not learned 1252. Which of the devices listed is used to convert thermal energy into rotor kinetic energy in a reaction turbine?Not learned 1253. Which of the following reaction turbine components listed converts thermal energy into kinetic energy.Not learned 1254. Where reaction turbine blading is fitted with shrouding of "end tightened" design, which of the following operating parameters must be carefully monitored for efficient turbine operation?Not learned 1255. Where reaction turbine blading is fitted with shrouding of "end tightened" design, which of the following conditions will be the most critical to efficient turbine operation?Not learned 1256. What happens to the steam as it moves across the moving blades in a reaction turbine?Not learned 1257. Why do double flow reaction turbines produce very little axial thrust?Not learned 1258. In a reaction turbine, the fixed blades function to __________.Not learned 1259. In modern reaction turbines, thin tipping is a procedure designed to __________.Not learned 1260. Leakage over the ends of the blade tips, as a result of the pressure differential between each row of blades in a reaction turbine, can be reduced with a blade design known as ________.Not learned 1261. An increase in clearance between reaction blade tips and the turbine casing will result in __________.Not learned 1262. An increase in clearance between reaction blade tips and the turbine casing will result in __________.Not learned 1263. Thin tipping is a type of turbine blade design primarily used to __________.Not learned 1264. What is used to compensate for the increased possibility of blade vibration occurring with impulse turbine blading?Not learned 1265. Which of the following occurs in a single stage of a simple impulse turbine?Not learned 1266. A pressure drop occurs across both the moving and fixed blades of a reaction turbine as a result of the __________.Not learned 1267. A pressure drop occurs across both the moving and fixed blades of a reaction turbine as a result of the __________.Not learned 1268. Large temperature and pressure drops which occur in the first stage of a combination impulse and reaction turbine are caused by steam passing through __________.Not learned 1269. An impulse-reaction turbine is characterized by which of the following arrangements?Not learned 1270. Design characteristics of a velocity-compounded impulse turbine include the utilization of __________.Not learned 1271. Which of the following statements represents the function the nozzle assembly performs in an impulse turbine?Not learned 1272. Why are convergent-divergent nozzles used in high-pressure turbine applications?Not learned 1273. A pressure-velocity compounded impulse turbine consists of __________.Not learned 1274. In what classification of steam turbines are the moving blades and the adjacent fixed rows of blades shaped to act as nozzles?Not learned 1275. The type of turbine shown in the illustration is classified as a __________Not learned 1276. The type of turbine shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 1277. How many Curtis stages are contained in the turbine shown in the illustrationNot learned 1278. Which of the following descriptions best describes a basic Rateau turbine stage?Not learned 1279. Which of the following designs is an essential feature of the Rateau type turbine?Not learned 1280. Which of the following statements is correct regarding axial thrust in a high pressure velocity-compounded turbine?Not learned 1281. To minimize axial thrust in an impulse turbine, equalizing holes are located __________.Not learned 1282. Steam passing through a multistage impulse turbine does not impart any appreciable axial thrust to the rotor. This is primarily due to the __________.Not learned 1283. In the turbine and gear set shown in the illustration, when going astern, the minimum tolerable clearance between the rotor and intermediate or guide blading is __________Not learned 1284. In an impulse turbine, the fixed blades function to __________.Not learned 1285. In an impulse turbine, the fixed blades function to __________.Not learned 1286. A nozzle in an impulse turbine functions to __________.Not learned 1287. Tenon peening is a technique employed by turbine manufacturers to __________.Not learned 1288. Which of the effects listed describes the changes in the velocity and pressure of the steam as it passes through a nozzle?Not learned 1289. A convergent-divergent nozzle functions to __________.Not learned 1290. How many pressure drops occur in the turbine stage shown in the illustrationNot learned 1291. In addition to the direction of steam flow, which of the descriptions listed may also be used to classify turbines?Not learned 1292. The factor which determines the minimum amount of steam superheat required at the steam chest inlet of a main propulsion turbine is the __________.Not learned 1293. Steam supplied to the main propulsion turbines is ________.Not learned 1294. The type of turbine shown in the illustration is classified as a __________Not learned 1295. How many Curtis stages are contained in the turbine shown in the illustrationNot learned 1296. Concerning the classification of steam turbines, a cross compound designed unit __________.Not learned 1297. In a cross-compounded turbine operating at full load, the total available steam energy is approximately divided between the HP and LP turbine in the ratio of __________.Not learned 1298. A turbine assembly in which steam flows in series through a high-pressure turbine and then on to a low- pressure turbine, with both turbines driving a common reduction gear through separate shafts, is classified as _________.Not learned 1299. Which of the following types of main propulsion turbines is most likely to require a dummy piston or cylinder arrangement to counterbalance axial thrust?Not learned 1300. In a reaction turbine, the axial thrust due to the reactive force on the rotor blading drives the rotor __________.Not learned 1301. In a cross-compound main propulsion unit, the astern turbine is usually installed at the __________.Not learned 1302. The reversing turbine is normally used for which of the following operations?Not learned 1303. In which type of turbine does a pressure drop exist through the fixed blades and the moving blades?Not learned 1304. In which type of turbine does the steam pass through reversing chambers machined on the inner surface of the casing, causing the steam to be redirected back to the turbine wheel rim?Not learned 1305. Packing rings installed on auxiliary turbines are generally lubricated by __________.Not learned 1306. Most auxiliary turbine feed pumps do not require an external source of gland sealing steam because they __________.Not learned 1307. When starting a turbo-generator, you must provide lube oil pressure to the governor power piston by means of __________.Not learned 1308. Which of the following statements would best describe the purpose of operating the hand lube oil pump on an auxiliary turbo-generating unit?Not learned 1309. When starting a turbo generator in an automated plant, you must provide lube oil pressure to the unit by means of a/an __________.Not learned 1310. When starting a turbo-generator, you must provide lube oil pressure to the governor power piston by means of __________.Not learned 1311. When starting a turbo generator, you must initially provide external governor lube oil pressure to ________.Not learned 1312. When starting a turbo generator in an automated plant, you must provide external lube oil pressure to the unit for the purpose of _________.Not learned 1313. A turbo generator back pressure trip can be actuated as a result of __________.Not learned 1314. A back pressure trip on an auxiliary turbo generator functions to secure the device if the __________.Not learned 1315. The safety device provided on a turbo generator which closes the throttle automatically when the cooling water to the condenser is insufficient is called a/an __________.Not learned 1316. To test an automatic low lube oil pressure trip on an idling turbo-generator and at the same time prevent the chance of bearing damage, you should __________.Not learned 1317. To test an automatic low lube oil pressure trip on an idling turbo-generator and at the same time prevent the chance of bearing damage, you should __________.Not learned 1318. A back pressure trip on a ship's service turbo-generator functions to trip the turbine under what circumstance?Not learned 1319. During a maintenance inspection of a turbo generator, the integral turbine wheels are tapped with a hammer. What condition may be indicated by a dull, non-resonating sound?Not learned 1320. During a maintenance inspection of a turbo generator, the integral turbine wheels are tapped with a hammer. What condition may be indicated by a dull, non-resonating sound?Not learned 1321. Main propulsion steam turbine casing drains generally discharge to the ________.Not learned 1322. An efficient seal is normally obtained between the upper and lower halves of a turbine casing by __________.Not learned 1323. Turbine casing flanges are sometimes provided with a system of joint grooving to __________.Not learned 1324. Which of the devices listed is found on an LP main propulsion steam turbine casing?Not learned 1325. Labyrinth seals used to reduce leakage around a turbine shaft are constructed of __________.Not learned 1326. Where are moisture shields located in a main propulsion steam turbine?Not learned 1327. Which of the following statements is true concerning the turbine shown in the illustrationNot learned 1328. Nozzle diaphragms are installed in pressure-compounded impulse turbines to __________.Not learned 1329. The pressure drop existing across the diaphragm of a pressure compounded impulse turbine necessitates __________.Not learned 1330. Because of the pressure drop existing across each diaphragm, the flow of steam between the nozzle diaphragm and the rotor of the turbine is held to a minimum by __________.Not learned 1331. A turbine diaphragm functions to __________.Not learned 1332. Shrouding on impulse turbine blading is held in place by __________.Not learned 1333. Shrouding, with regards to steam turbines, is rolled to the curvature of the blade ends and fitted to the blade __________.Not learned 1334. Which turbine blade is best suited for high pressure installations?Not learned 1335. The correct radial clearances between the rotor and the casing in a propulsion turbine are maintained by the turbine __________.Not learned 1336. Which of the bearings listed is used in some turbines to limit axial movement?Not learned 1337. The purpose of shroud bands secured to the tips of the turbine blades is to __________.Not learned 1338. The purpose of shroud bands secured to the tips of the turbine blades is to __________.Not learned 1339. Allowance for axial expansion of the steam turbine due to temperature changes is provided for by the use of __________.Not learned 1340. What is normally used to compensate for thermal expansion and contraction of the main turbine casing?Not learned 1341. Why is a flexible I-beam rigidly mounted at the forward end of the main turbine?Not learned 1342. Expansion and contraction of a propulsion turbine casing due to changes in operating temperature, are normally compensated by _______.Not learned 1343. The purpose of the sentinel valve installed on a turbine casing is to __________.Not learned 1344. Which of the components listed is indicated by the "6" shown in the illustrationNot learned 1345. The purpose of oil deflector rings for turbine shafts include __________.Not learned 1346. The gland exhaust fan draws steam and non-condensable vapors from the gland exhaust condenser and discharges to the __________.Not learned 1347. Which of the listed conditions aids in directing gland leakoff steam from the low-pressure propulsion turbine to pass through the gland exhaust condenser?Not learned 1348. Which of the following statements represents the function of a turbine gland exhaust condenser?Not learned 1349. Carbon ring packing segments are secured in a shaft gland assembly of a steam turbine by means of __________.Not learned 1350. When turbine rotor shafts extend through the casing, an external source of sealing steam is used in conjunction with labyrinth packing to __________.Not learned 1351. An intermediate chamber is used in conjunction with labyrinth packing on main turbine shaft glands to provide a __________.Not learned 1352. Labyrinth seals are used on rotating steam turbine shafts to reduce external leakage. How is this accomplished?Not learned 1353. Labyrinth packing rings are installed on turbine diaphragms to minimize __________.Not learned 1354. When fitting new carbon ring packing on a turbine rotor shaft, carefully filing the ends of the segments will ______.Not learned 1355. The labyrinth packing ring in an interstage diaphragm of an impulse turbine is prevented from rotating by _______.Not learned 1356. Gland sealing steam is used on propulsion turbines to prevent __________.Not learned 1357. Gland sealing steam is used during steam turbine operation to prevent the loss of __________.Not learned 1358. Low pressure steam is used to keep air from leaking into turbine casing along the turbine shaft. For this purpose, which of the following steam systems is used?Not learned 1359. When a high pressure turbine is operating at sea speed, the pressure of the steam leaking through the shaft gland packing may be slightly higher than the pressure setting of the gland seal regulator. In this situation, the excess steam at the regulator is directed to the __________.Not learned 1360. How is an excess of turbine gland seal steam remedied?Not learned 1361. In what positions will the air-operated regulating valves, shown in the illustration, be in when the steam in the gland seal supply line is excessiveNot learned 1362. If the gland assembly shown in the illustration is located at the forward end of the high-pressure turbine and the vessel is operating at full speed ahead, __________Not learned 1363. If the gland assembly, shown in the illustration, is located at the forward end of the high pressure turbine, and the vessel is operating at minimum maneuvering speeds, which of the following statements is trueNot learned 1364. During maneuvering, a vessel has just reached full ahead from a dead slow condition. Which of the following actions reflects the first operation of the gland seal regulator shown in the illustrationNot learned 1365. During maneuvering, a vessel has just proceeded from full ahead to a dead slow condition. Which of the following actions reflects the first response of the gland seal regulator shown in the illustrationNot learned 1366. In the illustrated hydraulically operated turbine gland seal regulator, the exhaust dump valve is closed as a result of the piston being actuated by a/an___________Not learned 1367. In the hydraulically operated turbine gland seal regulator, illustrated, the device used as the gland seal pressure sensing unit is called a/an __________Not learned 1368. In the illustration of a hydraulically operated turbine gland seal regulator, the gland seal pressure sensing line is labeled ____Not learned 1369. In the illustration of a hydraulically operated turbine gland seal regulator, the gland seal pressure sensing line is labeled ____Not learned 1370. What is the main turbine gland sealing steam system designed to do?Not learned 1371. As shown in the illustration, piston "F" in the gland seal regulator is moved upward by ________Not learned 1372. According to the illustration, what actuates the bellows "I" in the gland seal regulatorNot learned 1373. Which line in the illustration shown provides live steam to the gland seal regulatorNot learned 1374. In the event of failure of bellows "I" as shown in the illustration, ________Not learned 1375. For the gland seal regulator shown in the illustration, a decrease in gland seal pressure will result in a ________Not learned 1376. For the gland seal regulator shown in the illustration, an increase in gland seal pressure will result in ________Not learned 1377. When securing a main propulsion turbine equipped with carbon packing glands, the vacuum should always be broken before securing the gland seal steam because __________.Not learned 1378. Which of the following conditions is indicated by the necessity of providing excessive gland sealing steam pressure to maintain the normal operating conditions of the main propulsion unit?Not learned 1379. If an operating propulsion unit requires excessive quantities of gland sealing steam, you should suspect a __________.Not learned 1380. While a vessel is underway, one of the FIRST indications of the failure of the gland leak off exhaust fan motor is __________.Not learned 1381. While a vessel is underway, one of the FIRST indications of the failure of the gland leak off exhaust fan motor is __________.Not learned 1382. Which type of packing is primarily utilized to control steam leakage from the casing of a modern auxiliary turbine?Not learned 1383. Most auxiliary turbine feed pumps do not require an external source of gland sealing steam because they __________.Not learned 1384. A cloudy or milky appearing lube oil sample, taken from the main lubricating oil system could be caused by __________.Not learned 1385. Which line in the illustration shown provides live steam to the gland seal regulatorNot learned 1386. For the gland seal regulator shown in the illustration, an increase in gland seal pressure will result in ________Not learned 1387. An excessive power loss in a straight reaction turbine is commonly caused by __________.Not learned 1388. An energy loss associated with a reaction turbine, but not an impulse turbine, is __________.Not learned 1389. The general method of reducing turbine reaction blade vibration is by the use of _______.Not learned 1390. Which of the steam losses listed would be associated with a multistage impulse turbine rather than a multistage reaction turbine?Not learned 1391. In comparison to a reaction turbine, a steam loss specific to an impulse turbine is known as __________.Not learned 1392. During an inspection of the main turbine, you notice flow marks or discoloration across the diaphragm joints. This condition indicates __________.Not learned 1393. Turbine blade erosion is accelerated by __________.Not learned 1394. If the main propulsion turbine begins to vibrate severely while you are increasing speed, you should __________.Not learned 1395. Vibration in main propulsion turbines could be caused by __________.Not learned 1396. Which of the conditions listed is the most common source of torsional vibration in a geared turbine drive?Not learned 1397. What should you do if you detect an abnormal vibration in the operating main propulsion turbine?Not learned 1398. Turbine throttling losses can best be described as a loss of energy occurring __________.Not learned 1399. Which of the following statements represents an example of a throttling loss in a turbine?Not learned 1400. If a line shaft bearing begins to overheat, the shaft speed should be reduced. If overheating persists, you should then __________.Not learned 1401. Which of the following types of bearings are used as line shaft bearings?Not learned 1402. How are line shaft bearings usually lubricated?Not learned 1403. Which immediate action should you take when the temperature of one line shaft bearing increases above its normal operating temperature?Not learned 1404. If a spring bearing begins to run at an abnormally high temperature, you should __________.Not learned 1405. What statement is true concerning the lubrication of line shaft bearings?Not learned 1406. What statement is true concerning the ability of a line shaft bearing to adapt to shaft misalignment as the ship's hull flexes?Not learned 1407. Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing shells on merchant ships?Not learned 1408. Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?Not learned 1409. What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?Not learned 1410. Concerning the proper lubrication of a ring-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?Not learned 1411. According to regulations (46 CFR), who may grant an extension of the tailshaft examination interval?Not learned 1412. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit the interval required for drawing certain tailshafts to be extended by the __________.Not learned 1413. Which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated stern tube bearing installation?Not learned 1414. Which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated stern tube bearing installation?Not learned 1415. Stern tube and strut bearings lined with hardwood or rubber composition materials are lubricated with __________.Not learned 1416. Which of the following statements represents an operating characteristic of neoprene or rubber stern tube bearings?Not learned 1417. Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the split inflatable seal installed aft of the primary seal assembly for the propeller shaft?Not learned 1418. Shown in the illustration is a mechanical shaft seal providing constant surface contact, regardless of hull deflections, draft, or sea conditions while underway. This is ensured by the __________Not learned 1419. The device used to retain the packing, that keeps water from entering the ship through the opening where the propeller shaft passes through the hull, is called a __________.Not learned 1420. An excessive amount of water is prevented from entering a vessel using a water lubricated stern tube bearing by the use of the __________.Not learned 1421. Which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ship's hull via the propulsion shaft?Not learned 1422. The tail shaft of an ocean going vessel is usually supported by the __________.Not learned 1423. Which combination of the main shaft segments listed below, that are located furthest from the main engine, are connected by the inboard stern tube shaft coupling?Not learned 1424. In a water cooled stern tube, a slight leakage of water across the packing gland is provided to __________.Not learned 1425. When a vessel is underway, a small amount of water is allowed to leak through the water lubricated stern tube stuffing box in order to __________.Not learned 1426. In order to prevent overheating of the packing in the stern tube stuffing box, __________.Not learned 1427. Some vessels are equipped with a water lubricated stern tube. When at sea, operating under normal conditions, the water service valve from the ship's saltwater system to the bearing should be __________.Not learned 1428. Water leaking through the stern tube stuffing box is used to accomplish which of the following actions?Not learned 1429. The stern tube flushing connection can be used to _________,Not learned 1430. The exposed portion of the outboard propeller shaft is protected against seawater corrosion by __________.Not learned 1431. Which of the following actions, pertaining to saltwater lubricated stern tube stuffing boxes, is usually observed when the ship is expected to be in port for an extended period?Not learned 1432. The lignum vitae in a stern tube bearing is normally lubricated with __________.Not learned 1433. One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon the design to reduce stress concentrations. Which of the following factors, in part, would be considered to meet this design criteria?Not learned 1434. According to 46 CFR, the tailshafts of a twin screw ocean going vessel must be examined and inspected in the presence of a marine inspector ______.Not learned 1435. When the tail shaft is drawn from a vessel in dry-dock, which of the following inspections is required to be carried out?Not learned 1436. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require a single tail shaft with water lubricated tail shaft bearings, stress-relieved keyway, and fabricated from materials resistant to corrosion by sea water, to be drawn and examined once in every __________.Not learned 1437. According to 46 CFR Subpart 61.20 regarding the periodic tests of machinery and equipment, what is the maximum tail shaft to stern tube bearing clearance (at the after end of the stern tube) that would require rebushing for a vessel in ocean service, with an aft propulsion machinery space, a 14" diameter tail shaft, and a water lubricated stern tube bearing constructed of material other than rubber?Not learned 1438. The vessel has its propulsion machinery located amidships, using a water lubricated stern tube bearing, to carry a tail shaft of a 15 inch (38.1 cm) diameter. During the inspection the wear between the stern tube and the bearing surface was measured as 1/4 inch (.635 cm). Which of the following actions should be carried out as a result of this measurement?Not learned 1439. According to 46 CFR Part 61, what is the maximum allowable permitted wear on a stern tube bushing for a vessel that has its propelling machinery located amidships, with a water lubricated stern tube bearing carrying a 12 inch diameter shaft ?Not learned 1440. Which of the conditions listed would cause the stern tube lube oil head tank level to decrease?Not learned 1441. Which letter represents the gear tooth working depth of the gear set illustratedNot learned 1442. The working depth of the gear illustrated is represented by __________Not learned 1443. The term, whole depth of the gear, shown in the illustration, is equal to __________Not learned 1444. The backlash of the gear illustrated is represented by __________Not learned 1445. The letter "H" of the illustrated gear, represents the __________Not learned 1446. The gear clearance of the illustrated gear is represented by __________Not learned 1447. The pitch radius of the gear illustrated is represented by __________Not learned 1448. The base radius of the gear illustrated is represented by __________Not learned 1449. The chordal addendum of the illustrated gear is represented by __________Not learned 1450. The tooth profile of the illustrated gear is represented by __________Not learned 1451. When the axis of the pinion gear is parallel to the center of the bevel gear, similar to right angle drive gear shown in the illustration, the drive would be identified as a __________Not learned 1452. When the axis of the pinion gear is parallel to the center of the bevel gear, similar to right angle drive gear shown in the illustration, the drive would be identified as a __________Not learned 1453. Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.Not learned 1454. The pinion gears used in main propulsion reduction gear mechanisms are generally constructed of __________.Not learned 1455. Which of the following statements represents the function of the center groove machined on a double-helical gear?Not learned 1456. In herringbone helical gear sets, the tooth contact loading __________.Not learned 1457. Helical gears are preferred over spur gears for steam turbine reduction gear units due to the fact that they __________.Not learned 1458. The gear drive, shown in the illustration, can have the backlash determined best by using a __________Not learned 1459. Pitting in the area close to the pitch line and on the same end of each gear tooth of a reduction gear unit would be caused by __________.Not learned 1460. What is an example of an epicyclic gear?Not learned 1461. Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with one another?Not learned 1462. What is a shipboard application for a worm gear drive?Not learned 1463. In a double articulated reduction gear system, the component labeled "3" would be identified as the _______Not learned 1464. In a double articulated reduction gear system, the component labeled "3" would be identified as the _______Not learned 1465. In a double articulated reduction gear system, the component labeled "3" would be identified as the _______Not learned 1466. From the data shown in the illustration, what would be the speed of the L.P. turbine rotor if the propeller shaft was turning at 90 RPMNot learned 1467. Which of the following operational practices is helpful in avoiding the accumulation of condensate in the main reduction gear casing?Not learned 1468. When securing the main engine, which of the listed procedures should be carried out to remove or reduce condensation from the interior of the main reduction gear casing?Not learned 1469. Which of the devices listed is generally used to engage the main engine turning gear to the high- pressure turbine high-speed pinion?Not learned 1470. The main propulsion shaft turning gear usually connects to the free end of the high-speed high-pressure pinion because the __________.Not learned 1471. Which of the following statements is true concerning the turning gear rotor arrangement shown in the illustrationNot learned 1472. Why are geared turbine installations equipped with turning mechanisms?Not learned 1473. The jacking gear is used in preparation for starting a marine turbine and reduction gear unit to __________.Not learned 1474. To prevent damage to the turning gear mechanism, which of the following procedures must be carried out before the turning gear is engaged?Not learned 1475. The jacking/turning gear mechanism of a main propulsion geared turbine installation is normally connected through mechanical linkage to the _______.Not learned 1476. The jacking gear on main propulsion turbines can be used to __________.Not learned 1477. Excessive thrust bearing wear in a main propulsion turbine rotor should FIRST become apparent by __________.Not learned 1478. Which of the listed operational checks should be made "continuously" on the main propulsion reduction gears?Not learned 1479. Fresh water accumulating in the reduction gear sump may be directly attributed to a/an __________.Not learned 1480. Reduction gears for main propulsion turbines are lubricated by __________.Not learned 1481. Which of the following methods is used to lubricate main propulsion turbine reduction gears?Not learned 1482. Regarding main reduction gears, when high-speed first reduction pinions and gears are connected to low-speed pinions and gears, each contained in a sequential portion of the gear housing, the reduction gear unit is known as __________.Not learned 1483. Which of the following factors determines the type of construction used for gear hubs in shipboard reduction gear units?Not learned 1484. In main propulsion systems, which metal is used in the construction of the shafts for a main reduction gear unit?Not learned 1485. An air vent is installed on some reduction gear casings to __________.Not learned 1486. Which of the following represents one of the designed functions of reduction gears?Not learned 1487. The purpose of the main reduction gears is to __________.Not learned 1488. Why are the gear teeth of large reduction gears usually cut in a temperature controlled room?Not learned 1489. Reduction gears on main propulsion turbines are double helical cut to __________.Not learned 1490. Main reduction and pinion gears are double helically cut to __________.Not learned 1491. Main reduction and pinion gears are double helically cut to __________.Not learned 1492. Most main reduction gear units employ double helical cut gears, rather than single helical cut gears, because double helical cut gears __________.Not learned 1493. Helical gears are preferred over spur gears for steam turbine reduction gear units due to the fact that they __________.Not learned 1494. By which of the following means can rotating parts of the main reduction gear be examined?Not learned 1495. Most main propulsion reduction gear bearings are __________.Not learned 1496. The reduction gear shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 1497. Which type of reduction gear arrangement is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1498. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "I", is the __________Not learned 1499. Which of the following statements defines the term "axial float" in reference to reduction gears?Not learned 1500. Which of the following statements defines the term 'axial float' in reference to reduction gears?Not learned 1501. The component labeled "II", as shown in the illustration, is called the __________Not learned 1502. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "III", is the __________Not learned 1503. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "IV", is the ________Not learned 1504. How many pinion gears are required in an articulated, double reduction gear set for a cross-compounded turbine?Not learned 1505. The function of a quill shaft used on a double reduction gear main propulsion unit is to __________.Not learned 1506. In a reduction gear train, a quill shaft of high torsional flexibility provides __________.Not learned 1507. What is the significance of pinion deflection in the operation of reduction gears?Not learned 1508. The maintenance of reduction gear units is principally concerned with attention to keeping the __________.Not learned 1509. After the housing has been bolted down, the final check of reduction gear tooth contact is usually made by __________.Not learned 1510. The slight wavy appearance of the tips of reduction gear teeth is a result of __________.Not learned 1511. Gear surface failure caused by exceeding the endurance limit of the surface material is characterized by __________.Not learned 1512. Which of the following problems is likely to occur if the lube oil level in the sump is too high?Not learned 1513. Wear occurring at the tips of the reduction gear teeth is usually the result of __________.Not learned 1514. One of the most common causes of reduction gear failure is gear wear caused by scoring as a result of __________.Not learned 1515. Pitted reduction gear teeth having a deep blue color with evidence of overheating have been operated with __________.Not learned 1516. The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what type?Not learned 1517. Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?Not learned 1518. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "I", is the __________Not learned 1519. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "IV", is the ________Not learned 1520. The component labeled "II", as shown in the illustration, is called the __________Not learned 1521. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "III", is the __________Not learned 1522. The reduction gear shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 1523. The component labeled "II", as shown in the illustration, is called the __________Not learned 1524. The type of shaft coupling used on the pump illustrated is best described as a __________Not learned 1525. The shaft coupling for the illustrated pump is rotated by the motor coupling using a/an __________Not learned 1526. The compressor in figure 4, if permitted to operate as illustrated will __________Not learned 1527. The compressor in figure 4, if permitted to operate as illustrated will __________Not learned 1528. Operating the compressor and motor as shown in figure 4 of the illustration, will result in _________Not learned 1529. Operating the compressor and motor as shown in figure 5 of the illustration, will result in ________Not learned 1530. Axial movement in a gear-type flexible coupling is provided for by __________.Not learned 1531. Which of the following methods provides for axial movement in a gear type flexible coupling?Not learned 1532. Axial movement in a gear-type flexible coupling is provided for by __________.Not learned 1533. Which of the following statements is true concerning the coupling shown in the illustrationNot learned 1534. Which of the coupling types listed is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1535. The part shown in the illustration would be located between which of the following components of a modern geared turbine main propulsion unitNot learned 1536. Which of the statements listed applies to the quill shaft shown in the illustrationNot learned 1537. Which of the devices listed is commonly used to compensate for the expansion and minor misalignments occurring between the main turbine rotor and the reduction gear?Not learned 1538. In a double reduction gear, the function of a quill shaft is to provide flexibility between the second reduction pinion and the __________.Not learned 1539. Which of the flexible coupling types listed is used in most turbine reduction gear installations?Not learned 1540. Flexible couplings used between main turbine rotors and reduction gear installations are usually ________.Not learned 1541. On main turbine propulsion units, gear-type flexible couplings are generally used between the __________.Not learned 1542. A gear type flexible coupling is precision built for __________.Not learned 1543. Which of the coupling types listed is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1544. A steam driven 750 KW turbo generator has a rated speed of 1200 RPM. The over speed setting for this unit must not exceed __________.Not learned 1545. In the illustration of a typical ship service turbo-generator control system, the handle labeled "B" is used to _______________Not learned 1546. In the illustration of a typical ship service turbo generator control system, the device that monitors turbine exhaust pressure is labeled _______Not learned 1547. A pilot valve and servomotor are utilized in mechanical-hydraulic governing systems on a turbo- generator unit in order to __________.Not learned 1548. An excess pressure governor would normally be used on a __________.Not learned 1549. Which of the listed parts illustrated in the turbo-generator governing system, provides the follow-up to prevent the nozzle valves from cycling between the fully open and fully closed positions, with each variation in turbine speedNot learned 1550. Which of the listed parts illustrated in the turbo-generator governing system, provides the follow-up to prevent the nozzle valves from cycling between the fully open and fully closed positions, with each variation in turbine speedNot learned 1551. Constant speed governors are normally employed with __________.Not learned 1552. The steady frequency required from a ship service generator for electrical power is maintained by means of a __________.Not learned 1553. A turbo-generator governing system maintains constant turbine speed by using a flyweight-actuated pilot valve to control hydraulic oil flow to a lifting beam operating cylinder, which in turn, __________.Not learned 1554. Which of the listed actions will occur when there is an increase in load on a ship service generator equipped with a centrifugal type hydraulic governorNot learned 1555. Regarding the governor shown in the illustration, what would occur as the result of a speed increase by a ship's service turbo generatorNot learned 1556. In any governor there is a small range of speed in which no corrective action occurs. This speed range is called the governor deadband and is caused by __________.Not learned 1557. A motor driven synchronizing device, figure "D" shown in the illustration, operated from the generator switchboard, initiates fine adjustments to the steam turbine speed by directly __________Not learned 1558. If two turbo-generators with the same no-load speed settings are operating in parallel, the unit whose governor has the lesser speed droop will __________.Not learned 1559. The portion of a mechanism that utilizes manual positioning, or automatic indexing, is known as a detent. An example of a detent used aboard ship can be found in a/an __________.Not learned 1560. In the illustration, the function generators will accept only a signal of a given polarity and the amplifier "M" inverts the polarity of the signal. If negative is used for the ahead and positive for the astern reference potentiometers, moving the bridge reference potentiometer in the direction indicated will have what effect while the system is operating in the mode selected for in the illustrationNot learned 1561. When a reference input signal from the bridge to the engine room takes place, the signal is inverted in the amplifiers and function generators. A negative signal from the amplifier, shown in the illustration, labeled "M", will result in a __________Not learned 1562. Guardian valves are installed on main propulsion turbines to ______.Not learned 1563. Which of the following is used to hold the poppet valves closed in a turbo-generators nozzle control speed regulator?Not learned 1564. Which of the following statements describes how the main propulsion turbine overspeed relay initiates closing of the throttle valve?Not learned 1565. Which of the following statements concerning the design of balanced throttle valves is correct?Not learned 1566. The main throttle valve on a main propulsion turbine admits steam directly into the __________.Not learned 1567. The overspeed tripping device installed on an auxiliary turbine is automatically actuated by __________.Not learned 1568. A sequential lift, nozzle valve control bar on a turbo-generator, utilizes which of the following operating principles?Not learned 1569. The valve opening sequence for bar-lift nozzle control valves in a marine steam turbine is determined by __________.Not learned 1570. Which of the following statements represents the significance of the differential pressure existing between the nozzle block and steam chest of a turbogenerator equipped with a lifting beam mechanism?Not learned 1571. The flash point of most lube oils used in a main lubricating system should be approximately __________.Not learned 1572. Although lube oils used in the main lubricating service systems should have a relatively high flash point to avoid ignition, they can create smoke and fire hazards when they __________.Not learned 1573. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the viscosity of lubricating oil?Not learned 1574. Which of the following statements describes the relationship between viscosity and specific gravity?Not learned 1575. With regards to the viscosity of lube oil in an operating system under normal load, the highest viscosity should occur __________.Not learned 1576. The device shown in the illustration is known as a/an __________Not learned 1577. The illustrated device is used to __________Not learned 1578. The tendency for lubricating oil to thin out at high temperatures and thicken at low temperatures will be characterized by a __________.Not learned 1579. The degree to which the viscosity of an oil will change with a change in temperature is indicated by the __________.Not learned 1580. The ability of lubricating oils to resist viscosity changes during temperature changes is indicated by the __________.Not learned 1581. Which of the following statements is correct regarding an oil with a high viscosity index?Not learned 1582. A lubricating oil with a high viscosity index number is most effectively used __________.Not learned 1583. Pipe friction during oil transfer will be the greatest during the transfer of a lubricating oil at 130°F with a viscosity index of __________.Not learned 1584. The pour point of lubricating oils is affected the most by which of the following?Not learned 1585. The term 'pour point' is defined as the lowest temperature at which lubricating oils will flow __________.Not learned 1586. Which of the additives listed is used to lower the pour point of a lubricating oil?Not learned 1587. Which of the additives listed is used to reduce the foaming tendency of lube oil?Not learned 1588. An additive used to improve the ability of a lube oil to reduce friction is known as a/an __________.Not learned 1589. An additive used to improve the ability of a lube oil to reduce friction in hypoid gear applications is known as a/an __________.Not learned 1590. Additives commonly found in turbine lubricating oil include __________.Not learned 1591. Which of the following conditions should be used to support the need to change the lube oil when there has been an increase in the neutralization number?Not learned 1592. A decision has been made to change out 1,000 gallons of lube oil in a vessel's main propulsion unit. Which of the following statements is true regarding this decision?Not learned 1593. A decision has been made to change out the lube oil in a vessel's main propulsion unit ahead of the scheduled maintenance period. Which of the following statements is true concerning the reason for this decision?Not learned 1594. A good quality oil used in main propulsion engine lubrication systems should be __________.Not learned 1595. Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as __________.Not learned 1596. The ability of an oil to separate cleanly from an oil and water mixture is referred to as its __________.Not learned 1597. Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as __________.Not learned 1598. Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to __________.Not learned 1599. The function of lubricating oil is to __________.Not learned 1600. The function of lubricating oil is to __________.Not learned 1601. The pressure produced within the oil wedge of a rotating journal is __________.Not learned 1602. Which of the following statements is true concerning the hydrodynamic wedge developed by lubricating oil?Not learned 1603. Which of the following surfaces will not develop a hydrodynamic film where motion is accompanied by any appreciable loading?Not learned 1604. A lube oil sample is taken from the main engine lube oil system and visually inspected. Which of the following would indicate water contamination?Not learned 1605. A lube oil sample taken from the main engine lube oil system has a dark yellow opaque color. This is the result of ____________ .Not learned 1606. Excessive water in an operating lube oil system can be detected by __________.Not learned 1607. The normal characteristics and properties of lube oil will begin to break down if contaminated with water and __________.Not learned 1608. As lube oil absorbs moisture its dielectric strength can be expected to __________.Not learned 1609. Water retained in the lube oil system of a main propulsion turbine installation is undesirable because it __________.Not learned 1610. Dirt and/or metallic particles in a reduction gear lubricating oil system may cause which of the following problems to occur?Not learned 1611. While making a round of the engine room, the oil in all of the main engine bearing sight glasses appears to be milky. The probable cause is __________.Not learned 1612. The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side of a lube oil cooler is usually indicated by __________.Not learned 1613. The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side of a lube oil cooler is usually indicated by __________.Not learned 1614. Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks will include __________.Not learned 1615. Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks will include __________.Not learned 1616. The main lube oil sump of a main propulsion engine should be constructed of __________.Not learned 1617. Solid contaminants are prevented from entering the main lube oil system by way of the main engine sump, through the use of __________.Not learned 1618. Baffles are provided in the main lube oil sump tank of the pressurized lube oil system, shown in the illustration, to __________Not learned 1619. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil sump should __________.Not learned 1620. Main propulsion engine lube oil sumps should be constructed __________.Not learned 1621. In a steam turbine and reduction gear main propulsion plant, the alarm sensor for low turbine oil pressure is usually installed __________.Not learned 1622. During high-speed operation of the main turbine propulsion unit, the heat absorbed by the lubricating oil is removed by the __________.Not learned 1623. Which of the following statements is true regarding lube oil coolers used for main steam propulsion systems?Not learned 1624. The lube oil coolers installed in a gravity lubricating oil system are located between the __________.Not learned 1625. The lube oil coolers installed in a gravity lubricating oil system are located between the __________.Not learned 1626. Fine metallic particles, which may originate from wear or failure of the lube oil service pump internal parts, are prevented from contaminating the bearings served by the lube oil system by __________.Not learned 1627. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lube oil system to remove metallic particles?Not learned 1628. Main steam turbine lubricating oil systems are fitted with __________.Not learned 1629. In a modern main propulsion turbine installations, lube oil system strainers are usually located in the __________.Not learned 1630. Turbine lube oil suction strainer baskets have __________.Not learned 1631. In a gravity lube oil system, a sight glass is installed in a line near the operating platform. What two things does this line connect?Not learned 1632. Which of the following lube oil system lines generally includes an illuminated sight glass (bull's-eye)?Not learned 1633. According to the illustration, what is the normal function of the component shownNot learned 1634. If a tube should leak in an operating main steam turbine lube oil cooler, the water will not immediately contaminate the oil because the __________.Not learned 1635. In order to maintain the required lube oil temperature leaving a lube oil cooler, where an automatic bypass valve is not provided, which of the following operations is correct?Not learned 1636. Lube oil temperature leaving the lube oil coolers is regulated by throttling the __________.Not learned 1637. In some lube oil systems, the temperature of the lube oil downstream from the lube oil cooler is directly regulated by __________.Not learned 1638. How is the lube oil temperature controlled in the pressurized lube oil system shown in the illustrationNot learned 1639. When the temperature of the main turbine lubricating oil is lowered, an increase will occur in the __________.Not learned 1640. Oil supply pressure to the main lube oil header of a gravity feed lube oil system is __________.Not learned 1641. Which of the following statements about gravity type lube oil systems is correct?Not learned 1642. The gravity tank in a gravity lube oil system serves to __________.Not learned 1643. Oil flowing through the sight glass in the line between the lube oil gravity tank and main sump indicates the __________.Not learned 1644. Which of the following conditions is indicated by oil flowing through a lube oil gravity tank overflow sight glass?Not learned 1645. You would not see a flow through the bull's-eye of the lube oil gravity tank overflow line when the __________.Not learned 1646. You would not see a flow through the bull's-eye of the lube oil gravity tank overflow line when the __________.Not learned 1647. Which of the following statements is true concerning the lube oil system shown in the illustrationNot learned 1648. In a pressure type main propulsion turbine lubrication system, the lube oil service pumps normally take suction from the main sump and discharge directly to the __________.Not learned 1649. Sludge tanks are used in an oil lubricating system to receive __________.Not learned 1650. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require main propulsion lube oil systems to be designed to function satisfactorily when the vessel has a permanent __________.Not learned 1651. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) concerning lubricating oil systems for main propulsion turbines, require __________.Not learned 1652. To assure the main propulsion turbine bearings are receiving the proper lube oil supply, you should check the __________.Not learned 1653. On a ship equipped with a gravity type lube oil system, which of the conditions listed will occur FIRST if the main lube oil pump discharge pressure is lost?Not learned 1654. Which of the following conditions is the engineer's FIRST warning that the main lube oil pump has stopped?Not learned 1655. After starting the main lube oil pump in a gravity-type lube oil system, you should verify that the gravity tanks are full by __________.Not learned 1656. One cause for unusually low lube oil service pump pressure may be due to _________.Not learned 1657. If a lube oil pump fails to build up discharge pressure when first started, the cause could be the __________.Not learned 1658. If a lube oil pump fails to build up discharge pressure when first started, the cause could be the __________.Not learned 1659. If a main lube oil pump fails to build up discharge pressure, the cause could be the __________.Not learned 1660. Which of the conditions listed could cause an oil flow sight glass, of a main turbine bearing, to be completely filled with oil?Not learned 1661. While a vessel is underway, which of the conditions listed would indicate a tube leak associated with the sea water-cooled lube oil cooler on service?Not learned 1662. When a sudden increase in pressure occurs in a forced lubrication system, you should check for a __________.Not learned 1663. When there is a sudden increase of lubricating oil pump discharge pressure in a force feed lubricating system, you should FIRST check the __________.Not learned 1664. When there is a sudden increase of lubricating oil pump discharge pressure in a force feed lubricating system, you should FIRST check the __________.Not learned 1665. The maximum lube oil temperature leaving the lube oil cooler of a main steam turbine propulsion system should __________.Not learned 1666. No lube oil appearing in the sight glass (bull's eye) of a gravity type system is a positive indication of __________.Not learned 1667. After starting the main lube oil pump in a gravity-type lube oil system, you should verify that the gravity tanks are full by __________.Not learned 1668. No lube oil appearing in the sight glass (bull's eye) of a gravity type system is a positive indication of __________.Not learned 1669. In a gravity type lube oil service system, if no lube oil appears in the sight glass of the return drop line while underway, this is a positive indication that __________.Not learned 1670. Water can enter the lube oil system of a main propulsion turbine unit from __________.Not learned 1671. If saltwater leaks into and contaminates the main lubricating oil system, which of the following remedial actions should be taken?Not learned 1672. Foaming in a lube oil system can cause __________.Not learned 1673. Which of the following would contribute to the formation of an oil and water emulsion, in addition to acid formation?Not learned 1674. Why is a high lube oil level in the main engine reduction gear sump undesirable?Not learned 1675. For a gravity type lube oil system, a remote pressure sensing device is installed at the point of highest static head pressure on the main unit to enable the watch engineer to __________. be certain that the bearings are being adequately lubricated determine if there is sufficient lube oil pressure to the main engineNot learned 1676. A gravity type lube oil system for a steam vessel will have a remote pressure sensing device installed on the main lube oil header of the main turbine unit to enable the watch engineer to __________. determine if there is a normal level of lube oil in the gravity tank be certain that the bearings are being adequately lubricatedNot learned 1677. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure-feed lubricating oil system, which statement is true?Not learned 1678. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure-feed lubricating oil system, which statement is true?Not learned 1679. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil system, what statement is true concerning the vertical arrangement of the lube oil tanks?Not learned 1680. What type of lube oil cooler is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1681. Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating systems because they __________.Not learned 1682. The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent filters __________.Not learned 1683. Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer?Not learned 1684. Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with today's high detergent additive type oils?Not learned 1685. Which of the filters listed will deplete the additives in lubricating oil?Not learned 1686. Which of the filters listed will deplete the additives in lubricating oil?Not learned 1687. Which of the filters listed will deplete the additives in lubricating oil?Not learned 1688. Magnets located in lube oil strainers serve to __________.Not learned 1689. Magnets are installed in the main propulsion turbine lube oil strainers to attract metal particles released through wearing of the __________.Not learned 1690. Magnets are installed in the main propulsion turbine lube oil strainers to attract metal particles released through wearing of the __________.Not learned 1691. An excessive pressure differential across a lube oil strainer could indicate __________.Not learned 1692. What should be done when foreign matter is found in a lube oil strainer?Not learned 1693. Which of the following conditions may exist if you detect an excessive amount of metal particles on a main engine lube oil strainer magnet?Not learned 1694. The source of metal particles adhering to the magnets in a lube oil strainer is probably from the __________.Not learned 1695. In a steam turbine propulsion plant, the source of metal particles adhering to the magnets in the lube oil strainer is probably from the __________.Not learned 1696. The neutralization number of lube oil used in the machinery has exceeded its permissible range, therefore, it will be necessary to __________.Not learned 1697. A characteristic of lubricating oil which causes additional centrifuging requirements for proper purification is __________.Not learned 1698. Water removed through centrifugal force in the illustrated unit is displaced from the bowl through __________Not learned 1699. The three-wing device in the unit illustrated is maintained in its position by item __________Not learned 1700. In order to obtain the best performance with a lube oil purifier, the lube oil inlet temperature should __________.Not learned 1701. The temperature of emulsified lubricating oil entering a purifier from a preheater should range between __________.Not learned 1702. Lube oil is preheated before centrifuging in order to __________.Not learned 1703. One of the most effective methods of improving purification in tubular and disk type centrifugal purifiers is to __________.Not learned 1704. The maximum, safe, upper limit temperature of lubricating oil discharged from the purifiers is __________.Not learned 1705. Which of the following statements is true concerning the centrifuging of lubricating oil?Not learned 1706. The proper oil inlet temperature for centrifuging lube oil should be __________.Not learned 1707. The disk stack and tubular shaft used in a lube oil centrifugal purifier, is forced to rotate at bowl speed by __________.Not learned 1708. In a disk type centrifugal purifier, the bowl is mounted on the upper end of the __________.Not learned 1709. In a tubular bowl centrifugal purifier, lube oil is rotated at the same speed as the bowl by the __________.Not learned 1710. The three-wing device used in the tubular bowl purifier, is held in place and forced to rotate at bowl speed by the __________.Not learned 1711. In a disk type lube oil purifier, heavy impurities collect mostly __________.Not learned 1712. Which of the following statements best describes the actions occurring to the oil as it flows through a disk type centrifugal purifier?Not learned 1713. In a tubular-bowl type centrifugal lube oil purifier, any solids separated from the oil are __________.Not learned 1714. The bulk of the solid material entering a centrifugal purifier with lube oil is __________.Not learned 1715. In a tubular-bowl type centrifugal lube oil purifier, any solids separated from the oil are __________.Not learned 1716. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the selection of the proper size ring dam for a tubular-type lube oil purifier?Not learned 1717. Which ring dam arrangement should be used for centrifugal purification?Not learned 1718. The size of the discharge ring used in a lube oil purifier is determined by the oil's __________.Not learned 1719. In a disk type centrifugal purifier, the contaminated oil enters the centrifuge __________.Not learned 1720. The dirty oil inlet on centrifugal lube oil purifiers is located at the __________.Not learned 1721. One function of the disks, in a disk-type centrifugal purifier, is to divide the bowl space into many separate passages to __________.Not learned 1722. In a disk-type purifier which component is used to separate lube oil into thin layers and create shallow settling distances?Not learned 1723. When the flow of oil admitted to a disk-type centrifugal purifier is in excess of its designed capacity, which of the following conditions will usually occur?Not learned 1724. A disk-type centrifuge is set up for continuous use on the main turbine lube oil system. In order to batch centrifuge a small quantity of diesel oil from a storage tank, __________.Not learned 1725. In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be __________.Not learned 1726. During the operation of a lube oil centrifuge, a thin emulsion interface occurs between the lube oil and seal. The position of this interface is determined by the __________.Not learned 1727. The rotating speed of the tubular bowl centrifuge is more than twice that of the disk-type. The reason for this is __________.Not learned 1728. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a lube oil purifier is correct?Not learned 1729. A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?Not learned 1730. A centrifuge should satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?Not learned 1731. Water is best removed from lubricating oil by __________.Not learned 1732. The water seal in a centrifuge, operating at normal speed, prevents the lube oil from discharging from the water outlet. Another function of the seal is to __________.Not learned 1733. The water seal used in a tubular bowl centrifugal purifier is kept in the bowl during normal operation by __________Not learned 1734. When an oil purification centrifuge loses a portion of its seal, the oil can then be discharged through the heavy phase discharge port. This is partly a result of greater __________.Not learned 1735. When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water removed will __________.Not learned 1736. The term "separation" as used in oil purification refers to the removal of __________.Not learned 1737. If contaminated lube oil were allowed to settle undisturbed in a tank, into which layers would the contaminants separate?Not learned 1738. In a disk-type lubricating oil purifier, __________.Not learned 1739. In a disk-type lubricating oil purifier, __________.Not learned 1740. If the bowl of a centrifugal purifier is improperly reassembled with O-ring seals that have become hard and flat, the centrifuge __________.Not learned 1741. When a lube oil purifier has been cleaned, but a small amount of sludge remains in one spot of the bowl side, the __________.Not learned 1742. A poorly cleaned lube oil purifier bowl may result in __________.Not learned 1743. During the routine inspection of an operating centrifugal lube oil purifier, you notice oil discharging through the water discharge port. Which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 1744. To determine the extent of lube oil system contamination you would __________.Not learned 1745. Water contamination in the main propulsion lube oil system is undesirable because __________.Not learned 1746. The sample of oil discharged from the device illustrated appears milky white, and is probably due to __________Not learned 1747. Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?Not learned 1748. Oil discharged from the illustrated device has a milky-white appearance which is due to __________Not learned 1749. In the illustrated device, what would be a reason for oil being discharged from port "N"Not learned 1750. If fuel oil were being discharged from the waste water outlet of a fuel oil disk type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should __________.Not learned 1751. If the bowl of a disk-type centrifugal purifier when operated as a separator is not primed, the __________.Not learned 1752. In order to maximize the performance of an operating centrifuge, you can adjust the fuel oil __________. Viscosity through putNot learned 1753. As Chief Engineer of a slow-speed diesel engine vessel equipped with an ALCAP fuel oil purification system. You note a definite increase in the rate at which the purifier sludge tank is rising. One of the first items to check on your system would be which of the following?Not learned 1754. The item shown in the illustration is commonly identified as a _________Not learned 1755. Item "Q" in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 1756. Clean oil leaves the centrifuge illustrated through item __________Not learned 1757. During initial starting of the standby turbine-driven boiler feed pump, which of the listed valves should remain closed?Not learned 1758. The recommended vacuum should be maintained in the main condenser to __________.Not learned 1759. Maintaining low pressure in a condensing turbine exhaust trunk __________.Not learned 1760. When raising vacuum on an auxiliary condenser, which of the following steps is necessary?Not learned 1761. If a ship is to be laid up for an indefinite period, the steam side of the main condenser should be __________.Not learned 1762. When a turbine is in operation, a rotor position micrometer is used to determine any change in rotor __________.Not learned 1763. How is the axial clearance indicator used on a turbine?Not learned 1764. The astern guarding valve on main propulsion steam turbine units must be open when a vessel is __________.Not learned 1765. When a turbine rotor is not rotating during maneuvering, the heat tends to be concentrated at the __________.Not learned 1766. With vacuum up and the main propulsion turbine standing by while awaiting engine orders, it is necessary to roll the unit alternately ahead and astern every five minutes to __________.Not learned 1767. Why is it important to maintain good vacuum in a main turbine unit while operating astern?Not learned 1768. Prolonged astern operation of a turbine will cause __________.Not learned 1769. Proper vacuum must be maintained during prolonged astern operation to __________.Not learned 1770. The main propulsion turbine should be operated with the __________.Not learned 1771. Operating a steam turbine propulsion unit at medium-speed, in an area with extremely cold sea water and the main circulating pump providing full cooling water flow to the condenser will result in __________.Not learned 1772. As indicated in the graph, what percentage of rated horsepower is being used to operate the main propulsion turbine at 30% speedNot learned 1773. If the main propulsion turbine speed percentage is increase from 30% to 60%, what percentage of horsepower is required when the new speed is attained as shown in the illustrated graphNot learned 1774. As indicated in the graph, what percentage of rated horsepower is being developed when operating the main propulsion turbine at 80% speedNot learned 1775. The FIRST step in breaking vacuum on a main turbine unit should be to __________.Not learned 1776. To raise vacuum on the main turbine unit, you should __________.Not learned 1777. In securing the main turbines, steam to the second stage air ejectors should be left on for a short period of time in order to __________.Not learned 1778. For a period of time immediately after being secured, turbines should be rotated slowly to avoid __________.Not learned 1779. What must you do before placing the jacking gear in operation on a main turbine unit?Not learned 1780. Failure to use the turning gear prior to warming up a main turbine will damage the __________.Not learned 1781. The jacking gear must be engaged as quickly as possible when securing the main turbines in order to __________.Not learned 1782. When preparing to get underway and the jacking gear has been disengaged, the main turbine rotor should NOT be allowed to remain stationary for more than 3 minutes because __________.Not learned 1783. If steam is admitted to the main propulsion turbine with the jacking gear engaged, which of the following problems can occur?Not learned 1784. Raising vacuum on a main turbine unit without using the turning gear will result in __________.Not learned 1785. What should you do prior to rolling the main turbines in preparation for getting underway?Not learned 1786. Which of the following problems can occur from improper main turbine warm-up?Not learned 1787. The most critical period of main turbine operation is during cold start-up, rather than hot shutdown because __________.Not learned 1788. A common method of preheating main turbine lube oil prior to rolling over the main unit would be to ______.Not learned 1789. During normal operation of a main propulsion turbine, the lube oil supply temperature to the bearings should be maintained at approximately __________.Not learned 1790. After properly lining up the main propulsion turbine for warm up, steam should first be admitted to the rotor through the ________.Not learned 1791. During an inspection of the main turbine, you notice flow marks or discoloration across the diaphragm joints. This condition indicates __________.Not learned 1792. The FIRST adverse effect resulting from main bearing wear in an impulse turbine is __________.Not learned 1793. The main propulsion turbine can be damaged by __________.Not learned 1794. Moisture erosion in the last stages of the low pressure turbine will result from __________.Not learned 1795. Improper operation or faulty main steam turbine components may be indicated by an abnormal variation in _______.Not learned 1796. Precautions to be observed prior to starting a turbine driven feed pump, should include __________.Not learned 1797. In addition to causing erosion of turbine blades, slugs of water in the steam supply to a turbine- driven pump can result in __________.Not learned 1798. The maximum lube oil temperature leaving a large, main propulsion steam turbine bearing should __________.Not learned 1799. To stop the rotor of a main turbine while underway at sea you should __________.Not learned 1800. While standing watch, what immediate action should you take if you are running at sea speed and notice a sudden and significant drop in lube oil pressure to the main turbine?Not learned 1801. While making your rounds, you notice the main lube oil temperature to be higher than normal. To remedy this situation, you should __________.Not learned 1802. While making engine room rounds at sea, you observe excessive steam leaking from the forward gland on the high pressure turbine. This may indicate that the __________.Not learned 1803. For a gravity type lube oil system, a remote pressure sensing device is installed on the main unit lube oil header to enable the watch engineer to __________. determine if there is sufficient lube oil pressure to the main engine be certain that the bearings are being adequately lubricatedNot learned 1804. The steam coils in a high pressure contaminated evaporator used in a steam plant should be descaled with __________.Not learned 1805. If the salinity indicator located in the main condensate pump discharge piping causes an alarm to sound there is a danger of __________.Not learned 1806. If a salinity alarm system indicates 2.5 grains per gallon at the main condensate pump discharge, your first action should be to __________.Not learned 1807. A decrease in condenser vacuum is found to be caused by a loss of the air ejector loop seal. To reestablish the loop seal, you should __________.Not learned 1808. In a closed steam and water cycle, which of the conditions listed could prevent main condenser vacuum from reaching the desired level?Not learned 1809. If the salinity indicator periodically registers high salinity in the main hot well, the cause may be __________.Not learned 1810. While maneuvering out of port, you answer a stop bell. You notice a lot of steam coming out of the gland exhaust condenser vent, in addition to the main condenser hotwell level being low. For this condition you should __________.Not learned 1811. Operating a steam turbine propulsion unit at medium speed, in an area with extremely cold seawater, and the main circulating pump providing full cooling water flow to the condenser will result in __________.Not learned 1812. Which of the listed procedures should be followed when raising vacuum on the main propulsion plant prior to getting underway?Not learned 1813. While on watch aboard a 900 psi steam vessel, you suddenly hear a loud, piercing, high-pitched noise. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 1814. While on watch at sea, you notice the main lube oil pump suction vacuum has been increasing. To correct this you should __________.Not learned 1815. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fire room status by verifying the boiler steam drum level and _________.Not learned 1816. When relieving the watch in the fire room, you should first check the fuel pressure to the boiler and _________.Not learned 1817. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fire room status by verifying the fuel oil pressure to the boilers and _____________.Not learned 1818. When relieving the watch in the fire room, you should first check the boiler water level and ___________.Not learned 1819. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fireroom status by verifying the boiler steam drum level and _________.Not learned 1820. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fire room status by verifying the boiler steam drum level and _________.Not learned 1821. When relieving the watch in the fire room, you should first check the boiler water level and then ____________.Not learned 1822. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fire room status by verifying the fuel oil pressure to the burners and _____________.Not learned 1823. When relieving the watch in the fire room, you should first check the ___________.Not learned 1824. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fire room status by verifying the boiler water level and ___________.Not learned 1825. When relieving the watch in the fire room, you should first check the boiler steam pressure and ___________.Not learned 1826. When relieving the watch in the fire room, you should first check the boiler water level and __________.Not learned 1827. Which steam plant watch operating condition requires priority attention over the other conditions listed?Not learned 1828. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require priority attention over the other conditions listed?Not learned 1829. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require priority attention over the other conditions listed?Not learned 1830. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require priority attention over the other situations listed?Not learned 1831. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require priority attention over the other situations listed?Not learned 1832. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require priority attention over the other situations listed?Not learned 1833. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require priority attention over the other situations listed?Not learned 1834. Which steam plant operating condition requires priority attention over the other situations listed?Not learned 1835. Which condition would cause an excessively high level in the deaerating feed water tank (DC heater)?Not learned 1836. Which condition would cause an excessively high level in the deaerating feed water tank (Direct Contact) heater during maneuvering?Not learned 1837. Which condition would cause a dangerously low level in the deaerating feed water tank (Direct Contact) heater during maneuvering?Not learned 1838. Which condition would cause a dangerously low level in the deaerating feed water tank (Direct Contact) heater as the vessel is increasing from maneuvering to sea speed?Not learned 1839. Which condition would cause a dangerously low level in the deaerating feed water tank (Direct Contact) heater as the vessel is increasing from maneuvering to sea speed?Not learned 1840. Which condition could cause a low level in the deaerating feed water tank (DC heater) as the vessel is increasing from maneuvering to sea speed?Not learned 1841. Which condition would cause a high level in the deaerating feed water tank (DC heater)?Not learned 1842. Upon taking over the watch and the vessel is operating at sea speed, you find the D.C. heater water level to be dropping very slowly. Which of the following would you check to monitor this condition?Not learned 1843. During an in-port watch onboard a tank vessel while cargo operations are in progress, with the jacking gear engaged and running, you notice a 200 gallon drop in the reduction gear lube oil sump level. Which components or conditions should be checked immediately?Not learned 1844. Upon assuming the watch on a steam ship while cargo operations are in progress with the main engine and reduction gear secured, you notice a very large increase in the reduction gear lube oil sump level from previous log book entries. What would be the most probable cause of this large increase in sump level?Not learned 1845. What steps should be taken if large quantities of fuel oil are found in the drain inspection tank?Not learned 1846. What steps should be taken if excessive steaming and vigorous bubbling occurs in the first section of the drain inspection tank?Not learned 1847. What steps should be taken if excessive steaming and vigorous bubbling occurs in the first section of the drain inspection tank?Not learned 1848. The level of the contaminated drain inspection tank continually decreases when steam is admitted to a fuel oil double bottom tank. You can expect __________.Not learned 1849. What will occur if the level of the atmospheric drain tank (fresh water collector) is permitted to continuously decrease while the vessel is underway?Not learned 1850. What will occur if the level of the atmospheric drain tank, (fresh water drain collector) is permitted to continuously rise while the vessel is underway?Not learned 1851. Which possible condition has occurred if a vacuum is present at the atmospheric drain tank vent while the vessel is underway?Not learned 1852. Which following condition could occur if the distilled water tank level indicator has been giving an erroneously high reading?Not learned 1853. Why is it occasionally necessary to verify the accuracy of the distilled water make-up feed tank remote level indicator?Not learned 1854. The level of the contaminated drain inspection tank continually decreases when steam is admitted to a fuel oil double bottom tank. You can expect __________.Not learned 1855. While standing watch in the engine room of a steam vessel while at normal sea speed, you notice that the condensate temperature outlet of the air ejector condenser is fluctuating by approximately 12°F. You should therefore ________.Not learned 1856. While standing watch in the engine room, which of the following actions should be taken to reestablish a 'blown' air ejector loop seal?Not learned 1857. You are standing watch in the engine room of a steam vessel. You should blow down a gauge glass periodically to __________.Not learned 1858. While underway on watch in the engine room of a steam vessel, the proper valve positions for controlling feedwater to the boiler using the auxiliary feed system should be __________.Not learned 1859. Your main propulsion boilers are equipped with a two element feed water regulating control system. While on watch, you are required to respond to a 'slow' bell from full sea speed. Under these conditions the automatic feed water regulator will have __________.Not learned 1860. You are standing a sea watch in the engine room of a steam vessel. To operate at maximum efficiency, adjustments to the boiler combustion control system should be made by setting the __________.Not learned 1861. If a centrifugal main feed pump were operated at shutoff head with the recirculating line closed, which of the following conditions could occur?Not learned 1862. Irregular feeding or surging of the feedwater supply to a flash evaporator may be attributed to __________.Not learned 1863. While underway on watch, you notice that you need to constantly increase the coil pressure in the high pressure contaminated evaporator to maintain capacity. Which of the following may be the cause?Not learned 1864. While underway on watch, you notice that you need to constantly increase the coil pressure in the high pressure contaminated evaporator to maintain capacity. Which of the following may be the cause?Not learned 1865. When standing watch at sea, steaming full ahead, adding make-up feed water would also have a tendency to change which of the following parameters?Not learned 1866. When standing watch at sea, steaming full ahead, adding make-up feed water would also have a tendency to change which of the following parameters?Not learned 1867. When standing watch at sea, steaming full ahead, adding large amounts of make-up feed water would also have a tendency to change which of the following parameters?Not learned 1868. When standing watch at sea, steaming full ahead, adding make-up feed water from reserve feed double bottom tanks would also have a tendency to change which of the following parameters?Not learned 1869. Preferably when should the bridge be informed when engine room situations may affect the speed, maneuverability, power supply, or other essentials for the safe operation of the ship?Not learned 1870. As a chief engineer you are reviewing the engine room logbook. You must ensure that all entries are made properly. What should be your criteria for how a watch officer makes a correction to an incorrect log entry?Not learned 1871. Which of the listed conditions could occur if during start-up the rotor illustrated shifts radiallyNot learned 1872. In order to operate the main engine with only the high pressure turbine in service, the unit should be arranged __________.Not learned 1873. While a vessel is underway the low-pressure turbine high-speed pinion is damaged. The pinion is then removed from the gear train. Under these circumstances, the main unit is capable of which speed and direction?Not learned 1874. What will be the FIRST thing to occur if both the main and standby lube oil pumps failed to operate on a geared main propulsion steam turbine operating at full sea speed?Not learned 1875. What should you do when a turbine bearing shows signs of overheating?Not learned 1876. If you are notified that one of the turbine bearings is overheated, which of the following actions should you take first as the watch engineer?Not learned 1877. If lube oil pressure to the main turbines is lost while underway at sea speed, the rotor should be stopped immediately. This is accomplished by __________.Not learned 1878. If the main turbine bearing lube oil pressure drops to 'zero' and cannot be restored immediately, you should __________.Not learned 1879. If you are underway at full speed on a vessel fitted with a main propulsion turbine pressure lubrication system, which of the following actions will be necessary upon complete loss of lube oil pressure?Not learned 1880. If the main and standby lube oil service pumps of the main engine fail while underway at sea, __________.Not learned 1881. While standing watch, what immediate action should you take if you are running at sea speed and notice a sudden and significant drop in lube oil pressure to the main turbine?Not learned 1882. Any abnormal condition or emergency occurring in the fire room must be immediately reported to the __________.Not learned 1883. Any abnormal condition or emergency that occurs in the engine room must be reported immediately to the __________.Not learned 1884. Upon taking over the watch, while the vessel is at sea speed, you find the following conditions to exist. Which condition should be attended to first and why should this step be taken?Not learned 1885. Despite troubleshooting the system, the watch engineer has been unable to transfer fuel to the settler while underway. As the settler level is becoming dangerously low, the engineer should now __________.Not learned 1886. The vessel is currently operating at sea. Despite troubleshooting the system, the engineers of the vessel have been unable to transfer fuel to the settler. As the settler level is becoming dangerously low, they should now __________.Not learned 1887. A steam vessel is operating at sea and despite troubleshooting the system by all the vessel's engineers, the transfer of fuel to the settler has not been possible and the settler will be empty in a few minutes. As the watch engineer, your NEXT step should be to __________.Not learned 1888. A steam vessel is operating at sea and despite troubleshooting the system by all the vessel's engineers, the transfer of fuel to the settler has not been possible and the settler will be empty in a few minutes. As the watch engineer, your NEXT step should be to __________.Not learned 1889. While underway, the boiler water level in a steaming boiler begins dropping rapidly and cannot be kept at the normal level by standard practices. The engineer's next action should be to __________.Not learned 1890. While on watch in the engine room and steaming at a steady rate, the water level begins to decrease and suddenly drops out of sight in the boiler gage glass. Your FIRST corrective action should be to __________.Not learned