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Master & Chief Mate (Oceans or Near Coastal (Unlimited Tonnage))
Q103 — Deck Safety
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1. What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal pump from entering the shaft bearing?
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2. Which of the following describes the function of the air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?
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3. Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.
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4. Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless which situation occurs?
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5. The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.
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6. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.
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7. When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?
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8. If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can initially be maintained by activating which of the following units?
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9. Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.
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10. According to the Code of Federal Regulations, which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995?
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11. In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.
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12. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.
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13. Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?
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14. The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by which organization?
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15. AMVER is a system which provides __________.
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16. Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.
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17. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?
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18. What is the signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats?
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19. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.
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20. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
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21. When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.
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22. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?
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23. Which signaling device(s) is/are required on inflatable liferafts?
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24. When a vessel signals its distress by means of a gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be at approximately which time intervals?
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25. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.
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26. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
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27. How can the spread of fire be prevented?
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28. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
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29. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.
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30. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?
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31. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.
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32. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
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33. Which statement is TRUE to safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system?
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34. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.
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35. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.
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36. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.
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37. The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.
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38. Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.
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39. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
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40. Where should muster lists be posted?
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41. A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of the following?
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42. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.
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43. All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.
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44. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?
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45. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?
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46. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make __________.
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47. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat. In a mild breeze how should the boat approach the person in the water?
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48. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?
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49. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.
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50. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?
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51. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.
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52. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?
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53. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.
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54. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?
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55. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.
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56. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?
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57. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.
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58. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?
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59. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?
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60. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
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61. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.
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62. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?
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63. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?
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64. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.
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65. Life jackets should be marked with which item?
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66. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.
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67. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, which action should you take?
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68. Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to accomplish which task?
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69. What is the purpose of rigging frapping lines on lifeboat falls?
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70. Which of the following persons may command a lifeboat in ocean service?
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71. Which of the following is NOT a function of the pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat?
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72. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.
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73. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?
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74. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.
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75. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?
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76. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.
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77. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the following colors?
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78. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?
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79. You will find a limit switch on which type of davit?
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80. Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.
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81. After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.
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82. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.
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83. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on which item?
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84. If a life raft should capsize, __________.
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85. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.
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86. Which item is a feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people inside the raft stationary in rough weather?
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87. The canopy of your life raft should __________.
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88. Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?
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89. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?
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90. The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.
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91. Inflatable liferafts are provided with which item?
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92. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.
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93. How should an inflatable liferaft be manually released from its cradle?
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94. An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.
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95. Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?
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96. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.
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97. Which is TRUE concerning a hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft?
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98. Under normal conditions, how is a liferaft released from its cradle?
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99. Where are the lifelines connected to the liferaft?
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100. The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.
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101. To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.
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102. After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.
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103. After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, how is the liferaft inflated?
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104. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?
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105. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.
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106. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.
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107. When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, which task must be done to aid in your rescue?
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108. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which action will aid in your rescue?
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109. Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship which item(s) would you use?
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110. How is the inside light in an inflatable liferaft activated?
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111. You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?
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112. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?
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113. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?
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114. What is the function of the hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft?
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115. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?
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116. Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed which time frame?
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117. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.
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118. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.
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119. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.
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120. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF which condition exists?
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121. When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should take which action?
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122. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.
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123. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.
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124. Your rescue craft is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by taking which action?
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125. A sea anchor is __________.
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126. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using which item(s)?
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127. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.
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128. When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.
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129. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?
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130. Initial stability is indicated by __________.
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131. The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known as the __________.
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132. Which term is used for the horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces?
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133. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.
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134. Which term defines the upward pressure of displaced water of a vessel?
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135. At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.
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136. Initial stability refers to stability __________.
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137. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
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138. Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel. These points are the center of buoyancy and the __________.
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139. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.
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140. The important initial stability parameter, GM, is which of the following?
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141. The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the __________.
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142. When a vessel is floating upright, which term is used to define the distance from the keel to the metacenter of a vessel?
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143. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.
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144. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
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145. At all angles of inclination, which is the true measure of a vessel's stability?
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146. Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as __________.
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147. Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
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148. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
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149. Which term defines the difference between the forward and aft drafts?
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150. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.
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151. Which term is given to the difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely in the vessel?
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152. The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
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153. What does reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduce?
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154. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.
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155. For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.
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156. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.
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157. A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.
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158. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.
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159. When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.
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160. If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.
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161. A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.
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162. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.
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163. When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.
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164. When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.
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165. The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.
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166. During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. Which action should you take?
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167. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed?
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168. Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.
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169. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.
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170. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.
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171. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.
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172. A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.
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173. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.
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174. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.
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175. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces which threat?
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176. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.
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177. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.
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178. Which is the best action to take when plugging holes below the waterline for the safety of the vessel?
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179. Which term describes the strengthening of damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel?
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180. In plugging submerged holes; why are rags, wedges, and other materials used in conjunction with plugs?
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181. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.
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182. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?
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183. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?
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184. Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?
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185. As a last resort, what can a tourniquet be used for?
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186. Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear __________.
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187. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?
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188. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?
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189. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?
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190. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?
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191. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
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192. What is the primary purpose of a splint when applied in first aid treatment?
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193. How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture?
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194. Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what action is taken?
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195. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?
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196. After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?
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197. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, what type of burn is this?
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198. A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper first aid treatment for this injury?
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199. What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?
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200. Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?
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201. What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?
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202. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
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203. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
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204. What should you do before CPR is started?
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205. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?
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206. While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out?
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207. Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.
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208. The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.
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209. A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.
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210. What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?
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211. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.
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212. Which of the following describes why topside icing, which is usually off-center, decreases vessel stability?
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213. What will cause the free surface effects of a partially full tank on a vessel in motion to increase?
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214. The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.
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215. For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.
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216. Which of the following terms defines the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present?
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217. Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.
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218. You are approaching a ship that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, which action should you take?
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219. One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY take which action?
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220. For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have __________.
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221. The time required to incline from bow down to stern down and return to bow down again is called __________.
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222. In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.
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223. Which is TRUE of outlets in gasoline fuel lines of your small vessel?
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224. When patching holes in the hull, how can pillows, bedding, and other soft materials be used?
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225. What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?
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226. Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.
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227. Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.
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228. Why do spaces containing batteries require good ventilation?
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229. You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?
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230. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in which condition?
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231. Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.
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232. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to take which action?
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233. Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?
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234. On what type of pump would you find an impeller?
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235. The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.
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236. You are on a 165 foot (50.3 meters) long vessel with a draft of 9 feet (2.7 meters) and twin screws. Which statement about rescuing a survivor in the water with ship pickup is TRUE?
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237. Your 550 GT vessel is equipped with a free fall lifeboat. Where should the SART units be stowed to meet SOLAS requirements?
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238. Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for what type of service?
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239. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message should contain which code?
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240. Which is the abandon ship signal?
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241. You have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft with a SART. What signal will indicate to you that a 3 cm radar has interrogated the SART unit?
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242. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. Which action should you take?
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243. You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?
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244. You abandoned ship in the North Atlantic and one of the crew members is hypothermic. During a SAR helicopter extraction which lifting device should be avoided when hoisting this patient to the aircraft?
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245. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?
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246. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. Which is one of your FIRST actions that should be taken?
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247. You have abandoned your vessel and are the person in charge of lifeboat No. 2. Which procedure should be followed when landing a boat under oars through a slight surf?
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248. When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.
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249. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?
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250. An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.
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251. Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving which item?
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252. Aboard ship, which term is given to the vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates?
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253. Aboard a vessel, a common formula which consists of dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields which information?
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254. Aboard a vessel, what does dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yield?
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255. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
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256. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
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257. In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.
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258. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.
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259. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?
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260. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?
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261. According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?
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262. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what information that affects your vessel is required to be entered into the radiotelephone log?
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263. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?
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264. Which action will affect the trim of a vessel?
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265. Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?
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266. Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?
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267. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?
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268. Which action must be taken annually concerning inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels?
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269. Which action should you take after sending a false distress alert on VHF?
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270. Which action should be taken once fueling has been completed?
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271. Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?
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272. In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into English or __________.
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273. Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.
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274. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.
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275. What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?
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276. What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?
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277. What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?
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278. What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?
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279. Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?
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280. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?
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281. With the air supply on, which is TRUE concerning the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat?
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282. An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change course and follow him. You cannot comply because of an emergency on board. Which signal should you make?
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283. If an airplane circles a vessel 3 times, crosses the vessel's course close ahead while rocking the wings, and heads off in a certain direction, what does this indicate?
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284. An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface craft?
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285. An airplane wants a vessel to change course and proceed towards a vessel in distress. The actions of the aircraft to convey this message will NOT include __________.
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286. When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?
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287. Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.
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288. The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on which item?
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289. Which does the AMVER system require?
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290. At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.
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291. At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.
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292. At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.
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293. Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known by which term?
Not learned
294. Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel refers to which term?
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295. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is known by which term?
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296. What is another name for the garboard strake?
Not learned
297. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoisted. What should you do?
Not learned
298. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do?
Not learned
299. You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action?
Not learned
300. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "J" hoisted. What should you do?
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301. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do?
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302. You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your approach?
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303. You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do?
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304. What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?
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305. Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?
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306. Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?
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307. If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you the single letter "Q", what would he be telling you?
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308. Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?
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309. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.
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310. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.
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311. When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?
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312. You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. How should you get underway?
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313. The average rolling period of your ship puts it in the category of a "stiff ship". What effect can this condition have on the cargo carried onboard while underway?
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314. When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.
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315. What is the basic concept of GMDSS
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316. In battery charging rooms, where should the exhaust ventilation be provided?
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317. You are on the beach and want to signal to a small boat in distress that your present location is dangerous and that they should land to the left. How would you indicate this?
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318. Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies?
Not learned
319. Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________.
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320. What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?
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321. Which is the best source of information on the location of the blocks when dry docking a vessel?
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322. What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when attempting to place an INMARSAT-B call
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323. What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?
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324. What is the best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal?
Not learned
325. Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls under which condition?
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326. Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with which minimum safety factor?
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327. Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.
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328. What does blowing tubes accomplish?
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329. You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?
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330. On board a vessel, which of the following is the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation?
Not learned
331. Which command means to complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft?
Not learned
332. The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________.
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333. Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?
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334. Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.
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335. What is a butt welded joint's strength compared to the base metal?
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336. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be __________.
Not learned
337. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened in which situation?
Not learned
338. To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.
Not learned
339. How is the "call" part of a signal by flashing light made?
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340. A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of __________.
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341. You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has answered your call properly. You now send your call sign "DE KLIS". What should he respond with?
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342. You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". What does this indicate?
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343. What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?
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344. How is the Camber in a ship usually measured?
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345. The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.
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346. During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. Which is the most prudent action to correct the list?
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347. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.
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348. Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be re-inspected no later than __________.
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349. A carling is used aboard ship to accomplish which function?
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350. When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of the search units should normally be which of the following?
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351. CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.
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352. Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT SHOULD NOT?
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353. Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?
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354. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty tanks will __________.
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355. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.
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356. The ceiling is __________.
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357. Where is the center of buoyancy located on a vessel?
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358. The center of flotation of a vessel is __________.
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359. The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.
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360. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?
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361. How may the change in trim of a vessel be found?
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362. The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is __________.
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363. Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to __________.
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364. Channel 13 is primarily used for ship-to-ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for which purpose?
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365. Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?
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366. Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?
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367. Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission?
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368. Which is TRUE concerning a chock?
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369. A class C fire would be burning __________.
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370. After clearing the vessel, what is one of the FIRST things you would do in an inflatable liferaft?
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371. CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following?
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372. The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel __________.
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373. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.
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374. A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.
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375. How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally identify itself?
Not learned
376. You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a South African station?
Not learned
377. Which describes a cofferdam?
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378. Which color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares are used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance?
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379. What color signal flare is sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency?
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380. What is the color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise?
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381. The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.
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382. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.
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383. How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?
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384. When in command of a lifeboat under oars, what does the command "Backwater" mean?
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385. You have been in-command of a lifeboat since abandoning ship three days prior and land has been sighted ahead. Under which circumstances would you attempt beaching your lifeboat through a heavy surf?
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386. Which is the most common type of davit found on ocean service merchant vessels today?
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387. You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3?
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388. You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another vessel's transmission?
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389. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?
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390. While communicating with a shore station concerning an injured female, your message should indicate the subject's age is 32. Which code would your message contain?
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391. Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?
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392. You have completed stability calculations for your vessel prior to getting underway. Your vessel's GM is small but positive. Which of the following is true?
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393. A concentration of weight has been shifted inboard to the center line of the vessel. Generally speaking, what effect will this have on the vessel?
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394. What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port
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395. Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?
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396. What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine?
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397. Under which condition will a SART unit have the greatest transmission potential?
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398. You should conduct a sector search under which of the following circumstances?
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399. A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.
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400. There is an out of control fire on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire?
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401. The Coordinator Surface Search (CSS) in a SAR situation should display by night __________.
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402. The Coordinator Surface Search in a SAR situation should display by day __________.
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403. What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second substitute?
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404. What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.
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405. The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
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406. The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
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407. What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?
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408. What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?
Not learned
409. Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to which of the following choices?
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410. A covered liferaft has very limited maneuverability. Which of the following is True concerning the beaching of a liferaft in a rough surf?
Not learned
411. If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________.
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412. A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you take?
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413. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
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414. A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which code should your message contain?
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415. When does a cylinder in a two-cycle engine experience combustion?
Not learned
416. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should __________.
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417. The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________.
Not learned
418. Which davit type may be operated by one person?
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419. By day, what does the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicate?
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420. By day, what is the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land"?
Not learned
421. Deballasting a double bottom has what effect on KG?
Not learned
422. The decision has been made to make landfall through a slight surf in an oar-propelled lifeboat. How should the sea anchor be utilized?
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423. A deck beam does NOT __________.
Not learned
424. The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist which stresses?
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425. Why are deck beams cambered on a vessel?
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426. What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?
Not learned
427. How deeply should the sternum be depressed when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR?
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428. With regards to GMDSS, define the acronym MSI.
Not learned
429. Which defines the function of a spark arrestor?
Not learned
430. Which defines the "margin plate"?
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431. What is the definition of transverse metacenter?
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432. Which describes how to determine a vessel's LCG?
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433. Which describes the floors aboard a ship?
Not learned
434. Which describes the term intact buoyancy?
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435. What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or deck plating?
Not learned
436. If you desire to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not functioning, what signal would you send?
Not learned
437. How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?
Not learned
438. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.
Not learned
439. How are all diesel engines classified?
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440. Why are diesel engines considered safer than gasoline engines?
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441. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.
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442. Which describes the difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity of a vessel?
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443. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.
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444. What is the difference between the starboard and port drafts due to the wind or seas called?
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445. You are being directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside, frame 127. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what machinery is found in that exact location?
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446. You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
447. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.
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448. When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.
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449. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.
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450. At what distance can a SART be detected by aircraft, equipped with a 3cm radar, flying at approximately 3,000 feet?
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451. The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main deck is called __________.
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452. A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________.
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453. How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?
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454. The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. Which is TRUE concerning the information?
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455. Distress signals may be __________.
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456. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?
Not learned
457. Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?
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458. Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?
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459. You are downbound in an ice filled channel. An icebreaker is meeting you and sounds two short, one prolonged, and two short blasts on the whistle. What action should you take?
Not learned
460. A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance. How often is this drill required to be conducted?
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461. While in dry dock your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process involves __________.
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462. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?
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463. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, which is the best way to haul it back aboard?
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464. The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.
Not learned
465. What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine that is at normal operating temperature?
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466. Which has the MOST effect on the range of a SSB transmission?
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467. What is the effect of spreading oil on the open sea?
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468. Why should all electrical appliances aboard a vessel be grounded and ground fault protected?
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469. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, where should the stream of dry chemicals be directed?
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470. The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the __________.
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471. If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?
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472. After an engine is started which is the best action(s) to take?
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473. To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?
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474. Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.
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475. What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?
Not learned
476. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?
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477. When should an EPIRB be turned off in an actual distress situation?
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478. Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?
Not learned
479. Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?
Not learned
480. You are evacuating crew members from a survival craft that has been adrift in the North Atlantic for several days. What could occur if a person suffering from hypothermia is vertically lifted in a rescue sling to the helicopter?
Not learned
481. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?
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482. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?
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483. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?
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484. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be which of the following?
Not learned
485. On every vessel, where must distress signals be stowed?
Not learned
486. Who has the exclusive use of the radiotelephone as stated in the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?
Not learned
487. The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.
Not learned
488. What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?
Not learned
489. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?
Not learned
490. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?
Not learned
491. What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine?
Not learned
492. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?
Not learned
493. Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in which of the following?
Not learned
494. The falls on gravity davits are __________.
Not learned
495. What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?
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496. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
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497. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
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498. You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Why may the stability of the vessel be reduced?
Not learned
499. To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should take which action?
Not learned
500. On the fire control plans, in illustration D039SA below, the CO2 bottle room is designated by which symbol?
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501. On fire control plans, in illustration D039SA, the dry chemical releasing station is designated by which symbol?
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502. The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems?
Not learned
503. Which fire control plan symbol in illustration D039SA below represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "A" fire?
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504. Which fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, represents a dry chemical delivery method for small scale fires?
Not learned
505. A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using which type of extinguishing agent?
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506. A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?
Not learned
507. When should a fire be ventilated?
Not learned
508. Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?
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509. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.
Not learned
510. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to which personnel?
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511. What does first aid mean?
Not learned
512. The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?
Not learned
513. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?
Not learned
514. You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?
Not learned
515. The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2 followed by what?
Not learned
516. What flag signal would you hoist if you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if it had a doctor on board?
Not learned
517. When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.
Not learned
518. When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?
Not learned
519. For a floating vessel, which item is the result of subtracting KG from KM?
Not learned
520. The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by which item?
Not learned
521. How does foam extinguish a fire?
Not learned
522. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
Not learned
523. Which of the following actions should be taken if you accidently test a 406 MHz EPIRB in transmit mode?
Not learned
524. Which of the following aspects of a flooded space will most adversely affect transverse stability if it is subject to free communication?
Not learned
525. Which of the following best defines the term "chock"?
Not learned
526. Which of the following is considered the normal operational range from a SART unit to a surface vessel?
Not learned
527. Which of the following defines the difference between the free-floating displacement and the KB of a grounded vessel?
Not learned
528. Which of the following defines "Rolling Period"?
Not learned
529. Which of the following describes the function of a sea anchor when utilized as a tool for beaching a lifeboat through surf?
Not learned
530. Which of the following describes the inspection and testing requirements of a SART?
Not learned
531. Which of the following describes the requirement for the testing of an EPIRB?
Not learned
532. Which of the following describes a SART?
Not learned
533. Which of the following formulas is an acceptable method to calculate the vertical shift of the vessel's center of gravity?
Not learned
534. Which of the followings is a global communication service to provide distress alerting and a network for SAR communications for mariners?
Not learned
535. Which of the following grounding scenarios would have the least damaging effect on vessel stability?
Not learned
536. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?
Not learned
537. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?
Not learned
538. Which of the following is one of the most important safety procedures that should be adhered to prior to starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat?
Not learned
539. Which of the following organizations operate the AMVER system?
Not learned
540. Which of the following is part of the annual SOLAS required test on an EPIRB?
Not learned
541. Which of the following is part of a required monthly EPIRB inspection?
Not learned
542. Which of the following penalties can be imposed for a violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?
Not learned
543. Which of the following is the proper operating sequence of a SART?
Not learned
544. Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control Plans?
Not learned
545. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel's Fire Control Plan?
Not learned
546. Which of the following is a requirement if your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate?
Not learned
547. Which of the following is a requirement of the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat?
Not learned
548. Which of the following requires the vessel to be dry-docked?
Not learned
549. Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
Not learned
550. Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
Not learned
551. Which of the following terms defines a unit responsible for organizing search and rescue services?
Not learned
552. Which of the following is True if your radiotelephone fails while underway?
Not learned
553. The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.
Not learned
554. In all forms of signaling, what is the waiting signal?
Not learned
555. Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?
Not learned
556. The forward draft of your ship is 27'-11" and the after draft is 29'-03". The draft amidships is 28'-05". Which is TRUE of your vessel?
Not learned
557. Four-cycle diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or which other means?
Not learned
558. Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.
Not learned
559. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.
Not learned
560. The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with the increase of which item?
Not learned
561. Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.
Not learned
562. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks accomplish which task?
Not learned
563. What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications?
Not learned
564. Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?
Not learned
565. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining which minimal speed if it is not towing other survival craft?
Not learned
566. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus?
Not learned
567. What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?
Not learned
568. What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels
Not learned
569. What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?
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570. The garboard strake is the __________.
Not learned
571. If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.
Not learned
572. In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?
Not learned
573. Which are general requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log?
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574. The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the __________.
Not learned
575. For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.
Not learned
576. Why can the vessel's GM not be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination?
Not learned
577. Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?
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578. For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port
Not learned
579. Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship
Not learned
580. Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?
Not learned
581. What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?
Not learned
582. If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?
Not learned
583. When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.
Not learned
584. Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?
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585. For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?
Not learned
586. The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.
Not learned
587. Where are the grab rails of a metal lifeboat normally located?
Not learned
588. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.
Not learned
589. What does the gross tonnage of a vessel indicate?
Not learned
590. The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light?
Not learned
591. Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude 73° 25' North"?
Not learned
592. Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109° 34' West?
Not learned
593. Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean time 11:35 pm?
Not learned
594. The half-breadth plan is __________.
Not learned
595. You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?
Not learned
596. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all- purpose nozzle will __________.
Not learned
597. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
Not learned
598. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. What does this signal mean?
Not learned
599. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. What does this indicate?
Not learned
600. Heave is motion along which axis?
Not learned
601. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.
Not learned
602. When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is referred to by which term?
Not learned
603. Why is the height of a VHF radio antenna more important than the power output wattage of the radio?
Not learned
604. The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?
Not learned
605. The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.
Not learned
606. Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known by which term?
Not learned
607. A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.
Not learned
608. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?
Not learned
609. If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what code should your message contain?
Not learned
610. In illustration D001SA below, which item represents the righting arm?
Not learned
611. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the center of gravity?
Not learned
612. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the metacentric height?
Not learned
613. In illustration D008SA below, what type of davits are displayed?
Not learned
614. In illustration D011SA below, what does the item labeled number (1) operate?
Not learned
615. In illustration D012SA below, what is the mechanism that will release the tricing pendant?
Not learned
616. In illustration D012SA below, what will be released when pulling on line number 5?
Not learned
617. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags?
Not learned
618. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external lifelines?
Not learned
619. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external recognition light, which can be seem up to two miles?
Not learned
620. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the floating sheath knife?
Not learned
621. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the sea anchor?
Not learned
622. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the towing connection?
Not learned
623. In illustration D014SA below, which item is the righting strap?
Not learned
624. In illustration D014SA below, what number is the sea painter?
Not learned
625. In illustration D014SA below, where would you find the knife?
Not learned
626. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the hydrostatic release?
Not learned
627. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the weak link?
Not learned
628. In the illustration, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to which of the following
Not learned
629. In illustration D016SA below, what number indicates the frapping line?
Not learned
630. In illustration D033DG below, what is the area indicated by the letter G is known as?
Not learned
631. In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D?
Not learned
632. In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate?
Not learned
633. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt?
Not learned
634. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard strake?
Not learned
635. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal?
Not learned
636. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a seam?
Not learned
637. In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done?
Not learned
638. In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the letter N known as?
Not learned
639. In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known as?
Not learned
640. In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter J known as?
Not learned
641. In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating indicated by letter H known as?
Not learned
642. In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which letter?
Not learned
643. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter F?
Not learned
644. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter K?
Not learned
645. In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor?
Not learned
646. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter L?
Not learned
647. In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N known as?
Not learned
648. In illustration D035SA below, viewing the bridge level of your vessel's fire control plan, what do the two symbols within the machinery casing represent?
Not learned
649. In illustration D036SA below, what does the solid arrow in the Crew Mess represent on the Fire Control Plans?
Not learned
650. In illustration D039SA below, a complete recharge for a self-contained breathing apparatus can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?
Not learned
651. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol does NOT contain personal protective equipment?
Not learned
652. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol designates a space or compartment protected by Halon 1301?
Not learned
653. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol is not part of the ship's foam system?
Not learned
654. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol(s) represent part of the vessel's ventilation system?
Not learned
655. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (16)?
Not learned
656. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (30)?
Not learned
657. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (37)?
Not learned
658. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (39)?
Not learned
659. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (56)?
Not learned
660. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (64)?
Not learned
661. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (67)?
Not learned
662. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (7)?
Not learned
663. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol(s) represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "B" fire?
Not learned
664. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "C" fire?
Not learned
665. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a Class Alpha fire?
Not learned
666. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a LARGE Class Bravo fire on deck?
Not learned
667. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a bilge pump?
Not learned
668. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the direction of primary means of escape?
Not learned
669. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency fire pump?
Not learned
670. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency generator?
Not learned
671. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment NOT to be found immediately outside the engine room?
Not learned
672. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment that is MOST likely to be found in the ship's galley?
Not learned
673. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire alarm panel?
Not learned
674. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire main with fire valves?
Not learned
675. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire pump?
Not learned
676. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire station?
Not learned
677. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a heat detector?
Not learned
678. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an international shore connection?
Not learned
679. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a NON-portable extinguisher?
Not learned
680. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a push button for a fire alarm?
Not learned
681. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a space protected by foam?
Not learned
682. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol signifies equipment you would use if your fire pump(s) failed?
Not learned
683. In illustration D039SA below, the halon room with the main battery of Halon 1301 bottles is designated by which symbol on the fire control plans?
Not learned
684. In illustration D039SA below the location of a spare set of fire control plans on board the vessel is designated by what approved symbol?
Not learned
685. In illustration D039SA below, what two fire control plan symbols designate the directional means of escape?
Not learned
686. An immersion suit must be equipped with which item(s)?
Not learned
687. What is MOST important when administering artificial respiration?
Not learned
688. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?
Not learned
689. The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.
Not learned
690. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.
Not learned
691. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.
Not learned
692. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to take which action?
Not learned
693. The improper stowage of cargo has caused vessels to have a negative GM. How will a ship in this condition handle in the seaway?
Not learned
694. Which will improve stability?
Not learned
695. When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is __________.
Not learned
696. To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could take which action?
Not learned
697. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?
Not learned
698. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by taking which action?
Not learned
699. If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?
Not learned
700. An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What should occur after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?
Not learned
701. When must an inflatable liferaft that has been repacked be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility?
Not learned
702. Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.
Not learned
703. Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry a minimum capacity of how many persons?
Not learned
704. The initial action of a Williamson turn is to put the rudder over full until which of the following?
Not learned
705. After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.
Not learned
706. When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.
Not learned
707. Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.
Not learned
708. The "inner bottom" is the __________.
Not learned
709. What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station using flashing light?
Not learned
710. In the International Code of Signals, what is the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance?
Not learned
711. What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light?
Not learned
712. In the International Code of signals, what does a group of three letters indicates?
Not learned
713. What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?
Not learned
714. On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more, are required to have facilities to enable a connection on each side of the ship for which piece of equipment represented in illustration D039SA below?
Not learned
715. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.
Not learned
716. Who issues the regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?
Not learned
717. Who issues a ship's radiotelephone station license?
Not learned
718. Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?
Not learned
719. Which item is a safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts?
Not learned
720. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?
Not learned
721. Jettisoning weight from topside __________.
Not learned
722. The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.
Not learned
723. Which term is given to the joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side?
Not learned
724. Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.
Not learned
725. The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the __________.
Not learned
726. Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET?
Not learned
727. If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?
Not learned
728. Landing a lifeboat through surf should only be done if absolutely necessary. What should be done with the lifeboat rudder if this type of landing is unavoidable?
Not learned
729. You are landing an oar propelled lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward). Which is the recommended procedure to follow?
Not learned
730. Which is the proper term given to a large basin cut into the shore, closed off by a caisson, and used for dry docking of ships?
Not learned
731. You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances which is TRUE?
Not learned
732. How should latitude 51° 48.7' S be written when preparing an AMVER report?
Not learned
733. How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report?
Not learned
734. To launch a liferaft by hand, you should take which actions?
Not learned
735. In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?
Not learned
736. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.
Not learned
737. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?
Not learned
738. When launching a lifeboat, how should the tricing pennants be released?
Not learned
739. When launching an open lifeboat by falls, which is TRUE concerning the boathooks?
Not learned
740. The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into which of the following?
Not learned
741. Which is TRUE concerning the length of the steering oar in a lifeboat?
Not learned
742. How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Not learned
743. What letter is a signal indicating zone time preceded with?
Not learned
744. Your lifeboat has been adrift for several days when land is sighted. Which procedure should you use to survey a potential site to beach your lifeboat?
Not learned
745. You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?
Not learned
746. On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, what does turning the releasing lever release?
Not learned
747. Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept?
Not learned
748. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?
Not learned
749. How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
Not learned
750. If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?
Not learned
751. When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.
Not learned
752. Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place to land"?
Not learned
753. What does the lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a white light or white flare mean?
Not learned
754. What is the lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
Not learned
755. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
Not learned
756. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
Not learned
757. How do the lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate?
Not learned
758. Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.
Not learned
759. "Limber" is a term associated with which item?
Not learned
760. What is the function of the lifeboat davit limit switches?
Not learned
761. Limit switches are used on which davits?
Not learned
762. Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.
Not learned
763. Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.
Not learned
764. Loading cargo above the vessel's center of gravity will increase the vessel's vertical center of gravity. How will this affect the vessel?
Not learned
765. In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located?
Not learned
766. If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.
Not learned
767. How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee?
Not learned
768. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they relate to a distress situation or disaster?
Not learned
769. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?
Not learned
770. How long are radio station logs involving communications during a disaster required to be kept by the station licensee?
Not learned
771. How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?
Not learned
772. When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.
Not learned
773. When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be initially pulled into the embarkation deck by which item?
Not learned
774. When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.
Not learned
775. When should the lubricating oil be changed on a heavy-duty diesel engine?
Not learned
776. Before any machinery is put in operation, you should take which action FIRST?
Not learned
777. The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.
Not learned
778. When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be __________.
Not learned
779. Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.
Not learned
780. Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?
Not learned
781. Which is a major advantage of the round turn maneuver in a man overboard situation?
Not learned
782. If you make an error while signaling by flashing light what action should you take?
Not learned
783. Which is TRUE when making a Scharnow turn?
Not learned
784. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.
Not learned
785. You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.
Not learned
786. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
Not learned
787. When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?
Not learned
788. A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a Williamson turn, the man is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?
Not learned
789. Which maneuver will return your vessel to a person who has fallen overboard in the shortest time?
Not learned
790. How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?
Not learned
791. How many ring life buoys should a 700-foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?
Not learned
792. Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.
Not learned
793. How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?
Not learned
794. All marine low-speed diesels are of what design?
Not learned
795. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.
Not learned
796. Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?
Not learned
797. Which term is given to the maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel?
Not learned
798. What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?
Not learned
799. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.
Not learned
800. What may the firing of a red star signal mean?
Not learned
801. What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"?
Not learned
802. What is the meaning of the signal DX RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?
Not learned
803. What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?
Not learned
804. What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?
Not learned
805. What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?
Not learned
806. What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the International code of Signals?
Not learned
807. What is the meaning of the signal VJ 8 when sent by the International Code of Signals?
Not learned
808. What is meant by "CES"
Not learned
809. What is meant by the term "radio silence"
Not learned
810. Which is TRUE of the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engines?
Not learned
811. Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium?
Not learned
812. During a medivac one of the crew members requires assistance to be hoisted to the aircraft. Which of the following would be used to accomplish this task?
Not learned
813. Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?
Not learned
814. Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.
Not learned
815. A message by flashing light consists of four elements, including the call, the identity, the text, and what fourth element?
Not learned
816. A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?
Not learned
817. In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender?
Not learned
818. How should a message warning of a tropical storm be sent?
Not learned
819. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.
Not learned
820. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.
Not learned
821. If the metacentric height is small, which is TRUE of the vessel?
Not learned
822. What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Operator
Not learned
823. What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?
Not learned
824. What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?
Not learned
825. What is the minimum operating capacity required for VHF Survival Craft Transceiver batteries?
Not learned
826. What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?
Not learned
827. What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
Not learned
828. You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?
Not learned
829. According to the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds which percentage?
Not learned
830. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, where does the air flow?
Not learned
831. Which class of fire is an oil fire classified?
Not learned
832. Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with which item?
Not learned
833. Which describes a Kort nozzle as used on a vessel?
Not learned
834. In an emergency, which can directly control the electro-hydraulic steering units on the vessel?
Not learned
835. Which of the following pieces of equipment is most commonly used by SAR helicopters when evacuating personnel from survival craft?
Not learned
836. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, what will be the upright equilibrium?
Not learned
837. When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up to which position?
Not learned
838. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter I?
Not learned
839. What is indicated by the signal letter R followed by one or more numbers?
Not learned
840. Which item(s) is/are a 2,000 GT tankship required to carry?
Not learned
841. Which item are the terms "pintle" and "gudgeon" associated with?
Not learned
842. All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at which time interval?
Not learned
843. A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry which items?
Not learned
844. What is the lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here is highly dangerous"?
Not learned
845. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain which items?
Not learned
846. The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered. Which time interval is this action required?
Not learned
847. A mechanical davit is designed to automatically accomplish which task?
Not learned
848. You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
849. When must the Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, be sent?
Not learned
850. You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a rectangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores be located on the bulkhead?
Not learned
851. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead be located?
Not learned
852. What is the name given to the bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat?
Not learned
853. Which name is given to the frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a vessel?
Not learned
854. What is the name given to the lines that are passed around the falls to hold the boat and prevent it from swinging violently?
Not learned
855. What name is given to the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains?
Not learned
856. Which is the normal tendency for a loaded tanker?
Not learned
857. Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.
Not learned
858. Normally, before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine which information about the water source?
Not learned
859. Normally, your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. How many sanitary inspections are required to be conducted during the voyage?
Not learned
860. Which officer is responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department?
Not learned
861. How often are CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system required to be pressure tested?
Not learned
862. How often are each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats required to be tested on the vessel?
Not learned
863. What is one of the main purposes of the inclining experiment on a vessel?
Not learned
864. One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is __________.
Not learned
865. What can an oxygen indicator be used to determine?
Not learned
866. Where are panting frames located in the vessel?
Not learned
867. What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
Not learned
868. You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons how should a small craft approach?
Not learned
869. The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.
Not learned
870. When positive stability exists, what does GZ represent?
Not learned
871. If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, which is the most effective extinguishing agent to use?
Not learned
872. What is the preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire?
Not learned
873. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent what from happening?
Not learned
874. Which is the primary element to successfully rescuing a man overboard?
Not learned
875. What is the primary equipment for receiving Marine Safety Information (MSI) messages?
Not learned
876. Which is the primary type of welding employed in shipyards in the construction of cargo vessels?
Not learned
877. What is the primary use of antiseptics?
Not learned
878. Which is the prime function of the bilge keel?
Not learned
879. Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, which device prevents water from entering the hull?
Not learned
880. What is the proper name given to a deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two horizontally protruding horns?
Not learned
881. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment?
Not learned
882. What is the purpose of limber holes in a lifeboat?
Not learned
883. On the all-purpose nozzle, what is the position of the nozzle valve when the handle is all the way forward?
Not learned
884. What is the purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat?
Not learned
885. What is the radiotelephone urgency signal?
Not learned
886. What is the rated capacity of a type B-III CO2 extinguisher?
Not learned
887. If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, what would it be referring to?
Not learned
888. If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, which action should you take?
Not learned
889. When is it recommended that seawater be used for drinking?
Not learned
890. To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. What is the name of this plate?
Not learned
891. Which reference should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?
Not learned
892. You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. In which situation will the CO2 be most effective?
Not learned
893. When rendering assistance to personnel in the water a SAR helicopter utilizes a rescue sling for most extractions. In which case would the use of a litter be preferred?
Not learned
894. A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least which diameter?
Not learned
895. In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, which is TRUE when launching a lifeboat?
Not learned
896. During a SAR helicopter evacuation which of the following describes the proper donning of a rescue sling?
Not learned
897. During a SAR helicopter evolution the rescue sling is the most widely used method of extraction. Which of the following describes the alternate Double Lift Method used to pick up incapacitated persons?
Not learned
898. A SAR helicopter has landed a litter on deck to medivac a patient from your vessel. After ensuring that it has been grounded, what precautionary action should you take prior to loading the patient into the litter?
Not learned
899. The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in which cycles?
Not learned
900. You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft then flies over your position on a straight course and level altitude. What should you do?
Not learned
901. The shearing stresses on a ship's structure are usually greatest at which area?
Not learned
902. In ship construction, where should the keel scantlings be the greatest thickness?
Not learned
903. The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if which condition exists?
Not learned
904. A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?
Not learned
905. A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel passes the towing line to you, where should you secure the line?
Not learned
906. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
907. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?
Not learned
908. If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", which action should you take?
Not learned
909. Why should storage batteries be charged in a well-ventilated area?
Not learned
910. What do stretchers that are fitted in lifeboats provide?
Not learned
911. What does subtracting GM from KM yield?
Not learned
912. You have taken another vessel in tow. Which is an indicator that the towing speed is too fast?
Not learned
913. On a tankship, who is responsible for the sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters?
Not learned
914. Which term defines the horizontal fore-and-aft movement of a vessel?
Not learned
915. Which term defines the minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form a mixture that ignites and burns?
Not learned
916. Which term defines the volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline?
Not learned
917. Which term describes the time required to incline the vessel from port to starboard and back to port again?
Not learned
918. The term displacement refers to which of the following?
Not learned
919. Which term is given to the brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler?
Not learned
920. Which term is given to the fittings used to secure a watertight door?
Not learned
921. Which is the term given to the stability which remains after a compartment is flooded?
Not learned
922. Which term is used to describe the geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel?
Not learned
923. Which term is used to describe the horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel?
Not learned
924. Which term is used to describe the point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vessel construction?
Not learned
925. A thirty-pound plate would be which thickness?
Not learned
926. The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and which other condition?
Not learned
927. A thrust bearing is designed to accomplish which action?
Not learned
928. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?
Not learned
929. Transverse stability calculations require the use of which information?
Not learned
930. Which is TRUE concerning drinking salt water?
Not learned
931. Which is TRUE concerning a fuel-air mixture below the lower flammable limit?
Not learned
932. Which is TRUE concerning the most serious effect trapped air has on a diesel engine jacket water cooling system?
Not learned
933. Which is TRUE of a distress signal?
Not learned
934. Which is TRUE if passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out?
Not learned
935. Which is TRUE of the vessel's Sheer Plan?
Not learned
936. The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.
Not learned
937. What type of messages should the "urgent" priority be used for?
Not learned
938. Which type of weld is used to attach stiffeners to a plate?
Not learned
939. Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and which other testing?
Not learned
940. An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is in which location?
Not learned
941. Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to perform which task?
Not learned
942. Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. Which is the FIRST thing to do in the lifeboat?
Not learned
943. When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, how should you activate the signal?
Not learned
944. When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by which signal?
Not learned
945. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known by which term?
Not learned
946. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as which boat number?
Not learned
947. A vessel's bottom will be subjected to tension when weight is concentrated in which location(s)?
Not learned
948. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which of the following?
Not learned
949. Your vessel has grounded and a report must be made to the United States Coast Guard. Which is the required form for this report?
Not learned
950. For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives which information?
Not learned
951. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?
Not learned
952. When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, how will the vessel respond?
Not learned
953. Your vessel is listing because of a negative GM. To lower G below M, which action should you take?
Not learned
954. Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. Which is TRUE of your vessel?
Not learned
955. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?
Not learned
956. Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. Which is a requirement of the auxiliary line?
Not learned
957. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. What does this indicate about the vessel?
Not learned
958. When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress?
Not learned
959. A vessel can be termed as either tender or stiff in relation to its rolling period. Which of the following would cause a vessel to be tender?
Not learned
960. If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will accomplish which of the following?
Not learned
961. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds which amount?
Not learned
962. You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. Which action should you take next?
Not learned
963. What is a wobbling tail shaft an indication of?
Not learned
964. Where is the molded depth measured from on a vessel?
Not learned
965. A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?
Not learned
966. The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.
Not learned
967. A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its __________.
Not learned
968. What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?
Not learned
969. What is NOT a motion of the vessel?
Not learned
970. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?
Not learned
971. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?
Not learned
972. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. In illustration D039SA below what fire control plan symbol designates the primary means of escape?
Not learned
973. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. The primary means of escape is blocked by the fire. What fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, designates the secondary means of escape?
Not learned
974. If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.
Not learned
975. You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
976. You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.
Not learned
977. If you must swim through an oil fire, which action should be avoided?
Not learned
978. What is the name given to the strake on each side of the keel?
Not learned
979. Which is the national distress, safety, and calling frequency channel?
Not learned
980. In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.
Not learned
981. A negative metacentric height __________.
Not learned
982. A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.
Not learned
983. A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.
Not learned
984. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of which item?
Not learned
985. How does the rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiate oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams?
Not learned
986. What would light gray smoke from a diesel engine probably indicate?
Not learned
987. What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?
Not learned
988. Normally, which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?
Not learned
989. Why is it desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks?
Not learned
990. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.
Not learned
991. The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.
Not learned
992. Where would the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker be located?
Not learned
993. Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.
Not learned
994. How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Not learned
995. The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.
Not learned
996. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, what must the boat be supplied with?
Not learned
997. If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, how often are free-fall lifeboats required to be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew?
Not learned
998. You are the officer in charge of a navigational watch, what signal would indicate your 3 cm radar has interrogated a SART unit?
Not learned
999. How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?
Not learned
1000. How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?
Not learned
1001. How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?
Not learned
1002. Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.
Not learned
1003. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain?
Not learned
1004. Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.
Not learned
1005. What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?
Not learned
1006. What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?
Not learned
1007. Which one of the following signals is made at night by a lifesaving station to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?
Not learned
1008. One function of a bulwark is to __________.
Not learned
1009. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.
Not learned
1010. One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without distorting the meaning of your words is by using __________.
Not learned
1011. Which is one of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention?
Not learned
1012. In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.
Not learned
1013. When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.
Not learned
1014. While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be in the preamble of a radio telegram asking for medical advice from a Greek station?
Not learned
1015. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as which item?
Not learned
1016. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.
Not learned
1017. When operating gravity davits, the __________.
Not learned
1018. While operating off Panama a seaman is injured. What indicator should be included in the preamble of a radio telegram requesting medical advice from a Panamanian station?
Not learned
1019. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least which of the following?
Not learned
1020. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.
Not learned
1021. In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?
Not learned
1022. Which organization reviews and approves a vessel's fire control plan?
Not learned
1023. The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.
Not learned
1024. The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.
Not learned
1025. Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.
Not learned
1026. Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. What is the name given to these strakes?
Not learned
1027. The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.
Not learned
1028. In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red?
Not learned
1029. "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?
Not learned
1030. You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire pump(s)?
Not learned
1031. You are part of a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in the crew lounge. Where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furniture
Not learned
1032. A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.
Not learned
1033. Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. How many life buoys are required for the vessel?
Not learned
1034. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage defines which term?
Not learned
1035. What is the period of validity of a De-Rat certificate?
Not learned
1036. What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections?
Not learned
1037. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Not learned
1038. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat when land is sighted. Due to a medical emergency, you have made the decision to beach the lifeboat through the surf. Which of the following is of greatest consideration in making this decision?
Not learned
1039. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat and have made the decision to beach your craft through a heavy surf. Which of the following is the recommended procedure for a boat under oars?
Not learned
1040. A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.
Not learned
1041. What should a person do after being revived by artificial respiration?
Not learned
1042. How should a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries be treated?
Not learned
1043. When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, where should the sea painter be secured?
Not learned
1044. Which piece(s) of equipment represented by the Fire Control Plan symbols in illustration D039SA below, can be found on the exterior of the vessel?
Not learned
1045. Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?
Not learned
1046. You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. Choose the best answer that states the requirement(s) of the regulations?
Not learned
1047. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.
Not learned
1048. While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea?
Not learned
1049. If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"?
Not learned
1050. What power source actuates a solenoid valve?
Not learned
1051. You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?
Not learned
1052. In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with which item?
Not learned
1053. To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should take which action?
Not learned
1054. What prevents an inflated life raft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?
Not learned
1055. What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?
Not learned
1056. What is the primary reason for placing covers over the top of storage batteries?
Not learned
1057. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?
Not learned
1058. What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass?
Not learned
1059. What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?
Not learned
1060. Which term defines the most probable position of the object of a search at any given time?
Not learned
1061. You are proceeding to the area of reported distress. When you arrive at the reported position, the vessel in distress is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?
Not learned
1062. You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1063. While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Not learned
1064. You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in making your vessel more visible to the survivors?
Not learned
1065. You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will make your ship more visible to the survivors?
Not learned
1066. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Not learned
1067. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Not learned
1068. You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1069. Which term is used to describe the projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder?
Not learned
1070. What does proper GMDSS watchkeeping include?
Not learned
1071. What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?
Not learned
1072. What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?
Not learned
1073. What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?
Not learned
1074. What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships?
Not learned
1075. What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?
Not learned
1076. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?
Not learned
1077. What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?
Not learned
1078. What is the purpose of sheer in the construction of the vessel?
Not learned
1079. What is the purpose of a striker plate?
Not learned
1080. For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable, how frequently should rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew?
Not learned
1081. What is the purpose of the tricing pendants?
Not learned
1082. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor?
Not learned
1083. After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?
Not learned
1084. What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine?
Not learned
1085. What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?
Not learned
1086. Which quantity of fuel is required to be carried in a motor lifeboat?
Not learned
1087. A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.
Not learned
1088. Which is the quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open?
Not learned
1089. In a racetrack turn, to recover a man overboard, the vessel is steadied for the SECOND time after a turn of how many degrees from the original heading?
Not learned
1090. When would a racetrack turn be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a man overboard?
Not learned
1091. How is "radio silence" imposed?
Not learned
1092. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.
Not learned
1093. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by which word?
Not learned
1094. What is the radiotelephone safety signal?
Not learned
1095. Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?
Not learned
1096. Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?
Not learned
1097. The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.
Not learned
1098. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The top 2 inches of number "9" are visible above the waterline. What is the draft?
Not learned
1099. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of the number 11. What is the draft?
Not learned
1100. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level forward leaves about 4 inches of the 11 visible, and the water level aft is at the top of the 10. What is the mean draft?
Not learned
1101. You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan- Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?
Not learned
1102. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. What is the meaning of the message?
Not learned
1103. After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. may ask you to switch to which SSB frequency?
Not learned
1104. How should a receiving station indicate that it cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist?
Not learned
1105. The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control?
Not learned
1106. Regardless of the method it is sent, what does he signal K4 mean?
Not learned
1107. Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations)
Not learned
1108. By regulation, how long you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone?
Not learned
1109. Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.
Not learned
1110. The releasing lever of a lifeboat shall be red in color with a placard stating which of the following?
Not learned
1111. What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?
Not learned
1112. What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?
Not learned
1113. What represents poor sanitary procedures?
Not learned
1114. What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?
Not learned
1115. What is required during an annual FCC inspection
Not learned
1116. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?
Not learned
1117. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?
Not learned
1118. What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?
Not learned
1119. Which is a requirement for any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?
Not learned
1120. How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?
Not learned
1121. Reserve buoyancy is __________.
Not learned
1122. Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress communications have ceased?
Not learned
1123. If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.
Not learned
1124. What is the result of multiplying a weight by a distance?
Not learned
1125. Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?
Not learned
1126. The result of two forces acting in opposite directions and along parallel lines, is an example of what type of stress?
Not learned
1127. What is the result of a vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity?
Not learned
1128. The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.
Not learned
1129. To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.
Not learned
1130. Your Ro Ro vessel has just completed discharging the lower decks and is commencing discharging the upper levels. What would it indicate if the vessel were to suddenly develop a list?
Not learned
1131. When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed
Not learned
1132. Routine radio communications should be no more than which duration?
Not learned
1133. You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take First to correct the situation?
Not learned
1134. A safe fuel system must __________.
Not learned
1135. SART units are designed to be manually carried to the survival craft. Which of the following is another characteristic of a SART?
Not learned
1136. A SART unit is used for which of the following?
Not learned
1137. How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?
Not learned
1138. How can a SART's effective range be maximized?
Not learned
1139. Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?
Not learned
1140. The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when __________.
Not learned
1141. When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.
Not learned
1142. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.
Not learned
1143. At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do?
Not learned
1144. In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?
Not learned
1145. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, which presents the greatest danger?
Not learned
1146. At sea, how must all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) be proven operational
Not learned
1147. Where should the sea painter of a lifeboat be secured?
Not learned
1148. How is the sea painter secured in an open lifeboat?
Not learned
1149. You are at sea and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter Eight. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1150. A seaman is reported missing in the morning and was last seen after coming off the mid-watch. Which type of turn would you use to return to the track-line steamed during the night?
Not learned
1151. You are on the second deck of the engine room between frames 92 thru105 and the space is filling up with smoke. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, where is the primary means of escape from that area is via a ladderwell?
Not learned
1152. You are on the second deck in the main machinery space. Utilizing illustration D037SA below what emergency equipment, if any, is located at frame 107?
Not learned
1153. You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?
Not learned
1154. As seen in illustration D035SA below, when the remote push button located in the wheelhouse, starboard side, frame 122, is actuated, what is the result?
Not learned
1155. As seen in illustration D039SA below a complete set of spare batteries for a fireman's outfit can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?
Not learned
1156. As seen in illustration D039SA below, a locker with additional breathing apparatuses can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?
Not learned
1157. As seen in illustration D039SA below a locker with additional protective clothing can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?
Not learned
1158. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.
Not learned
1159. The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation?
Not learned
1160. If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you conveying?
Not learned
1161. When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.
Not learned
1162. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL. What is the meaning of the message?
Not learned
1163. When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the __________.
Not learned
1164. If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by __________.
Not learned
1165. Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?
Not learned
1166. Which is the most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system?
Not learned
1167. The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.
Not learned
1168. Which is the most serious type of fracture?
Not learned
1169. A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is known as __________.
Not learned
1170. Several merchant ships are arriving at the scene of a distress incident. One of them must assume the duties of the On-Scene Coordinator. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Not learned
1171. Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to communicate with the vessel bearing 046° T from you but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist should NOT be used to establish communications?
Not learned
1172. Shell plating is _________.
Not learned
1173. Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.
Not learned
1174. Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. What would be the virtual rise in the center of gravity?
Not learned
1175. You are on a ship that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1176. In ship construction, which is TRUE concerning frame spacing?
Not learned
1177. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 23'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". Using this information, where is the concentration of weight on the vessel?
Not learned
1178. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and it’s after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight is located at which of the following areas?
Not learned
1179. A ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for which of the following terms?
Not learned
1180. The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the __________.
Not learned
1181. Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?
Not learned
1182. A short ton is a unit of weight consisting of __________.
Not learned
1183. Where do signs of racking stresses generally appear on the vessel?
Not learned
1184. The signal T 0735 means __________.
Not learned
1185. What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?
Not learned
1186. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?
Not learned
1187. The signal has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following describes the action to be taken with the EPIRB?
Not learned
1188. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question?
Not learned
1189. What is the signal to guide vessels in distress, indicating, "This is the best place to land"?
Not learned
1190. Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT be given by which form of communication?
Not learned
1191. What does the signal L1210 indicate?
Not learned
1192. Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"?
Not learned
1193. Which signal should be used to send the group "Distance 750 nautical miles"?
Not learned
1194. What is the signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative"?
Not learned
1195. What does the signal "AS", when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals mean?
Not learned
1196. Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?
Not learned
1197. When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, which is TRUE?
Not learned
1198. When signaling by flag hoist, what signal indicates completion of the communication?
Not learned
1199. You are signaling by flag hoist using the International Code of Signals. You wish to send the signals CL and IW and have them read in that order. What would ensure this?
Not learned
1200. When signaling by flashing light, how should you acknowledge a correctly received repetition of a signal?
Not learned
1201. When signaling by flashing light, what should the signal "C" should be used to indicate?
Not learned
1202. In signaling, when sent with a complement, what may the letter G be followed by?
Not learned
1203. What does the single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted vessel, mean?
Not learned
1204. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road?
Not learned
1205. If the situation arose where it became necessary to tow a disabled vessel, which statement is TRUE concerning the towing line?
Not learned
1206. Which situation may require you to administer artificial respiration?
Not learned
1207. What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?
Not learned
1208. A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.
Not learned
1209. In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.
Not learned
1210. In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.
Not learned
1211. In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through which point?
Not learned
1212. Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.
Not learned
1213. Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.
Not learned
1214. Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?
Not learned
1215. The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.
Not learned
1216. Specific radio frequencies are designated as International Maritime frequencies used for voice distress, safety and hailing. Which of the following is an International Maritime VHF-FM frequency as described previously?
Not learned
1217. What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?
Not learned
1218. What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?
Not learned
1219. Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard?
Not learned
1220. Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and which other force?
Not learned
1221. When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM __________.
Not learned
1222. Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is at which location?
Not learned
1223. What is the standard rate of signaling by flashing light?
Not learned
1224. Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.
Not learned
1225. Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?
Not learned
1226. Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?
Not learned
1227. Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?
Not learned
1228. Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUE
Not learned
1229. Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE?
Not learned
1230. Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE?
Not learned
1231. Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?
Not learned
1232. Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?
Not learned
1233. Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?
Not learned
1234. Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?
Not learned
1235. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?
Not learned
1236. Which statement about damage control is TRUE?
Not learned
1237. Which statement describes a compound fracture?
Not learned
1238. Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?
Not learned
1239. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
Not learned
1240. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
Not learned
1241. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
Not learned
1242. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
Not learned
1243. Which statement about free surface is TRUE?
Not learned
1244. Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?
Not learned
1245. What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1246. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1247. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1248. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1249. Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE?
Not learned
1250. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1251. Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel?
Not learned
1252. Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?
Not learned
1253. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?
Not learned
1254. Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?
Not learned
1255. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?
Not learned
1256. Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels?
Not learned
1257. Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?
Not learned
1258. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
Not learned
1259. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
Not learned
1260. Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is TRUE?
Not learned
1261. Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE?
Not learned
1262. With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?
Not learned
1263. While steering by autopilot you notice that the vessel is deviating from the given course and there is no follow up with corrective rudder action to return to the proper heading. The emergency operating procedure should require you to immediately change operation from __________.
Not learned
1264. Which is TRUE of the steering oar in a lifeboat?
Not learned
1265. The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.
Not learned
1266. Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?
Not learned
1267. Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?
Not learned
1268. When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.
Not learned
1269. The strength of a deck will be increased by adding which item?
Not learned
1270. Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause which to occur?
Not learned
1271. You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances?
Not learned
1272. A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.
Not learned
1273. The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization?
Not learned
1274. Symbol number (51) in illustration D039SA below is found all throughout the ship. What fire control equipment does this symbol represent?
Not learned
1275. What are the symptoms of a fractured back?
Not learned
1276. Which system has the least effective radius of operation?
Not learned
1277. Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?
Not learned
1278. Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?
Not learned
1279. Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?
Not learned
1280. Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?
Not learned
1281. Which system provides maximum communications range?
Not learned
1282. A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?
Not learned
1283. A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.
Not learned
1284. A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?
Not learned
1285. Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?
Not learned
1286. You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"?
Not learned
1287. Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?
Not learned
1288. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?
Not learned
1289. Which term defines the tendency of a vessel to return to its original TRIM after being inclined by an external force?
Not learned
1290. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
Not learned
1291. Tensile stress is a result of two forces acting in __________.
Not learned
1292. Which term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship?
Not learned
1293. The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with which part of the vessel?
Not learned
1294. The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with which areas of the vessel?
Not learned
1295. Which term defines the vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors?
Not learned
1296. Which term is given to the upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge?
Not learned
1297. Which term is given to the wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading?
Not learned
1298. What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction?
Not learned
1299. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body?
Not learned
1300. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body?
Not learned
1301. What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?
Not learned
1302. What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the aft side of the rudder post?
Not learned
1303. What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel?
Not learned
1304. What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section?
Not learned
1305. What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?
Not learned
1306. Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?
Not learned
1307. Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?
Not learned
1308. The term "scantlings" refers to the __________.
Not learned
1309. The term "strake" is used in reference to which item(s)?
Not learned
1310. "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?
Not learned
1311. What are the three basic types of engine starters?
Not learned
1312. What are the three most common basic types of diesel engine starters?
Not learned
1313. What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?
Not learned
1314. Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________.
Not learned
1315. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color?
Not learned
1316. Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers _________.
Not learned
1317. On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, which action should you take?
Not learned
1318. All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?
Not learned
1319. The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.
Not learned
1320. What is the traditional signal for fire aboard ship?
Not learned
1321. During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. What color will the smoke be?
Not learned
1322. What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?
Not learned
1323. Which is TRUE if you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone?
Not learned
1324. Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.
Not learned
1325. In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Not learned
1326. The tricing pendants should be released __________.
Not learned
1327. You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?
Not learned
1328. The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the __________.
Not learned
1329. What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?
Not learned
1330. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?
Not learned
1331. Which is TRUE of the term negative slip on a vessel?
Not learned
1332. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. How should you make your approach?
Not learned
1333. When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?
Not learned
1334. Which are the two points that act together to trim a ship?
Not learned
1335. Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.
Not learned
1336. On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?
Not learned
1337. Which type of davit requires you to turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side?
Not learned
1338. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
Not learned
1339. Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel's fire fighting arrangement within the fire control plan?
Not learned
1340. What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction?
Not learned
1341. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?
Not learned
1342. When do U.S. regulations require your vessel's EPIRB to be tested?
Not learned
1343. If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, which action can you take?
Not learned
1344. You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?
Not learned
1345. You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?
Not learned
1346. You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?
Not learned
1347. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on which of the following channels?
Not learned
1348. While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?
Not learned
1349. What is the unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code?
Not learned
1350. Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when __________.
Not learned
1351. Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene of the distress. Under which of the following cases would this NOT be true?
Not learned
1352. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
Not learned
1353. When do you use your FCC call sign when transmitting on channel 16?
Not learned
1354. What is used as an indicator of initial stability?
Not learned
1355. What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?
Not learned
1356. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?
Not learned
1357. What should be used to send the group "Bearing 074° True"?
Not learned
1358. What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?
Not learned
1359. What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel?
Not learned
1360. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?
Not learned
1361. While using the International Code of Signals, how can the receiving station indicate that they are able to distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it?
Not learned
1362. When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.
Not learned
1363. You are using a racetrack turn to recover a man overboard. The vessel is first steadied when how many degrees away from the original heading?
Not learned
1364. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.
Not learned
1365. On the illustrated fire control plan, what emergency equipment is located in the scullery
Not learned
1366. You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger, which signal signifies urgency?
Not learned
1367. What is the usual depth of a beam bracket?
Not learned
1368. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?
Not learned
1369. What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?
Not learned
1370. Utilizing illustration D035SA below, the Master has ordered you to pull the remote ventilation shut down, where is it found?
Not learned
1371. Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represent?
Not learned
1372. Utilizing illustration D038SA below a view of a vessel fire control plan, how many spaces are protected by a fixed CO2 extinguishing system?
Not learned
1373. The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and which other item?
Not learned
1374. The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is __________.
Not learned
1375. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.
Not learned
1376. Vertical moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.
Not learned
1377. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.
Not learned
1378. If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from which area(s) of the vessel?
Not learned
1379. A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.
Not learned
1380. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?
Not learned
1381. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", which of the following is True if there is a failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment?
Not learned
1382. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or which channel?
Not learned
1383. Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what?
Not learned
1384. Your vessel is conducting helicopter evacuation operations for an injured crew member. Which of the following statements is true concerning the hoisting line?
Not learned
1385. Your vessel is conducting a "Vessel Grounded Drill". Where is the plan indicating the vessel's watertight boundaries required to be located?
Not learned
1386. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1387. In vessel construction, which is TRUE of the garboard strake?
Not learned
1388. A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1389. Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability?
Not learned
1390. Your vessel was damaged and initially assumed a significant list and trim; however, further increase has been slow. Based on this data, what should you expect?
Not learned
1391. Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?
Not learned
1392. Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00" (1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST?
Not learned
1393. Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?
Not learned
1394. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
1395. Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?
Not learned
1396. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________.
Not learned
1397. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________.
Not learned
1398. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
1399. A vessel has been damaged and is taking on water. Where can you find the data that will indicate how much water the vessel can retain and still possess reserve buoyancy?
Not learned
1400. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. How would you preface a message advising other vessels of your situation?
Not learned
1401. A vessel is described as a two-compartment vessel when it __________.
Not learned
1402. Your vessel is discharging containers from the main deck with the ship's cranes. Which of the following must be taken into account when calculating the center of gravity as the containers are discharged?
Not learned
1403. Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that __________.
Not learned
1404. A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal. What follows the signal?
Not learned
1405. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested at which time interval?
Not learned
1406. What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?
Not learned
1407. A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross- connection valve be closed?
Not learned
1408. If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?
Not learned
1409. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?
Not learned
1410. Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.
Not learned
1411. The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan?
Not learned
1412. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT?
Not learned
1413. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT?
Not learned
1414. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol helps to control the spread of fire?
Not learned
1415. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol represents a fire damper?
Not learned
1416. A vessel's fire control plan shall be __________.
Not learned
1417. A vessel's fire control plan shall do which of the following?
Not learned
1418. A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard halyard. What does this signal mean?
Not learned
1419. On which vessels is GMDSS required?
Not learned
1420. Your vessel has run aground in waters where the tide is falling. Which of the following is the best action you can take?
Not learned
1421. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.
Not learned
1422. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?
Not learned
1423. When a vessel has grounded which of the following could result from the forces acting upward on the bottom?
Not learned
1424. Your vessel has just grounded on the rocks and is flooding. What should be the initial action in this situation?
Not learned
1425. When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.
Not learned
1426. Your vessel is involved in Search and Rescue Operations. What is the purpose of the "Situation Report
Not learned
1427. Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating?
Not learned
1428. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
Not learned
1429. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
Not learned
1430. A vessel's KG is determined by __________.
Not learned
1431. A vessel with a large GM will __________.
Not learned
1432. A vessel with a large GM will __________.
Not learned
1433. Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Where is Lifeboat No. 2 located?
Not learned
1434. A vessel's light displacement is 12,000 tons. Its heavy displacement is 28,000 tons. When fully loaded it carries 200 tons of fuel and 100 tons of water and stores. What is the cargo carrying capacity in tons?
Not learned
1435. If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by which condition?
Not learned
1436. If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will __________.
Not learned
1437. If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.
Not learned
1438. A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.
Not learned
1439. Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
1440. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.
Not learned
1441. Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
Not learned
1442. As a vessel officer part of your duties is to inspect the lifesaving equipment. What should be done to facilitate a test of the vessel's EPIRB?
Not learned
1443. Your vessel participates in AMVER. Which of the following is an AMVER reporting requirement?
Not learned
1444. When a vessel has positive stability, which term is used to describe the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G?
Not learned
1445. A vessel that does not possess any reserve buoyancy will sink. Which of the following is considered a direct measure of reserve buoyancy?
Not learned
1446. A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________.
Not learned
1447. Your vessel has just received a distress message. As the master of the vessel, when are you relieved of your obligation to assist in the search and rescue operations?
Not learned
1448. Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?
Not learned
1449. Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone?
Not learned
1450. Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure?
Not learned
1451. Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be taken next?
Not learned
1452. If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?
Not learned
1453. Your vessel is securely moored and commencing to load cargo. What effect does loading cargo have on the vessel's vertical center of gravity?
Not learned
1454. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?
Not learned
1455. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. Both vessels are making the same amount of leeway. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
Not learned
1456. A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is hoisted close-up. What action should you take?
Not learned
1457. A vessel with a small GM will __________.
Not learned
1458. A vessel with a small GM will __________.
Not learned
1459. Your vessel has suffered a casualty and is in danger of sinking. The Master orders abandon ship but a crew member is missing. You have located the crew member but she is trapped in the Steward's Office. Using the Fire Control Plans in illustration D036SA below, where is the nearest fire axe to gain entry?
Not learned
1460. Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The __________.
Not learned
1461. Your vessel has been taking on water but now the breached hole has been repaired. Which effects can the flooding have on your vessel's GM?
Not learned
1462. A vessel is taking on water but is not in immediate danger of sinking. What would be the best action to take to increase the vessel's stability?
Not learned
1463. A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.
Not learned
1464. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
Not learned
1465. VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?
Not learned
1466. Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?
Not learned
1467. All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode. Which is an example of the operation of a radio in simplex mode?
Not learned
1468. Which is the VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel?
Not learned
1469. In the view of the bridge deck on the fire control plan shown in illustration D035SA below, what is represented by the symbol on the aft bulkhead, port side of the wheelhouse?
Not learned
1470. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 049°16.3' W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
Not learned
1471. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149° 16.3' E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
Not learned
1472. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
Not learned
1473. Wale shores would be used when dry docking a vessel with __________.
Not learned
1474. How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time?
Not learned
1475. How does a warship indicates that it wishes to communicate with a merchant ship?
Not learned
1476. While you are on watch, you learn that a crewman has not been seen on board for the past three hours. Which type of turn is best in this man-overboard situation?
Not learned
1477. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?
Not learned
1478. You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which man overboard turn should NOT be used in this situation?
Not learned
1479. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.
Not learned
1480. Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for _________.
Not learned
1481. In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion?
Not learned
1482. In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?
Not learned
1483. When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?
Not learned
1484. The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.
Not learned
1485. Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?
Not learned
1486. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?
Not learned
1487. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?
Not learned
1488. The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.
Not learned
1489. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.
Not learned
1490. What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?
Not learned
1491. A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________.
Not learned
1492. Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor __________.
Not learned
1493. Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.
Not learned
1494. You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal __________.
Not learned
1495. If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.
Not learned
1496. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?
Not learned
1497. What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?
Not learned
1498. How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?
Not learned
1499. How would the flag hoist 1.33 be sent?
Not learned
1500. What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength?
Not learned
1501. What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?
Not learned
1502. Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?
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1503. What would be the result of physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water?
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1504. What would a signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with?
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1505. What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?
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1506. What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean?
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1507. What would a yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water indicate about a submarine?
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1508. Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
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1509. A yellow signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about 300 feet above the water, indicates that a submarine __________.
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1510. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of which duration?
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1511. All inflatable liferafts have which item?
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1512. Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.
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1513. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?
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1514. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, which is the most important item to check?
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1515. The lever shown in illustration D013SA below is operated when a lifeboat is in which of the following positions?
Not learned
1516. What is the preferred method of controlling external bleeding?
Not learned
1517. What is the purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat?
Not learned
1518. Which is a symptom of traumatic shock?
Not learned
1519. Which is the required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage?
Not learned
1520. Which of the following choices best defines EPIRB, ELT, PLBS?
Not learned
1521. A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through which point?
Not learned
1522. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by which means?
Not learned
1523. Longitudinal moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and which other component?
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1524. The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon which item(s)?
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1525. The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill during which time frame?
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1526. What is the thickness of a 30.6-pound plate?
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1527. When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, why must you grasp the hose handle and NOT the discharge horn?
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1528. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to which system?
Not learned
1529. Which is required to be marked on the vessel's life preservers?
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1530. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. What is the designation number for the middle boat on the starboard side?
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1531. Generally speaking, how is the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber ignited?
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1532. How does bleeding from a vein appear?
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1533. What does the boat command "Oars" mean?
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1534. Which of the following is the best action to take prior to attempting to land a survival craft through heavy surf?
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1535. Your vessel is in distress and the order has been given to abandon ship. If you must enter the water which of the following would aid in preventing hypothermia?
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1536. How can the accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries be prevented?
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1537. If another station sent you the signal "KG", what would this indicate?
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1538. What is the FIRST thing the rescuer must do if the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation?
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1539. What is the Ring life buoy requirement on your small passenger vessel that has a length of 28 feet?
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1540. Which is the principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel?
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1541. Which is the VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency?
Not learned
1542. You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. How would you describe this swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals?
Not learned
1543. Your stability calculations indicate your vessel has a marginal GM. Which of the following is the most effective way to increase the stability of the vessel?
Not learned
1544. Your vessel has just run aground. Which of the following would be one of the first actions you should take in this situation?
Not learned
1545. Which defines the term reserve buoyancy?
Not learned
1546. When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, which is TRUE concerning the ventilation for that area?
Not learned
1547. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. She is making more leeway than you. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
Not learned
1548. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam. You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
Not learned
1549. Your cargo vessel is transiting pirate waters with a temporary security team onboard. The ship has been attacked and starts sinking. The decision has been made to abandon ship. During the muster, the security force leader is determined to be missing. What initial action should be taken?
Not learned
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