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Master (Great Lakes and Inland (Limited Tonnage: Less Than 500-1600 GRT))
Q321 — Deck Safety
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1. Which of the following describes the function of the air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?
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2. What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?
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3. Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.
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4. Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless which situation occurs?
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5. The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.
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6. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.
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7. When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?
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8. If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can initially be maintained by activating which of the following units?
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9. Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.
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10. According to the Code of Federal Regulations, which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995?
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11. In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.
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12. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.
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13. The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?
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14. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?
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15. When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?
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16. While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.
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17. What is the signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats?
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18. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.
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19. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
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20. When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.
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21. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?
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22. All of the following are recognized distress signals under the Navigation Rules EXCEPT which signal?
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23. When a vessel signals its distress by means of a gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be at approximately which time intervals?
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24. Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?
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25. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.
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26. Fires are grouped into what categories?
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27. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.
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28. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?
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29. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.
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30. How are fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium classified?
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31. Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?
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32. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
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33. Which defines the "flammable limits" of an atmosphere?
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34. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.
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35. Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.
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36. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.
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37. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?
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38. Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.
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39. Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.
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40. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.
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41. There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, which is the other?
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42. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
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43. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
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44. Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?
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45. Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?
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46. After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.
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47. When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?
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48. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.
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49. In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?
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50. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
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51. How can the spread of fire be prevented?
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52. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
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53. Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.
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54. Convection spreads a fire by __________.
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55. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.
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56. Fire may be spread by which means?
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57. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.
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58. Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.
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59. Which is the best method of extinguishing a class A fire?
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60. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.
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61. Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?
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62. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.
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63. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?
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64. Which is the BEST method of applying foam to a fire?
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65. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by which action?
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66. The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting nozzle should always be __________.
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67. No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.
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68. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.
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69. Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?
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70. CO₂ cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.
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71. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.
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72. In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________.
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73. Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push- buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
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74. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?
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75. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?
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76. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for manually releasing the CO2 at which location?
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77. When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, how many pilot cylinders are required?
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78. Spaces protected by a fixed CO₂ system must be equipped with an alarm which is to sound __________.
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79. A safety outlet is provided on the CO₂ discharge piping to prevent __________.
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80. CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?
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81. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?
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82. Which statement is TRUE to safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system?
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83. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.
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84. Which defines the flash point of a liquid?
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85. Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?
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86. Which term defines the lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition?
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87. Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?
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88. You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?
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89. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.
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90. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.
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91. Where would spontaneous combustion most likely occur?
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92. Which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous combustion?
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93. Which may ignite fuel vapors?
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94. What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?
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95. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.
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96. The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.
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97. The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.
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98. Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.
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99. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
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100. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?
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101. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.
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102. A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of the following?
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103. All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.
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104. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?
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105. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?
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106. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make __________.
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107. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat. In a mild breeze how should the boat approach the person in the water?
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108. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?
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109. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.
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110. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?
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111. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.
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112. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?
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113. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.
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114. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.
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115. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?
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116. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.
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117. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?
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118. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.
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119. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?
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120. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, what should be your main course of action?
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121. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?
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122. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
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123. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
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124. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.
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125. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?
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126. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?
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127. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.
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128. Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?
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129. Life jackets should be marked with which item?
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130. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.
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131. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, which action should you take?
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132. Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to accomplish which task?
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133. What is the purpose of rigging frapping lines on lifeboat falls?
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134. Which of the following persons may command a lifeboat in ocean service?
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135. Which of the following is NOT a function of the pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat?
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136. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?
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137. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.
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138. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?
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139. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.
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140. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the following colors?
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141. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?
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142. You will find a limit switch on which type of davit?
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143. Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.
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144. After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.
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145. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.
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146. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on which item?
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147. If a life raft should capsize, __________.
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148. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.
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149. What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?
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150. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?
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151. Inflatable liferafts are provided with which item?
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152. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.
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153. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.
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154. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?
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155. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.
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156. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.
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157. When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, which task must be done to aid in your rescue?
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158. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which action will aid in your rescue?
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159. How is the inside light in an inflatable liferaft activated?
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160. You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?
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161. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?
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162. The float free link attached to a sea painter on an inflatable liferaft has a breaking strength of __________.
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163. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?
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164. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.
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165. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.
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166. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.
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167. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF which condition exists?
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168. An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.
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169. How is the "off-load" release system on a survival craft designed to be activated?
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170. When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should take which action?
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171. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.
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172. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.
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173. A sea anchor is __________.
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174. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using which item(s)?
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175. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?
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176. Initial stability is indicated by __________.
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177. The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known as the __________.
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178. Which term is used for the horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces?
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179. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.
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180. Which term defines the upward pressure of displaced water of a vessel?
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181. At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.
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182. Initial stability refers to stability __________.
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183. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
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184. Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel. These points are the center of buoyancy and the __________.
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185. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.
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186. The important initial stability parameter, GM, is which of the following?
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187. The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the __________.
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188. When a vessel is floating upright, which term is used to define the distance from the keel to the metacenter of a vessel?
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189. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.
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190. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
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191. At all angles of inclination, which is the true measure of a vessel's stability?
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192. Which term defines the difference between the forward and aft drafts?
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193. The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
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194. What does reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduce?
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195. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.
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196. For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.
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197. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.
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198. A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.
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199. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.
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200. When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.
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201. If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.
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202. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.
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203. When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.
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204. When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.
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205. The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.
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206. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed?
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207. Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.
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208. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.
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209. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.
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210. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.
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211. A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.
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212. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.
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213. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.
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214. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces which threat?
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215. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.
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216. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.
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217. Which is the best action to take when plugging holes below the waterline for the safety of the vessel?
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218. Which term describes the strengthening of damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel?
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219. In plugging submerged holes; why are rags, wedges, and other materials used in conjunction with plugs?
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220. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.
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221. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?
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222. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?
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223. Which is TRUE concerning the vapor pressure of a substance?
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224. The overspeeding of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause __________.
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225. A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.
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226. What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?
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227. Which of the following describes why topside icing, which is usually off-center, decreases vessel stability?
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228. What will cause the free surface effects of a partially full tank on a vessel in motion to increase?
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229. What grade are most crude oils are classified as?
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230. The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.
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231. For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.
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232. Which of the following terms defines the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present?
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233. Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.
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234. You are approaching a ship that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, which action should you take?
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235. One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY take which action?
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236. For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have __________.
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237. Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and weighs 36 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
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238. In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.
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239. Which is TRUE of outlets in gasoline fuel lines of your small vessel?
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240. When patching holes in the hull, how can pillows, bedding, and other soft materials be used?
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241. What is the purpose of a check valve?
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242. Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.
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243. Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.
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244. Why do spaces containing batteries require good ventilation?
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245. You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?
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246. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in which condition?
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247. What does the term "head" mean when applied to a pump?
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248. Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.
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249. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to take which action?
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250. Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?
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251. On what type of pump would you find an impeller?
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252. The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.
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253. You have 10 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.8 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity
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254. You have 12 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 4'B by 5'H and weighing 2.0 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity
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255. The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator __________.
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256. You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load
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257. You are on a 165 foot (50.3 meters) long vessel with a draft of 9 feet (2.7 meters) and twin screws. Which statement about rescuing a survivor in the water with ship pickup is TRUE?
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258. You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load
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259. You have 200 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 140 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 4.2 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted
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260. You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted
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261. You have 260 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 150 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.2 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load
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262. You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load
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263. You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load
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264. You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load
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265. You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H and weighing 0.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity
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266. You have 4 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 8'B by 8'H and weighing 1.2 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity
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267. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 100 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 160 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load
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268. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 230 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load
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269. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted
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270. You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load
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271. You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load
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272. You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load
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273. You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity
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274. You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to load
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275. You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.2, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted
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276. You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet. What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to load
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277. You have 590 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 84 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted
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278. You have 6 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 1.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity
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279. You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity
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280. You have 60 tons of below deck tonnage and 220 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 240 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you load
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281. Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for what type of service?
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282. You have 600 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted
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283. You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted
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284. You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load
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285. You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to load
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286. You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permitted
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287. A 750-foot passenger vessel operating on the Great Lakes, not subject to SOLAS regulations, is required to carry how many ring life buoys?
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288. You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacity
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289. Which is the abandon ship signal?
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290. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. Which action should you take?
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291. You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?
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292. You abandoned ship in the North Atlantic and one of the crew members is hypothermic. During a SAR helicopter extraction which lifting device should be avoided when hoisting this patient to the aircraft?
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293. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?
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294. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. Which is one of your FIRST actions that should be taken?
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295. You have abandoned your vessel and are the person in charge of lifeboat No. 2. Which procedure should be followed when landing a boat under oars through a slight surf?
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296. When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.
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297. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?
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298. An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.
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299. An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in which situation?
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300. Aboard ship, which term is given to the vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates?
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301. Aboard a vessel, a common formula which consists of dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields which information?
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302. In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.
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303. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.
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304. What is the accepted standard for wire rope falls used in connection with the lifeboat gear?
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305. In accordance with SOLAS, which of the following best describes the obligation of the Master concerning cargo hold watertight doors?
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306. In accordance with SOLAS, the Master shall be furnished with information to obtain accurate guidance as to the stability of the vessel under varying conditions of service. Which of the following is included in this information
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307. In accordance with SOLAS the Master of a vessel is required to have specific stability information at their disposal. Which of the following is part of the requirement?
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308. In accordance with SOLAS, stability information required to be available to the Master shall include which of the following?
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309. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?
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310. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?
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311. According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?
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312. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what information that affects your vessel is required to be entered into the radiotelephone log?
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313. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?
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314. Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?
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315. Which action must be taken annually concerning inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels?
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316. Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry chemical cartridge- operated portable fire extinguisher?
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317. Which action should be taken once fueling has been completed?
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318. Which action would you take to get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle?
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319. Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the __________.
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320. In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into English or __________.
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321. Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.
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322. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.
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323. An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.
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324. What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?
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325. What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?
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326. Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?
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327. An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________.
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328. What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?
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329. What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?
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330. What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?
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331. Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?
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332. What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?
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333. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?
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334. With the air supply on, which is TRUE concerning the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat?
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335. When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?
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336. Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.
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337. Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?
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338. At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.
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339. At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.
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340. At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.
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341. What is another name for the garboard strake?
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342. You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your approach?
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343. With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________.
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344. Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?
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345. You have approximately 14 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 6 feet? (total displacement is 210 tons)
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346. You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons)
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347. You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons)
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348. You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons)
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349. Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI?
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350. Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?
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351. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.
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352. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.
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353. When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?
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354. You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. How should you get underway?
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355. The average rolling period of your ship puts it in the category of a "stiff ship". What effect can this condition have on the cargo carried onboard while underway?
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356. When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.
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357. In battery charging rooms, where should the exhaust ventilation be provided?
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358. You are on the beach and want to signal to a small boat in distress that your present location is dangerous and that they should land to the left. How would you indicate this?
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359. Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies?
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360. Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________.
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361. What is the BEST conductor of electricity?
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362. What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?
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363. What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space?
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364. What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?
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365. Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls under which condition?
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366. Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.
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367. What does blowing tubes accomplish?
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368. You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?
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369. On board a vessel, which of the following is the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation?
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370. Which command means to complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft?
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371. The boat is stowed on the davit rather than on a cradle with which type of davit?
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372. Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?
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373. On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with which chemical?
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374. A burning pile of canvas is which classification of fire?
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375. What is a butt welded joint's strength compared to the base metal?
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376. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be __________.
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377. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened in which situation?
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378. To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.
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379. A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of __________.
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380. You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". What does this indicate?
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381. What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?
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382. How is the Camber in a ship usually measured?
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383. The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.
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384. Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?
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385. Carbon dioxide as a firefighting agent has which advantage over other agents?
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386. The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.
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387. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.
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388. Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be re-inspected no later than __________.
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389. Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be reinspected no later than which date?
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390. A carling is used aboard ship to accomplish which function?
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391. When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of the search units should normally be which of the following?
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392. CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.
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393. Which causes spontaneous combustion?
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394. The ceiling is __________.
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395. Where is the center of buoyancy located on a vessel?
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396. The center of flotation of a vessel is __________.
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397. The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.
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398. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?
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399. Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to __________.
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400. Channel 13 is primarily used for ship-to-ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for which purpose?
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401. What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?
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402. Which is TRUE concerning a chock?
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403. When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use which type of extinguisher?
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404. On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?
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405. A class B fire is most successfully fought by which method?
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406. A class C fire would be burning __________.
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407. After clearing the vessel, what is one of the FIRST things you would do in an inflatable liferaft?
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408. The CO2 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.
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409. CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following?
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410. The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel __________.
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411. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.
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412. A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.
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413. Which describes a cofferdam?
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414. Which color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares are used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance?
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415. What color signal flare is sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency?
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416. What is the color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise?
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417. A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________.
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418. A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.
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419. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.
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420. How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?
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421. When in command of a lifeboat under oars, what does the command "Backwater" mean?
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422. You have been in-command of a lifeboat since abandoning ship three days prior and land has been sighted ahead. Under which circumstances would you attempt beaching your lifeboat through a heavy surf?
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423. Which is the most common type of davit found on ocean service merchant vessels today?
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424. You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3?
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425. You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another vessel's transmission?
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426. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?
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427. Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________.
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428. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?
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429. You have completed stability calculations for your vessel prior to getting underway. Your vessel's GM is small but positive. Which of the following is true?
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430. A concentration of weight has been shifted inboard to the center line of the vessel. Generally speaking, what effect will this have on the vessel?
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431. When should you be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks?
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432. What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine?
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433. You should conduct a sector search under which of the following circumstances?
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434. In continuous operation, what is the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher?
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435. A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.
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436. There is an out of control fire on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire?
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437. The Coordinator Surface Search (CSS) in a SAR situation should display by night __________.
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438. The Coordinator Surface Search in a SAR situation should display by day __________.
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439. The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
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440. The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
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441. What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?
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442. What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?
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443. A covered liferaft has very limited maneuverability. Which of the following is True concerning the beaching of a liferaft in a rough surf?
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444. If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________.
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445. While cranking out a quadrantal davit, slippage of the quadrant due to excessive wear or failure of the teeth in the quadrant will cause the __________.
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446. A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you take?
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447. When does a cylinder in a two-cycle engine experience combustion?
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448. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should __________.
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449. The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________.
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450. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?
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451. What is the danger to personnel associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space?
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452. The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________.
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453. Which davit type may be operated by one person?
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454. By day, what does the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicate?
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455. By day, what is the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land"?
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456. Deballasting a double bottom has what effect on KG?
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457. The decision has been made to make landfall through a slight surf in an oar-propelled lifeboat. How should the sea anchor be utilized?
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458. A deck beam does NOT __________.
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459. The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist which stresses?
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460. Why are deck beams cambered on a vessel?
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461. A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?
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462. What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?
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463. Which defines the function of a spark arrestor?
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464. Which defines the "margin plate"?
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465. By definition, a "spar deck" is the __________.
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466. What is the definition of transverse metacenter?
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467. A Deratization Exemption Certificate is valid for which period of time?
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468. Which describes how to determine a vessel's LCG?
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469. Which describes the floors aboard a ship?
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470. You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.
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471. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?
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472. How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?
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473. Who determines the number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled lifeboat on a cargo vessel?
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474. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.
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475. How are all diesel engines classified?
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476. Why are diesel engines considered safer than gasoline engines?
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477. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.
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478. Which describes the difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity of a vessel?
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479. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.
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480. The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to __________.
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481. You are being directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside, frame 127. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what machinery is found in that exact location?
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482. When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.
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483. You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. Which action should you take FIRST?
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484. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.
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485. When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.
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486. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.
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487. A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________.
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488. The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. Which is TRUE concerning the information?
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489. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?
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490. A double male coupling is one that __________.
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491. A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance. How often is this drill required to be conducted?
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492. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by which method?
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493. Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?
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494. When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, why is there a danger of reflash?
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495. Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?
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496. Where, due to the arrangement of the vessel, lifejackets may become inaccessible, additional lifejackets shall be carried __________.
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497. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, which is the best way to haul it back aboard?
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498. The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.
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499. What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine that is at normal operating temperature?
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500. Which has the MOST effect on the range of a SSB transmission?
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501. What is the effect of spreading oil on the open sea?
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502. Which is the most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires?
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503. Which is the most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical extinguisher?
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504. Why should all electrical appliances aboard a vessel be grounded and ground fault protected?
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505. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, where should the stream of dry chemicals be directed?
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506. If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?
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507. After an engine is started which is the best action(s) to take?
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508. Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.
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509. What does "EPIRB" stand for?
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510. Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?
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511. You are evacuating crew members from a survival craft that has been adrift in the North Atlantic for several days. What could occur if a person suffering from hypothermia is vertically lifted in a rescue sling to the helicopter?
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512. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?
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513. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?
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514. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?
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515. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be which of the following?
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516. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?
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517. Who has the exclusive use of the radiotelephone as stated in the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?
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518. The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.
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519. What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?
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520. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?
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521. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?
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522. Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?
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523. Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?
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524. Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?
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525. Which extinguishing agent is most effective for combating wood fires?
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526. As an extinguishing agent, foam _________.
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527. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.
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528. Which extinguishing agent is/are suitable to combat a class B fire in an engine compartment?
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529. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?
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530. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.
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531. What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine?
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532. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?
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533. Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in which of the following?
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534. The falls on gravity davits are __________.
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535. What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?
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536. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
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537. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
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538. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then take which action?
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539. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, why should the hose team crouch as low as possible?
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540. Fighting a fire in the galley poses which additional threat?
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541. When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), which is the most prudent action to take?
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542. When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.
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543. When fighting a fire using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, where should the stream be directed to extinguish the fire?
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544. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.
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545. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?
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546. To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should take which action?
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547. On the fire control plans, in illustration D039SA below, the CO2 bottle room is designated by which symbol?
Not learned
548. On fire control plans, in illustration D039SA, the dry chemical releasing station is designated by which symbol?
Not learned
549. The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems?
Not learned
550. Which fire control plan symbol in illustration D039SA below represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "A" fire?
Not learned
551. Which fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, represents a dry chemical delivery method for small scale fires?
Not learned
552. There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
553. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?
Not learned
554. A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using which type of extinguishing agent?
Not learned
555. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by which action?
Not learned
556. If you have a fire in the engine room, what is the FIRST action you should take?
Not learned
557. Fire extinguishing agents used on class C fires must have which characteristic?
Not learned
558. Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?
Not learned
559. A fire hose has a __________.
Not learned
560. A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________.
Not learned
561. Fire hose should be washed with __________.
Not learned
562. A fire must be ventilated __________.
Not learned
563. A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?
Not learned
564. A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?
Not learned
565. A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
566. A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?
Not learned
567. A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.
Not learned
568. When should a fire be ventilated?
Not learned
569. Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?
Not learned
570. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog which action would you take?
Not learned
571. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.
Not learned
572. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to which personnel?
Not learned
573. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?
Not learned
574. You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?
Not learned
575. A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.
Not learned
576. In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of 20 cylinders, what is the minimum number of required pilot cylinders?
Not learned
577. Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or at which other location?
Not learned
578. Which are the flammable limits of methyl ethyl ketone?
Not learned
579. Which is the flammable limit range of Diesel Oil mixed with air?
Not learned
580. When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.
Not learned
581. When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?
Not learned
582. For a floating vessel, which item is the result of subtracting KG from KM?
Not learned
583. The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by which item?
Not learned
584. Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?
Not learned
585. Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?
Not learned
586. How does foam extinguish a fire?
Not learned
587. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
Not learned
588. Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.
Not learned
589. A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating which type of fire?
Not learned
590. Which of the following aspects of a flooded space will most adversely affect transverse stability if it is subject to free communication?
Not learned
591. Which of the following best defines the term "chock"?
Not learned
592. Which of the following defines the difference between the free-floating displacement and the KB of a grounded vessel?
Not learned
593. Which of the following defines "Rolling Period"?
Not learned
594. Which of the following describes the function of a sea anchor when utilized as a tool for beaching a lifeboat through surf?
Not learned
595. Which of the following formulas is an acceptable method to calculate the vertical shift of the vessel's center of gravity?
Not learned
596. Which of the followings is a global communication service to provide distress alerting and a network for SAR communications for mariners?
Not learned
597. Which of the following grounding scenarios would have the least damaging effect on vessel stability?
Not learned
598. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?
Not learned
599. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?
Not learned
600. Which of the following is one of the most important safety procedures that should be adhered to prior to starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat?
Not learned
601. Which of the following penalties can be imposed for a violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?
Not learned
602. Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control Plans?
Not learned
603. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel's Fire Control Plan?
Not learned
604. Which of the following is a requirement if your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate?
Not learned
605. Which of the following is a requirement of the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat?
Not learned
606. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?
Not learned
607. Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?
Not learned
608. Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
Not learned
609. Which of the following terms defines a unit responsible for organizing search and rescue services?
Not learned
610. Which of the following is True if your radiotelephone fails while underway?
Not learned
611. Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?
Not learned
612. The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.
Not learned
613. Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?
Not learned
614. Four-cycle diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or which other means?
Not learned
615. Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.
Not learned
616. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.
Not learned
617. The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with the increase of which item?
Not learned
618. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks accomplish which task?
Not learned
619. What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications?
Not learned
620. A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. What should be your FIRST action?
Not learned
621. Which fuel is used in a survival craft's engine?
Not learned
622. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining which minimal speed if it is not towing other survival craft?
Not learned
623. What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?
Not learned
624. A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using _______.
Not learned
625. A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?
Not learned
626. The garboard strake is the __________.
Not learned
627. If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.
Not learned
628. In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?
Not learned
629. Which are general requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log?
Not learned
630. For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.
Not learned
631. Why can the vessel's GM not be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination?
Not learned
632. When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.
Not learned
633. The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.
Not learned
634. Where are the grab rails of a metal lifeboat normally located?
Not learned
635. Great Lakes cargo vessels, having a liferaft stowed more than 100 meters from the bow or stern, must have at least how many liferafts?
Not learned
636. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.
Not learned
637. The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?
Not learned
638. Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture. Floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months?
Not learned
639. You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?
Not learned
640. What happens when the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pushed into the forward position?
Not learned
641. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will __________.
Not learned
642. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all- purpose nozzle will __________.
Not learned
643. What will happen if cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck on the vessel?
Not learned
644. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
Not learned
645. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. What does this signal mean?
Not learned
646. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. What does this indicate?
Not learned
647. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?
Not learned
648. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.
Not learned
649. When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is referred to by which term?
Not learned
650. Why is the height of a VHF radio antenna more important than the power output wattage of the radio?
Not learned
651. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?
Not learned
652. Which is TRUE of High-velocity fog?
Not learned
653. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in firefighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the firefighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when which condition exists?
Not learned
654. The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?
Not learned
655. The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.
Not learned
656. A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.
Not learned
657. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?
Not learned
658. If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?
Not learned
659. In illustration D001SA below, which item represents the righting arm?
Not learned
660. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the center of gravity?
Not learned
661. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the metacentric height?
Not learned
662. In illustration D008SA below, what type of davits are displayed?
Not learned
663. In illustration D011SA below, what does the item labeled number (1) operate?
Not learned
664. In illustration D012SA below, what is the mechanism that will release the tricing pendant?
Not learned
665. In illustration D012SA below, what will be released when pulling on line number 5?
Not learned
666. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags?
Not learned
667. In the illustration, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to which of the following
Not learned
668. In illustration D016SA below, what number indicates the frapping line?
Not learned
669. In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D?
Not learned
670. In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate?
Not learned
671. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt?
Not learned
672. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard strake?
Not learned
673. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal?
Not learned
674. In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done?
Not learned
675. In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the letter N known as?
Not learned
676. In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known as?
Not learned
677. In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter J known as?
Not learned
678. In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating indicated by letter H known as?
Not learned
679. In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which letter?
Not learned
680. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter F?
Not learned
681. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter K?
Not learned
682. In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor?
Not learned
683. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter L?
Not learned
684. In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N known as?
Not learned
685. In illustration D035SA below, viewing the bridge level of your vessel's fire control plan, what do the two symbols within the machinery casing represent?
Not learned
686. In illustration D036SA below, what does the solid arrow in the Crew Mess represent on the Fire Control Plans?
Not learned
687. In illustration D039SA below, a complete recharge for a self-contained breathing apparatus can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?
Not learned
688. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol does NOT contain personal protective equipment?
Not learned
689. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol designates a space or compartment protected by Halon 1301?
Not learned
690. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol is not part of the ship's foam system?
Not learned
691. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol(s) represent part of the vessel's ventilation system?
Not learned
692. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (16)?
Not learned
693. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (30)?
Not learned
694. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (37)?
Not learned
695. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (39)?
Not learned
696. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (56)?
Not learned
697. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (64)?
Not learned
698. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (67)?
Not learned
699. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (7)?
Not learned
700. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol(s) represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "B" fire?
Not learned
701. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "C" fire?
Not learned
702. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a Class Alpha fire?
Not learned
703. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a LARGE Class Bravo fire on deck?
Not learned
704. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a bilge pump?
Not learned
705. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the direction of primary means of escape?
Not learned
706. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency fire pump?
Not learned
707. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency generator?
Not learned
708. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment NOT to be found immediately outside the engine room?
Not learned
709. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment that is MOST likely to be found in the ship's galley?
Not learned
710. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire alarm panel?
Not learned
711. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire main with fire valves?
Not learned
712. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire pump?
Not learned
713. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire station?
Not learned
714. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a heat detector?
Not learned
715. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an international shore connection?
Not learned
716. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a NON-portable extinguisher?
Not learned
717. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a push button for a fire alarm?
Not learned
718. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a space protected by foam?
Not learned
719. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol signifies equipment you would use if your fire pump(s) failed?
Not learned
720. In illustration D039SA below, the halon room with the main battery of Halon 1301 bottles is designated by which symbol on the fire control plans?
Not learned
721. In illustration D039SA below the location of a spare set of fire control plans on board the vessel is designated by what approved symbol?
Not learned
722. In illustration D039SA below, what two fire control plan symbols designate the directional means of escape?
Not learned
723. In illustration D041DG below, which of the following is the symbol for displacement?
Not learned
724. In illustration D041DG below, which symbol is the reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured?
Not learned
725. An immersion suit must be equipped with which item(s)?
Not learned
726. What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?
Not learned
727. What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?
Not learned
728. The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.
Not learned
729. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.
Not learned
730. What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?
Not learned
731. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.
Not learned
732. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to take which action?
Not learned
733. The improper stowage of cargo has caused vessels to have a negative GM. How will a ship in this condition handle in the seaway?
Not learned
734. Which will improve stability?
Not learned
735. When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is __________.
Not learned
736. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by taking which action?
Not learned
737. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by which action?
Not learned
738. When must an inflatable liferaft that has been repacked be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility?
Not learned
739. Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry a minimum capacity of how many persons?
Not learned
740. The initial action of a Williamson turn is to put the rudder over full until which of the following?
Not learned
741. When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.
Not learned
742. Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.
Not learned
743. The "inner bottom" is the __________.
Not learned
744. Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?
Not learned
745. What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?
Not learned
746. The International Maritime Organization has specific stability requirements and recommendations for multiple vessel types. Which of the following are subject to these requirements?
Not learned
747. On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more, are required to have facilities to enable a connection on each side of the ship for which piece of equipment represented in illustration D039SA below?
Not learned
748. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.
Not learned
749. Who issues the regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?
Not learned
750. Who issues a ship's radiotelephone station license?
Not learned
751. Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?
Not learned
752. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?
Not learned
753. When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.
Not learned
754. The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.
Not learned
755. Which term is given to the joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side?
Not learned
756. Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.
Not learned
757. The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the __________.
Not learned
758. If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?
Not learned
759. Landing a lifeboat through surf should only be done if absolutely necessary. What should be done with the lifeboat rudder if this type of landing is unavoidable?
Not learned
760. You are landing an oar propelled lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward). Which is the recommended procedure to follow?
Not learned
761. You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances which is TRUE?
Not learned
762. A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, which action should you take?
Not learned
763. Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the __________.
Not learned
764. In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?
Not learned
765. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.
Not learned
766. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?
Not learned
767. When launching a lifeboat, how should the tricing pennants be released?
Not learned
768. When launching an open lifeboat by falls, which is TRUE concerning the boathooks?
Not learned
769. The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into which of the following?
Not learned
770. Which is TRUE concerning the length of the steering oar in a lifeboat?
Not learned
771. How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Not learned
772. Your lifeboat has been adrift for several days when land is sighted. Which procedure should you use to survey a potential site to beach your lifeboat?
Not learned
773. On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, what does turning the releasing lever release?
Not learned
774. Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept?
Not learned
775. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?
Not learned
776. How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
Not learned
777. If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?
Not learned
778. The lifeboats on your vessel are stowed on cradles on deck and are handled by sheath-screw boom davits. Which of the following statements about launching a boat is TRUE?
Not learned
779. When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.
Not learned
780. How are lifelines attached to a life float?
Not learned
781. Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include which of the following?
Not learned
782. Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place to land"?
Not learned
783. What does the lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a white light or white flare mean?
Not learned
784. What is the lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
Not learned
785. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
Not learned
786. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
Not learned
787. Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.
Not learned
788. "Limber" is a term associated with which item?
Not learned
789. What is the function of the lifeboat davit limit switches?
Not learned
790. Limit switches are used on which davits?
Not learned
791. Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.
Not learned
792. Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.
Not learned
793. You are loading cargo on deck aboard a vessel whose beam is 60 feet and full period of roll is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?
Not learned
794. Loading cargo above the vessel's center of gravity will increase the vessel's vertical center of gravity. How will this affect the vessel?
Not learned
795. In which location are lifejackets required to be stowed?
Not learned
796. In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located?
Not learned
797. If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.
Not learned
798. How long are radio station logs involving communications during a disaster required to be kept by the station licensee?
Not learned
799. When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.
Not learned
800. When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be initially pulled into the embarkation deck by which item?
Not learned
801. When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.
Not learned
802. To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, which should be used?
Not learned
803. When should the lubricating oil be changed on a heavy-duty diesel engine?
Not learned
804. Before any machinery is put in operation, you should take which action FIRST?
Not learned
805. The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.
Not learned
806. When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be __________.
Not learned
807. Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.
Not learned
808. Which is a major advantage of the round turn maneuver in a man overboard situation?
Not learned
809. Which is the major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system?
Not learned
810. Which is TRUE when making a Scharnow turn?
Not learned
811. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.
Not learned
812. You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.
Not learned
813. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
Not learned
814. When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?
Not learned
815. A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a Williamson turn, the man is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?
Not learned
816. Which maneuver will return your vessel to a person who has fallen overboard in the shortest time?
Not learned
817. How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?
Not learned
818. How many ring life buoys should a 700-foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?
Not learned
819. Many sheath-screw davits have markings to indicate the maximum angle to which they should be cranked out. If the angle is exceeded, the davit __________.
Not learned
820. Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.
Not learned
821. All marine low-speed diesels are of what design?
Not learned
822. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.
Not learned
823. What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?
Not learned
824. What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?
Not learned
825. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.
Not learned
826. What may the firing of a red star signal mean?
Not learned
827. What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?
Not learned
828. Which is TRUE of the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engines?
Not learned
829. Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium?
Not learned
830. During a medivac one of the crew members requires assistance to be hoisted to the aircraft. Which of the following would be used to accomplish this task?
Not learned
831. Which meets the requirement of an independent backup system on an electric start survival craft?
Not learned
832. Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.
Not learned
833. A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?
Not learned
834. How should a message warning of a tropical storm be sent?
Not learned
835. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.
Not learned
836. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.
Not learned
837. If the metacentric height is small, which is TRUE of the vessel?
Not learned
838. If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?
Not learned
839. What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?
Not learned
840. What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2-inch fire hose?
Not learned
841. What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?
Not learned
842. What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
Not learned
843. You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?
Not learned
844. According to the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds which percentage?
Not learned
845. An aluminum powder fire is classified as class __________.
Not learned
846. How are automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems operated?
Not learned
847. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, where does the air flow?
Not learned
848. Which class of fire is an oil fire classified?
Not learned
849. Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with which item?
Not learned
850. Which describes a Kort nozzle as used on a vessel?
Not learned
851. In an emergency, which can directly control the electro-hydraulic steering units on the vessel?
Not learned
852. Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?
Not learned
853. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.
Not learned
854. Which is the flammable range of Bunker C mixed with air?
Not learned
855. Which of the following pieces of equipment is most commonly used by SAR helicopters when evacuating personnel from survival craft?
Not learned
856. Which of the following when removed will extinguish a fire?
Not learned
857. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus?
Not learned
858. How are fusible link fire dampers operated?
Not learned
859. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, what will be the upright equilibrium?
Not learned
860. When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up to which position?
Not learned
861. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter I?
Not learned
862. Which item(s) is/are a 2,000 GT tankship required to carry?
Not learned
863. Which item are the terms "pintle" and "gudgeon" associated with?
Not learned
864. All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at which time interval?
Not learned
865. A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry which items?
Not learned
866. What is the lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here is highly dangerous"?
Not learned
867. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain which items?
Not learned
868. The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered. Which time interval is this action required?
Not learned
869. A mechanical davit is designed to automatically accomplish which task?
Not learned
870. You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
871. You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a rectangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores be located on the bulkhead?
Not learned
872. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead be located?
Not learned
873. What is the name given to the bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat?
Not learned
874. What is the name given to the canvas covering of fire hose?
Not learned
875. Which name is given to the frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a vessel?
Not learned
876. What is the name given to the lines that are passed around the falls to hold the boat and prevent it from swinging violently?
Not learned
877. What name is given to the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains?
Not learned
878. Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.
Not learned
879. Normally, before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine which information about the water source?
Not learned
880. Normally, your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. How many sanitary inspections are required to be conducted during the voyage?
Not learned
881. Which officer is responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department?
Not learned
882. How often are CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system required to be pressure tested?
Not learned
883. How often are each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats required to be tested on the vessel?
Not learned
884. What is one of the main purposes of the inclining experiment on a vessel?
Not learned
885. One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is __________.
Not learned
886. The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing in which direction(s)?
Not learned
887. What can an oxygen indicator be used to determine?
Not learned
888. Where are panting frames located in the vessel?
Not learned
889. What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
Not learned
890. You are picking up a conscious person that has fallen overboard in one of the vessels motor boats. Recovery is easier in a light breeze if you approach from which direction?
Not learned
891. You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons how should a small craft approach?
Not learned
892. The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.
Not learned
893. When positive stability exists, what does GZ represent?
Not learned
894. If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, which is the most effective extinguishing agent to use?
Not learned
895. What is the preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire?
Not learned
896. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent what from happening?
Not learned
897. Which is the primary element to successfully rescuing a man overboard?
Not learned
898. Which is the primary type of welding employed in shipyards in the construction of cargo vessels?
Not learned
899. Which is the prime function of the bilge keel?
Not learned
900. Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, which device prevents water from entering the hull?
Not learned
901. What is the proper name given to a deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two horizontally protruding horns?
Not learned
902. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment?
Not learned
903. What is the purpose of limber holes in a lifeboat?
Not learned
904. On the all-purpose nozzle, what is the position of the nozzle valve when the handle is all the way forward?
Not learned
905. The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you take which action?
Not learned
906. What is the purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat?
Not learned
907. What is the radiotelephone urgency signal?
Not learned
908. What is the rated capacity of a type B-III CO2 extinguisher?
Not learned
909. If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, which action should you take?
Not learned
910. When is it recommended that seawater be used for drinking?
Not learned
911. To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. What is the name of this plate?
Not learned
912. You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. In which situation will the CO2 be most effective?
Not learned
913. When rendering assistance to personnel in the water a SAR helicopter utilizes a rescue sling for most extractions. In which case would the use of a litter be preferred?
Not learned
914. A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least which diameter?
Not learned
915. In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, which is TRUE when launching a lifeboat?
Not learned
916. The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at which temperature?
Not learned
917. During a SAR helicopter evacuation which of the following describes the proper donning of a rescue sling?
Not learned
918. During a SAR helicopter evolution the rescue sling is the most widely used method of extraction. Which of the following describes the alternate Double Lift Method used to pick up incapacitated persons?
Not learned
919. A SAR helicopter has landed a litter on deck to medivac a patient from your vessel. After ensuring that it has been grounded, what precautionary action should you take prior to loading the patient into the litter?
Not learned
920. The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in which cycles?
Not learned
921. In ship construction, where should the keel scantlings be the greatest thickness?
Not learned
922. The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if which condition exists?
Not learned
923. A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?
Not learned
924. A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel passes the towing line to you, where should you secure the line?
Not learned
925. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. Which action should be taken?
Not learned
926. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
927. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?
Not learned
928. If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", which action should you take?
Not learned
929. Why should storage batteries be charged in a well-ventilated area?
Not learned
930. What do stretchers that are fitted in lifeboats provide?
Not learned
931. What does subtracting GM from KM yield?
Not learned
932. You have taken another vessel in tow. Which is an indicator that the towing speed is too fast?
Not learned
933. On a tankship, who is responsible for the sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters?
Not learned
934. Which term defines the minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form a mixture that ignites and burns?
Not learned
935. Which term is given to the brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler?
Not learned
936. Which term is given to the fittings used to secure a watertight door?
Not learned
937. Which term is used to describe the geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel?
Not learned
938. A thirty-pound plate would be which thickness?
Not learned
939. The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and which other condition?
Not learned
940. A thrust bearing is designed to accomplish which action?
Not learned
941. Transverse stability calculations require the use of which information?
Not learned
942. Which is TRUE concerning drinking salt water?
Not learned
943. Which is TRUE concerning fire hose couplings?
Not learned
944. Which is TRUE concerning a fuel-air mixture below the lower flammable limit?
Not learned
945. Which is TRUE concerning the most serious effect trapped air has on a diesel engine jacket water cooling system?
Not learned
946. Which is TRUE of the lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus?
Not learned
947. Which is TRUE if passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out?
Not learned
948. Which is TRUE of the spray of water in low-velocity fog?
Not learned
949. The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.
Not learned
950. Which type of weld is used to attach stiffeners to a plate?
Not learned
951. Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and which other testing?
Not learned
952. An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is in which location?
Not learned
953. Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to perform which task?
Not learned
954. Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. Which is the FIRST thing to do in the lifeboat?
Not learned
955. When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, how should you activate the signal?
Not learned
956. When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by which signal?
Not learned
957. Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by which method?
Not learned
958. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as which boat number?
Not learned
959. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which of the following?
Not learned
960. Your vessel has grounded and a report must be made to the United States Coast Guard. Which is the required form for this report?
Not learned
961. For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives which information?
Not learned
962. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?
Not learned
963. When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, how will the vessel respond?
Not learned
964. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?
Not learned
965. Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. Which is a requirement of the auxiliary line?
Not learned
966. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. What does this indicate about the vessel?
Not learned
967. A vessel can be termed as either tender or stiff in relation to its rolling period. Which of the following would cause a vessel to be tender?
Not learned
968. If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will accomplish which of the following?
Not learned
969. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds which amount?
Not learned
970. You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. Which action should you take next?
Not learned
971. What is a wobbling tail shaft an indication of?
Not learned
972. A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?
Not learned
973. The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.
Not learned
974. What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?
Not learned
975. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?
Not learned
976. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?
Not learned
977. If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, which is the best action to take?
Not learned
978. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. In illustration D039SA below what fire control plan symbol designates the primary means of escape?
Not learned
979. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. The primary means of escape is blocked by the fire. What fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, designates the secondary means of escape?
Not learned
980. If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.
Not learned
981. You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
982. You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.
Not learned
983. If you must swim through an oil fire, which action should be avoided?
Not learned
984. What is the name given to the strake on each side of the keel?
Not learned
985. Which is the national distress, safety, and calling frequency channel?
Not learned
986. In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.
Not learned
987. Why is it necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire?
Not learned
988. A negative metacentric height __________.
Not learned
989. A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.
Not learned
990. When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.
Not learned
991. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of which item?
Not learned
992. How does the rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiate oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams?
Not learned
993. What would light gray smoke from a diesel engine probably indicate?
Not learned
994. The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is approximately __________.
Not learned
995. What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?
Not learned
996. Normally, which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?
Not learned
997. Why is it desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks?
Not learned
998. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.
Not learned
999. The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.
Not learned
1000. Where would the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker be located?
Not learned
1001. Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.
Not learned
1002. How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Not learned
1003. The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.
Not learned
1004. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, what must the boat be supplied with?
Not learned
1005. If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, how often are free-fall lifeboats required to be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew?
Not learned
1006. How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?
Not learned
1007. Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.
Not learned
1008. Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.
Not learned
1009. One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________.
Not learned
1010. One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.
Not learned
1011. What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?
Not learned
1012. What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?
Not learned
1013. Which one of the following signals is made at night by a lifesaving station to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?
Not learned
1014. One function of a bulwark is to __________.
Not learned
1015. One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________.
Not learned
1016. One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about __________.
Not learned
1017. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.
Not learned
1018. One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without distorting the meaning of your words is by using __________.
Not learned
1019. Which is one of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention?
Not learned
1020. Each open lifeboat carried on a vessel on an international voyage must have __________.
Not learned
1021. In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.
Not learned
1022. To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________.
Not learned
1023. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?
Not learned
1024. When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.
Not learned
1025. You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.
Not learned
1026. When operating gravity davits, the __________.
Not learned
1027. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least which of the following?
Not learned
1028. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST take which action?
Not learned
1029. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.
Not learned
1030. In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?
Not learned
1031. Which organization reviews and approves a vessel's fire control plan?
Not learned
1032. The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.
Not learned
1033. The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.
Not learned
1034. Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.
Not learned
1035. Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause which situation to occur?
Not learned
1036. Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. What is the name given to these strakes?
Not learned
1037. The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.
Not learned
1038. In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red?
Not learned
1039. "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?
Not learned
1040. You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire pump(s)?
Not learned
1041. You are part of a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in the crew lounge. Where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furniture
Not learned
1042. A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.
Not learned
1043. Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. How many life buoys are required for the vessel?
Not learned
1044. If a passenger vessel navigating the Great Lakes is required to carry 8 life buoys, what is the allowable minimum number of these buoys that must have self-igniting lights attached?
Not learned
1045. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage defines which term?
Not learned
1046. What is the period of validity of a De-Rat certificate?
Not learned
1047. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Not learned
1048. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat when land is sighted. Due to a medical emergency, you have made the decision to beach the lifeboat through the surf. Which of the following is of greatest consideration in making this decision?
Not learned
1049. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat and have made the decision to beach your craft through a heavy surf. Which of the following is the recommended procedure for a boat under oars?
Not learned
1050. A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.
Not learned
1051. When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, where should the sea painter be secured?
Not learned
1052. Which piece(s) of equipment represented by the Fire Control Plan symbols in illustration D039SA below, can be found on the exterior of the vessel?
Not learned
1053. You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. Choose the best answer that states the requirement(s) of the regulations?
Not learned
1054. The pivot pin at the base of a sheath-screw boom davit must be __________.
Not learned
1055. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.
Not learned
1056. A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.
Not learned
1057. Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on which class of fires?
Not learned
1058. A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.
Not learned
1059. When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?
Not learned
1060. What power source actuates a solenoid valve?
Not learned
1061. You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?
Not learned
1062. In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with which item?
Not learned
1063. To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should take which action?
Not learned
1064. What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?
Not learned
1065. The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________.
Not learned
1066. What is the primary reason for placing covers over the top of storage batteries?
Not learned
1067. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?
Not learned
1068. What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass?
Not learned
1069. What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?
Not learned
1070. Which term defines the most probable position of the object of a search at any given time?
Not learned
1071. You are proceeding to the area of reported distress. When you arrive at the reported position, the vessel in distress is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?
Not learned
1072. You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1073. While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Not learned
1074. You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in making your vessel more visible to the survivors?
Not learned
1075. You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will make your ship more visible to the survivors?
Not learned
1076. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Not learned
1077. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Not learned
1078. You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1079. In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________.
Not learned
1080. Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________.
Not learned
1081. Which term is used to describe the projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder?
Not learned
1082. A pump room is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pump room atmosphere for combustible gases?
Not learned
1083. What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?
Not learned
1084. What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships?
Not learned
1085. What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?
Not learned
1086. What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?
Not learned
1087. What is the purpose of a striker plate?
Not learned
1088. What is the purpose of the tricing pendants?
Not learned
1089. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor?
Not learned
1090. After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?
Not learned
1091. What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine?
Not learned
1092. What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?
Not learned
1093. Which quantity of fuel is required to be carried in a motor lifeboat?
Not learned
1094. A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.
Not learned
1095. Which is the quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open?
Not learned
1096. In a racetrack turn, to recover a man overboard, the vessel is steadied for the SECOND time after a turn of how many degrees from the original heading?
Not learned
1097. When would a racetrack turn be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a man overboard?
Not learned
1098. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.
Not learned
1099. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by which word?
Not learned
1100. Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?
Not learned
1101. Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?
Not learned
1102. The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.
Not learned
1103. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________.
Not learned
1104. You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan- Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?
Not learned
1105. The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control?
Not learned
1106. Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?
Not learned
1107. Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations)
Not learned
1108. By regulation, how long you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone?
Not learned
1109. The regulations require that inspected vessels on an international voyage, other than small passenger vessels, must carry which of the following distress signals on or near the navigating bridge?
Not learned
1110. Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.
Not learned
1111. The releasing lever of a lifeboat shall be red in color with a placard stating which of the following?
Not learned
1112. To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and __________.
Not learned
1113. What represents poor sanitary procedures?
Not learned
1114. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?
Not learned
1115. What is required to launch a boat stowed in a crescent davit?
Not learned
1116. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?
Not learned
1117. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?
Not learned
1118. What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?
Not learned
1119. Which is a requirement for any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?
Not learned
1120. If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.
Not learned
1121. Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?
Not learned
1122. What is the result of a vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity?
Not learned
1123. The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.
Not learned
1124. To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.
Not learned
1125. Your Ro Ro vessel has just completed discharging the lower decks and is commencing discharging the upper levels. What would it indicate if the vessel were to suddenly develop a list?
Not learned
1126. Routine radio communications should be no more than which duration?
Not learned
1127. A safe fuel system must __________.
Not learned
1128. What is the SAFEST action to take with an accumulation of oily rags?
Not learned
1129. The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when __________.
Not learned
1130. When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.
Not learned
1131. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.
Not learned
1132. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, which presents the greatest danger?
Not learned
1133. Where should the sea painter of a lifeboat be secured?
Not learned
1134. How is the sea painter secured in an open lifeboat?
Not learned
1135. You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 50 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 22 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?
Not learned
1136. A seaman is reported missing in the morning and was last seen after coming off the mid-watch. Which type of turn would you use to return to the track-line steamed during the night?
Not learned
1137. You are on the second deck of the engine room between frames 92 thru105 and the space is filling up with smoke. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, where is the primary means of escape from that area is via a ladderwell?
Not learned
1138. You are on the second deck in the main machinery space. Utilizing illustration D037SA below what emergency equipment, if any, is located at frame 107?
Not learned
1139. You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?
Not learned
1140. As seen in illustration D035SA below, when the remote push button located in the wheelhouse, starboard side, frame 122, is actuated, what is the result?
Not learned
1141. As seen in illustration D039SA below a complete set of spare batteries for a fireman's outfit can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?
Not learned
1142. As seen in illustration D039SA below, a locker with additional breathing apparatuses can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?
Not learned
1143. As seen in illustration D039SA below a locker with additional protective clothing can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?
Not learned
1144. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.
Not learned
1145. The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation?
Not learned
1146. When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the __________.
Not learned
1147. Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?
Not learned
1148. Which is the most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system?
Not learned
1149. The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.
Not learned
1150. The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to which period of time?
Not learned
1151. A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is known as __________.
Not learned
1152. Several merchant ships are arriving at the scene of a distress incident. One of them must assume the duties of the On-Scene Coordinator. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Not learned
1153. What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?
Not learned
1154. Shell plating is _________.
Not learned
1155. Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.
Not learned
1156. You are on a ship that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1157. In ship construction, which is TRUE concerning frame spacing?
Not learned
1158. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and it’s after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight is located at which of the following areas?
Not learned
1159. When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?
Not learned
1160. A ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for which of the following terms?
Not learned
1161. A short ton is a unit of weight consisting of __________.
Not learned
1162. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?
Not learned
1163. What is the signal to guide vessels in distress, indicating, "This is the best place to land"?
Not learned
1164. Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"?
Not learned
1165. What is the signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative"?
Not learned
1166. Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?
Not learned
1167. If the situation arose where it became necessary to tow a disabled vessel, which statement is TRUE concerning the towing line?
Not learned
1168. What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?
Not learned
1169. A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.
Not learned
1170. In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.
Not learned
1171. In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.
Not learned
1172. In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through which point?
Not learned
1173. Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.
Not learned
1174. Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.
Not learned
1175. SOLAS requires which of the following with regard to watertight doors in cargo spaces?
Not learned
1176. SOLAS requires a logbook entry for the operation of watertight door drills. Which of the following lists the frequency that these drills are required to be conducted for passenger vessels?
Not learned
1177. SOLAS requires that passenger vessels make an entry in the log book for all drills and inspections of watertight doors. What other information relevant to the watertight doors is required to be entered?
Not learned
1178. Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?
Not learned
1179. Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.
Not learned
1180. A spanner is a __________.
Not learned
1181. Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?
Not learned
1182. Specific radio frequencies are designated as International Maritime frequencies used for voice distress, safety and hailing. Which of the following is an International Maritime VHF-FM frequency as described previously?
Not learned
1183. What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?
Not learned
1184. Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard?
Not learned
1185. Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.
Not learned
1186. The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have __________.
Not learned
1187. The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.
Not learned
1188. Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and which other force?
Not learned
1189. When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM __________.
Not learned
1190. Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is at which location?
Not learned
1191. Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.
Not learned
1192. Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?
Not learned
1193. Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?
Not learned
1194. Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?
Not learned
1195. Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?
Not learned
1196. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?
Not learned
1197. Which statement about damage control is TRUE?
Not learned
1198. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?
Not learned
1199. Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?
Not learned
1200. Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?
Not learned
1201. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
Not learned
1202. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
Not learned
1203. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
Not learned
1204. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
Not learned
1205. Which statement about free surface is TRUE?
Not learned
1206. What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1207. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1208. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1209. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1210. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?
Not learned
1211. Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?
Not learned
1212. Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?
Not learned
1213. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?
Not learned
1214. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?
Not learned
1215. Which statement is TRUE concerning a fire in a machinery space?
Not learned
1216. Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel?
Not learned
1217. Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?
Not learned
1218. Which statement is TRUE concerning the life buoy on your small passenger vessel? (Length 28 feet)
Not learned
1219. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?
Not learned
1220. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat installations on Great Lakes vessels?
Not learned
1221. Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?
Not learned
1222. Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?
Not learned
1223. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?
Not learned
1224. Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels?
Not learned
1225. Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?
Not learned
1226. Which statement is TRUE about firefighting foam?
Not learned
1227. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
Not learned
1228. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
Not learned
1229. Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE?
Not learned
1230. With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?
Not learned
1231. Which is TRUE of the steering oar in a lifeboat?
Not learned
1232. The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.
Not learned
1233. Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?
Not learned
1234. A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against which class of fires?
Not learned
1235. The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to accomplish which task?
Not learned
1236. When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.
Not learned
1237. The strength of a deck will be increased by adding which item?
Not learned
1238. The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.
Not learned
1239. Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause which to occur?
Not learned
1240. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0015 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
Not learned
1241. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0003 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
Not learned
1242. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST- 0004 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
Not learned
1243. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0015 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? I. Two reels of hoisting wire. Each reel is 8 feet in circumference and 4 feet wide and has 3000 feet of wire. Both reels are stowed on the flat. Wire weighs 1.55 pounds per linear foot. The tare weight of each reel is 500 pounds. II. Eight pallets of case goods stowed singly. Each pallet is 8' L X 4' W X 4' H and weighs 1 long ton. III. 12 steel containers of cement. Each container weighs 1 1/2 tons. Each container is 8' L X 4' W X 4' H. The containers are stowed singly fore and aft. IV. 10 crates of stewards stores. Each crate measures 4' L X 4' W 3' H and weighs 420 pounds. Each crate is stowed on deck.
Not learned
1244. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0018 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
Not learned
1245. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0019 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
Not learned
1246. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0027 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
Not learned
1247. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0030 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
Not learned
1248. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0036 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
Not learned
1249. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0039 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
Not learned
1250. You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances?
Not learned
1251. A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.
Not learned
1252. The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization?
Not learned
1253. Symbol number (51) in illustration D039SA below is found all throughout the ship. What fire control equipment does this symbol represent?
Not learned
1254. Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?
Not learned
1255. A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?
Not learned
1256. A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.
Not learned
1257. A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?
Not learned
1258. You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"?
Not learned
1259. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?
Not learned
1260. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should back out?
Not learned
1261. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately?
Not learned
1262. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
Not learned
1263. Which term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship?
Not learned
1264. The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with which part of the vessel?
Not learned
1265. The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with which areas of the vessel?
Not learned
1266. Which term defines the vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors?
Not learned
1267. Which term is given to the wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading?
Not learned
1268. What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?
Not learned
1269. Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?
Not learned
1270. Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?
Not learned
1271. The term "scantlings" refers to the __________.
Not learned
1272. The term "strake" is used in reference to which item(s)?
Not learned
1273. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?
Not learned
1274. "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?
Not learned
1275. What are the three basic types of engine starters?
Not learned
1276. What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?
Not learned
1277. Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers _________.
Not learned
1278. On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, which action should you take?
Not learned
1279. All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?
Not learned
1280. Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?
Not learned
1281. What is the traditional signal for fire aboard ship?
Not learned
1282. During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. What color will the smoke be?
Not learned
1283. Which is TRUE if you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone?
Not learned
1284. Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.
Not learned
1285. In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Not learned
1286. The tricing pendants should be released __________.
Not learned
1287. You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?
Not learned
1288. What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?
Not learned
1289. Which is TRUE concerning the painter of an inflatable liferaft?
Not learned
1290. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?
Not learned
1291. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. How should you make your approach?
Not learned
1292. When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?
Not learned
1293. Which are the two points that act together to trim a ship?
Not learned
1294. Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.
Not learned
1295. Which type of davit is not considered to be a mechanical davit?
Not learned
1296. On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?
Not learned
1297. Which type of davit requires you to turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side?
Not learned
1298. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
Not learned
1299. Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?
Not learned
1300. Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel's fire fighting arrangement within the fire control plan?
Not learned
1301. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?
Not learned
1302. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?
Not learned
1303. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?
Not learned
1304. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?
Not learned
1305. What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction?
Not learned
1306. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?
Not learned
1307. When do U.S. regulations require your vessel's EPIRB to be tested?
Not learned
1308. If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, which action can you take?
Not learned
1309. You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?
Not learned
1310. You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?
Not learned
1311. You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?
Not learned
1312. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on which of the following channels?
Not learned
1313. While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?
Not learned
1314. Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when __________.
Not learned
1315. Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene of the distress. Under which of the following cases would this NOT be true?
Not learned
1316. When do you use your FCC call sign when transmitting on channel 16?
Not learned
1317. When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.
Not learned
1318. What is used as an indicator of initial stability?
Not learned
1319. What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?
Not learned
1320. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?
Not learned
1321. What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?
Not learned
1322. What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?
Not learned
1323. What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel?
Not learned
1324. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?
Not learned
1325. When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.
Not learned
1326. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.
Not learned
1327. When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when __________.
Not learned
1328. When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.
Not learned
1329. You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter?
Not learned
1330. When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument?
Not learned
1331. You are using a racetrack turn to recover a man overboard. The vessel is first steadied when how many degrees away from the original heading?
Not learned
1332. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.
Not learned
1333. On the illustrated fire control plan, what emergency equipment is located in the scullery
Not learned
1334. You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger, which signal signifies urgency?
Not learned
1335. What is the usual depth of a beam bracket?
Not learned
1336. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?
Not learned
1337. Utilizing illustration D035SA below, the Master has ordered you to pull the remote ventilation shut down, where is it found?
Not learned
1338. Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represent?
Not learned
1339. Utilizing illustration D038SA below a view of a vessel fire control plan, how many spaces are protected by a fixed CO2 extinguishing system?
Not learned
1340. The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and which other item?
Not learned
1341. The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is __________.
Not learned
1342. The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1343. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.
Not learned
1344. Vertical moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.
Not learned
1345. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.
Not learned
1346. Your vessel has a beam of 40 feet, and you observe a still water rolling period of 20 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?
Not learned
1347. Your vessel's has a beam of 60 feet, and you observe a still water rolling period of 25 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?
Not learned
1348. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?
Not learned
1349. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", which of the following is True if there is a failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment?
Not learned
1350. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or which channel?
Not learned
1351. Your vessel is conducting helicopter evacuation operations for an injured crew member. Which of the following statements is true concerning the hoisting line?
Not learned
1352. Your vessel is conducting a "Vessel Grounded Drill". Where is the plan indicating the vessel's watertight boundaries required to be located?
Not learned
1353. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1354. In vessel construction, which is TRUE of the garboard strake?
Not learned
1355. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________.
Not learned
1356. A vessel has been damaged and is taking on water. Where can you find the data that will indicate how much water the vessel can retain and still possess reserve buoyancy?
Not learned
1357. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. How would you preface a message advising other vessels of your situation?
Not learned
1358. Your vessel is discharging containers from the main deck with the ship's cranes. Which of the following must be taken into account when calculating the center of gravity as the containers are discharged?
Not learned
1359. Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed its rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?
Not learned
1360. Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464 feet long, and has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its rolling period to be 21.0 seconds in still water. What is your vessel's approximate GM?
Not learned
1361. Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your vessel's rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?
Not learned
1362. Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
Not learned
1363. Your vessel displaces 479 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.0 feet above the deck and weighs 16 tons. If you load 23 tons of anchor and anchor chain with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG above the deck?
Not learned
1364. Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
Not learned
1365. Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
Not learned
1366. Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
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1367. Your vessel displaces 640 tons. The existing deck cargo has center of gravity of 2.3 feet above the deck and weighs 18 tons. If you load 12 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 21 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
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1368. Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that __________.
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1369. A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal. What follows the signal?
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1370. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested at which time interval?
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1371. A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross- connection valve be closed?
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1372. Your vessel is equipped with mechanical davits. When stowing the lifeboat after a drill while underway, you should __________.
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1373. If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?
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1374. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?
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1375. The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan?
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1376. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT?
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1377. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT?
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1378. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol helps to control the spread of fire?
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1379. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol represents a fire damper?
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1380. A vessel's fire control plan shall be __________.
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1381. A vessel's fire control plan shall do which of the following?
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1382. If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50 feet, what is your vessel's estimated rolling period?
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1383. Your vessel has run aground in waters where the tide is falling. Which of the following is the best action you can take?
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1384. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.
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1385. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?
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1386. When a vessel has grounded which of the following could result from the forces acting upward on the bottom?
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1387. Your vessel has just grounded on the rocks and is flooding. What should be the initial action in this situation?
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1388. Your vessel is involved in Search and Rescue Operations. What is the purpose of the "Situation Report
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1389. Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating?
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1390. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
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1391. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
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1392. A vessel's KG is determined by __________.
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1393. A vessel with a large GM will __________.
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1394. A vessel with a large GM will __________.
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1395. Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Where is Lifeboat No. 2 located?
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1396. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.
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1397. Your vessel measures 114 feet long by 16 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'- 06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
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1398. Your vessel measures 119 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-05" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
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1399. Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?
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1400. Your vessel measures 125 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'- 09" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
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1401. Your vessel measures 126 feet (38.41 meters) long by 21 feet (6.4 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2.44 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
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1402. Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?
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1403. Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
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1404. Your vessel measures 131 feet long by 20 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8'-03" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?
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1405. You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 1.0 foot and a beam of 40 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?
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1406. Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam of 60 feet. What will your average rolling period be?
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1407. You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 4 feet, and a beam of 50 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?
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1408. Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
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1409. When a vessel has positive stability, which term is used to describe the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G?
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1410. A vessel that does not possess any reserve buoyancy will sink. Which of the following is considered a direct measure of reserve buoyancy?
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1411. Your vessel is preparing to enter port. What is the SOLAS requirement for opening of the vessel's cargo hold watertight doors in this situation
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1412. A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________.
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1413. Your vessel has just received a distress message. As the master of the vessel, when are you relieved of your obligation to assist in the search and rescue operations?
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1414. Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?
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1415. Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone?
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1416. Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure?
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1417. Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be taken next?
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1418. Your vessel is securely moored and commencing to load cargo. What effect does loading cargo have on the vessel's vertical center of gravity?
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1419. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?
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1420. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. Both vessels are making the same amount of leeway. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
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1421. A vessel with a small GM will __________.
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1422. A vessel with a small GM will __________.
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1423. Vessels subject to SOLAS are required to keep watertight doors closed while the vessel is navigating. Which of the following is an exception to this requirement?
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1424. Your vessel has suffered a casualty and is in danger of sinking. The Master orders abandon ship but a crew member is missing. You have located the crew member but she is trapped in the Steward's Office. Using the Fire Control Plans in illustration D036SA below, where is the nearest fire axe to gain entry?
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1425. Your vessel has been taking on water but now the breached hole has been repaired. Which effects can the flooding have on your vessel's GM?
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1426. A vessel is taking on water but is not in immediate danger of sinking. What would be the best action to take to increase the vessel's stability?
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1427. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
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1428. VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?
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1429. Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?
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1430. All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode. Which is an example of the operation of a radio in simplex mode?
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1431. Which is the VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel?
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1432. In the view of the bridge deck on the fire control plan shown in illustration D035SA below, what is represented by the symbol on the aft bulkhead, port side of the wheelhouse?
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1433. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?
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1434. How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time?
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1435. While you are on watch, you learn that a crewman has not been seen on board for the past three hours. Which type of turn is best in this man-overboard situation?
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1436. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?
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1437. You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which man overboard turn should NOT be used in this situation?
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1438. Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to __________.
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1439. When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, how long will a 5-gallon can of liquid foam last?
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1440. In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion?
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1441. In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?
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1442. When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?
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1443. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help?
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1444. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that you are all right?
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1445. Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of which extinguisher(s)?
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1446. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?
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1447. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?
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1448. The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.
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1449. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.
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1450. What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?
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1451. Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor __________.
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1452. Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.
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1453. You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal __________.
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1454. If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.
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1455. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?
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1456. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. Which action should you take?
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1457. What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?
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1458. How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?
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1459. What would be a major consequence of allowing the refrigeration system of a low-pressure fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain inoperable?
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1460. What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?
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1461. What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean?
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1462. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of which duration?
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1463. Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.
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1464. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, which is the most important item to check?
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1465. The lever shown in illustration D013SA below is operated when a lifeboat is in which of the following positions?
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1466. What is the purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat?
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1467. Which is the required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage?
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1468. A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward through which point?
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1469. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by which means?
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1470. Great Lakes vessels, using liferafts, must have sufficient liferaft capacity on each side of the vessel to accommodate how many persons onboard?
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1471. Longitudinal moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and which other component?
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1472. The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon which item(s)?
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1473. What is the thickness of a 30.6-pound plate?
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1474. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to which system?
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1475. Which is required to be marked on the vessel's life preservers?
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1476. Which is TRUE concerning a certified lifeboat operator assigned to command a lifeboat?
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1477. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. What is the designation number for the middle boat on the starboard side?
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1478. Generally speaking, how is the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber ignited?
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1479. What does the boat command "Oars" mean?
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1480. Which of the following is the best action to take prior to attempting to land a survival craft through heavy surf?
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1481. As seen in illustration D004SA below, what action must be taken before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle?
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1482. Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are which classification?
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1483. How can the accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries be prevented?
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1484. What is the main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire?
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1485. What is the Ring life buoy requirement on your small passenger vessel that has a length of 28 feet?
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1486. Which is the most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen?
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1487. Which is the principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel?
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1488. Which is the VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency?
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1489. Your stability calculations indicate your vessel has a marginal GM. Which of the following is the most effective way to increase the stability of the vessel?
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1490. Your vessel has just run aground. Which of the following would be one of the first actions you should take in this situation?
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1491. If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty tanks located high on the vessel, may cause which of the following?
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1492. How should the letter "W" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
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1493. How should the number "1" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
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1494. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. She is making more leeway than you. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
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1495. Which is the primary method by which water spray puts out fires?
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1496. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam. You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
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1497. What is the center of flotation of a vessel?
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1498. While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle. What does this signal indicate?
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