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Master (Oceans or Near Coastal (Limited Tonnage: Less Than 500-1600 GRT))
Q121 — Deck Safety
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1. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?
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2. What is the function of wearing rings found on some centrifugal pumps?
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3. What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal pump from entering the shaft bearing?
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4. Which of the following describes the function of the air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?
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5. What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?
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6. Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.
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7. Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless which situation occurs?
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8. The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.
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9. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.
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10. When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?
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11. If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can initially be maintained by activating which of the following units?
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12. Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.
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13. According to the Code of Federal Regulations, which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995?
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14. In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.
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15. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.
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16. Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?
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17. The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by which organization?
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18. AMVER is a system which provides __________.
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19. Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.
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20. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?
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21. What is the signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats?
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22. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.
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23. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
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24. When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.
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25. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?
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26. Which signaling device(s) is/are required on inflatable liferafts?
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27. All of the following are recognized distress signals under the Navigation Rules EXCEPT which signal?
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28. How can you indicate that your vessel is in distress?
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29. Fires are grouped into what categories?
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30. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.
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31. Which defines the "flammable limits" of an atmosphere?
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32. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.
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33. Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.
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34. Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?
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35. Which statement is TRUE to safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system?
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36. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.
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37. Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?
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38. Which term defines the lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition?
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39. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.
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40. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.
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41. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.
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42. The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.
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43. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
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44. Where should muster lists be posted?
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45. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.
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46. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?
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47. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?
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48. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat. In a mild breeze how should the boat approach the person in the water?
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49. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?
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50. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.
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51. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?
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52. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.
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53. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?
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54. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.
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55. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?
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56. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.
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57. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?
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58. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.
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59. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?
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60. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?
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61. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
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62. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.
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63. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?
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64. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?
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65. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.
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66. Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?
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67. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?
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68. Life jackets should be marked with which item?
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69. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.
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70. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, which action should you take?
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71. Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to accomplish which task?
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72. What is the purpose of rigging frapping lines on lifeboat falls?
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73. Which of the following persons may command a lifeboat in ocean service?
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74. Which of the following is NOT a function of the pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat?
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75. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?
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76. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.
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77. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?
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78. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.
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79. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the following colors?
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80. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?
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81. You will find a limit switch on which type of davit?
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82. Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.
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83. After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.
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84. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.
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85. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on which item?
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86. If a life raft should capsize, __________.
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87. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.
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88. Which item is a feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people inside the raft stationary in rough weather?
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89. The canopy of your life raft should __________.
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90. Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?
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91. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?
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92. The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.
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93. Inflatable liferafts are provided with which item?
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94. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.
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95. How should an inflatable liferaft be manually released from its cradle?
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96. An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.
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97. Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?
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98. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.
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99. Which is TRUE concerning a hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft?
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100. Under normal conditions, how is a liferaft released from its cradle?
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101. Where are the lifelines connected to the liferaft?
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102. The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.
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103. To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.
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104. After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.
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105. After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, how is the liferaft inflated?
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106. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?
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107. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.
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108. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.
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109. When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, which task must be done to aid in your rescue?
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110. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which action will aid in your rescue?
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111. Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship which item(s) would you use?
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112. How is the inside light in an inflatable liferaft activated?
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113. You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?
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114. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?
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115. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?
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116. Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?
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117. What is the function of the hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft?
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118. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?
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119. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.
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120. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.
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121. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF which condition exists?
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122. When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should take which action?
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123. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.
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124. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.
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125. A sea anchor is __________.
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126. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using which item(s)?
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127. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.
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128. When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.
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129. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?
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130. Initial stability is indicated by __________.
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131. The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known as the __________.
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132. Which term is used for the horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces?
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133. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.
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134. Which term defines the upward pressure of displaced water of a vessel?
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135. At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.
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136. Initial stability refers to stability __________.
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137. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.
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138. Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel. These points are the center of buoyancy and the __________.
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139. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.
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140. The important initial stability parameter, GM, is which of the following?
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141. The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the __________.
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142. When a vessel is floating upright, which term is used to define the distance from the keel to the metacenter of a vessel?
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143. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.
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144. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
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145. At all angles of inclination, which is the true measure of a vessel's stability?
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146. Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as __________.
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147. The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as __________.
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148. Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
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149. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
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150. Which term defines the difference between the forward and aft drafts?
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151. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.
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152. Which term is given to the difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely in the vessel?
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153. The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
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154. What does reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduce?
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155. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.
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156. For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.
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157. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.
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158. A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.
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159. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.
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160. When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.
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161. If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.
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162. A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.
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163. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.
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164. When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.
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165. When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.
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166. The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.
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167. During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. Which action should you take?
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168. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed?
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169. Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.
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170. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.
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171. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.
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172. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.
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173. A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.
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174. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.
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175. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.
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176. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces which threat?
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177. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.
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178. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.
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179. Which is the best action to take when plugging holes below the waterline for the safety of the vessel?
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180. Which term describes the strengthening of damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel?
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181. In plugging submerged holes; why are rags, wedges, and other materials used in conjunction with plugs?
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182. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.
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183. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?
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184. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?
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185. Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?
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186. As a last resort, what can a tourniquet be used for?
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187. Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear __________.
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188. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?
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189. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?
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190. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?
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191. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?
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192. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
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193. What is the primary purpose of a splint when applied in first aid treatment?
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194. How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture?
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195. Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what action is taken?
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196. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?
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197. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?
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198. After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?
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199. Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.
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200. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?
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201. What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?
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202. Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?
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203. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?
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204. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.
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205. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
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206. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
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207. What should you do before CPR is started?
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208. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?
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209. While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out?
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210. Which is TRUE concerning the vapor pressure of a substance?
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211. Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.
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212. The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.
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213. A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.
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214. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.
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215. Which of the following describes why topside icing, which is usually off-center, decreases vessel stability?
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216. What will cause the free surface effects of a partially full tank on a vessel in motion to increase?
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217. What grade are most crude oils are classified as?
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218. The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.
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219. For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.
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220. Which of the following terms defines the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present?
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221. Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.
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222. You are approaching a ship that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, which action should you take?
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223. For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have __________.
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224. The time required to incline from bow down to stern down and return to bow down again is called __________.
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225. In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.
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226. Which is TRUE of outlets in gasoline fuel lines of your small vessel?
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227. When patching holes in the hull, how can pillows, bedding, and other soft materials be used?
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228. What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?
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229. What is the purpose of a check valve?
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230. Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.
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231. Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.
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232. Why do spaces containing batteries require good ventilation?
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233. You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?
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234. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in which condition?
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235. Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.
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236. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to take which action?
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237. Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?
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238. The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.
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239. Your 550 GT vessel is equipped with a free fall lifeboat. Where should the SART units be stowed to meet SOLAS requirements?
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240. Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for what type of service?
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241. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message should contain which code?
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242. Which is the abandon ship signal?
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243. You have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft with a SART. What signal will indicate to you that a 3 cm radar has interrogated the SART unit?
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244. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. Which action should you take?
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245. You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?
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246. You have abandoned ship and are in a liferaft with several other members of the crew. One person in the liferaft is exhibiting symptoms of hypothermia. Which of the following could you do to aid the victim?
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247. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?
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248. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. Which is one of your FIRST actions that should be taken?
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249. You have abandoned your vessel and are the person in charge of lifeboat No. 2. Which procedure should be followed when landing a boat under oars through a slight surf?
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250. After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?
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251. When abandoning ship in cold waters, what actions can be taken to minimize the effects of entering the water?
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252. When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.
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253. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?
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254. Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving which item?
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255. Aboard ship, which term is given to the vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates?
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256. Aboard a vessel, a common formula which consists of dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields which information?
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257. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
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258. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.
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259. In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.
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260. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.
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261. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?
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262. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?
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263. According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?
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264. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what information that affects your vessel is required to be entered into the radiotelephone log?
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265. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?
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266. Which action will affect the trim of a vessel?
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267. Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?
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268. Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?
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269. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?
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270. Which action must be taken annually concerning inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels?
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271. Which action should you take after sending a false distress alert on VHF?
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272. Which action should be taken once fueling has been completed?
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273. Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?
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274. Which action would you take to get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle?
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275. Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.
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276. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.
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277. What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?
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278. What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?
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279. What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?
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280. What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?
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281. Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?
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282. What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?
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283. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?
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284. With the air supply on, which is TRUE concerning the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat?
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285. An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change course and follow him. You cannot comply because of an emergency on board. Which signal should you make?
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286. If an airplane circles a vessel 3 times, crosses the vessel's course close ahead while rocking the wings, and heads off in a certain direction, what does this indicate?
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287. An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface craft?
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288. An airplane wants a vessel to change course and proceed towards a vessel in distress. The actions of the aircraft to convey this message will NOT include __________.
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289. When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?
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290. Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.
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291. The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on which item?
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292. Which does the AMVER system require?
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293. At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.
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294. At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.
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295. At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.
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296. Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known by which term?
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297. Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel refers to which term?
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298. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is known by which term?
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299. What is another name for the garboard strake?
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300. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoisted. What should you do?
Not learned
301. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do?
Not learned
302. You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action?
Not learned
303. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "J" hoisted. What should you do?
Not learned
304. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do?
Not learned
305. You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do?
Not learned
306. What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?
Not learned
307. With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________.
Not learned
308. Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?
Not learned
309. Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?
Not learned
310. If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you the single letter "Q", what would he be telling you?
Not learned
311. Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?
Not learned
312. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.
Not learned
313. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.
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314. When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?
Not learned
315. You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. How should you get underway?
Not learned
316. The average rolling period of your ship puts it in the category of a "stiff ship". What effect can this condition have on the cargo carried onboard while underway?
Not learned
317. When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.
Not learned
318. What is the basic concept of GMDSS
Not learned
319. In battery charging rooms, where should the exhaust ventilation be provided?
Not learned
320. You are on the beach and want to signal to a small boat in distress that your present location is dangerous and that they should land to the left. How would you indicate this?
Not learned
321. What does the term "beam of a vessel" refer to?
Not learned
322. What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?
Not learned
323. What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when attempting to place an INMARSAT-B call
Not learned
324. What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?
Not learned
325. What is the best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident?
Not learned
326. What is the best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal?
Not learned
327. Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls under which condition?
Not learned
328. Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.
Not learned
329. What does blowing tubes accomplish?
Not learned
330. You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?
Not learned
331. Which command means to complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft?
Not learned
332. The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________.
Not learned
333. Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?
Not learned
334. Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.
Not learned
335. What is a butt welded joint's strength compared to the base metal?
Not learned
336. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be __________.
Not learned
337. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened in which situation?
Not learned
338. To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.
Not learned
339. How is the "call" part of a signal by flashing light made?
Not learned
340. A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of __________.
Not learned
341. You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has answered your call properly. You now send your call sign "DE KLIS". What should he respond with?
Not learned
342. You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". What does this indicate?
Not learned
343. What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?
Not learned
344. How is the Camber in a ship usually measured?
Not learned
345. The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.
Not learned
346. During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. Which is the most prudent action to correct the list?
Not learned
347. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.
Not learned
348. Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be re-inspected no later than __________.
Not learned
349. A carling is used aboard ship to accomplish which function?
Not learned
350. When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of the search units should normally be which of the following?
Not learned
351. CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.
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352. Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT SHOULD NOT?
Not learned
353. Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?
Not learned
354. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty tanks will __________.
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355. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.
Not learned
356. The ceiling is __________.
Not learned
357. Where is the center of buoyancy located on a vessel?
Not learned
358. The center of flotation of a vessel is __________.
Not learned
359. The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.
Not learned
360. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?
Not learned
361. How may the change in trim of a vessel be found?
Not learned
362. The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is __________.
Not learned
363. Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to __________.
Not learned
364. Channel 13 is primarily used for ship-to-ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for which purpose?
Not learned
365. Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?
Not learned
366. Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?
Not learned
367. Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission?
Not learned
368. Which is TRUE concerning a chock?
Not learned
369. When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use which type of extinguisher?
Not learned
370. A class B fire is most successfully fought by which method?
Not learned
371. After clearing the vessel, what is one of the FIRST things you would do in an inflatable liferaft?
Not learned
372. The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel __________.
Not learned
373. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.
Not learned
374. A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.
Not learned
375. How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally identify itself?
Not learned
376. You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a South African station?
Not learned
377. Which describes a cofferdam?
Not learned
378. Which color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares are used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance?
Not learned
379. What color signal flare is sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency?
Not learned
380. What is the color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise?
Not learned
381. The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.
Not learned
382. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.
Not learned
383. How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?
Not learned
384. When in command of a lifeboat under oars, what does the command "Backwater" mean?
Not learned
385. You have been in-command of a lifeboat since abandoning ship three days prior and land has been sighted ahead. Under which circumstances would you attempt beaching your lifeboat through a heavy surf?
Not learned
386. Which is the most common type of davit found on ocean service merchant vessels today?
Not learned
387. You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3?
Not learned
388. You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another vessel's transmission?
Not learned
389. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?
Not learned
390. While communicating with a shore station concerning an injured female, your message should indicate the subject's age is 32. Which code would your message contain?
Not learned
391. Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?
Not learned
392. You have completed stability calculations for your vessel prior to getting underway. Your vessel's GM is small but positive. Which of the following is true?
Not learned
393. A concentration of weight has been shifted inboard to the center line of the vessel. Generally speaking, what effect will this have on the vessel?
Not learned
394. What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port
Not learned
395. Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?
Not learned
396. What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine?
Not learned
397. Under which condition will a SART unit have the greatest transmission potential?
Not learned
398. A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.
Not learned
399. What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second substitute?
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400. What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.
Not learned
401. The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
Not learned
402. The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
Not learned
403. What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?
Not learned
404. What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?
Not learned
405. What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?
Not learned
406. Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to which of the following choices?
Not learned
407. A covered liferaft has very limited maneuverability. Which of the following is True concerning the beaching of a liferaft in a rough surf?
Not learned
408. If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________.
Not learned
409. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
Not learned
410. A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which code should your message contain?
Not learned
411. When does a cylinder in a two-cycle engine experience combustion?
Not learned
412. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should __________.
Not learned
413. The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________.
Not learned
414. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?
Not learned
415. The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________.
Not learned
416. Which davit type may be operated by one person?
Not learned
417. By day, what does the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicate?
Not learned
418. By day, what is the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land"?
Not learned
419. Deballasting a double bottom has what effect on KG?
Not learned
420. The decision has been made to make landfall through a slight surf in an oar-propelled lifeboat. How should the sea anchor be utilized?
Not learned
421. A deck beam does NOT __________.
Not learned
422. The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist which stresses?
Not learned
423. Why are deck beams cambered on a vessel?
Not learned
424. A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?
Not learned
425. What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?
Not learned
426. How deeply should the sternum be depressed when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR?
Not learned
427. With regards to GMDSS, define the acronym MSI.
Not learned
428. Which defines the function of a spark arrestor?
Not learned
429. Which defines the "margin plate"?
Not learned
430. Which defines reserve buoyancy?
Not learned
431. What is the definition of transverse metacenter?
Not learned
432. Which describes the floors aboard a ship?
Not learned
433. Which describes the term intact buoyancy?
Not learned
434. What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or deck plating?
Not learned
435. If you desire to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not functioning, what signal would you send?
Not learned
436. How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?
Not learned
437. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.
Not learned
438. How are all diesel engines classified?
Not learned
439. Why are diesel engines considered safer than gasoline engines?
Not learned
440. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.
Not learned
441. Which describes the difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity of a vessel?
Not learned
442. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.
Not learned
443. You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
444. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.
Not learned
445. When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.
Not learned
446. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.
Not learned
447. At what distance can a SART be detected by aircraft, equipped with a 3cm radar, flying at approximately 3,000 feet?
Not learned
448. The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main deck is called __________.
Not learned
449. A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________.
Not learned
450. How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?
Not learned
451. The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. Which is TRUE concerning the information?
Not learned
452. Distress signals may be __________.
Not learned
453. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?
Not learned
454. Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?
Not learned
455. Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?
Not learned
456. You are downbound in an ice filled channel. An icebreaker is meeting you and sounds two short, one prolonged, and two short blasts on the whistle. What action should you take?
Not learned
457. A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance. How often is this drill required to be conducted?
Not learned
458. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?
Not learned
459. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, which is the best way to haul it back aboard?
Not learned
460. The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.
Not learned
461. What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine that is at normal operating temperature?
Not learned
462. Which has the MOST effect on the range of a SSB transmission?
Not learned
463. What is the effect of spreading oil on the open sea?
Not learned
464. Why should all electrical appliances aboard a vessel be grounded and ground fault protected?
Not learned
465. The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the __________.
Not learned
466. If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?
Not learned
467. After an engine is started which is the best action(s) to take?
Not learned
468. To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?
Not learned
469. Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.
Not learned
470. What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?
Not learned
471. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?
Not learned
472. When should an EPIRB be turned off in an actual distress situation?
Not learned
473. Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?
Not learned
474. Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?
Not learned
475. On every vessel, where must distress signals be stowed?
Not learned
476. Who has the exclusive use of the radiotelephone as stated in the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?
Not learned
477. The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.
Not learned
478. What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?
Not learned
479. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?
Not learned
480. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?
Not learned
481. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?
Not learned
482. Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?
Not learned
483. As an extinguishing agent, foam _________.
Not learned
484. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?
Not learned
485. What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine?
Not learned
486. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?
Not learned
487. Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in which of the following?
Not learned
488. The falls on gravity davits are __________.
Not learned
489. What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?
Not learned
490. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
Not learned
491. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then take which action?
Not learned
492. You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Why may the stability of the vessel be reduced?
Not learned
493. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.
Not learned
494. To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should take which action?
Not learned
495. A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
496. A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?
Not learned
497. A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.
Not learned
498. When should a fire be ventilated?
Not learned
499. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.
Not learned
500. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to which personnel?
Not learned
501. What does first aid mean?
Not learned
502. The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?
Not learned
503. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?
Not learned
504. You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?
Not learned
505. The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2 followed by what?
Not learned
506. What flag signal would you hoist if you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if it had a doctor on board?
Not learned
507. When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.
Not learned
508. When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?
Not learned
509. For a floating vessel, which item is the result of subtracting KG from KM?
Not learned
510. The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by which item?
Not learned
511. Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?
Not learned
512. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
Not learned
513. Which of the following actions should be taken if you accidently test a 406 MHz EPIRB in transmit mode?
Not learned
514. Which of the following best defines the term "chock"?
Not learned
515. Which of the following is considered the normal operational range from a SART unit to a surface vessel?
Not learned
516. Which of the following defines the difference between the free-floating displacement and the KB of a grounded vessel?
Not learned
517. Which of the following defines "Rolling Period"?
Not learned
518. Which of the following describes the function of a sea anchor when utilized as a tool for beaching a lifeboat through surf?
Not learned
519. Which of the following describes the inspection and testing requirements of a SART?
Not learned
520. Which of the following describes the requirement for the testing of an EPIRB?
Not learned
521. Which of the following describes a SART?
Not learned
522. Which of the following formulas is an acceptable method to calculate the vertical shift of the vessel's center of gravity?
Not learned
523. Which of the following grounding scenarios would have the least damaging effect on vessel stability?
Not learned
524. Which of the following is one of the most important safety procedures that should be adhered to prior to starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat?
Not learned
525. Which of the following organizations operate the AMVER system?
Not learned
526. Which of the following is part of the annual SOLAS required test on an EPIRB?
Not learned
527. Which of the following is part of a required monthly EPIRB inspection?
Not learned
528. Which of the following penalties can be imposed for a violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?
Not learned
529. Which of the following is the proper operating sequence of a SART?
Not learned
530. Which of the following is a requirement if your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate?
Not learned
531. Which of the following is a requirement of the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat?
Not learned
532. Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
Not learned
533. Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
Not learned
534. Which of the following is True if your radiotelephone fails while underway?
Not learned
535. The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.
Not learned
536. In all forms of signaling, what is the waiting signal?
Not learned
537. Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?
Not learned
538. The forward draft of your ship is 27'-11" and the after draft is 29'-03". The draft amidships is 28'-05". Which is TRUE of your vessel?
Not learned
539. Four-cycle diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or which other means?
Not learned
540. Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.
Not learned
541. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.
Not learned
542. The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with the increase of which item?
Not learned
543. Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.
Not learned
544. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks accomplish which task?
Not learned
545. What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications?
Not learned
546. Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?
Not learned
547. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining which minimal speed if it is not towing other survival craft?
Not learned
548. What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?
Not learned
549. What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels
Not learned
550. What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?
Not learned
551. The garboard strake is the __________.
Not learned
552. If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.
Not learned
553. In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?
Not learned
554. Which are general requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log?
Not learned
555. The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the __________.
Not learned
556. For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.
Not learned
557. Why can the vessel's GM not be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination?
Not learned
558. Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?
Not learned
559. For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port
Not learned
560. Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship
Not learned
561. Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?
Not learned
562. What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?
Not learned
563. If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?
Not learned
564. When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.
Not learned
565. Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?
Not learned
566. For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?
Not learned
567. The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.
Not learned
568. Where are the grab rails of a metal lifeboat normally located?
Not learned
569. Great Lakes cargo vessels, having a liferaft stowed more than 100 meters from the bow or stern, must have at least how many liferafts?
Not learned
570. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.
Not learned
571. What does the gross tonnage of a vessel indicate?
Not learned
572. The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light?
Not learned
573. Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude 73° 25' North"?
Not learned
574. Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109° 34' West?
Not learned
575. Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean time 11:35 pm?
Not learned
576. The half-breadth plan is __________.
Not learned
577. You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?
Not learned
578. What will happen if cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck on the vessel?
Not learned
579. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
Not learned
580. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. What does this signal mean?
Not learned
581. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. What does this indicate?
Not learned
582. Heave is motion along which axis?
Not learned
583. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?
Not learned
584. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.
Not learned
585. When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is referred to by which term?
Not learned
586. Why is the height of a VHF radio antenna more important than the power output wattage of the radio?
Not learned
587. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?
Not learned
588. The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?
Not learned
589. The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.
Not learned
590. Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known by which term?
Not learned
591. A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.
Not learned
592. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?
Not learned
593. If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what code should your message contain?
Not learned
594. In illustration D001SA below, which item represents the righting arm?
Not learned
595. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the center of gravity?
Not learned
596. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the metacentric height?
Not learned
597. In illustration D008SA below, what type of davits are displayed?
Not learned
598. In illustration D011SA below, what does the item labeled number (1) operate?
Not learned
599. In illustration D012SA below, what is the mechanism that will release the tricing pendant?
Not learned
600. In illustration D012SA below, what will be released when pulling on line number 5?
Not learned
601. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags?
Not learned
602. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external lifelines?
Not learned
603. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external recognition light, which can be seem up to two miles?
Not learned
604. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the floating sheath knife?
Not learned
605. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the sea anchor?
Not learned
606. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the towing connection?
Not learned
607. In illustration D014SA below, which item is the righting strap?
Not learned
608. In illustration D014SA below, what number is the sea painter?
Not learned
609. In illustration D014SA below, where would you find the knife?
Not learned
610. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the hydrostatic release?
Not learned
611. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the weak link?
Not learned
612. In the illustration, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to which of the following
Not learned
613. In illustration D016SA below, what number indicates the frapping line?
Not learned
614. In illustration D033DG below, what is the area indicated by the letter G is known as?
Not learned
615. In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D?
Not learned
616. In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate?
Not learned
617. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt?
Not learned
618. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard strake?
Not learned
619. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal?
Not learned
620. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a seam?
Not learned
621. In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done?
Not learned
622. In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the letter N known as?
Not learned
623. In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known as?
Not learned
624. In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter J known as?
Not learned
625. In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating indicated by letter H known as?
Not learned
626. In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which letter?
Not learned
627. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter F?
Not learned
628. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter K?
Not learned
629. In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor?
Not learned
630. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter L?
Not learned
631. In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N known as?
Not learned
632. In illustration D041DG below, which is the symbol for the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars?
Not learned
633. An immersion suit must be equipped with which item(s)?
Not learned
634. What is MOST important when administering artificial respiration?
Not learned
635. What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?
Not learned
636. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?
Not learned
637. The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.
Not learned
638. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.
Not learned
639. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.
Not learned
640. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to take which action?
Not learned
641. The improper stowage of cargo has caused vessels to have a negative GM. How will a ship in this condition handle in the seaway?
Not learned
642. Which will improve stability?
Not learned
643. When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is __________.
Not learned
644. To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could take which action?
Not learned
645. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?
Not learned
646. If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?
Not learned
647. An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What should occur after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?
Not learned
648. When must an inflatable liferaft that has been repacked be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility?
Not learned
649. Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.
Not learned
650. Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry a minimum capacity of how many persons?
Not learned
651. After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.
Not learned
652. When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.
Not learned
653. Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.
Not learned
654. The "inner bottom" is the __________.
Not learned
655. What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station using flashing light?
Not learned
656. In the International Code of Signals, what is the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance?
Not learned
657. What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light?
Not learned
658. In the International Code of signals, what does a group of three letters indicates?
Not learned
659. What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?
Not learned
660. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.
Not learned
661. Who issues the regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?
Not learned
662. Who issues a ship's radiotelephone station license?
Not learned
663. Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?
Not learned
664. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?
Not learned
665. Jettisoning weight from topside __________.
Not learned
666. The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.
Not learned
667. Which term is given to the joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side?
Not learned
668. Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.
Not learned
669. The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the __________.
Not learned
670. Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET?
Not learned
671. If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?
Not learned
672. Landing a lifeboat through surf should only be done if absolutely necessary. What should be done with the lifeboat rudder if this type of landing is unavoidable?
Not learned
673. You are landing an oar propelled lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward). Which is the recommended procedure to follow?
Not learned
674. You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances which is TRUE?
Not learned
675. How should latitude 51° 48.7' S be written when preparing an AMVER report?
Not learned
676. How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report?
Not learned
677. To launch a liferaft by hand, you should take which actions?
Not learned
678. In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?
Not learned
679. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.
Not learned
680. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?
Not learned
681. When launching a lifeboat, how should the tricing pennants be released?
Not learned
682. When launching an open lifeboat by falls, which is TRUE concerning the boathooks?
Not learned
683. The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into which of the following?
Not learned
684. Which is TRUE concerning the length of the steering oar in a lifeboat?
Not learned
685. How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Not learned
686. What letter is a signal indicating zone time preceded with?
Not learned
687. Your lifeboat has been adrift for several days when land is sighted. Which procedure should you use to survey a potential site to beach your lifeboat?
Not learned
688. On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, what does turning the releasing lever release?
Not learned
689. Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept?
Not learned
690. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?
Not learned
691. How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
Not learned
692. If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?
Not learned
693. When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.
Not learned
694. Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include which of the following?
Not learned
695. Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place to land"?
Not learned
696. What does the lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a white light or white flare mean?
Not learned
697. What is the lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
Not learned
698. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
Not learned
699. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
Not learned
700. How do the lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate?
Not learned
701. Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.
Not learned
702. "Limber" is a term associated with which item?
Not learned
703. What is the function of the lifeboat davit limit switches?
Not learned
704. Limit switches are used on which davits?
Not learned
705. Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.
Not learned
706. Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.
Not learned
707. Loading cargo above the vessel's center of gravity will increase the vessel's vertical center of gravity. How will this affect the vessel?
Not learned
708. If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.
Not learned
709. How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee?
Not learned
710. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they relate to a distress situation or disaster?
Not learned
711. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?
Not learned
712. How long are radio station logs involving communications during a disaster required to be kept by the station licensee?
Not learned
713. A long ton is __________.
Not learned
714. How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?
Not learned
715. When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.
Not learned
716. When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be initially pulled into the embarkation deck by which item?
Not learned
717. When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.
Not learned
718. To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, which should be used?
Not learned
719. When should the lubricating oil be changed on a heavy-duty diesel engine?
Not learned
720. Before any machinery is put in operation, you should take which action FIRST?
Not learned
721. The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.
Not learned
722. When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be __________.
Not learned
723. Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.
Not learned
724. Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?
Not learned
725. If you make an error while signaling by flashing light what action should you take?
Not learned
726. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.
Not learned
727. You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.
Not learned
728. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
Not learned
729. When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?
Not learned
730. How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?
Not learned
731. How many ring life buoys should a 700-foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?
Not learned
732. Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.
Not learned
733. How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?
Not learned
734. All marine low-speed diesels are of what design?
Not learned
735. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.
Not learned
736. Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?
Not learned
737. Which term is given to the maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel?
Not learned
738. What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?
Not learned
739. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.
Not learned
740. What may the firing of a red star signal mean?
Not learned
741. What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"?
Not learned
742. What is the meaning of the signal DX RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?
Not learned
743. What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?
Not learned
744. What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?
Not learned
745. What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?
Not learned
746. What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the International code of Signals?
Not learned
747. What is the meaning of the signal VJ 8 when sent by the International Code of Signals?
Not learned
748. What is meant by "CES"
Not learned
749. What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?
Not learned
750. What is meant by the term "radio silence"
Not learned
751. Which is TRUE of the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engines?
Not learned
752. Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium?
Not learned
753. Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?
Not learned
754. Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.
Not learned
755. A message by flashing light consists of four elements, including the call, the identity, the text, and what fourth element?
Not learned
756. A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?
Not learned
757. In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender?
Not learned
758. How should a message warning of a tropical storm be sent?
Not learned
759. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.
Not learned
760. What is Metacentric height a measure of?
Not learned
761. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.
Not learned
762. If the metacentric height is small, which is TRUE of the vessel?
Not learned
763. What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Operator
Not learned
764. What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?
Not learned
765. What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?
Not learned
766. What is the minimum operating capacity required for VHF Survival Craft Transceiver batteries?
Not learned
767. What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?
Not learned
768. What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
Not learned
769. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?
Not learned
770. You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?
Not learned
771. According to the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds which percentage?
Not learned
772. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, where does the air flow?
Not learned
773. Which describes a Kort nozzle as used on a vessel?
Not learned
774. In an emergency, which can directly control the electro-hydraulic steering units on the vessel?
Not learned
775. How are fusible link fire dampers operated?
Not learned
776. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, what will be the upright equilibrium?
Not learned
777. When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up to which position?
Not learned
778. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter I?
Not learned
779. What is indicated by the signal letter R followed by one or more numbers?
Not learned
780. Which item(s) is/are a 2,000 GT tankship required to carry?
Not learned
781. Which item are the terms "pintle" and "gudgeon" associated with?
Not learned
782. All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at which time interval?
Not learned
783. What is the lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here is highly dangerous"?
Not learned
784. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain which items?
Not learned
785. The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered. Which time interval is this action required?
Not learned
786. When must the Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, be sent?
Not learned
787. You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a rectangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores be located on the bulkhead?
Not learned
788. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead be located?
Not learned
789. What is the name given to the bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat?
Not learned
790. Which name is given to the frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a vessel?
Not learned
791. What is the name given to the lines that are passed around the falls to hold the boat and prevent it from swinging violently?
Not learned
792. What name is given to the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains?
Not learned
793. Which is the normal tendency for a loaded tanker?
Not learned
794. Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.
Not learned
795. Normally, before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine which information about the water source?
Not learned
796. Normally, your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. How many sanitary inspections are required to be conducted during the voyage?
Not learned
797. Which officer is responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department?
Not learned
798. What is one of the main purposes of the inclining experiment on a vessel?
Not learned
799. One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is __________.
Not learned
800. Where are panting frames located in the vessel?
Not learned
801. What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
Not learned
802. You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons how should a small craft approach?
Not learned
803. The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.
Not learned
804. When positive stability exists, what does GZ represent?
Not learned
805. What is the preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire?
Not learned
806. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent what from happening?
Not learned
807. Which is the primary element to successfully rescuing a man overboard?
Not learned
808. What is the primary equipment for receiving Marine Safety Information (MSI) messages?
Not learned
809. Which is the primary type of welding employed in shipyards in the construction of cargo vessels?
Not learned
810. What is the primary use of antiseptics?
Not learned
811. Which is the prime function of the bilge keel?
Not learned
812. Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, which device prevents water from entering the hull?
Not learned
813. What is the proper name given to a deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two horizontally protruding horns?
Not learned
814. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment?
Not learned
815. What is the purpose of limber holes in a lifeboat?
Not learned
816. The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you take which action?
Not learned
817. What is the purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat?
Not learned
818. What is the radiotelephone urgency signal?
Not learned
819. What is the rated capacity of a type B-III CO2 extinguisher?
Not learned
820. If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, what would it be referring to?
Not learned
821. If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, which action should you take?
Not learned
822. When is it recommended that seawater be used for drinking?
Not learned
823. To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. What is the name of this plate?
Not learned
824. Which reference should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?
Not learned
825. In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, which is TRUE when launching a lifeboat?
Not learned
826. The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in which cycles?
Not learned
827. You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft then flies over your position on a straight course and level altitude. What should you do?
Not learned
828. The shearing stresses on a ship's structure are usually greatest at which area?
Not learned
829. In ship construction, where should the keel scantlings be the greatest thickness?
Not learned
830. The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if which condition exists?
Not learned
831. A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?
Not learned
832. A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel passes the towing line to you, where should you secure the line?
Not learned
833. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
834. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?
Not learned
835. If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", which action should you take?
Not learned
836. What do stretchers that are fitted in lifeboats provide?
Not learned
837. What does subtracting GM from KM yield?
Not learned
838. You have taken another vessel in tow. Which is an indicator that the towing speed is too fast?
Not learned
839. On a tankship, who is responsible for the sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters?
Not learned
840. Which term defines the horizontal fore-and-aft movement of a vessel?
Not learned
841. Which term defines the minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form a mixture that ignites and burns?
Not learned
842. Which term defines the volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline?
Not learned
843. Which term describes the time required to incline the vessel from port to starboard and back to port again?
Not learned
844. Which term is given to the brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler?
Not learned
845. Which term is given to the fittings used to secure a watertight door?
Not learned
846. Which is the term given to the stability which remains after a compartment is flooded?
Not learned
847. Which term is used to describe the geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel?
Not learned
848. Which term is used to describe the horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel?
Not learned
849. Which term is used to describe the point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vessel construction?
Not learned
850. A thirty-pound plate would be which thickness?
Not learned
851. The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and which other condition?
Not learned
852. A thrust bearing is designed to accomplish which action?
Not learned
853. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?
Not learned
854. Transverse stability calculations require the use of which information?
Not learned
855. Which is TRUE concerning drinking salt water?
Not learned
856. Which is TRUE concerning a fuel-air mixture below the lower flammable limit?
Not learned
857. Which is TRUE concerning the most serious effect trapped air has on a diesel engine jacket water cooling system?
Not learned
858. Which is TRUE if passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out?
Not learned
859. Which is TRUE of the vessel's Sheer Plan?
Not learned
860. The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.
Not learned
861. What type of messages should the "urgent" priority be used for?
Not learned
862. Which type of weld is used to attach stiffeners to a plate?
Not learned
863. Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and which other testing?
Not learned
864. An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is in which location?
Not learned
865. Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to perform which task?
Not learned
866. Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. Which is the FIRST thing to do in the lifeboat?
Not learned
867. When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, how should you activate the signal?
Not learned
868. When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by which signal?
Not learned
869. Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by which method?
Not learned
870. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known by which term?
Not learned
871. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as which boat number?
Not learned
872. A vessel's bottom will be subjected to tension when weight is concentrated in which location(s)?
Not learned
873. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which of the following?
Not learned
874. Your vessel has grounded and a report must be made to the United States Coast Guard. Which is the required form for this report?
Not learned
875. For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives which information?
Not learned
876. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?
Not learned
877. When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, how will the vessel respond?
Not learned
878. Your vessel is listing because of a negative GM. To lower G below M, which action should you take?
Not learned
879. Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. Which is TRUE of your vessel?
Not learned
880. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?
Not learned
881. Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. Which is a requirement of the auxiliary line?
Not learned
882. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. What does this indicate about the vessel?
Not learned
883. When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress?
Not learned
884. A vessel can be termed as either tender or stiff in relation to its rolling period. Which of the following would cause a vessel to be tender?
Not learned
885. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds which amount?
Not learned
886. What is a wobbling tail shaft an indication of?
Not learned
887. Where is the molded depth measured from on a vessel?
Not learned
888. A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?
Not learned
889. The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.
Not learned
890. A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its __________.
Not learned
891. What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?
Not learned
892. What is NOT a motion of the vessel?
Not learned
893. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?
Not learned
894. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?
Not learned
895. If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, which is the best action to take?
Not learned
896. If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.
Not learned
897. You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.
Not learned
898. If you must swim through an oil fire, which action should be avoided?
Not learned
899. What is the name given to the strake on each side of the keel?
Not learned
900. Which is the national distress, safety, and calling frequency channel?
Not learned
901. In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.
Not learned
902. A negative metacentric height __________.
Not learned
903. A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.
Not learned
904. A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.
Not learned
905. How does the rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiate oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams?
Not learned
906. What would light gray smoke from a diesel engine probably indicate?
Not learned
907. What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?
Not learned
908. Normally, which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?
Not learned
909. Why is it desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks?
Not learned
910. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.
Not learned
911. The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.
Not learned
912. Where would the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker be located?
Not learned
913. Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.
Not learned
914. How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Not learned
915. The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.
Not learned
916. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, what must the boat be supplied with?
Not learned
917. If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, how often are free-fall lifeboats required to be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew?
Not learned
918. You are the officer in charge of a navigational watch, what signal would indicate your 3 cm radar has interrogated a SART unit?
Not learned
919. How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?
Not learned
920. How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?
Not learned
921. How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?
Not learned
922. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain?
Not learned
923. Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.
Not learned
924. What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?
Not learned
925. What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?
Not learned
926. Which one of the following signals is made at night by a lifesaving station to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?
Not learned
927. One function of a bulwark is to __________.
Not learned
928. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.
Not learned
929. One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without distorting the meaning of your words is by using __________.
Not learned
930. In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.
Not learned
931. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?
Not learned
932. When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.
Not learned
933. While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be in the preamble of a radio telegram asking for medical advice from a Greek station?
Not learned
934. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as which item?
Not learned
935. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.
Not learned
936. When operating gravity davits, the __________.
Not learned
937. While operating off Panama a seaman is injured. What indicator should be included in the preamble of a radio telegram requesting medical advice from a Panamanian station?
Not learned
938. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least which of the following?
Not learned
939. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST take which action?
Not learned
940. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.
Not learned
941. In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?
Not learned
942. The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.
Not learned
943. The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.
Not learned
944. Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. What is the name given to these strakes?
Not learned
945. The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.
Not learned
946. In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red?
Not learned
947. "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?
Not learned
948. A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.
Not learned
949. Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. How many life buoys are required for the vessel?
Not learned
950. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage defines which term?
Not learned
951. What is the period of validity of a De-Rat certificate?
Not learned
952. What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections?
Not learned
953. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Not learned
954. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat when land is sighted. Due to a medical emergency, you have made the decision to beach the lifeboat through the surf. Which of the following is of greatest consideration in making this decision?
Not learned
955. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat and have made the decision to beach your craft through a heavy surf. Which of the following is the recommended procedure for a boat under oars?
Not learned
956. A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.
Not learned
957. What should a person do after being revived by artificial respiration?
Not learned
958. How should a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries be treated?
Not learned
959. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given syrup of ipecac?
Not learned
960. When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, where should the sea painter be secured?
Not learned
961. Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?
Not learned
962. You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. Choose the best answer that states the requirement(s) of the regulations?
Not learned
963. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.
Not learned
964. While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea?
Not learned
965. Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on which class of fires?
Not learned
966. If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"?
Not learned
967. What power source actuates a solenoid valve?
Not learned
968. You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?
Not learned
969. In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with which item?
Not learned
970. To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should take which action?
Not learned
971. What prevents an inflated life raft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?
Not learned
972. What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?
Not learned
973. What is the primary reason for placing covers over the top of storage batteries?
Not learned
974. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?
Not learned
975. What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass?
Not learned
976. What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?
Not learned
977. You are proceeding to the area of reported distress. When you arrive at the reported position, the vessel in distress is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?
Not learned
978. While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Not learned
979. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Not learned
980. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Not learned
981. You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
982. Which term is used to describe the projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder?
Not learned
983. What does proper GMDSS watchkeeping include?
Not learned
984. What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?
Not learned
985. What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?
Not learned
986. What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?
Not learned
987. What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?
Not learned
988. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?
Not learned
989. What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?
Not learned
990. What is the purpose of sheer in the construction of the vessel?
Not learned
991. What is the purpose of a striker plate?
Not learned
992. For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable, how frequently should rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew?
Not learned
993. What is the purpose of the tricing pendants?
Not learned
994. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor?
Not learned
995. After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?
Not learned
996. What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine?
Not learned
997. What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?
Not learned
998. Which quantity of fuel is required to be carried in a motor lifeboat?
Not learned
999. A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.
Not learned
1000. Which is the quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open?
Not learned
1001. How is "radio silence" imposed?
Not learned
1002. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.
Not learned
1003. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by which word?
Not learned
1004. What is the radiotelephone safety signal?
Not learned
1005. Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?
Not learned
1006. Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?
Not learned
1007. The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.
Not learned
1008. You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan- Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?
Not learned
1009. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. What is the meaning of the message?
Not learned
1010. After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. may ask you to switch to which SSB frequency?
Not learned
1011. How should a receiving station indicate that it cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist?
Not learned
1012. The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control?
Not learned
1013. How can you recognize the necessity for administering artificial respiration?
Not learned
1014. Regardless of the method it is sent, what does he signal K4 mean?
Not learned
1015. Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations)
Not learned
1016. By regulation, how long you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone?
Not learned
1017. Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.
Not learned
1018. The releasing lever of a lifeboat shall be red in color with a placard stating which of the following?
Not learned
1019. What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?
Not learned
1020. What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?
Not learned
1021. What represents poor sanitary procedures?
Not learned
1022. What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?
Not learned
1023. What is required during an annual FCC inspection
Not learned
1024. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?
Not learned
1025. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?
Not learned
1026. What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?
Not learned
1027. Which is a requirement for any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?
Not learned
1028. How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?
Not learned
1029. Reserve buoyancy is __________.
Not learned
1030. Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress communications have ceased?
Not learned
1031. If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.
Not learned
1032. What is the result of multiplying a weight by a distance?
Not learned
1033. Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?
Not learned
1034. The result of two forces acting in opposite directions and along parallel lines, is an example of what type of stress?
Not learned
1035. What is the result of a vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity?
Not learned
1036. The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.
Not learned
1037. To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.
Not learned
1038. Your Ro Ro vessel has just completed discharging the lower decks and is commencing discharging the upper levels. What would it indicate if the vessel were to suddenly develop a list?
Not learned
1039. When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed
Not learned
1040. Routine radio communications should be no more than which duration?
Not learned
1041. You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take First to correct the situation?
Not learned
1042. A safe fuel system must __________.
Not learned
1043. SART units are designed to be manually carried to the survival craft. Which of the following is another characteristic of a SART?
Not learned
1044. A SART unit is used for which of the following?
Not learned
1045. How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?
Not learned
1046. How can a SART's effective range be maximized?
Not learned
1047. Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?
Not learned
1048. When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.
Not learned
1049. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.
Not learned
1050. At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do?
Not learned
1051. In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?
Not learned
1052. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, which presents the greatest danger?
Not learned
1053. At sea, how must all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) be proven operational
Not learned
1054. Where should the sea painter of a lifeboat be secured?
Not learned
1055. How is the sea painter secured in an open lifeboat?
Not learned
1056. You are at sea and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter Eight. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1057. You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?
Not learned
1058. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.
Not learned
1059. The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation?
Not learned
1060. If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you conveying?
Not learned
1061. When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.
Not learned
1062. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL. What is the meaning of the message?
Not learned
1063. When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the __________.
Not learned
1064. If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by __________.
Not learned
1065. Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?
Not learned
1066. Which is the most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system?
Not learned
1067. The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.
Not learned
1068. Which is the most serious type of fracture?
Not learned
1069. The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to which period of time?
Not learned
1070. A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is known as __________.
Not learned
1071. Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to communicate with the vessel bearing 046° T from you but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist should NOT be used to establish communications?
Not learned
1072. What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?
Not learned
1073. Shell plating is _________.
Not learned
1074. Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.
Not learned
1075. Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. What would be the virtual rise in the center of gravity?
Not learned
1076. You are on a ship that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1077. In ship construction, which is TRUE concerning frame spacing?
Not learned
1078. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 23'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". Using this information, where is the concentration of weight on the vessel?
Not learned
1079. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and it’s after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight is located at which of the following areas?
Not learned
1080. A ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for which of the following terms?
Not learned
1081. The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the __________.
Not learned
1082. Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?
Not learned
1083. Where do signs of racking stresses generally appear on the vessel?
Not learned
1084. The signal T 0735 means __________.
Not learned
1085. What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?
Not learned
1086. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?
Not learned
1087. The signal has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following describes the action to be taken with the EPIRB?
Not learned
1088. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question?
Not learned
1089. What is the signal to guide vessels in distress, indicating, "This is the best place to land"?
Not learned
1090. Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT be given by which form of communication?
Not learned
1091. What does the signal L1210 indicate?
Not learned
1092. Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"?
Not learned
1093. Which signal should be used to send the group "Distance 750 nautical miles"?
Not learned
1094. What is the signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative"?
Not learned
1095. What does the signal "AS", when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals mean?
Not learned
1096. Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?
Not learned
1097. When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, which is TRUE?
Not learned
1098. When signaling by flag hoist, what signal indicates completion of the communication?
Not learned
1099. You are signaling by flag hoist using the International Code of Signals. You wish to send the signals CL and IW and have them read in that order. What would ensure this?
Not learned
1100. When signaling by flashing light, how should you acknowledge a correctly received repetition of a signal?
Not learned
1101. When signaling by flashing light, what should the signal "C" should be used to indicate?
Not learned
1102. In signaling, when sent with a complement, what may the letter G be followed by?
Not learned
1103. What does the single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted vessel, mean?
Not learned
1104. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road?
Not learned
1105. If the situation arose where it became necessary to tow a disabled vessel, which statement is TRUE concerning the towing line?
Not learned
1106. Which situation may require you to administer artificial respiration?
Not learned
1107. What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?
Not learned
1108. A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.
Not learned
1109. In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.
Not learned
1110. In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.
Not learned
1111. In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through which point?
Not learned
1112. Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.
Not learned
1113. Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.
Not learned
1114. Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?
Not learned
1115. The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.
Not learned
1116. What is the space above the engine room called?
Not learned
1117. Specific radio frequencies are designated as International Maritime frequencies used for voice distress, safety and hailing. Which of the following is an International Maritime VHF-FM frequency as described previously?
Not learned
1118. What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?
Not learned
1119. What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?
Not learned
1120. Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard?
Not learned
1121. The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.
Not learned
1122. Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and which other force?
Not learned
1123. When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM __________.
Not learned
1124. Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is at which location?
Not learned
1125. What is the standard rate of signaling by flashing light?
Not learned
1126. Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.
Not learned
1127. Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?
Not learned
1128. Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?
Not learned
1129. Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?
Not learned
1130. Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUE
Not learned
1131. Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE?
Not learned
1132. Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE?
Not learned
1133. Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?
Not learned
1134. Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?
Not learned
1135. Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?
Not learned
1136. Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?
Not learned
1137. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?
Not learned
1138. Which statement describes a compound fracture?
Not learned
1139. Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?
Not learned
1140. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
Not learned
1141. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
Not learned
1142. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
Not learned
1143. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
Not learned
1144. Which statement about free surface is TRUE?
Not learned
1145. Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?
Not learned
1146. What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1147. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1148. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1149. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
Not learned
1150. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?
Not learned
1151. Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE?
Not learned
1152. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1153. Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel?
Not learned
1154. Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?
Not learned
1155. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?
Not learned
1156. Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?
Not learned
1157. Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?
Not learned
1158. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?
Not learned
1159. Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels?
Not learned
1160. Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?
Not learned
1161. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
Not learned
1162. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
Not learned
1163. The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34°. For this ship, what would be the danger angle for a permanent list?
Not learned
1164. With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?
Not learned
1165. Which is TRUE of the steering oar in a lifeboat?
Not learned
1166. The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.
Not learned
1167. Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?
Not learned
1168. Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?
Not learned
1169. When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.
Not learned
1170. The strength of a deck will be increased by adding which item?
Not learned
1171. Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause which to occur?
Not learned
1172. You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances?
Not learned
1173. A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.
Not learned
1174. What are the symptoms of a fractured back?
Not learned
1175. Which system has the least effective radius of operation?
Not learned
1176. Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?
Not learned
1177. Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?
Not learned
1178. Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?
Not learned
1179. Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?
Not learned
1180. Which system provides maximum communications range?
Not learned
1181. A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?
Not learned
1182. A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.
Not learned
1183. A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?
Not learned
1184. Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?
Not learned
1185. You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"?
Not learned
1186. Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?
Not learned
1187. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?
Not learned
1188. Which term defines the tendency of a vessel to return to its original TRIM after being inclined by an external force?
Not learned
1189. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should back out?
Not learned
1190. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately?
Not learned
1191. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
Not learned
1192. Tensile stress is a result of two forces acting in __________.
Not learned
1193. Which term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship?
Not learned
1194. The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with which part of the vessel?
Not learned
1195. The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with which areas of the vessel?
Not learned
1196. Which term defines the vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors?
Not learned
1197. Which term describes the horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel?
Not learned
1198. Which is the term given to the joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end?
Not learned
1199. Which term is given to the upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge?
Not learned
1200. Which term is given to the wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading?
Not learned
1201. What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction?
Not learned
1202. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body?
Not learned
1203. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body?
Not learned
1204. What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?
Not learned
1205. What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the aft side of the rudder post?
Not learned
1206. What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel?
Not learned
1207. What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section?
Not learned
1208. What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?
Not learned
1209. Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?
Not learned
1210. Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?
Not learned
1211. The term "scantlings" refers to the __________.
Not learned
1212. The term "strake" is used in reference to which item(s)?
Not learned
1213. "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?
Not learned
1214. What are the three basic types of engine starters?
Not learned
1215. What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?
Not learned
1216. Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________.
Not learned
1217. Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers _________.
Not learned
1218. All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?
Not learned
1219. The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.
Not learned
1220. What is the traditional signal for fire aboard ship?
Not learned
1221. During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. What color will the smoke be?
Not learned
1222. What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?
Not learned
1223. Which is TRUE if you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone?
Not learned
1224. Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.
Not learned
1225. In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Not learned
1226. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?
Not learned
1227. The tricing pendants should be released __________.
Not learned
1228. You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?
Not learned
1229. The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the __________.
Not learned
1230. What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?
Not learned
1231. Which is TRUE concerning reserve buoyancy when flooding occurs in a damaged vessel?
Not learned
1232. Which is TRUE when operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat?
Not learned
1233. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?
Not learned
1234. Which is TRUE of the term negative slip on a vessel?
Not learned
1235. When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?
Not learned
1236. Which are the two points that act together to trim a ship?
Not learned
1237. Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.
Not learned
1238. On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?
Not learned
1239. Which type of davit requires you to turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side?
Not learned
1240. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
Not learned
1241. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?
Not learned
1242. What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction?
Not learned
1243. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?
Not learned
1244. When do U.S. regulations require your vessel's EPIRB to be tested?
Not learned
1245. If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, which action can you take?
Not learned
1246. You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?
Not learned
1247. You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?
Not learned
1248. You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?
Not learned
1249. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on which of the following channels?
Not learned
1250. While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?
Not learned
1251. What is the unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code?
Not learned
1252. Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when __________.
Not learned
1253. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
Not learned
1254. When do you use your FCC call sign when transmitting on channel 16?
Not learned
1255. What is used as an indicator of initial stability?
Not learned
1256. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?
Not learned
1257. What should be used to send the group "Bearing 074° True"?
Not learned
1258. What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?
Not learned
1259. What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel?
Not learned
1260. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?
Not learned
1261. While using the International Code of Signals, how can the receiving station indicate that they are able to distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it?
Not learned
1262. When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.
Not learned
1263. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.
Not learned
1264. You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger, which signal signifies urgency?
Not learned
1265. What is the usual depth of a beam bracket?
Not learned
1266. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?
Not learned
1267. What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?
Not learned
1268. The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and which other item?
Not learned
1269. The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is __________.
Not learned
1270. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.
Not learned
1271. Vertical moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.
Not learned
1272. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.
Not learned
1273. If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from which area(s) of the vessel?
Not learned
1274. A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.
Not learned
1275. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?
Not learned
1276. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", which of the following is True if there is a failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment?
Not learned
1277. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or which channel?
Not learned
1278. Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what?
Not learned
1279. Your vessel is conducting a "Vessel Grounded Drill". Where is the plan indicating the vessel's watertight boundaries required to be located?
Not learned
1280. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1281. In vessel construction, which is TRUE of the garboard strake?
Not learned
1282. A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?
Not learned
1283. Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability?
Not learned
1284. Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?
Not learned
1285. Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00" (1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST?
Not learned
1286. Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?
Not learned
1287. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
1288. Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?
Not learned
1289. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________.
Not learned
1290. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
1291. A vessel has been damaged and is taking on water. Where can you find the data that will indicate how much water the vessel can retain and still possess reserve buoyancy?
Not learned
1292. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. How would you preface a message advising other vessels of your situation?
Not learned
1293. A vessel is described as a two-compartment vessel when it __________.
Not learned
1294. Your vessel is discharging containers from the main deck with the ship's cranes. Which of the following must be taken into account when calculating the center of gravity as the containers are discharged?
Not learned
1295. Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that __________.
Not learned
1296. A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal. What follows the signal?
Not learned
1297. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested at which time interval?
Not learned
1298. What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?
Not learned
1299. A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross- connection valve be closed?
Not learned
1300. If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?
Not learned
1301. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?
Not learned
1302. Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.
Not learned
1303. A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard halyard. What does this signal mean?
Not learned
1304. On which vessels is GMDSS required?
Not learned
1305. Your vessel has run aground in waters where the tide is falling. Which of the following is the best action you can take?
Not learned
1306. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.
Not learned
1307. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?
Not learned
1308. When a vessel has grounded which of the following could result from the forces acting upward on the bottom?
Not learned
1309. Your vessel has just grounded on the rocks and is flooding. What should be the initial action in this situation?
Not learned
1310. When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.
Not learned
1311. Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating?
Not learned
1312. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
Not learned
1313. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
Not learned
1314. A vessel's KG is determined by __________.
Not learned
1315. A vessel with a large GM will __________.
Not learned
1316. A vessel with a large GM will __________.
Not learned
1317. Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Where is Lifeboat No. 2 located?
Not learned
1318. A vessel's light displacement is 12,000 tons. Its heavy displacement is 28,000 tons. When fully loaded it carries 200 tons of fuel and 100 tons of water and stores. What is the cargo carrying capacity in tons?
Not learned
1319. If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by which condition?
Not learned
1320. If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will __________.
Not learned
1321. If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.
Not learned
1322. A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.
Not learned
1323. Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?
Not learned
1324. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.
Not learned
1325. Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
Not learned
1326. As a vessel officer part of your duties is to inspect the lifesaving equipment. What should be done to facilitate a test of the vessel's EPIRB?
Not learned
1327. Your vessel participates in AMVER. Which of the following is an AMVER reporting requirement?
Not learned
1328. When a vessel has positive stability, which term is used to describe the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G?
Not learned
1329. A vessel that does not possess any reserve buoyancy will sink. Which of the following is considered a direct measure of reserve buoyancy?
Not learned
1330. A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________.
Not learned
1331. Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?
Not learned
1332. Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone?
Not learned
1333. Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure?
Not learned
1334. Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be taken next?
Not learned
1335. If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?
Not learned
1336. Your vessel is securely moored and commencing to load cargo. What effect does loading cargo have on the vessel's vertical center of gravity?
Not learned
1337. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?
Not learned
1338. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. Both vessels are making the same amount of leeway. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
Not learned
1339. A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is hoisted close-up. What action should you take?
Not learned
1340. A vessel with a small GM will __________.
Not learned
1341. A vessel with a small GM will __________.
Not learned
1342. Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The __________.
Not learned
1343. Your vessel has been taking on water but now the breached hole has been repaired. Which effects can the flooding have on your vessel's GM?
Not learned
1344. A vessel is taking on water but is not in immediate danger of sinking. What would be the best action to take to increase the vessel's stability?
Not learned
1345. A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.
Not learned
1346. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
Not learned
1347. VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?
Not learned
1348. Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?
Not learned
1349. All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode. Which is an example of the operation of a radio in simplex mode?
Not learned
1350. Which is the VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel?
Not learned
1351. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 049°16.3' W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
Not learned
1352. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149° 16.3' E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
Not learned
1353. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
Not learned
1354. How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time?
Not learned
1355. How does a warship indicates that it wishes to communicate with a merchant ship?
Not learned
1356. You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which man overboard turn should NOT be used in this situation?
Not learned
1357. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.
Not learned
1358. Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for _________.
Not learned
1359. In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion?
Not learned
1360. In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?
Not learned
1361. The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.
Not learned
1362. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help?
Not learned
1363. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that you are all right?
Not learned
1364. Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?
Not learned
1365. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?
Not learned
1366. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?
Not learned
1367. The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.
Not learned
1368. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.
Not learned
1369. What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?
Not learned
1370. A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________.
Not learned
1371. Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor __________.
Not learned
1372. Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.
Not learned
1373. You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal __________.
Not learned
1374. If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.
Not learned
1375. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?
Not learned
1376. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. Which action should you take?
Not learned
1377. How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?
Not learned
1378. How would the flag hoist 1.33 be sent?
Not learned
1379. What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength?
Not learned
1380. What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?
Not learned
1381. Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?
Not learned
1382. What would be the result of physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water?
Not learned
1383. What would a signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with?
Not learned
1384. What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?
Not learned
1385. What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean?
Not learned
1386. What would a yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water indicate about a submarine?
Not learned
1387. Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
Not learned
1388. A yellow signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about 300 feet above the water, indicates that a submarine __________.
Not learned
1389. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of which duration?
Not learned
1390. All inflatable liferafts have which item?
Not learned
1391. Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.
Not learned
1392. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?
Not learned
1393. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, which is the most important item to check?
Not learned
1394. The lever shown in illustration D013SA below is operated when a lifeboat is in which of the following positions?
Not learned
1395. What is the preferred method of controlling external bleeding?
Not learned
1396. What is the purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat?
Not learned
1397. When launching a lifeboat, when should frapping lines be rigged?
Not learned
1398. Which is the required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage?
Not learned
1399. Which of the following choices best defines EPIRB, ELT, PLBS?
Not learned
1400. Which of the following is a treatment of frostbite?
Not learned
1401. A wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent which situation?
Not learned
1402. Longitudinal moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and which other component?
Not learned
1403. The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon which item(s)?
Not learned
1404. What is the thickness of a 30.6-pound plate?
Not learned
1405. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to which system?
Not learned
1406. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. What is the designation number for the middle boat on the starboard side?
Not learned
1407. Generally speaking, how is the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber ignited?
Not learned
1408. How does bleeding from a vein appear?
Not learned
1409. What does the boat command "Oars" mean?
Not learned
1410. Which of the following is the best action to take prior to attempting to land a survival craft through heavy surf?
Not learned
1411. Which statement is TRUE concerning the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or boat hoists?
Not learned
1412. An aluminum powder fire is in which fire classification category?
Not learned
1413. How can the accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries be prevented?
Not learned
1414. If another station sent you the signal "KG", what would this indicate?
Not learned
1415. What is the FIRST thing the rescuer must do if the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation?
Not learned
1416. What is the normal percentage of oxygen in air?
Not learned
1417. Which is the principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel?
Not learned
1418. Which is the VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency?
Not learned
1419. You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. How would you describe this swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals?
Not learned
1420. Your stability calculations indicate your vessel has a marginal GM. Which of the following is the most effective way to increase the stability of the vessel?
Not learned
1421. Your vessel has just run aground. Which of the following would be one of the first actions you should take in this situation?
Not learned
1422. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. Which is TRUE concerning all of the carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard?
Not learned
1423. How should the number "3" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
Not learned
1424. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam. You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
Not learned
1425. Your cargo vessel is transiting pirate waters with a temporary security team onboard. The ship has been attacked and starts sinking. The decision has been made to abandon ship. During the muster, the security force leader is determined to be missing. What initial action should be taken?
Not learned
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