Q132 - Deck General/Safety, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 2. Which of the following describes the function of the air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?Not learned 3. The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the U.S. regulations as ballast water introduced into which of the following?Not learned 4. What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?Not learned 5. Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.Not learned 6. Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless which situation occurs?Not learned 7. The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.Not learned 8. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.Not learned 9. When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?Not learned 10. If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can initially be maintained by activating which of the following units?Not learned 11. Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.Not learned 12. Regulations require that OSV's under 100 GT must have a steering system that is capable of moving the rudder __________.Not learned 13. According to the Code of Federal Regulations, which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995?Not learned 14. In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.Not learned 15. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.Not learned 16. To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility, __________.Not learned 17. Which of the following must be included in the "oil transfer procedures" required by U.S Pollution Prevention Regulations?Not learned 18. When loading a petroleum cargo which is below average ambient temperatures, You must do which of the following?Not learned 19. Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a __________.Not learned 20. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), when loading, or discharging oil in bulk at a dock, which of the following signals must be displayed?Not learned 21. Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the day while bunkering?Not learned 22. According to U.S. regulations, when a tank vessel is discharging cargo, each sea suction valve connected to the vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be which of the following?Not learned 23. According to U.S. regulations what is the maximum allowable working pressure (MAWP) for each hose assembly used for transferring oil?Not learned 24. According to U.S. regulations, how much hose should you use in transferring oil in bulk?Not learned 25. U.S. regulations require that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following criteria are met?Not learned 26. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) requires an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operations. The emergency means must be operable from the __________.Not learned 27. When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels is transferring oil to a facility, U.S. regulations require an emergency means to stopping the flow of oil. Where must these emergency means be operable from?Not learned 28. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST?Not learned 29. For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in which the vessel's designated person in charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. Which of the following choices will accomplish this task as required by 33 CFR?Not learned 30. A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that the vessel __________.Not learned 31. U.S. regulations require which of the following upon completion of oil transfer operations?Not learned 32. According to U.S. regulations, no person may connect or disconnect an oil transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil transfer operation on a tank vessel unless which of the following is met?Not learned 33. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), when may a person serve as the person-in-charge of both a vessel and a facility during oil transfer operations?Not learned 34. U.S. regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following conditions is met?Not learned 35. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the __________.Not learned 36. Prior to transfer of fuel, the Declaration of Inspection required by Coast Guard Regulation (33 CFR) __________.Not learned 37. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?Not learned 38. According to the U.S. regulations, what must be agreed upon by the person-in-charge of transfer operations, both ashore and on the vessel?Not learned 39. What information is NOT required to be included in the oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil?Not learned 40. Where are the transfer procedures for oil products required to be posted or available during transfer operations?Not learned 41. Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within what percent?Not learned 42. During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?Not learned 43. Who has the authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations?Not learned 44. Where should an application for a waiver of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations be submitted?Not learned 45. How far in advance must applications for waivers of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations be submitted?Not learned 46. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), no person may serve as the person in charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.Not learned 47. Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a cold day due to which of the following?Not learned 48. You are on a tankship discharging oil. what happens to the remaining oil when all of the oil that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped out of a tank?Not learned 49. What type of information is found in 33 CFR part 156?Not learned 50. The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?Not learned 51. Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?Not learned 52. According to U.S. regulations, which of the following conditions would disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil?Not learned 53. The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by which organization?Not learned 54. Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.Not learned 55. You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 April, you find that you have loaded 202,000 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. When will you complete loading if you continue at the same rate?Not learned 56. The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?Not learned 57. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?Not learned 58. According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?Not learned 59. When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?Not learned 60. While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.Not learned 61. What is the signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats?Not learned 62. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.Not learned 63. When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.Not learned 64. What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for?Not learned 65. Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?Not learned 66. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 67. Fires are grouped into what categories?Not learned 68. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.Not learned 69. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 70. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.Not learned 71. How are fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium classified?Not learned 72. Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?Not learned 73. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 74. Which defines the "flammable limits" of an atmosphere?Not learned 75. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.Not learned 76. Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.Not learned 77. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.Not learned 78. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?Not learned 79. Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.Not learned 80. Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.Not learned 81. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.Not learned 82. There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, which is the other?Not learned 83. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?Not learned 84. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?Not learned 85. Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?Not learned 86. Any firefighting equipment carried in addition to the minimum requirements on a MODU must __________.Not learned 87. Fire extinguishers designated as size III, IV, and V are considered __________.Not learned 88. Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?Not learned 89. After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.Not learned 90. A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.Not learned 91. When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?Not learned 92. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.Not learned 93. In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?Not learned 94. On a MODU, a fire extinguisher charged with 15 pounds of CO₂ or 10 pounds of dry chemical is a size __________.Not learned 95. Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.Not learned 96. On a MODU, size "III", 'IV', and "V" fire extinguishers are considered __________.Not learned 97. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.Not learned 98. How can the spread of fire be prevented?Not learned 99. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 100. Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.Not learned 101. Convection spreads a fire by __________.Not learned 102. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 103. Fire may be spread by which means?Not learned 104. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.Not learned 105. Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.Not learned 106. Which is the best method of extinguishing a class A fire?Not learned 107. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 108. Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?Not learned 109. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.Not learned 110. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 111. Which is the BEST method of applying foam to a fire?Not learned 112. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by which action?Not learned 113. The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting nozzle should always be __________.Not learned 114. The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.Not learned 115. No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.Not learned 116. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.Not learned 117. Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?Not learned 118. On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.Not learned 119. CO₂ cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.Not learned 120. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.Not learned 121. In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________.Not learned 122. Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push- buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 123. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 124. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?Not learned 125. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for manually releasing the CO2 at which location?Not learned 126. When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, how many pilot cylinders are required?Not learned 127. Spaces protected by a fixed CO₂ system must be equipped with an alarm which is to sound __________.Not learned 128. A safety outlet is provided on the CO₂ discharge piping to prevent __________.Not learned 129. CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?Not learned 130. According to U.S. regulations, how many emergency outfits are required to be carried onboard all tankships over 1,000 gross tons?Not learned 131. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?Not learned 132. On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must __________.Not learned 133. The condition of asphyxia arises from which of the following?Not learned 134. You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 135. What is the minimum required protective clothing that must be worn while sampling hazardous cargo on a tankship?Not learned 136. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.Not learned 137. Which defines the flash point of a liquid?Not learned 138. Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?Not learned 139. Which term defines the lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition?Not learned 140. Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?Not learned 141. You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?Not learned 142. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.Not learned 143. Which of the following is an example of an example of a grade D product?Not learned 144. With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids __________.Not learned 145. Most liquefied gas cargoes are flammable, and are carried at or close to their boiling point. What will happen if they are released into the atmosphere?Not learned 146. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.Not learned 147. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.Not learned 148. Where would spontaneous combustion most likely occur?Not learned 149. Which of the following is the chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard tankers?Not learned 150. Which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous combustion?Not learned 151. Which may ignite fuel vapors?Not learned 152. What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?Not learned 153. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 154. The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.Not learned 155. The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.Not learned 156. Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.Not learned 157. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?Not learned 158. The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________.Not learned 159. When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, what is the MOST important symptom to check for?Not learned 160. Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?Not learned 161. What type of gas detection device is used to determine when gassing up is complete?Not learned 162. The vapor pressure of a gas is defined as the pressure necessary to keep it in what state?Not learned 163. Asphyxia is generally limited to enclosed spaces, and the deficiency of breathable air in an enclosed space can occur with any of the following conditions. Indicate the condition that will NOT cause asphyxia.Not learned 164. What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?Not learned 165. If a repair team is to enter a confined space for repair work, what minimum level of oxygen should be present?Not learned 166. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?Not learned 167. Which ship must maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast Operations) of the Oil Record Book?Not learned 168. When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must _________.Not learned 169. While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water. What action should you take?Not learned 170. What causes the most frequent incidents of pollution during tanker operations?Not learned 171. Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from mandatory requirements on ballast water management for control of non-indigenous species in waters of the United States?Not learned 172. According to U.S. regulations which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment around loading manifolds?Not learned 173. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require that all oil spills in United States waters be reported immediately to the __________.Not learned 174. According to U.S. regulations, tank vessels with greater than 250 barrels capacity are required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device does which of the following?Not learned 175. What is the FIRST action to take if you detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging petroleum products?Not learned 176. While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the water around the vessel. What should you do FIRST?Not learned 177. Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shoreside facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?Not learned 178. Which of the following is considered "discharge" as it applies to the pollution regulations?Not learned 179. International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificates are required for each U.S. oil tanker at or above how many gross registered tons?Not learned 180. According to U.S. regulations, which of the following describes the declaration of inspection?Not learned 181. A oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless which of the following conditions is present?Not learned 182. U.S. regulations require all tankships of 150 GT and above and all other ships of 400 GT and above, to prepare and maintain which of the following?Not learned 183. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?Not learned 184. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 185. Which of the following is required to have a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 186. According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires after __________.Not learned 187. Which statement is TRUE when reviewing a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 188. Which of the following describes heavy fuel oils when they have been spilled?Not learned 189. Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws?Not learned 190. A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least __________.Not learned 191. Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 192. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when off-loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and which of the following?Not learned 193. According to U.S. regulations, how often are you are required to test cargo discharge piping?Not learned 194. Who will certify the vessel to be gas free before entering the shipyard?Not learned 195. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.Not learned 196. Where should muster lists be posted?Not learned 197. What information must be entered on the MODU Muster List ("Station Bill")?Not learned 198. A re-inspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?Not learned 199. What certificate verifies that a liquefied gas tanker complies with the requirements with regard to their structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, and materials?Not learned 200. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?Not learned 201. A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of the following?Not learned 202. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.Not learned 203. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make __________.Not learned 204. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat. In a mild breeze how should the boat approach the person in the water?Not learned 205. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?Not learned 206. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.Not learned 207. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?Not learned 208. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.Not learned 209. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?Not learned 210. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.Not learned 211. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?Not learned 212. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.Not learned 213. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?Not learned 214. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 215. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 216. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?Not learned 217. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 218. Each emergency light must be marked with __________.Not learned 219. How shall Lifesaving equipment be stowed?Not learned 220. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 221. When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?Not learned 222. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 223. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?Not learned 224. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 225. On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?Not learned 226. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?Not learned 227. Life jackets should be marked with which item?Not learned 228. Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests__________.Not learned 229. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, which action should you take?Not learned 230. Which of the following persons may command a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 231. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 232. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.Not learned 233. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on which item?Not learned 234. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 235. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.Not learned 236. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?Not learned 237. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?Not learned 238. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 239. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.Not learned 240. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which action will aid in your rescue?Not learned 241. You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?Not learned 242. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 243. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?Not learned 244. When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should take which action?Not learned 245. When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.Not learned 246. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?Not learned 247. Initial stability is indicated by __________.Not learned 248. The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known as the __________.Not learned 249. Which term is used for the horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces?Not learned 250. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.Not learned 251. Which term defines the upward pressure of displaced water of a vessel?Not learned 252. At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.Not learned 253. Initial stability refers to stability __________.Not learned 254. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.Not learned 255. Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel. These points are the center of buoyancy and the __________.Not learned 256. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.Not learned 257. The important initial stability parameter, GM, is which of the following?Not learned 258. The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the __________.Not learned 259. When a vessel is floating upright, which term is used to define the distance from the keel to the metacenter of a vessel?Not learned 260. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.Not learned 261. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.Not learned 262. At all angles of inclination, which is the true measure of a vessel's stability?Not learned 263. For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.Not learned 264. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.Not learned 265. A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.Not learned 266. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.Not learned 267. When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.Not learned 268. If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.Not learned 269. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.Not learned 270. When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.Not learned 271. When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.Not learned 272. The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.Not learned 273. During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. Which action should you take?Not learned 274. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed?Not learned 275. Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a MODU must be made at intervals not exceeding __________.Not learned 276. Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.Not learned 277. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 278. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 279. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 280. A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.Not learned 281. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.Not learned 282. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.Not learned 283. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces which threat?Not learned 284. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.Not learned 285. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.Not learned 286. Which is the best action to take when plugging holes below the waterline for the safety of the vessel?Not learned 287. Which term describes the strengthening of damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel?Not learned 288. In plugging submerged holes; why are rags, wedges, and other materials used in conjunction with plugs?Not learned 289. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.Not learned 290. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?Not learned 291. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?Not learned 292. How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be treated?Not learned 293. Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?Not learned 294. As a last resort, what can a tourniquet be used for?Not learned 295. Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear __________.Not learned 296. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 297. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?Not learned 298. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 299. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 300. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?Not learned 301. What is the primary purpose of a splint when applied in first aid treatment?Not learned 302. How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture?Not learned 303. Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what action is taken?Not learned 304. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?Not learned 305. Which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock?Not learned 306. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?Not learned 307. After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?Not learned 308. Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?Not learned 309. In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which of the following treatments would you AVOID using?Not learned 310. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?Not learned 311. A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology what type of burn is this?Not learned 312. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, what type of burn is this?Not learned 313. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to __________.Not learned 314. For small, first-degree burns, what is the quickest method to relieve pain?Not learned 315. A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper first aid treatment for this injury?Not learned 316. What should you do if a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm?Not learned 317. What can be caused by severe airway burns?Not learned 318. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.Not learned 319. When treating a chemical burn, what is the minimum amount of time you should flood the burned area?Not learned 320. Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with what substance(s)?Not learned 321. Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?Not learned 322. If a person is unconscious from electric shock, the first action is to remove him from the electrical source. What is the secondary action?Not learned 323. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, what is the FIRST medical indicator to check for?Not learned 324. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 325. If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and _______.Not learned 326. What causes heat exhaustion?Not learned 327. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?Not learned 328. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 329. What are the symptoms of sugar diabetes?Not learned 330. A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injury. What symptoms would indicate the onset of a diabetic coma?Not learned 331. If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.Not learned 332. Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.Not learned 333. What should you do if a crew member is having an epileptic convulsion?Not learned 334. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?Not learned 335. How should the pain be relieved when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis?Not learned 336. When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary surveys, what should you be familiar with?Not learned 337. What are the symptoms of seasickness?Not learned 338. What is an effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board?Not learned 339. What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?Not learned 340. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?Not learned 341. Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 342. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?Not learned 343. What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?Not learned 344. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.Not learned 345. Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?Not learned 346. What is the most useful drug to reduce a high fever?Not learned 347. Which procedure should NOT be done for a person whom has fainted?Not learned 348. What should a observer do if a victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway?Not learned 349. While providing assistant to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.Not learned 350. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 351. Which of the following medical conditions has symptoms of: burning pain with redness of the skin, an irritating rash, blistering or loss of skin and or toxic poisoning?Not learned 352. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 353. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 354. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 355. What should you do before CPR is started?Not learned 356. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 357. While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out?Not learned 358. Which is TRUE concerning the vapor pressure of a substance?Not learned 359. According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene?Not learned 360. Your 100 gross tons non-oceangoing vessel is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system?Not learned 361. A 100-GT vessel, constructed before July 1, 1974, is loading diesel fuel. What is the minimum capacity of the portable container required for placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and fill pipe?Not learned 362. You are on a 120,000 DWT loaded bulk carrier. When anchoring without the aid of tugs, your maximum speed should not exceed how many feet per second?Not learned 363. The 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in the illustration D047DG can lift a maximum weight of how many tons in the single mode?Not learned 364. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 365. Under which circumstance is a 30,000 DWT tankship required to have an IOPP certificate?Not learned 366. Why is 6X19 class wire rope more commonly used for cargo runners than the more flexible 6X37 wire rope?Not learned 367. An 85 foot uninspected towing vessel with a crew of ten (10) persons on board must carry which of the following?Not learned 368. A 98 GT uninspected towing vessel with a 1500 B.H.P. engine capability would be required to carry how many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers on board?Not learned 369. Aboard a cargo vessel, the carbon dioxide supply used in a fixed extinguishing system MUST at least be sufficient for what space(s)?Not learned 370. You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is put full astern and the rudder hard left. What will the bow do?Not learned 371. You are aboard a single-screw vessel (right-hand propeller) going full ahead with good headway. The engine is put astern and the rudder is placed hard left. The stern of the vessel will swing to __________.Not learned 372. You are aboard vessel "A" in a narrow channel and the pilot is approaching vessel "B" as shown in illustration D037RR below. Which of the following is the reason he has not previously changed course to the starboard side of the channel?Not learned 373. You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within __________.Not learned 374. What is NOT accepted as the required shipping papers on a manned and loaded tank barge?Not learned 375. What will be accepted as the shipping papers for an unmanned tank barge but will not be accepted if the tank barge is manned?Not learned 376. When accepting vehicles for shipment, the Master should ensure that __________.Not learned 377. An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than __________.Not learned 378. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, which statement is TRUE with regards to Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests?Not learned 379. In accordance with regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded below what temperature?Not learned 380. In accordance with U.S. regulations for cargo vessels, what is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?Not learned 381. In accordance with U.S regulations, your cargo vessel must have which of the following?Not learned 382. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 2.3 substance?Not learned 383. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 4.1 substance?Not learned 384. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 4.3 substance?Not learned 385. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 5.1 substance?Not learned 386. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 5.2 substance?Not learned 387. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 6.1 substance?Not learned 388. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 6.2 substance?Not learned 389. In accordance with U.S. regulations, a freight container that is to be loaded with Class 1 explosive materials must be in serviceable condition. Which of the following would prevent a container from being considered serviceable?Not learned 390. In accordance with U.S. regulations, what natural phenomena would require you to stop cargo operations involving Class 1 explosive materials and secure hatches?Not learned 391. In accordance with U.S. regulations, where are the signs prohibiting smoking required to be posted while the vessel is loading Class 1 explosive materials?Not learned 392. In accordance with U.S. regulations which signal is required to be displayed during hours of darkness if a vessel is handling Class 1 explosive materials?Not learned 393. In accordance with U.S. regulations which statement is true concerning packages containing Class 1 explosive material?Not learned 394. In accordance with U.S. regulations on the transportation of hazardous materials, which of the following is true concerning a transport unit with fabric sides or tops?Not learned 395. In accordance with U.S regulations vessels transporting hazardous materials are required to have a Dangerous Cargo Manifest. Where is this document to be kept?Not learned 396. According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is permitted to be disposed of by __________.Not learned 397. According to the "T-Boat" regulations, what is the name given to the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim?Not learned 398. According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong?Not learned 399. According to the Chemical Data Guide, what are the flammable limits of ethylene oxide?Not learned 400. According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________.Not learned 401. According to the IMO Code, what are the minimum number of securing points that should be on each side of a "road vehicle", whose gross vehicle mass is between 3.5 tons and 20 tons, when carried on Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 402. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33CFR), who is required to sign the entry in the Oil Record Book after every designated operation?Not learned 403. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33CFR), each completed page in the Oil Record Book is to be signed by ________.Not learned 404. According to regulations when, if ever, may cargo hatches on Great Lakes vessels, with more than 6 feet of freeboard, be left uncovered or open while the vessel is being navigated?Not learned 405. According to U.S. regulations, if a cargo hose shows a small leak in its fabric, when may it be used to transfer oil?Not learned 406. According to U.S. regulations, which conditions would not disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil?Not learned 407. According to U.S. regulations, which of the following does not qualify as a discharge of oil?Not learned 408. According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard?Not learned 409. According to uninspected vessel regulations which is a B-II fire extinguisher?Not learned 410. What is NOT listed on the metallic name plate that is required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers according to uninspected vessel regulations?Not learned 411. According to uninspected vessel regulations, what is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot motorboat having a fixed fire system on board?Not learned 412. Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations?Not learned 413. Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations?Not learned 414. Which action(s) should the operator of a pedestal crane take if crane control is lost?Not learned 415. Which action reduces the yawing of a vessel in a following sea?Not learned 416. Which action should you take FIRST when preparing to hoist the anchor?Not learned 417. What is NOT an advantage of containership operations over conventional break-bulk operations?Not learned 418. What is NOT an advantage of filler cargo?Not learned 419. What is the advantage of the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when operating cargo?Not learned 420. An advantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________.Not learned 421. The advantage(s) of using wire rope lashing on vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________.Not learned 422. What affect does shallow water have on a vessel's stopping distance?Not learned 423. Which agency assigns Load lines for U.S. vessels?Not learned 424. Which agency is authorized to assist the Coast Guard in the inspection of vessels for the suitability of loading hazardous materials?Not learned 425. Which agency issues a certificate of loading that is evidence that the rules and regulations concerning bulk grain cargoes have been observed?Not learned 426. Which agency must approve the safety equipment on board inspected vessels?Not learned 427. If an alien stowaway is discovered aboard your vessel, his name must be placed on the __________.Not learned 428. The American Consul has asked the Master of a vessel bound for a port in the U.S. to transport a destitute seaman back to the U.S. Which action may the Master take?Not learned 429. The American Consul has asked the Master of a vessel bound for a port in the U.S. to transport a destitute seaman back to the U.S. Which action may the Master take?Not learned 430. The anchors on the bow are known as __________.Not learned 431. When the anchor is brought to and holding, the horizontal component of anchor cable tensions should equal the __________.Not learned 432. How is the anchor chain marked for 30 fathoms?Not learned 433. The anchor chain has one entire shot of chain painted red. What is the bitter end of this shot attached to?Not learned 434. The anchor chain has one entire shot of chain painted yellow. What does this indicate on a merchant vessel?Not learned 435. The anchor chain has one entire shot painted red. What would that indicate on a merchant vessel?Not learned 436. Anchors are prevented from running out when secured by the __________.Not learned 437. On an anchor windlass, the wheel over which the anchor chain passes is called a __________.Not learned 438. When anchored, increasing the scope of the anchor chain normally serves to __________.Not learned 439. You have anchored in a mud and clay bottom. The anchor appears to be dragging in a storm. What action should you take?Not learned 440. You are anchoring in 16 fathoms of water. On a small to medium size vessel, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 441. When anchoring in calm water, it is best to __________.Not learned 442. When anchoring in a clay bottom, what is one hazard that may cause the anchor to drag?Not learned 443. What is the rule of thumb for the length of chain required to anchor a vessel under normal conditions?Not learned 444. When anchoring in a current, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 445. When anchoring, good practice requires 5 to 7 fathoms of chain for each fathom of depth. Which is TRUE when anchoring in deep water?Not learned 446. When anchoring, what results from having the proper scope of anchor chain in line with the shank of the anchor?Not learned 447. You are anchoring in a river where the current is from one direction only. Which is the BEST way to lay out two anchors?Not learned 448. When anchoring a vessel, it is best to release the anchor when __________.Not learned 449. While anchoring your vessel, when is the best time to let go the anchor?Not learned 450. When anchoring a vessel under normal conditions, which scope of chain is recommended?Not learned 451. The angle at which the fluke penetrates the soil is called the __________.Not learned 452. If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, which of the following cannot be discharged anywhere at sea?Not learned 453. Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of which item?Not learned 454. Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, food garbage discharged from vessels outside a special area, that are located between 3 and 6 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than which of the following dimensions?Not learned 455. During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure. Which defines the minimum test pressure?Not learned 456. What is another description for a tandem crane lift?Not learned 457. What is another name for the boom of a crane?Not learned 458. Another name for coal naphtha that would appear on a dangerous cargo manifest is __________.Not learned 459. You are approaching the pilot station with the wind fine on the starboard bow and making about 3 knots. You can help to calm the seas by taking what action just before the pilot boat comes along on the port side?Not learned 460. Both an approved B-V semi-portable fire extinguishing system and a fixed fire extinguishing system are required to protect the engine room on uninspected towing vessels whose construction was contracted for on or after what date?Not learned 461. In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT when used as described in which choice?Not learned 462. Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 463. How is Argon classified?Not learned 464. Because of the arrangement of the cell guides, which is the MOST important factor while loading containers?Not learned 465. You have arrived at your anchorage location. You have put the engines astern prior to letting go the anchor. How will you know when the vessel has stopped making way?Not learned 466. You are arriving in port and are assigned to anchor in anchorage circle B-4. It has a diameter of 500 yards and your vessel's LOA is 484 feet. If you anchor in 8 fathoms at the center of the circle, what is the maximum number of shots of chain you can use and still remain in the circle?Not learned 467. You are arriving in port and are assigned to anchor in anchorage circle B-4. It has a diameter of 600 yards and your vessel's LOA is 525 feet. If you anchor in 10 fathoms at the center of the circle, what is the maximum number of shots of chain you can use and still remain in the circle?Not learned 468. If an attempt is made to hoist a load that exceeds the capacity of an electric winch, an overload safety device causes a circuit breaker to cut off the current to the winch motor __________.Not learned 469. When attempting to free an anchor jammed in the hawsepipe, the simplest method of freeing it may be __________.Not learned 470. When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would __________.Not learned 471. When an azimuth of the Sun has been taken and the deviation of the standard magnetic compass computed, the watch officer should record the results __________.Not learned 472. A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________.Not learned 473. Backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.Not learned 474. When backing down with sternway, where will the pivot point of a vessel be located?Not learned 475. In bad weather, what length of chain should be used with a single anchor?Not learned 476. You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea?Not learned 477. Battens are fitted in cargo holds across the frames of the vessel from the turn of the bilge upward. What is the main purpose of these cargo battens?Not learned 478. You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo from your barge. You must complete topside repairs on the barge involving hot-work before sailing. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 479. You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot-work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?Not learned 480. You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo?Not learned 481. Which best describes an anchor buoy?Not learned 482. What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?Not learned 483. Which BEST describes a wildcat?Not learned 484. What is the best guide for determining the proper scope of anchor chain to use for anchoring in normal conditions?Not learned 485. Which is the BEST holding ground for conventional anchors?Not learned 486. The BEST holding ground for conventional anchors is __________.Not learned 487. Which is the best method of protecting that portion of a fiber anchor line nearest the anchor from chafing on the bottom?Not learned 488. Which is the best method to stop a vessel from dragging anchor in a sand bottom?Not learned 489. The best way to determine if a load is within maximum lift limits is to use __________.Not learned 490. The best way to lift many small articles aboard your vessel is with a __________.Not learned 491. The BEST way to steer a twin-screw vessel if you lose your rudder is by using __________.Not learned 492. Which is the BEST way for a twin-screw vessel to clear the inboard propeller and maneuver off a pier?Not learned 493. Which is the BETTER holding ground, for a conventional anchor?Not learned 494. The boom indicator tells the operator at what angle the boom is compared to the __________.Not learned 495. The boom stops on a pedestal crane prevent the boom from __________.Not learned 496. You are bound from port A, governed by the summer load line mark, to port B, also governed by the summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the winter mark. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 497. Buckler plates are __________.Not learned 498. Bulk cargo refers to which of the following statements?Not learned 499. If you are bunkering and you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, what happens to the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line?Not learned 500. When bunkering is complete, which is the correct procedure concerning the bunker hoses?Not learned 501. When bunkering at a dock which of the following signals must be displayed?Not learned 502. Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.Not learned 503. With the buttress securing system, where can containers of different heights be stowed?Not learned 504. You cannot operate a VHF or SSB radiotelephone aboard a rig unless that station is licensed. Which of the following organizations issues the license?Not learned 505. A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a(n) __________.Not learned 506. When a cargo boom or crane is rated at varying capacities, there will be a table at the controls which relates safe working load to __________.Not learned 507. A cargo exception would appear on __________.Not learned 508. Cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargo is known as a(n) __________.Not learned 509. Which term defines cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from odorous cargo?Not learned 510. Cargo hose carried on tank vessels must be designed to withstand the pressure of the shutoff head of the cargo pump or pump relief valve setting, but in no case should it be less than __________.Not learned 511. Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least how many psi?Not learned 512. On the cargo manifest, which term is used to describe the weight of the cargo inside a box?Not learned 513. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?Not learned 514. A cargo of oil has a coefficient of expansion of .0005 per degree F. If this cargo is loaded at 70°F, and a cargo temperature of 90°F is expected at the discharge port, how many barrels would you expect to unload if you loaded 10,000 barrels?Not learned 515. Which cargoes require strips of common building lathe as dunnage in order to carry away heat generated by the cargo?Not learned 516. Cargo securing for Ro-Ro is based on the concept of __________.Not learned 517. A cargo that has a stowage factor over 40 is known as a __________.Not learned 518. Which cargo is suitable for carriage on Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 519. You are on a cargo vessel carrying portable tanks of dangerous cargoes in bulk. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 520. You are on a cargo vessel carrying toluol in bulk in portable tanks. Which is a requirement for pumping the toluol?Not learned 521. On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed within what time period?Not learned 522. On a cargo vessels which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable?Not learned 523. Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at which interval?Not learned 524. Cargo vessels are required to maintain a Cargo Securing Manual onboard. What information should this manual provide?Not learned 525. While on cargo watch, you notice one of the containers of Class 1 explosive materials has been damaged and some of the contents has leaked onto the deck. In accordance with U.S. regulations what actions must be taken?Not learned 526. Which cargo would require a dangerous cargo manifest?Not learned 527. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, which of the following will make a vessel liable if there is damage to the cargo?Not learned 528. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises out of which event?Not learned 529. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises from which situation?Not learned 530. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises out of which situation?Not learned 531. If you carry packaged hazardous cargoes on a break bulk vessel bound foreign, you must __________.Not learned 532. You are carrying cargoes of crotonaldehyde, phosphoric acid, and morpholine on your multiple-product tankship. Which of the following statements is TRUE?Not learned 533. When carrying a full or nearly full load of bulk ore in a general cargo type vessel, how should the ore be loaded?Not learned 534. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter?Not learned 535. In which case is the IOPP Certificate of an inspected vessel NOT invalidated?Not learned 536. In most cases, when a large merchant vessel enters shallow water at high speed the __________.Not learned 537. A case received for shipment is marked as shown in illustration D043DG below. Which of the following is the portion of the symbol indicated by the letter A?Not learned 538. A case received for shipment has the markings shown in illustration D043DG below. Each carton measures 13" X 15" X 23". Ignoring broken stowage what is the total cubic capacity the entire consignment will occupy?Not learned 539. A case received for shipment has the markings shown in illustration D043DG below. Each carton measures 13" X 15" X 23". What is the total cubic capacity the entire consignment will occupy if you assume 10% broken stowage?Not learned 540. What is the cause of most minor spills of oil products?Not learned 541. Certain cargoes must be segregated because of their __________.Not learned 542. The Certificate of Freeboard is the __________.Not learned 543. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Certificate of Inspection for a containership?Not learned 544. The Certificate of Inspection of a damaged tank barge has expired. What certificate authorizes the barge to move to a repair facility for repair and inspection?Not learned 545. The Certificate of Inspection on a passenger vessel of over 100 gross tons must be posted __________.Not learned 546. The Certificate of Inspection for your tankship authorizes the carriage of grade A and lower products. Which chemical may NOT be carried unless it is specifically endorsed on the Certificate of Inspection?Not learned 547. Which certificate is issued by the American Bureau of Shipping?Not learned 548. Which certificate is NOT issued by the Coast Guard?Not learned 549. A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.Not learned 550. Who certifies the safe working load of cargo booms on a vessel?Not learned 551. A change of a documented vessel's name can only be made by which organization?Not learned 552. Which characteristic is a disadvantage of a controllable- pitch propeller as compared to a fixed-pitch propeller?Not learned 553. Which is characteristic of a "special cargo"?Not learned 554. What characterizes a Ro-Ro vessel?Not learned 555. Which should you check before letting the anchor go?Not learned 556. A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if such damage is the result of failure of the ship's officers to take which action?Not learned 557. In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a __________.Not learned 558. When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using which of the following?Not learned 559. Closed freight containers and closed cargo units are used in the shipment of freight. Which of the following defines these terms?Not learned 560. CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must __________.Not learned 561. A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by __________.Not learned 562. How can the Coast Guard determine that a crew member is "able to understand any order spoken by the officers"?Not learned 563. You are coming to anchor in 8 fathoms of water. In this case, how should the anchor be deployed?Not learned 564. When commencing cargo operations on a container ship, one cell at a hatch is generally discharged completely (to the bottom of the ship) before removing any containers from the adjoining cells to __________.Not learned 565. Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels?Not learned 566. Which is a common occurrence when a vessel is running into shallow water?Not learned 567. When comparing twin screw tug to single-screw tugs, which statement about a twin-screw tug is FALSE?Not learned 568. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded on board. It should be kept in a conspicuous location __________.Not learned 569. What should you be concerned with when loading and securing vehicles aboard a Ro-Ro vessel?Not learned 570. What should you be concerned with when loading and securing vehicles on a Ro-Ro?Not learned 571. Conditions for crossing a rough bar are usually best at __________.Not learned 572. Which condition must be met during a stability test on an inspected vessel?Not learned 573. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?Not learned 574. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?Not learned 575. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?Not learned 576. A condition where two currents meet at the downstream end of a middle bar can be determined by observing which situation?Not learned 577. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 45°Not learned 578. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 75Not learned 579. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 90°Not learned 580. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 180°?Not learned 581. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 45°?Not learned 582. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn you take the ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 75°?Not learned 583. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 90°?Not learned 584. The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.Not learned 585. You are conning a twin-screw vessel going ahead with rudders amidships. How will the vessel respond if the port screw stops turning?Not learned 586. When considering a vessel's stability, which spaces in a general cargo vessel are the best locations for the carriage of bulk grain?Not learned 587. Containers of flammable solids should be conspicuously labeled by the shipper with a __________.Not learned 588. You are on a container vessel. What concerning the handling and stowage of containerized hazardous materials is TRUE?Not learned 589. Container vessels are required to maintain an Oil Record Book when the vessel is __________?Not learned 590. You are on a containership. The cargo includes a container of small arms ammunition, a container of lead-acid storage batteries and a container of methyl acetylene bottles. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 591. You are on a containership carrying a tank container that had been filled with sodium hydroxide solution. The container is empty but has not been cleaned. Which, if any, placard is required?Not learned 592. Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2199 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo?Not learned 593. Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2206 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo?Not learned 594. Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2224 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo?Not learned 595. Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2282 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo?Not learned 596. You are on a containership. Which statement about the stowage of hazardous materials in containers is TRUE?Not learned 597. In the context of shiphandling, what would be the definition of shallow water?Not learned 598. A contract of affreightment is a __________.Not learned 599. The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following EXCEPT which item?Not learned 600. Which is the correct procedure for anchoring a small to medium size vessel in deep water?Not learned 601. Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of label?Not learned 602. How is Cottonseed oil classed?Not learned 603. How could lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels be stowed when not in use?Not learned 604. You are on a course of 000°T and put the rudder right 30°. In which direction will the transfer be measured?Not learned 605. When should a crane boom-up so high that the boom hits the stops?Not learned 606. The crane manufacturer's operating tables are posted near the __________.Not learned 607. You are the credentialed Master of a 100 GT towing vessel sailing coastwise. What percentage of the deck crew must be able to understand any order spoken by the officers?Not learned 608. You are the credentialed Master of a 199 GT uninspected towing vessel making a 500 mile coastwise trip. You carry a deck crew of six (6). Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 609. Each crewmember has an assigned firefighting station. This assignment is shown on the __________.Not learned 610. "Cribbing" is __________.Not learned 611. Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as __________.Not learned 612. A Danforth lightweight anchor usually skips along and does NOT hold well in which bottom?Not learned 613. The dangerous cargo manifest does NOT include which item of information?Not learned 614. A "dangerous cargo manifest" is needed for you to carry a combustible cargo. You should obtain the shipping papers to make this "manifest" from the __________.Not learned 615. Which data can NOT be found on a moisture equilibrium chart?Not learned 616. When a deck cargo is secured with chain or wire lashings and grab (pear) links, which statement is FALSE?Not learned 617. Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank vessels built after January 1, 1975, must have a supply of foam-producing material to operate the system at its designed rate of foam production for __________.Not learned 618. The deck load capacity of a compartment into which you intend to load a cargo of soft brick is 380 lbs. per sq. ft. The stowage factor of the brick is 21.3. Disregarding broken stowage, what is the maximum height the brick may be stacked without endangering the structure?Not learned 619. Deckhands onboard towing vessels shall be divided into 3 watches when on a trip exceeding what length?Not learned 620. The declaration made by the Master when he anticipates hull and/or cargo damage due to unusual weather conditions is a __________.Not learned 621. A declaration made by the Master before a U.S. Consul, giving particulars regarding heavy weather or other incidents which may have caused damage to the vessel or cargo, through no fault of the vessel, her officers, or crew is a(n) __________.Not learned 622. Which is TRUE when a deep draft VLCC (100,000 DWT+) is navigating in a narrow channel or canal?Not learned 623. Where can the deepest water when rounding a bend in a river be located?Not learned 624. Which defines a hygroscopic cargo?Not learned 625. Which defines the pitch of a propeller on a merchant vessel?Not learned 626. Which defines the process of "Block stowage"?Not learned 627. Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E?Not learned 628. Which is described as a wedge of water building up between the bow and the nearer bank which forces the bow out and away?Not learned 629. Which describes how flanking rudders effect a vessel's heading when going astern?Not learned 630. What describes a tandem crane lift?Not learned 631. A design modification of an anchor chain which prevents kinking is the __________.Not learned 632. How can you determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry?Not learned 633. To determine the number of able seamen required on an inspected vessel, you should check which document?Not learned 634. To determine the number of inflatable liferafts required on a vessel, you should check which document?Not learned 635. To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on an inspected vessel, you should check which document?Not learned 636. To determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold, which reference would you refer to?Not learned 637. You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space?Not learned 638. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are listed in illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 30°Not learned 639. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are listed in illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the tactical diameter of the turning circle?Not learned 640. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as shown. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 60Not learned 641. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as shown. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 90°Not learned 642. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 180°?Not learned 643. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 30°?Not learned 644. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 60°?Not learned 645. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 90°?Not learned 646. In determining the scope of cable to be used when anchoring, what would NOT be considered?Not learned 647. Which device is designed to automatically hold the load if power should fail to an electric winch?Not learned 648. Which devices may be used as part of an internal communication system on a towing vessel?Not learned 649. Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine?Not learned 650. Which device is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine?Not learned 651. When the dew point of the outside air is higher than the dew point of the air in the cargo hold, which action should you take?Not learned 652. When the dew point of the outside air is lower than or equal to the dew point of the air in the cargo hold, which is the BEST action to take?Not learned 653. What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?Not learned 654. When is direct voice communication allowed in place of an internal communication system between the engine room and the operating station on a towing vessel?Not learned 655. Which is a disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 656. Which is a disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 657. Which is/are the disadvantage(s) of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 658. A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that __________.Not learned 659. The disadvantage(s) of using web lashing on light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________.Not learned 660. You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.Not learned 661. Which term defines the distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there is no slip?Not learned 662. At what distance from shore may plastic material be thrown overboard from a vessel?Not learned 663. Which term describes the distance a vessel moves in the direction of the original course from the point where the rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle?Not learned 664. Which term is used to describe the distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed?Not learned 665. Which term describes the distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full astern until the vessel is dead in the water?Not learned 666. Which document establishes the facts of a casualty and is the prima facie relief from liability for the damage?Not learned 667. Which document lists all the lifesaving equipment required for a vessel?Not learned 668. Which document has a list of names, birthplaces, and residences of persons employed on a merchant vessel bound from a U.S. port on a foreign voyage and is required at every port?Not learned 669. Which document is NOT required by law to be posted aboard a vessel?Not learned 670. Which document shows details of a tank vessel, cargoes it may carry, manning and safety equipment required?Not learned 671. Which document shows the minimum required crew a vessel must have to navigate from one port in the United States to another?Not learned 672. Which document shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage?Not learned 673. Which document is used to indicate suspected cargo damage caused by rough weather?Not learned 674. The document on a vessel, annually endorsed by an American Bureau of Shipping surveyor, is called the __________.Not learned 675. What should be done before energizing the cargo hold ventilation on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo?Not learned 676. What should be done immediately after putting down the stern ramp on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo?Not learned 677. What can be done to prevent small oil spills on deck from going overboard?Not learned 678. What should be done after putting down the ramp on a Ro-Ro vessel, prior to loading or discharging cargo?Not learned 679. You are drifting in a locale where there is no current. As a rule, your vessel will lie __________.Not learned 680. If a drill required by regulations is not completed, the Master or person in charge must __________.Not learned 681. When dropping anchor, you are stationed at the windlass brake. Which is the most important piece(s) of personnel protection equipment?Not learned 682. Due to the nature of a vessel's construction for a particular trade, it does not fully comply with the provisions of SOLAS. Where will this be indicated?Not learned 683. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage from which of the following items?Not learned 684. Which is the easiest way to dock a right-hand, single-screw vessel?Not learned 685. What effect does bank cushion have on the hull of a vessel in shallow water?Not learned 686. What effect will bank suction have on a vessel?Not learned 687. The effect known as "bank cushion" acts in which of the following ways on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel?Not learned 688. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel?Not learned 689. What effect does lifting the shank of a Stockless anchor that is set on the bottom have?Not learned 690. Which effect does speed through the water have on a vessel which is underway in shallow water?Not learned 691. When is the effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel most noticeable?Not learned 692. Which is the most effective method for towing and maneuvering on rivers and other restricted waters where wave action is limited?Not learned 693. Either one approved B-V semi-portable fire-extinguishing system or a fixed fire-extinguishing system is required to protect the engine room on uninspected towing vessels whose construction was contracted for before what date?Not learned 694. Electric cargo winches have an overload safety device which normally cuts the current to the winch motor __________.Not learned 695. If an electric cargo winch is being used to lift a draft of cargo and the engine room loses all power, which will occur?Not learned 696. The electrical components for each single crane are installed in its __________.Not learned 697. Which element(s) should be taken into account in the preparation of the "Cargo Securing Manual"?Not learned 698. Which ending is NOT acceptable in a wire rope that is free to rotate when hoisting?Not learned 699. Who enforces the U.S. pollution regulations that apply to ships?Not learned 700. Your enrolled vessel is bound from Baltimore, MD, to Norfolk, VA, via Chesapeake Bay. Which statement about the required Pilot is TRUE?Not learned 701. When you enter shallow water, which describes your vessel's rudder response and speed variations?Not learned 702. Before entering an ice area, how should a ship be trimmed?Not learned 703. Which entry on a dangerous cargo manifest concerning the classification of a cargo is correct?Not learned 704. Entries should be made in a Ro-Ro vessel's cargo-securing device record book for __________.Not learned 705. All entries in the Official Logbook must be signed by the Master and if required, who else?Not learned 706. All entries in the Official Logbook must be signed by the Master and which other person?Not learned 707. Which entry is NOT required in the Official Logbook?Not learned 708. Each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.Not learned 709. What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?Not learned 710. The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transferring oil must either be carried on board or __________.Not learned 711. In the event of an oil spill a report must be made to which of the following entities?Not learned 712. Every entry required to be made in the Official Logbook shall be signed. Who is required to sign this logbook?Not learned 713. The exact and complete identification of all cargo on board must be found on the __________.Not learned 714. Which is an example of an anchor which has a stock?Not learned 715. Which is an example of cargo damage caused by inherent vice?Not learned 716. Which is an example of failure to exercise due diligence?Not learned 717. What is an example of a fundamental objective of cargo stowage?Not learned 718. Which is an explosion hazard when exposed to flame?Not learned 719. Which factor(s) affect lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 720. Which factor(s) should be considered when loading vehicles or trailers aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 721. Which factor has the GREATEST influence on the squat of a vessel in shallow water?Not learned 722. Which factor is MOST important in preventing sweat damage within a cargo hold?Not learned 723. If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, how long may you be imprisoned for?Not learned 724. Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine?Not learned 725. Firefighting equipment requirements for a particular vessel may be found on which document?Not learned 726. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. Which is the minimum height of the letters and figures required by regulation?Not learned 727. Fire protection regulations apply to which of the towing vessels?Not learned 728. Fire protection regulations for towing vessels do NOT allow which type of fuel piping to be used on the vessel?Not learned 729. Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require that drills be conducted on board the vessel as if there were an actual emergency. Drills include all of the following, EXCEPT which item?Not learned 730. Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require any fuel line subject to internal head pressure from fuel in the tank to __________.Not learned 731. Fire protection regulations for towing vessels require training in all of the following, EXCEPT which of the following?Not learned 732. A fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.Not learned 733. Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gauge located at __________.Not learned 734. What is the proper name for the fitting that allows a boom to move freely both vertically and laterally?Not learned 735. A flame screen __________.Not learned 736. Flammable liquid means any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below __________.Not learned 737. The flash point of vinyl chloride is __________.Not learned 738. Which of the following is not an acceptable unit of measure to be used consistently throughout an Oil Record Book?Not learned 739. Which of the following actions are stated in the correct order prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel?Not learned 740. Which of the following best describes the requirement of the emergency pump control when used as the emergency shutdown on tank vessels?Not learned 741. Which of the following is a characteristic of Methane gas?Not learned 742. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Ro-Ro vessel?Not learned 743. Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident under which circumstances?Not learned 744. Which of the following conditions will cause a combustible gas indicator to become inoperative or give erroneous readings?Not learned 745. Which of the following is considered auxiliary securing equipment that provides extra reliability to lashing in Ro-Ro transport operations?Not learned 746. Which of the following is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher?Not learned 747. Which of the following are considered to be "road vehicles" that can be carried on Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 748. Which of the following are considered to be "road vehicles" that can be carried on Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 749. Which of the following describes the difference between a closed freight container and an open freight container?Not learned 750. Which of the following describes why topside icing, which is usually off-center, decreases vessel stability?Not learned 751. Which of the following is an inherent advantage possessed by a twin-screw vessel in opposition to a single- screw vessel?Not learned 752. Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG?Not learned 753. Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG?Not learned 754. Which of the following is/are the optional component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG?Not learned 755. Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 756. Which of the following lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be stowed when not in use?Not learned 757. Which lashing device(s) would be used in securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 758. Which of the following is not a loading or transfer feature aboard a Ro-Ro vessel?Not learned 759. Which of the following is NOT necessary, prior to loading or discharging cargo on a Ro-Ro vessel?Not learned 760. Which of the following is the primary function of the screens that are fitted to the fuel oil tank vents?Not learned 761. In which of the following publications can the requirements for shipment of hazardous materials by water be found?Not learned 762. Which of the following represents an emergency procedure used to stop the oil flow aboard tank vessels, of 250 tons or greater, as required by U.S. regulations?Not learned 763. Which of the following is a requirement of the lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit?Not learned 764. With a following sea, a vessel will tend to __________.Not learned 765. In a following sea, a wave has overtaken your vessel and thrown the stern to starboard. To continue along your original course, which action should you take?Not learned 766. Which of the following is the stated proper sequence before commencing cargo operations aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 767. Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE regarding a twin pedestal crane set?Not learned 768. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE concerning cranes being installed on the centerline of vessels?Not learned 769. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?Not learned 770. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"?Not learned 771. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 772. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?Not learned 773. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?Not learned 774. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?Not learned 775. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding a twin pedestal crane set?Not learned 776. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding crane operations?Not learned 777. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 778. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lashing requirements to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 779. Which of the following tensioning devices is used with webbing to secure light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 780. Which of the following would cause an increase in a vessel's draft?Not learned 781. Which of the following would be a good extinguishing agent for a grade B product of 1,3-Pentadiene?Not learned 782. The force acting on a single cargo runner which is vertically lifting or lowering a load is greatest when __________.Not learned 783. Which term describes the force exerted by a propeller which tends to throw the stern right or left?Not learned 784. What form of ice is of land origin?Not learned 785. What will NOT be found on the Certificate of Inspection of an oceangoing tankship?Not learned 786. How can fracture damage to the end links of the anchor cable, or to the anchor ring be eliminated?Not learned 787. Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed __________.Not learned 788. When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the most frequent cause of its being infected at the discharge port is __________.Not learned 789. Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if which condition is met?Not learned 790. Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil?Not learned 791. On the fully containerized ship, approximately one-third or more of the cargo is on deck above the rolling center. Top stowed containers are subject to __________.Not learned 792. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. Which of the following would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection?Not learned 793. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection?Not learned 794. A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) __________.Not learned 795. Where are gasoline fuel tank vents required to terminate?Not learned 796. As a general guide, under which condition should hygroscopic cargoes be ventilated?Not learned 797. In general, a reinforced vessel can safely navigate in ice provided the concentration does not exceed how many tenths?Not learned 798. In general, an un-reinforced vessel can safely navigate in ice provided the concentration does not exceed how many tenths?Not learned 799. It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________.Not learned 800. Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has __________.Not learned 801. Generally, you can best maintain a vessel's steering control under which condition(s)?Not learned 802. With a given load on the cargo hook, tension in a single span topping lift __________.Not learned 803. With a given load on the cargo hook, the thrust on a cargo boom __________.Not learned 804. What should be given, as a minimum, to personnel who are involved in crane cargo handling?Not learned 805. For any given pedestal crane, when the boom is lengthened, the lifting capacity is __________.Not learned 806. For a given weight of cargo, the stress on the heel block of a cargo boom __________.Not learned 807. You are going ahead on twin engines when you want to make a quick turn to port. Which actions will turn your boat the fastest?Not learned 808. You are going astern (single-screw, right-handed propeller) with the anchor down at a scope of twice the depth of the water. As the anchor dredges, how should you expect the vessel to react?Not learned 809. You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 100 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 62,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment, assuming 10% broken stowage?Not learned 810. You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 100 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 72,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment, assuming 10% broken stowage?Not learned 811. You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 96 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 84,000. How many tons of wool can be stowed in the compartment?Not learned 812. Grade D combustible liquids have a maximum flash point of __________.Not learned 813. Grade E combustible liquids have a flash point of __________.Not learned 814. Which is TRUE of the Great Lakes Edition of the Notice to Mariners?Not learned 815. The greatest horizontal stress between the heads of the booms in the yard and stay rig occurs when the load is in such a position that the __________.Not learned 816. The greatest strain, when lifting a load with the jumbo purchase, is on __________.Not learned 817. What is the group of markings shown in illustration D003DG below called?Not learned 818. A half-height container is used __________.Not learned 819. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.Not learned 820. In handling break bulk hazardous materials, it is forbidden to use __________.Not learned 821. When handling cargo, the majority of cargo gear breakdowns is due to __________.Not learned 822. All handling and stowage of packaged hazardous materials on board a domestic vessel engaged in foreign trade shall be done under the supervision of __________.Not learned 823. Where is the head block located on a boom?Not learned 824. You are heading into the sea during rough weather. What may happen if there is too much weight forward in your small boat?Not learned 825. A heated bulkhead has which effect on a hygroscopic commodity?Not learned 826. Where is the heel block located on a boom?Not learned 827. A high cube container is designed specifically to accomplish which task?Not learned 828. A high cube container would most likely be used to stow which cargoes?Not learned 829. A holder of a credential as Master of towing vessels may work each 24 hours for a period not to exceed how many hours?Not learned 830. The holding capabilities of an anchor are determined PRIMARILY by the __________.Not learned 831. Which indicates the holding capability of an anchor?Not learned 832. The holding power of an anchor at a given scope of cable increases when which occurs?Not learned 833. Who must inspect and test hoses used for cargo transfer operations, at specified intervals?Not learned 834. No hot work shall be performed on board a vessel with hazardous materials as cargo unless the work is approved by the __________.Not learned 835. When hugging a bank in a narrow channel, you should take precautions against __________.Not learned 836. If a hydraulic pump on a winch accidentally stops while hoisting, the load will stay suspended because __________.Not learned 837. "Ice blink" is __________.Not learned 838. Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice corresponds to 1- 3 tenths?Not learned 839. Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice corresponds to "Close Pack"?Not learned 840. Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice corresponds to "Open Pack"?Not learned 841. You are on an ice-reinforced vessel about to enter pack ice. Which action should you take?Not learned 842. In illustration D038DG below, the crown of the anchor is indicated by which letter?Not learned 843. In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the anchor shackle?Not learned 844. In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the pea?Not learned 845. In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the tripping palm?Not learned 846. In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "I"?Not learned 847. In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "H"?Not learned 848. In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "J"?Not learned 849. In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "K"?Not learned 850. In illustration D038DG below, what type of anchor is depicted?Not learned 851. The Immigration and Naturalization Service is concerned with which document on a vessel making preliminary entry into a U.S. port from a foreign port?Not learned 852. The IMO requires Cargo Securing Manuals on certain vessels. Which of the following are required to maintain this manual onboard?Not learned 853. The most important safety consideration during loading or discharge aboard a Ro-Ro vessel is __________.Not learned 854. What is NOT an indication that pack ice may be nearby?Not learned 855. An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill. What size spill is this equipment required to control and remove?Not learned 856. On inspected cargo vessels, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of __________.Not learned 857. On an inspected vessel, which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on the waterline at her deepest operating draft?Not learned 858. On an inspected vessel, when may a stability test be dispensed with?Not learned 859. When inspecting ground tackle, where are fractures most frequently found?Not learned 860. You are inspecting the nonmetallic oil transfer hoses on the vessel you operate. The maximum allowable pressure of the hose is 70 psi. Your inspection confirms the hose did not burst, bulge, leak or abnormally distort under the required static liquid. Which pressure was used for this test?Not learned 861. When inspecting a tank barge to see that it has all the required fire extinguishers and other safety items aboard, which of the following is the best source for determining what is required?Not learned 862. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. Which is TRUE when complying with regulations?Not learned 863. When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, how should you instruct him/her?Not learned 864. Instructions to the crew in the use of all the ship's fire-extinguishing and lifesaving equipment shall be completed within which time frame?Not learned 865. Insufficient space between the hull and bottom in shallow water will prevent normal screw currents resulting in __________.Not learned 866. You intend to discharge medical or hazardous wastes ashore. MARPOL Annex V requires you to notify a receiving port or terminal in advance. How much advance notice is required?Not learned 867. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel. As you approach the other vessel's stern __________.Not learned 868. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside faces of the cargo battens, the lower side of the deck beams, and the top of the tank top ceiling is known as the __________.Not learned 869. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside of the side shell, the underside of the deck, and the tank top is known as the __________.Not learned 870. Which international body is responsible for drafting the MARPOL convention prohibiting marine pollution?Not learned 871. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 1 substances?Not learned 872. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 3 substances?Not learned 873. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 5 substances?Not learned 874. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 7 substances?Not learned 875. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 8 substances?Not learned 876. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes to dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 9 substances?Not learned 877. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns dangerous goods into classes. How many main classes are there?Not learned 878. The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.Not learned 879. An International Tonnage Certificate will be issued to a vessel when it meets several requirements. Which is one of the requirements?Not learned 880. On an international voyage, a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or more operating two fire pumps simultaneously is required to have a minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets. What is the minimum required pressure?Not learned 881. On an international voyage, how many fire axes is a cargo vessel of 14,000 GT required to carry?Not learned 882. An IOPP Certificate on an inspected vessel is valid for what period of time?Not learned 883. After an IOPP Certificate is issued to an inspected vessel, how many other surveys of the vessel's pollution prevention equipment are conducted during the period of validity of the certificate?Not learned 884. What is the MOST irritating to the skin?Not learned 885. What is/are the advantage(s) of cranes over conventional cargo booms?Not learned 886. What is/are the advantage(s) of using web lashing on light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 887. What does item "C" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 888. Which item is designed to be a safety stopper that prevents the anchor cable from running free if the cable jumps the wildcat?Not learned 889. What does item "E" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 890. What does item "G" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 891. Which item indicates the maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged?Not learned 892. Which item is a journal kept by the officer of the watch in which day to day happenings are recorded regarding the deck department?Not learned 893. What does item "K" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 894. Which item may be substituted for, in the fireman's outfit, on a cargo vessel?Not learned 895. Which item must be entered in the official log?Not learned 896. Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast Guard representative at the time of a stability test?Not learned 897. What does item "A" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 898. What does item "D" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 899. Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?Not learned 900. Which item shall the Master insure regarding the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB)?Not learned 901. For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.Not learned 902. What does a jib refer to on a crane?Not learned 903. You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. How must the amount of garbage disposed of be stated?Not learned 904. The label required on containers carrying barium oxide in an international shipment must read __________.Not learned 905. The label required for magnesium scrap is __________.Not learned 906. You are landing a single-screw vessel, with a right-hand propeller, starboard side to the dock. When you have approached the berth and back the engine, how would you expect the vessel to respond?Not learned 907. Most very large ocean going vessels, such as bulk carriers and large tankers, tend to squat __________.Not learned 908. There is a large shipment of case goods available to be loaded on your vessel. You are to load as many tons as possible in a hold which has 32,300 cubic feet left unfilled by cargo. Each case measures 2-feet high by 2- feet wide by 4-feet long and weighs 500 pounds. If you allow a broken stowage allowance of 10% of the 32,300 feet, what is the nearest whole number of tons which may be loaded?Not learned 909. A large vessel is equipped with a controllable pitch propeller. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 910. You are on a large vessel fitted with a right-handed controllable-pitch propeller. When making large speed changes while decreasing pitch, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 911. You are on a large vessel fitted with a right-handed controllable-pitch propeller set at maximum forward pitch. Which statement about reversing is TRUE?Not learned 912. What is the largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a hospital space?Not learned 913. Which lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be painted or soaked in oil when not in use?Not learned 914. Which lashing material is preferred when securing new cars aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 915. The lashings on a stack of containers with interlocking fittings restrain the forces that cause __________.Not learned 916. The lashings used on Ro-Ro vessels should be capable of withstanding the forces of __________.Not learned 917. Which color is the last shot of an anchor cable usually painted?Not learned 918. The latch of a safety hook __________.Not learned 919. Who is the legal owner of the Oil Record Book for a fixed or floating drilling rig?Not learned 920. What do the letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire extinguishers indicate?Not learned 921. What does "level-luffing" accomplish during crane operations?Not learned 922. Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.Not learned 923. Where should life jackets be stowed? (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)Not learned 924. You are lifting a 3 ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom.Not learned 925. You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 20° to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom.Not learned 926. You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 60? to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom?Not learned 927. Which term describes the process of lifting the anchor from the bottom?Not learned 928. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is true?Not learned 929. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses in the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 930. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 931. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 932. Which will most likely occur when your vessel enters shallow water?Not learned 933. What limits the maximum theoretical stress that can be developed on a guy in a yard and stay rig?Not learned 934. Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.Not learned 935. The load chart of a crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________.Not learned 936. You will load class 1.2 commercial explosives and need to construct a portable magazine. The magazine MUST __________.Not learned 937. You will load class 1.2 commercial explosives and need to construct a portable magazine. Which is a requirement of the magazine?Not learned 938. Your load line certificate expires on 27 May 1988. The vessel is surveyed on that date and is found satisfactory. You are sailing foreign the same day. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 939. A load line certificate is valid for how many years?Not learned 940. You are to load styrene in bulk, which is subject to self-polymerization. In accordance with 46 CFR Table 153 what are you required to do?Not learned 941. You have loaded dangerous cargo on your vessel and must fill out a Dangerous Cargo Manifest. In which publication would you find the requirements to complete this form?Not learned 942. Before loading bulk grain, why should the bilge wells be covered with burlap?Not learned 943. You are loading a cargo of cases into a hold which has a bale cubic of 44,000. The cargo consists of cases measuring 4 ft by 2 ft by 1.5 ft. Estimated broken stowage is 15%. What is the maximum number of cases which can be stowed in the hold?Not learned 944. You are loading a cargo that includes cylinders of acetylene aboard your break bulk vessel. Which statement is true?Not learned 945. You are loading a cargo tank on your container ship. The tank displays the red label as shown in illustration D023DG below. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 946. When loading containers into the cell guides in the hold of a container ship, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 947. When loading a container vessel, the operation is basically that of vertical loading. The important factors to be considered when loading containers are the port of discharge, and which of the following?Not learned 948. While loading or discharging vehicles, which is the most important safety consideration aboard a Ro-Ro vessel?Not learned 949. If you are loading fruit in reefer spaces and you notice that the fruit is beginning to mold, which action should you take?Not learned 950. You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 951. You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)Not learned 952. What secures the locking pin, that joins the parts of a detachable link, in position?Not learned 953. Which log includes a statement of the conduct, ability, and character of each crew member on the completion of a voyage?Not learned 954. Which logbook is required to be submitted to the Coast Guard?Not learned 955. How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on board?Not learned 956. How long must the operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel oil transfer operation keep a signed copy of the declaration of inspection for?Not learned 957. How long are the records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems required to be kept on board?Not learned 958. How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the transferring of oil to other vessels keep the Declaration of Inspection of those transfers?Not learned 959. How long is the standard container used to measure equivalent units?Not learned 960. A lot of special cargo as shown in illustration D042DG below is to be loaded aboard your vessel. You examine one of the cartons of the lot shown. Assuming no broken stowage what is the total cubic space the consignment will occupy?Not learned 961. A lot of special cargo of similar cartons as shown in illustration D042DG below is to be loaded. What is the total cubic capacity the consignment will occupy if you assume 10% broken stowage?Not learned 962. A lot of special cargo of similar cartons, as shown in illustration D042DG below, is to be loaded. What is the weight of the consignment?Not learned 963. The lower hold of your vessel has a bale capacity of 60,000 cubic feet. How many tons of cotton in bales having a stowage factor of 85 can be stowed in the lower hold, assuming a broken stowage factor of 20%?Not learned 964. The lower hold of your vessel has a bale cubic of 52,000 cu. ft. You will load a cargo of cases, each weighing 380 lbs. and measuring 3 ft. x 2 ft. x 2 ft. The estimated broken stowage is 15%. How many tons of cases can be loaded?Not learned 965. What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air in the presence of an ignition source?Not learned 966. The machinery associated with heaving in and running out anchor chain is the __________.Not learned 967. In the machinery space of all uninspected motor vessels, there must be one type 20-B hand portable fire extinguisher for which of the following?Not learned 968. What is the main advantage and chief characteristic of a Steulchen boom?Not learned 969. What is the main function of the center stud in an anchor chain?Not learned 970. What is a major consideration when determining the scope of anchor line to pay out when anchoring a small boat?Not learned 971. After making the required notification that a large oil spill into the water has occurred, what is the Next action that should be taken?Not learned 972. You are making a sharp turn in a channel and using a buoy four points on the bow to gauge your rate of turn. If you observe the buoy moving aft relative to you, what should you do?Not learned 973. You are making a sharp turn in a channel and using a buoy four points on the bow to gauge your rate of turn. If you observe the buoy moving forward relative to you, what should you do?Not learned 974. When making way in heavy seas you notice that your vessel's screw is being lifted clear of the water and racing. Which action will correct the situation?Not learned 975. When maneuvering in restricted waters the effect of squat on a vessel varies proportionally to the speed. Which factor is utilized for general calculations?Not learned 976. On a manned vessel carrying packaged hazardous cargo, the hazardous materials shall be inspected __________.Not learned 977. On a manned vessel transporting hazardous materials what is the frequency of required inspections of cargo holds where the materials are stowed?Not learned 978. How many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of a 260 GT uninspected tow vessel with 2400 B.H.P.?Not learned 979. What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI (American National Standards Institute) 8-bolt flange for the transfer of cargo oil?Not learned 980. Many dangerous cargoes are stowed on deck because of the __________.Not learned 981. How many fathoms are in a shot of anchor cable?Not learned 982. How many fire axes should be carried by a 700 GT cargo vessel, navigating the Great Lakes?Not learned 983. How many feet are there in 2 shots of anchor chain?Not learned 984. How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the weather decks of a tankship?Not learned 985. How many turns of wire normally mark either side of the detachable link 45 fathoms from the anchor?Not learned 986. How many type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the machinery space of an uninspected towing vessel with 1,400 B.H.P.?Not learned 987. A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by which organization?Not learned 988. A Master should file a marine note of protest if __________.Not learned 989. If a Master must jettison a container loaded with hazardous material, he must, as soon as possible, notify the __________.Not learned 990. The Master must maintain the Oil Record Book on board for which duration?Not learned 991. How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard?Not learned 992. The Master of a passenger vessel which is not required to maintain an Official Logbook must keep a record of the number of passengers received and delivered from day to day. This record must be available for a period of __________.Not learned 993. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.Not learned 994. You are Master of a vessel that is sold in a foreign country after discharge of cargo. What is your responsibility to the crew in regards to return to the United States?Not learned 995. Matches and lighters are prohibited on vessels handling Class 1 explosive materials except in a designated area. In accordance with U.S. regulations who may designate this area on the vessel?Not learned 996. You are the mate on watch during cargo operations and are conducting the inspection of a hold containing class 3 substances. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is TRUE of any hand flashlight you may be using?Not learned 997. Which material should NOT be used to secure cargo on deck for a voyage?Not learned 998. What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel?Not learned 999. What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D049DG can lift in the twin mode?Not learned 1000. What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D051DG can lift when married together in twin with the other pair of cranes at the opposite end of the hatch?Not learned 1001. You may BEST turn a twin-screw vessel about, to the right, in a narrow channel by using __________.Not learned 1002. Who may certify a towing vessel's fire detection system to comply with the Coast Guard's fire protection regulations?Not learned 1003. Where may a crewmember find information on the fire and abandon ship stations and his/her assigned duties?Not learned 1004. Which may indicate the proximity of pack ice?Not learned 1005. Who may serve as the "person in charge" of loading and discharge operations aboard a tankship?Not learned 1006. What may NOT be used when securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1007. What does it mean to "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo?Not learned 1008. What is meant by "spotting the boom"?Not learned 1009. What is meant by the term "broaching to"?Not learned 1010. What is meant by the term "level-luffing" a crane?Not learned 1011. What is meant by the term "luffing the boom" of a crane?Not learned 1012. What is meant by the term "topping the boom"?Not learned 1013. What is meant by veering the anchor chain?Not learned 1014. Which measure should NOT be taken to reduce the pounding of a vessel in a head sea?Not learned 1015. What does the minimum amount of lifesaving equipment required aboard an 85-foot uninspected towing vessel consists of?Not learned 1016. How is the minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly determined?Not learned 1017. What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?Not learned 1018. What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton vessel constructed after June 30,1974?Not learned 1019. What is the minimum number of 20-B hand portable fire extinguishers required on board a 105 GT uninspected towboat built in 2017 with a 7500 B.H.P. plant (including the machinery space)?Not learned 1020. What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling?Not learned 1021. What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary bolted flange oil hose coupling that meets American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standard flange requirements?Not learned 1022. What is the minimum number of fire axes required on a vessel of 900 GT?Not learned 1023. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT?Not learned 1024. What is the minimum number of portable 20-B fire extinguishers required in the machinery space of a 199 GT uninspected motor towing vessel of 8000 B.H.P that was built in 2017?Not learned 1025. What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot uninspected towing vessel having a fixed fire system on board?Not learned 1026. What is the minimum number of Type B-II hand portable fire extinguishers required to be aboard a 3,000 BHP, 99 GT uninspected harbor tug?Not learned 1027. What is the minimum size required before a vessel can be documented?Not learned 1028. What is the minimum standard for making an eye splice in a wire to be used as cargo gear?Not learned 1029. What mode of transportation does the IMDGC cover?Not learned 1030. In moderate wind and current what should be the length of chain with a single anchor?Not learned 1031. You are aboard a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is dead in the water and the rudder is amidships. If you reverse your engine how would you expect your vessel to respond?Not learned 1032. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T what is the purpose of fuses in electric wiring?Not learned 1033. Which is the BEST action to take if your vessel is dragging her anchor in a strong wind?Not learned 1034. Which is the BEST method of determining if a vessel is dragging anchor?Not learned 1035. What does the boom indicator on a crane indicate?Not learned 1036. A cargo hose is marked with which of the following?Not learned 1037. You are in charge of a U.S. documented vessel. Under title 46 of the United States Code, if you fail to report a complaint of a sexual offense, which action(s) may be taken against you?Not learned 1038. When chipping rust on a vessel, which is the most important piece(s) of personnel protection equipment?Not learned 1039. If there is a discrepancy in the cargo totals, between the cargo onboard the vessel and the cargo listed in the cargo manifest, the more accurate account of cargo totals can be found in which item?Not learned 1040. How does a drift lead indicate that the vessel is dragging anchor?Not learned 1041. Which expresses the term leeway?Not learned 1042. Fire protection regulations for towing vessels allow you to use a nonmetallic flexible hose in fuel line installations EXCEPT under which condition?Not learned 1043. How is forty-five fathoms marked on the anchor chain?Not learned 1044. Given a dry bulb temperature of 78°F and wet bulb temperature of 66.5°F, what is the dew point?Not learned 1045. An individual must be which of the following to serve as the person in charge of oil cargo transfer operations onboard a self-propelled tank vessel?Not learned 1046. You are landing a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller port side to a dock. As you approach the dock, you back down on your engine with rudder amidships. How would you expect the vessel to respond?Not learned 1047. Which is the length of a standard "shot" of anchor chain?Not learned 1048. You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has no tugs available. You decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. How much chain should you out?Not learned 1049. What is the meaning of the term tare weight?Not learned 1050. Which is the nomenclature for the metal plates that cover the top of the hawsepipe on a vessel?Not learned 1051. Where can the number of certificated lifeboatmen required for a vessel be found?Not learned 1052. You observe a V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream in a river. What may this indicate?Not learned 1053. Official proof of an American vessel's nationality is contained in which document?Not learned 1054. When oil is accidentally discharged overboard, an entry is required to be made in which log?Not learned 1055. The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships is the property of the ________.Not learned 1056. What is one of the main purposes of dunnage?Not learned 1057. You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include which item(s)?Not learned 1058. After each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture, when shall an entry be recorded in the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1059. Which is NOT a part of an anchor?Not learned 1060. Which part of a windlass physically engages the chain during hauling or paying out?Not learned 1061. On a passenger vessel over 400 gross tons, in which section are the routine entries recorded in the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1062. You are planning to anchor in an area where several anchors have been lost due to fouling. What precaution should you take?Not learned 1063. What do pollution regulations require of each scupper and/or drain that is located in an enclosed deck area?Not learned 1064. You are proceeding along the right bank of a narrow channel aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel. The vessel starts to sheer due to bank suction/cushion effect. Which action should you take?Not learned 1065. Which term describes the process of lowering a boom to a horizontal position and onto its deck support?Not learned 1066. If your propeller is racing in rough weather, which action should you take?Not learned 1067. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the propeller blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and vibration. Which term defines this effect?Not learned 1068. Which is the proper term for a band or collar on the top end of a boom to which the topping lift, midships guy, and outboard guys are secured?Not learned 1069. Which is the proper term given to a stopper used in securing the ground tackle for sea that consists of a grab attached to a turnbuckle?Not learned 1070. Which is the proper term used for keeping certain cargoes separated because of their inherent characteristics?Not learned 1071. Which is the proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook?Not learned 1072. Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw packing materials that will float into the sea to be in compliance with MARPOL Regulations?Not learned 1073. Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea?Not learned 1074. When referring to dry bulk cargoes, which defines the term "flow state"?Not learned 1075. Which is a requirement of a vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast?Not learned 1076. Who is responsible for the preparation of muster lists and signing of same?Not learned 1077. As a rule, ships of most configurations, when drifting in calm water with negligible current, will lie in which orientation?Not learned 1078. When running before a heavy sea, what will moving weights aft on the vessel accomplish?Not learned 1079. You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX V of MARPOL. What is the minimum distance in nautical miles from land must you be to discharge ground food garbage that will pass through a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea?Not learned 1080. A seaman assaults the Second Mate and injures him with a beer bottle while the ship is at sea. The incident is logged in the Official Logbook. In subsequent suspension and revocation proceedings against the seaman, according to the regulations, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1081. Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's speed past its "critical speed"?Not learned 1082. You are shifting a gas free tank barge to dry dock for repairs. The barge must have onboard which document?Not learned 1083. As a ship moves through the water, it causes a wake, which is also moving forward relative to the sea. In addition to a fore and aft motion, which direction will the wake flow?Not learned 1084. As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. Which term defines the ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed?Not learned 1085. A shipper of cargo aboard your vessel offers a letter of indemnity for the cargo. This is done in order to obtain which document?Not learned 1086. If you shorten the scope of anchor cable, what is the effect of your anchor's holding power?Not learned 1087. Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left, depending on rotation. Which causes this force?Not learned 1088. As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must they do FIRST?Not learned 1089. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1090. Which statement is TRUE when amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, and the revisions have been submitted to the Coast Guard?Not learned 1091. Which statement is TRUE when mousing a cargo hook with marline or small line?Not learned 1092. Which statement is TRUE when using the anchor to steady the bow while approaching a dock?Not learned 1093. The stowage factor for a cargo is based cubic feet and which other item?Not learned 1094. Which is the proper term used to describe a stream of water immediately surrounding a moving vessel's hull, flowing in the same direction as the vessel?Not learned 1095. A survey of refrigerated cargo, to certify that proper methods of stowage were utilized, can be conducted by which organization?Not learned 1096. Sweat damage in a hatch full of canned goods in cartons will occur when which condition exists?Not learned 1097. Sweat damage will occur in a non-ventilated cargo hold containing cased machinery when which condition exists?Not learned 1098. A Temporary Certificate of Inspection is effective until which time period?Not learned 1099. Which term defines when a boat turns broadside to heavy seas and winds, thus exposing the boat to the danger of capsizing?Not learned 1100. Which term defines "An electronic or electric device that indicates the rate of turn of a vessel"?Not learned 1101. Which term defines the process of dividing the total volume of the ship in cubic feet (after omission of exempted spaces) by 100?Not learned 1102. Which term defines when a vessel is swinging from side to side off course due to quartering seas?Not learned 1103. Which term describes Cargoes that might leak from containers?Not learned 1104. Which term describes damage to cargo caused by fumes or vapors from liquids, gases, or solids?Not learned 1105. Which is the term given to the opening in the deck beneath the anchor windlass that leads to the chain locker?Not learned 1106. Which term is given to the placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook?Not learned 1107. You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. Who is required to sign the Dangerous Cargo Manifest acknowledging the correctness of the document?Not learned 1108. Which is TRUE for a vessel's Certificate of Documentation?Not learned 1109. If a tug equipped with flanking rudders is to be turned in a confined circle, when going astern, which is the best action to take to make the stern move to port?Not learned 1110. A twin screw vessel, making headway with both engines turning ahead, will turn more readily to starboard if you take which action?Not learned 1111. All U.S. Flag vessels engaged in foreign trade are required to be which of the following?Not learned 1112. You are underway in heavy weather and your bow is into the seas. Which action should you take to prevent pounding?Not learned 1113. In the United States, which organization sets the load line markings?Not learned 1114. You should NOT use a power tool if which condition exists?Not learned 1115. What is used to power most modern pedestal cranes on cargo vessels?Not learned 1116. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 76°F and the wet bulb temperature is 58°F, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1117. Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. How can you reduce the danger of capsizing?Not learned 1118. Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a temporary certificate. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1119. When a vessel is entering or leaving a port, where is the record of engine speeds kept?Not learned 1120. Your vessel is loaded with nonhygroscopic cargoes and is going from a cold to a warm climate. Which action should you take to avoid sweat damage while on the voyage?Not learned 1121. A vessel reduces speed without backing. Which item is the primary factor that determines the rate that her speed through the water decreases?Not learned 1122. Your vessel is a single-screw ship with a right-hand propeller. There is no current. Which is the easiest way to make a landing?Not learned 1123. When is a vessel tide rode?Not learned 1124. Why is a VLCC (100,000 DWT+) with a 30,000 Shaft Horsepower Steam Turbine slow to respond to engine movements, and has less stopping power than normal ships?Not learned 1125. Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared as which of the following?Not learned 1126. What would be the amount of strain on each runner of a married fall system lifting 2000 lbs. when the angle made by the legs is 90°?Not learned 1127. When would a U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service NOT subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 1128. On a MODU, where MUST the fire control plan be posted?Not learned 1129. Mooring with two bow anchors has which major advantage over anchoring with one bow anchor?Not learned 1130. Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.Not learned 1131. How much foam does an A B-III foam extinguisher contain?Not learned 1132. Multi-year ice is the hardest sea ice and should be avoided if possible. It is recognizable because of what tone to its surface color?Not learned 1133. Multiple factors will have an effect on your vessel when it is maneuvering in restricted waters. Which of the following factors is the combination of sinkage and trim of the vessel?Not learned 1134. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of allyl alcohol, benzene, and propanolamine. Which of the following is true?Not learned 1135. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of butyric acid, propylene oxide, and octyl alcohol. Which statement is true?Not learned 1136. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of ethanolamine, methyl acrylate, and glycerine. Which statement is true?Not learned 1137. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of isophorone, ethylenediamine, and creosote. Which of the following is TRUE?Not learned 1138. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker. The loading plan includes cargoes of diethylenetriamine and formamide. Which statement concerning the stowage of these cargoes is TRUE?Not learned 1139. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker with orders to load diethylamine. What is NOT a requirement for transporting this cargo?Not learned 1140. You are on a multiple product tankship and carrying methyl acrylate, diethanolamine, and triethylamine. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1141. You are on a multiple-product tankship and scheduled to load a cargo classed as an aromatic amine. This cargo is incompatible with cargoes classed as __________.Not learned 1142. Who must approve the vessel's trim and stability booklet?Not learned 1143. Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly?Not learned 1144. What must Inland vessels of 100 GT and over be fitted with for oily mixtures?Not learned 1145. You must load as much of a large shipment of case goods as possible into a hold which has 24,000 cubic feet of space. Each case measures 2 feet by 2-1/2 feet by 4 feet and weighs 448 pounds. If you allow for broken stowage of 15%, how many long tons can be loaded?Not learned 1146. You must load as much of a large shipment of case goods as possible into a hold which has 24,400 cubic feet of space. Each case measures 2 feet by 2 feet by 4 feet and weighs 448 pounds. If you allow for broken stowage of 15%, how many long tons can be loaded?Not learned 1147. What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures?Not learned 1148. Where must a pressure gauge for each fire pump on a tankship be located?Not learned 1149. If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you should pump only __________.Not learned 1150. Who must sign the Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer operations?Not learned 1151. Muster Lists and emergency instructions are required for all SOLAS vessels. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to different members of the crew including which of the following?Not learned 1152. The muster list must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.Not learned 1153. Which is the requirement for the name and hailing port of a documented commercial vessel?Not learned 1154. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter B in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1155. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter E in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1156. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter D in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1157. The National Cargo Bureau represents the __________.Not learned 1158. In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) __________.Not learned 1159. Why is it necessary to extend ventilators of gasoline powered vessels to the bilges?Not learned 1160. Which is a negotiable document?Not learned 1161. One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY take which action?Not learned 1162. For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have __________.Not learned 1163. Which is TRUE when you pay out more anchor cable?Not learned 1164. Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and weighs 36 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1165. Vessels subject to SOLAS are required to have which of the following items onboard to aid in SAR communications?Not learned 1166. Which color is the next-to-last shot of an anchor cable usually painted?Not learned 1167. Under normal operating conditions aboard a ship, who has the overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1168. Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a stack of containers with twist locks, lashings are required when the tier exceeds what height?Not learned 1169. You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side?Not learned 1170. When you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel, what should your first action be?Not learned 1171. You notice that your speed has decreased, the stern of your vessel has settled into the water, and your rudder is sluggish in responding. The MOST likely cause is __________.Not learned 1172. Who should be notified prior to starting up a crane?Not learned 1173. The number of able seamen required on board a vessel can be found in which document?Not learned 1174. The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.Not learned 1175. The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a vessel is determined by which organization?Not learned 1176. The number or name of a tank barge shall be __________.Not learned 1177. How is the number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel computed?Not learned 1178. When observed, which item indicates a snag or other underwater obstruction in a river?Not learned 1179. In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.Not learned 1180. Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice must you give the port or terminal?Not learned 1181. Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for __________.Not learned 1182. Odorous cargoes are those that __________.Not learned 1183. You are the officer on watch and have taken the final drafts of your vessel prior to getting underway. The vessel takes departure and proceeds outbound in a narrow channel. As the vessel increases speed and gains momentum, what will be the effect on the mean draft?Not learned 1184. The official identification of a vessel is found in which document?Not learned 1185. An Official Logbook is required on which vessel?Not learned 1186. Which is TRUE concerning the official number of a documented vessel?Not learned 1187. On Offshore Drilling units, in addition to the life jackets stowed at each berth location, life jackets must be stowed at each work station and __________.Not learned 1188. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge?Not learned 1189. The oil record book is required to be carried aboard __________.Not learned 1190. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for not less than __________.Not learned 1191. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry must be made in which log?Not learned 1192. Onboard a Ro-Ro vessel many decks are used for the carriage of both rolling and container cargoes, as such it is most useful if a deck socket accepts both __________.Not learned 1193. One shot of anchor chain is equal to how many feet (meters)?Not learned 1194. Which term describes the opening in the deck that leads the anchor cable outside the hull?Not learned 1195. You are operating a 1,000 GT non-oceangoing tankship. It must be equipped with __________.Not learned 1196. You are operating a 150 GT towing vessel. What is NOT required on the vessel?Not learned 1197. When operating in an area where sea ice and icebergs are present, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1198. If you are operating on the Inland Waters of the United States, which of the following may you discharge overboard?Not learned 1199. You are operating a non-ocean-going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board?Not learned 1200. Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100 gross tons it must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What other item must this system include?Not learned 1201. While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. When should these entries be made?Not learned 1202. Which operating procedure(s) should be adhered to on a Ro-Ro vessel?Not learned 1203. You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You are NOT permitted to carry oil or hazardous materials in a(n) __________.Not learned 1204. You are operating a twin-screw vessel and lose your port engine. You continue to operate on your starboard engine only. Which action would you take to move your vessel ahead in a straight line?Not learned 1205. For operations in pack ice, a vessel should __________.Not learned 1206. As operator of a 199 GT towing vessel sailing foreign, it shall be your duty to enter in the Official Logbook or other permanent record which entry?Not learned 1207. You are the operator of a 290 GRT uninspected towing vessel whose construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. Which type of semi-portable fire extinguishing system is required on your vessel?Not learned 1208. You are the operator of a 295 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Which type of fire extinguishing system is required on your vessel, if its construction was contracted for before August 27, 2003?Not learned 1209. You are the operator of a 296 GRT uninspected towing vessel. Its construction was contracted for after August 27, 2003. In addition to the hand portable fire extinguishers, how much other fire extinguishing equipment are you required to have on board?Not learned 1210. The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of which item?Not learned 1211. The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written record available for inspection by the COPT or OCMI. What will this record contain?Not learned 1212. Which statement is TRUE to back a right-handed, single-screw vessel in a straight line?Not learned 1213. You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer commodities. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1214. You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1215. You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1216. You are ordering hazardous ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1217. The organization that certifies the safe working load of cargo cranes on a vessel is the __________.Not learned 1218. Which organization would conduct a survey of the insulation in a reefer compartment prior to loading cargo?Not learned 1219. The original Bill of Lading, once signed by the Master, is NOT __________.Not learned 1220. Which is TRUE of outlets in gasoline fuel lines of your small vessel?Not learned 1221. Overcarriage is best prevented by __________.Not learned 1222. A package contains nitric acid solution and is radioactive. The radiation level at the package surface is .36 millirems per hour. How should this package be labeled?Not learned 1223. Which part of an anchor actually digs into the bottom?Not learned 1224. The part of an anchor which takes hold on the bottom is the __________.Not learned 1225. Which part of a cargo boom has the greatest diameter?Not learned 1226. Which part of a conventional cargo gear rig provides for vertical control and positioning of a boom?Not learned 1227. Which is part of the ground tackle?Not learned 1228. What part of the ground tackle is the most likely to develop fractures due to extensive anchor use?Not learned 1229. Which part of the patent anchor performs the same function as the stock of an old-fashioned anchor; that is, forces the flukes to dig in?Not learned 1230. A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes?Not learned 1231. Which passenger vessel is required to permanently exhibit a fire control plan?Not learned 1232. When patching holes in the hull, how can pillows, bedding, and other soft materials be used?Not learned 1233. Peck and Hale gear is used most commonly for securing __________.Not learned 1234. Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function?Not learned 1235. Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function?Not learned 1236. Most pedestal crane power is provided by __________.Not learned 1237. A pelican hook __________.Not learned 1238. When the period of beam seas equals the natural rolling period of a vessel, what will most likely occur?Not learned 1239. What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate?Not learned 1240. What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate?Not learned 1241. What is the period of validity of a Safety Management Certificate?Not learned 1242. What is the period of validity of the SOLAS required Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate?Not learned 1243. During a period of "whiteout", you should expect which of the following?Not learned 1244. A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition?Not learned 1245. The periodic weight testing of a vessel's cargo booms may be performed by which organization?Not learned 1246. It is permissible to place an eye splice in wire rope used as cargo gear providing the splice is made using __________.Not learned 1247. A Permit to Proceed is issued by which organization?Not learned 1248. No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage of any type when __________.Not learned 1249. Which personal lifesaving device(s) is(are) approved for use on an uninspected towboat 150 feet in length?Not learned 1250. Which piece(s) of equipment is/are required to "twin-up" 30-ton pedestal cranes aboard a crane vessel?Not learned 1251. You are piloting your vessel in a narrow channel. How will the vessel react to a steep bank on your starboard side?Not learned 1252. When piloting a vessel, how are visual references used to establish a constant rate of turn?Not learned 1253. Where is the pivoting point located on a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed?Not learned 1254. You are planning the stowage of two incompatible products on your multiple-product tankship. What will NOT provide the minimum required segregation?Not learned 1255. In polar regions you should NOT expect to see __________.Not learned 1256. The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U. S. flag vessels __________.Not learned 1257. Under the Pollution Regulations, which action is required when you dump food wastes in the sea?Not learned 1258. Under the Pollution Regulations, how long must garbage disposal records be retained onboard for?Not learned 1259. Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of which item(s)?Not learned 1260. Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?Not learned 1261. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.Not learned 1262. Portable fire extinguishers must be provided for the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge __________.Not learned 1263. It is possible, and sometimes necessary, to strengthen the deck of a vessel for carriage of deck cargo by __________.Not learned 1264. Which is NOT a potential hazard of approaching close to an iceberg?Not learned 1265. Which is a precaution you should take before bunkering?Not learned 1266. Which is a predictable result of a vessel nearing a bank or edge of a steep banked channel?Not learned 1267. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are) __________.Not learned 1268. In preparation for receiving chilled reefer cargo, the reefer space has been precooled for over twenty-four hours. Loading may begin when the space has been cooled to a temperature between __________.Not learned 1269. You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 150 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.Not learned 1270. You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 1,600 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.Not learned 1271. You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, which statement is TRUE concerning fuel oil tank vents?Not learned 1272. You are preparing to load a heavy cargo with abnormal physical dimensions onboard your vessel. Which of the following is of primary importance when planning the load?Not learned 1273. What pressure shall cargo hoses carried on tank vessels be able to withstand?Not learned 1274. Which can be prevented only by segregating two lots of cargo into separate holds?Not learned 1275. The primary objective of a Ro-Ro vessel is to __________.Not learned 1276. What is the primary purpose of a load line?Not learned 1277. The primary purpose of the stud is to prevent the anchor chain from __________.Not learned 1278. Prior to being able to sail, each vessel that carries grain in bulk must have a certificate of loading. Which organization issues this certificate?Not learned 1279. Prior to handling Class 1 explosive materials, which signal(s) is/are required to be displayed by the vessel?Not learned 1280. You are proceeding in a channel; your vessel is requiring a significant amount of right rudder and your bow is still falling off to port. What can you conclude from this information?Not learned 1281. You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, which would be the BEST action to take?Not learned 1282. What produces the MOST dangerous vapors?Not learned 1283. What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?Not learned 1284. What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?Not learned 1285. What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate?Not learned 1286. What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?Not learned 1287. What provides little or no indication that a vessel is dragging anchor?Not learned 1288. What provides little or no indication that a vessel is dragging anchor?Not learned 1289. What provides the majority of strength to an aluminum-sided container?Not learned 1290. Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea?Not learned 1291. What purpose does a bridge fitting serve when lashing containers?Not learned 1292. For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of __________.Not learned 1293. What is the purpose of a check valve?Not learned 1294. What is the purpose of a devil's claw?Not learned 1295. What is the purpose of the equalizing beam aboard a crane vessel?Not learned 1296. What is the purpose of a spreader bar when loading cargo?Not learned 1297. The purpose of the stripping bar on an anchor windlass is to __________.Not learned 1298. You receive a package, for shipment aboard your vessel, containing Class 1 explosives. The package is damp, moldy and stained. Which action are you required to take?Not learned 1299. The recessed areas on a wildcat are called __________.Not learned 1300. If reefer spaces are not properly cleaned prior to loading cargo, it will most likely cause __________.Not learned 1301. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.Not learned 1302. When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________.Not learned 1303. Regardless of local requirements, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to which of the following agencies?Not learned 1304. Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman's outfits?Not learned 1305. Regulations concerning the stowage, lashing, and securing of timber deck cargoes aboard general cargo vessels may be found in the __________.Not learned 1306. The regulations for a general alarm system on a towing vessel require all of the following EXCEPT which function?Not learned 1307. By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected towing vessel must be which of the following?Not learned 1308. The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on which waters?Not learned 1309. Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier than __________.Not learned 1310. In relation to cargo gear, what does "SWL" mean?Not learned 1311. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, which describes the term "kick"?Not learned 1312. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, which defines the term "transfer"?Not learned 1313. In relation to the turning of a vessel, which describes the term "advance"?Not learned 1314. The remote control for a fixed fire extinguishing system, on an uninspected vessel, should be which of the following?Not learned 1315. What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer procedures?Not learned 1316. What is required to be entered into the Official Logbook?Not learned 1317. Which is NOT a required entry in the ship's Official Logbook?Not learned 1318. Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if __________.Not learned 1319. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried, in the vicinity of the radio room exit, on a tank vessel on an international voyage?Not learned 1320. The required portable radio apparatus on an international voyage must be stowed in __________.Not learned 1321. The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be __________.Not learned 1322. What is NOT required as special safety equipment on a tankship carrying hazardous cargoes in bulk?Not learned 1323. What is required to be stenciled at the heel of a cargo boom?Not learned 1324. Which is NOT required on a tankship carrying hazardous liquid cargoes in bulk?Not learned 1325. What is NOT required on an uninspected towing vessel?Not learned 1326. What is NOT a requirement for the preparation of used, gasoline-propelled cars if they are to be carried as ordinary cargo and not as hazardous cargo?Not learned 1327. You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard?Not learned 1328. It is the responsibility of the crane operator to, at all times, be aware of the location of the __________.Not learned 1329. The responsibility for maintaining the Official Logbook on voyages between the Atlantic and Pacific coasts of the United States rests with the __________.Not learned 1330. It is the responsibility of the Master to ensure that __________.Not learned 1331. Who is responsible for establishing watches aboard a U.S. vessel?Not learned 1332. The riding pawl is __________.Not learned 1333. You are riding to a single anchor. The vessel is yawing excessively. Which action should be taken to reduce the yawing?Not learned 1334. River currents tend to __________.Not learned 1335. With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving ahead on the port screw and backing on the starboard screw will __________.Not learned 1336. With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving astern with both engines backing will back __________.Not learned 1337. The rudders are amidships and both screws are going ahead. What will happen if the starboard screw is stopped?Not learned 1338. The S.S. Ossel Hitch arrives in Capetown, South Africa, and the Master affects a note of protest with the U.S. Consul. Why would the Master affect this document?Not learned 1339. The S.S. Sheet Bend arrives in New York after encountering heavy weather on a voyage from Cape Town. Who will note the maritime protest for the Master?Not learned 1340. The safe working load for the assembled cargo gear and the minimum angle to the horizontal for which the gear is designed shall be marked on the __________.Not learned 1341. To safely anchor a vessel there must be sufficient "scope" in the anchor cable. Which BEST defines the term scope?Not learned 1342. The Safety Equipment Certificate shows that the vessel conforms to the standards of which organization?Not learned 1343. Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn during which task?Not learned 1344. Safety is increased if __________.Not learned 1345. Which safety precaution(s) should be observed during crane operations?Not learned 1346. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time a small oil spill occurs on deck from a leaking dresser coupler. After shutting down the transfer, the engine room should first be informed, and then which action should be taken?Not learned 1347. A seaman deserts the vessel in a foreign port. What should the Master do with any of the deserter's personal effects remaining on board?Not learned 1348. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1349. A seaman dies during a voyage. What is NOT required to be entered into the Official Log?Not learned 1350. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when which situation has occurred?Not learned 1351. A seaman leaves a vessel before it sails from a foreign port. He informs the Chief Officer that he won't return. After the vessel sails, the Chief Officer finds the seaman's work clothes in his locker. How should the Master handle this matter?Not learned 1352. A seaman may not make an allotment to which relation?Not learned 1353. A seaman may have all or part of his wages deposited by allotment to a bank or savings institution. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for this type of allotment?Not learned 1354. Securing cargo by running timbers from an upper support down to the cargo, either vertically or at an angle, is called __________.Not learned 1355. The securing of passenger cars on a Ro-Ro vessel requires __________.Not learned 1356. The securing systems for containers were developed to prevent container movement during which ship motion?Not learned 1357. What is NOT a securing system used on a containership?Not learned 1358. Seeing that all hands are familiar with their duties, as specified in the muster list, is the responsibility of the __________.Not learned 1359. Segregation of cargoes refers to __________.Not learned 1360. When selecting the fuel oil tanks for the "burn-out" of bunkers during a voyage consideration of all of the following must be taken with the EXCEPTION of __________.Not learned 1361. All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?Not learned 1362. Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.Not learned 1363. Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.Not learned 1364. To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must hold/be which of the following?Not learned 1365. The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain which item?Not learned 1366. Your ship is carrying hazardous cargo. During a daily inspection, you notice that some of the cargo has shifted and several cases are broken. You should FIRST __________.Not learned 1367. On a ship's crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of the boom length and __________.Not learned 1368. Ship's officers should check every cargo compartment after it is filled with bulk grain to ensure which of the following?Not learned 1369. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?Not learned 1370. A ship that, at any time, operates seaward of the outermost boundary of the territorial sea is required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________.Not learned 1371. Shipping articles are a contract of agreement between the members of the crew and who else?Not learned 1372. The shipping papers for the products being carried in your tankship are NOT required to contain which information?Not learned 1373. A shore is a piece of securing dunnage that __________.Not learned 1374. Which is TRUE of the shut off valve at the gasoline tank which can be operated from outside the tank space? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1375. How should you signal the crane operator to dog everything?Not learned 1376. How should you signal the crane operator to hoist?Not learned 1377. How should you signal the crane operator to lower?Not learned 1378. How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom?Not learned 1379. How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom and raise the load?Not learned 1380. How should you signal the crane operator to move slowly?Not learned 1381. How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom?Not learned 1382. How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom and lower the load?Not learned 1383. How should you signal the crane operator to stop?Not learned 1384. How should you signal the crane operator to stop in an emergency?Not learned 1385. How should you signal the crane operator to swing?Not learned 1386. How should you signal the crane operator to use the main hoist?Not learned 1387. The signal man has both arms extended out, palms down, and is moving his arms back and forth. This is the signal for __________.Not learned 1388. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended downwards, forefinger pointing down, and moves his hand in small horizontal circles. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1389. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, his fingers closed, and his thumb pointing downward. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1390. The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended with his fingers closed and thumb pointing upward. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1391. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended with the palm down and holds this position rigidly. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1392. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended and is pointing his finger in the direction to move the boom. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1393. The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended, thumb pointing downwards, flexing fingers in and out. What does this signal mean?Not learned 1394. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, with the thumb pointing up, and is flexing his fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1395. The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps his elbow with one hand and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1396. The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps the top of his head with his fist and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1397. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his forearm vertical, forefinger pointing up, and moves his hand in a small horizontal circle. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1398. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his hands clasped in front of his body. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1399. The signal man assisting the crane operator has one hand occupied and one fist in front of his chest with the thumb pointing outward and is tapping his chest with the heel of his fist. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1400. The signal man assisting the crane operator uses one hand to give any motion signal and places the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1401. You are signing on crew members. The minimum number of people required aboard, and the qualifications of each, is listed on which document?Not learned 1402. You are signing on a crew. Which person is presenting a Merchant Mariner's Document (MMD) that you should suspect as being invalid?Not learned 1403. You are signing on the Purser. He should present a Merchant Mariner Credential with which endorsement?Not learned 1404. A single-screw vessel going ahead tends to turn more rapidly to port because of propeller __________.Not learned 1405. You are on a single-screw vessel with a left-handed propeller making no way in the water. How will your vessel react when you apply right rudder?Not learned 1406. You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller, and you are making headway. What occurs when you enter shallow water?Not learned 1407. You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is going full speed astern with full right rudder. The bow will swing __________.Not learned 1408. In which situation could a vessel most easily capsize?Not learned 1409. How is the size of chain determined?Not learned 1410. Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as __________.Not learned 1411. A sling is a device used in which operation?Not learned 1412. A sling is rigged on a piece of pipe weighing 1000 lbs. The angle between the sling legs is 140° and the legs are of equal length. What stress is exerted on each sling leg when the pipe is lifted?Not learned 1413. When a small craft's anchor fouls in a rocky bottom, how should the first attempt to clear it be made?Not learned 1414. In small craft terminology, all of the anchor gear between a boat and her anchor is called the __________.Not learned 1415. Small floes of rough, hummocky sea ice are capable of damaging a vessel. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1416. On small passenger vessels, backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.Not learned 1417. Snow has obliterated surface features and the sky is covered with uniform, altostratus clouds. There are no shadows and the horizon has disappeared. What is this condition called?Not learned 1418. SOLAS requires certain information on persons aboard passenger ships be recorded. Which of the following information sets is required to be communicated to the Master prior to departure?Not learned 1419. SOLAS requires Emergency Instructions be posted in conspicuous places throughout the vessel. On a passenger vessel what language shall these instructions be posted in?Not learned 1420. SOLAS requires a lifesaving training manual be provided in each crew cabin or in which other location?Not learned 1421. SOLAS requires that all passenger vessels maintain Muster Lists. What information is required to be contained in this document?Not learned 1422. Which is a solid at ambient temperature?Not learned 1423. Which space cannot be deducted from gross tonnage when calculating net tonnage?Not learned 1424. Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system?Not learned 1425. Why do spaces containing batteries require good ventilation?Not learned 1426. The space containing the cylinders for the carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguishing system must be designed to preclude an anticipated ambient temperature in excess of which temperature?Not learned 1427. Which space(s) is(are) exempt when measuring gross tonnage?Not learned 1428. Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?Not learned 1429. Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?Not learned 1430. Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?Not learned 1431. Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?Not learned 1432. Which space(s) is(are) NOT exempt when measuring gross tonnage?Not learned 1433. What speed do most bow thrusters generally become ineffective?Not learned 1434. What is a spill pipe?Not learned 1435. A spreader bar is used to __________.Not learned 1436. The sprocket teeth on a wildcat are known as the __________.Not learned 1437. The sprocket wheel in a windlass, used for heaving in the anchor, is called a __________.Not learned 1438. Squat is a natural phenomenon as a ship moves through a restricted channel due to what basic principle?Not learned 1439. When a standard in the fire protection regulations for towing vessels is "incorporated by reference," it means that the __________.Not learned 1440. Which standard operating procedure(s) should be adhered to on a Ro-Ro vessel?Not learned 1441. Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked?Not learned 1442. Starting motors, generators, and other spark producing devices should be mounted as high above the bilges as possible to __________.Not learned 1443. Which statement about the carriage of solid hazardous materials in bulk is TRUE?Not learned 1444. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE?Not learned 1445. Which statement concerning the carriage of containers is TRUE?Not learned 1446. Which statement concerning castor oil is TRUE?Not learned 1447. Which statement concerning dual-tonnage vessels is TRUE?Not learned 1448. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?Not learned 1449. Which statement concerning the lashings of containers with solid bar or wire rope lashings is TRUE?Not learned 1450. Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is TRUE?Not learned 1451. Which statement is correct concerning the carriage of coal in bulk?Not learned 1452. Which statement about the dangerous cargo manifest, carried on a ship, is TRUE?Not learned 1453. Which statement about the dangerous cargo manifest is FALSE?Not learned 1454. Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?Not learned 1455. Which statement about entry into a space that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?Not learned 1456. Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?Not learned 1457. Which statement is FALSE regarding the operation of a crane?Not learned 1458. Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE?Not learned 1459. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations?Not learned 1460. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations?Not learned 1461. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding the operation of a crane?Not learned 1462. Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE?Not learned 1463. Which statement about stopping a vessel is TRUE?Not learned 1464. Which statement is TRUE when the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations?Not learned 1465. Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?Not learned 1466. Which statement is TRUE concerning cargo hose on tank barges?Not learned 1467. Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?Not learned 1468. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?Not learned 1469. Which statement is NOT true concerning the stowage of class 1 explosives?Not learned 1470. Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1471. Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1472. Which statement is TRUE concerning the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when completing a quad lift?Not learned 1473. Which statement is TRUE concerning toluene?Not learned 1474. Which statement is TRUE concerning the ventilation of engine and fuel tank compartments on uninspected towing vessels using fuel with a flash point of 100° F?Not learned 1475. Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream?Not learned 1476. On uninspected vessels which statement is TRUE concerning work vests?Not learned 1477. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?Not learned 1478. Which statement is TRUE regarding the operation of a crane?Not learned 1479. Which statement is TRUE about the use of a "gob rope"?Not learned 1480. Which statement about tunnel bow thrusters fitted to large vessels is TRUE?Not learned 1481. Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE?Not learned 1482. Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE?Not learned 1483. When steaming through an anchorage, a shipmaster should __________.Not learned 1484. You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under most circumstances, how is this best accomplished?Not learned 1485. You are stopped with no way upon your vessel at the pilot station. Your vessel is a large twin-screw ship. You must come around 180° to board your Pilot. How should you use the engines and rudder to turn the ship fastest in the least amount of space?Not learned 1486. In stopping distances of vessels, which defines the term "head reach"?Not learned 1487. In the stowage of deck cargo, "cribbing" is __________.Not learned 1488. When stowing hazardous materials on deck, lashing of such cargo is permitted if __________.Not learned 1489. The strictest load line regulations apply to which type of vessel?Not learned 1490. A structurally serviceable freight container loaded with Class 1 explosive materials cannot have a major defect in its strength components. Which of the following would make a container non- serviceable?Not learned 1491. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations?Not learned 1492. Sulfuric acid is a __________.Not learned 1493. The supplement to the IOPP Certificate contains what type of data?Not learned 1494. Which is supplied to the vessel by the U.S. Coast Guard?Not learned 1495. When taking a Pilot from a pilot vessel in a seaway, which way should you head your vessel if the ladder is on the leeward side?Not learned 1496. The tank barge on which you are preparing to load petroleum is required to have on board one B-II fire extinguisher. What does NOT meet this requirement?Not learned 1497. On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of more than __________.Not learned 1498. Your tank vessel is loading a hazardous cargo. The allowance for expansion is based on ambient temperatures of what maximum range?Not learned 1499. A tank vessel transferring non-flammable hazardous cargo in bulk must display warning signs. These signs must __________.Not learned 1500. A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The temperature of the cargo is 50°F. API gravity is 37°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net amount in gallons of cargo loaded?Not learned 1501. A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be federally punished with which of the following?Not learned 1502. Your tankship is carrying a 30% solution of hydrogen peroxide. The cargo containment system must have a permanent inert gas system. While discharging this cargo the inert gas system must maintain a minimum pressure of __________.Not learned 1503. You are on a tankship carrying benzene in bulk. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1504. Your tankship is carrying a cargo of styrene. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for carriage of this cargo?Not learned 1505. You are on a tankship designed to carry molten sulfur. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1506. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0003 below. Use the salmon-colored pages in the Stability Data Reference to determine the sagging numeral.Not learned 1507. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0004 below. Use the salmon-colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.Not learned 1508. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0028 below. Use the salmon-colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.Not learned 1509. Ten triangular piles of piping on the pier are to be loaded - each pile has a 20 foot base, is 15 feet high and 30 feet long. If the breadth of the hold is 60 feet and the piping is to be stowed fore and aft in a 30 foot space, how high will it stow?Not learned 1510. Which tensioning device is used with chain to secure heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1511. Which tensioning device is used with webbing to secure light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1512. Which tensioning device is used with wire rope lashing to secure vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1513. What does the term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the Pollution Regulations, mean?Not learned 1514. Which term(s) are in the category of "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?Not learned 1515. What term is not considered a "discharge" as it applies to the U.S. pollution regulations?Not learned 1516. Which term describes goods having a stowage factor below 40?Not learned 1517. What does the term "head" mean when applied to a pump?Not learned 1518. The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR Subchapter O, means __________.Not learned 1519. Where are the test certificates, for wire rope used as cargo runners, and loose gear certificates usually maintained?Not learned 1520. What does Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention Regulations concern?Not learned 1521. Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.Not learned 1522. What is the total number of approved low-velocity water spray ("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship?Not learned 1523. You have a tow of chemical barges. The mate reports an ammonia smell around the head of the tow. You would suspect a leak in the barge carrying which substance?Not learned 1524. Your vessel is proceeding through a narrow channel. What actions can you take to avoid any sudden sheers of the vessel?Not learned 1525. When do the towing vessel fire protection regulations allow a towing vessel to carry portable fuel systems on board?Not learned 1526. Towing vessel fire protection regulations define a "fixed fire-extinguishing system" to include all of the following EXCEPT which item?Not learned 1527. Towing vessel fire protection regulations distinguish between "new" and "existing" towing vessels. A "new" towing vessel is one that was __________.Not learned 1528. In the towing vessel fire protection regulations, all of the following are fire detection requirements, EXCEPT which item?Not learned 1529. Towing vessel fire protection regulations require that all fuel tank vent pipes comply with all of the following provisions EXCEPT that the vent __________.Not learned 1530. Which towing vessels are NOT required to have an internal communication system between the engine room and the operating station?Not learned 1531. While transiting a channel your vessel's bow swings away from the bank. What is the term for this effect?Not learned 1532. You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. You must inspect this cargo __________.Not learned 1533. You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. The regulations require you to __________.Not learned 1534. Tripping defects in anchors frequently occur in __________.Not learned 1535. You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with air-cooled fruit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the temperature rise and spoilage of the fruit?Not learned 1536. What is TRUE about hoisting operations?Not learned 1537. Which is a TRUE statement concerning the examining of cargo equipment at the time of a vessels Inspection for Certification?Not learned 1538. A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________.Not learned 1539. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed by which item?Not learned 1540. The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the __________.Not learned 1541. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, which is the BEST action to take?Not learned 1542. When turning a vessel in shallow water, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1543. Twenty-five hundred (2500) tons of iron ore with a stowage factor of 17 is stowed in a cargo hold. The dimensions of the hold are 55 feet long and 45 feet wide and 35 feet high. What is the height of the center of gravity of the ore above the bottom of the hold?Not learned 1544. In twin-screw engine installations while going ahead, maneuvering qualities are most effective when the tops of the propeller blades both turn __________.Not learned 1545. A twin-screw ship going ahead on the starboard screw only tends to move __________.Not learned 1546. On a twin-screw, twin-rudder vessel, the most effective way to turn in your own water, with no way on, is to put __________.Not learned 1547. A twin-screw vessel is easier to maneuver than a single-screw vessel because the twin-screw vessel has which advantage?Not learned 1548. Your twin-screw vessel is moving ASTERN with rudders amidships. The starboard screw suddenly stops turning. Your vessel's head will __________.Not learned 1549. A twin-screw vessel with a single rudder is making headway. The engines are full speed ahead. There is no wind or current. Which statement is FALSE?Not learned 1550. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to take which action?Not learned 1551. If two falls are attached to lift a one-ton load, what angle between the falls will result in the stress on each fall being equal to the load being lifted?Not learned 1552. Two falls are supporting a 1.5 ton load. The port fall is at an angle of 40? from the vertical. The starboard fall is at an angle of 70? from the vertical. What is the stress on each fall?Not learned 1553. When a two-leg sling is used to lift a load, a sling 40 feet long is better than one of 30 feet because the __________.Not learned 1554. Two vessels are abreast of each other and passing port to port in a confined waterway. What should you expect as your bow approaches the screws of the other vessel?Not learned 1555. Which type of bottom is best suited for holding an anchor of a small boat?Not learned 1556. Which type of bottom provides most anchors with the best holding ability?Not learned 1557. Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels?Not learned 1558. Which type of fixed fire protection system is approved for use on board uninspected towing vessels?Not learned 1559. Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?Not learned 1560. Which type of ice is a hazard to navigation?Not learned 1561. Which type of link is generally used to connect shots of anchor chain?Not learned 1562. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 1563. What are the type and number of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit?Not learned 1564. Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?Not learned 1565. On what type of pump would you find an impeller?Not learned 1566. Which type of rudder may lose its effectiveness at angles of 10 or more degrees?Not learned 1567. Which type of vessel shall be required to have an emergency towing arrangement fitted at both ends?Not learned 1568. Which U.S. agency assigns an official number to a vessel?Not learned 1569. Which U.S. agency issues a Certificate of Financial Responsibility?Not learned 1570. On U.S. flag vessels, which certificate is always issued by the Coast Guard?Not learned 1571. A U.S. or foreign flag vessel that does not comply with the Officers Competency Certificates Convention of 1936 may be detained by certain designated officials. These officials include all of the following EXCEPT a/an __________.Not learned 1572. Where are the U.S. regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel found?Not learned 1573. Where can the U.S. regulations for the preparation of cargo holds prior to loading hazardous material be found?Not learned 1574. U.S. regulations require having a responsible person present at the hatches of spaces containing Class 1 explosive materials. When does the requirement apply during cargo operations?Not learned 1575. U.S. regulations require a responsible person to be present at all times when the hatches of spaces containing Class 1 explosive materials are open. When is the responsible person released from the duty of attendance?Not learned 1576. Your U.S. tankship is designed to carry anhydrous ammonia in bulk. The keel was laid in 1980. Which statement concerning the carriage of this cargo is TRUE?Not learned 1577. You are on a US vessel loading explosives for the military and will be sailing foreign. Who is required to supervise the loading and stowage of the cargo?Not learned 1578. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends to __________.Not learned 1579. An uninspected 6,000 BHP, 199 GT tug operating on the Great Lakes that was built in 2017 is required to carry how many 20-B portable extinguishers?Not learned 1580. Uninspected motor vessels constructed after 25 April 1940, and which use fuel with a flash point of 110°F (43°C), or less, shall have at least what number of ventilator ducts, fitted for the removal of explosive or flammable gases from the bilges of every engine and fuel tank compartment?Not learned 1581. Uninspected towing vessel fire protection regulations apply to which of the following vessels?Not learned 1582. On uninspected vessels, when may U. S. Coast Guard approved work vests be substituted for life jackets?Not learned 1583. In the uninspected vessel regulations what does the "B" on a "B-II" fire extinguisher refer to?Not learned 1584. Which uninspected vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp?Not learned 1585. On uninspected vessels where shall controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system be mounted?Not learned 1586. On an uninspected vessel which sizes of fire extinguishers are considered to be semi-portable?Not learned 1587. U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be items of safety equipment and may be worn by members of the crew. When can crewmembers wear these work vests?Not learned 1588. The use of an anchor to assist in turning in restricted waters is __________.Not learned 1589. The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is __________.Not learned 1590. What should NOT be used as an indicator that ice may be nearby?Not learned 1591. What is used when securing heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1592. What is used when securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1593. What is used when securing light vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1594. You are using the anchor to steady the bow while maneuvering. You have the proper scope of anchor cable when the __________.Not learned 1595. You are using an automatic tension winch by yourself. If you get caught in the turns of the line as they lead into the gypsyhead __________.Not learned 1596. Using the available references determine the dew point when the dry bulb temperature is 74°F (23°C) and the wet bulb temperature is 60°F (16°C).Not learned 1597. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 55°F (13°C) and the wet bulb is 50°F (10°C), what is the relative humidity?Not learned 1598. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 58°F and the wet bulb temperature is 53°F, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1599. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 91°F and the wet bulb temperature is 87°F, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1600. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 76°F and the wet bulb temperature is 59°F, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1601. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 77°F and the wet bulb temperature is 69°F, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1602. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 80° F (27° C) and the wet bulb temperature is 70° F (21° C), what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1603. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 84°F and the wet bulb temperature is 81°F, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1604. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 85° and the wet bulb temperature is 73°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1605. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 92° and the wet bulb temperature is 85°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1606. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 98°and the wet bulb temperature is 87°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?Not learned 1607. When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B tell you?Not learned 1608. You are using a hammer as part of an anchor chain inspection. During the inspection you hear a flat tone when striking one of the links. What does this tone indicate?Not learned 1609. When using a pneumatic chipping tool all of the following are TRUE except?Not learned 1610. Using a scope of 5, determine how many feet of cable you should put out to anchor in 5 fathoms of water.Not learned 1611. Using a scope of 6, determine how many feet of anchor cable you should put out to anchor in 12 feet (3.7 meters) of water.Not learned 1612. Using a scope of 6, how much cable would have to be used in order to anchor in 24 feet of water?Not learned 1613. Using a scope of five, determine how many feet of chain you should put out to anchor in 12 fathoms of water.Not learned 1614. Using a scope of five, determine how many shots of chain you should put out to anchor in 5 fathoms of water?Not learned 1615. Usually the most gentle way of riding out a severe storm on a larger vessel is __________.Not learned 1616. What is usually NOT required in preparing a hold for reception of a bulk grain cargo?Not learned 1617. Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1618. Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1619. Which variable factor affects the initial lashing requirements aboard Ro-Ro vessels?Not learned 1620. Any vehicle to be loaded aboard a Ro-Ro vessel must __________.Not learned 1621. On vessels over 100 gross tons, whose responsibility is it to ensure that all able seamen in the vessel's crew have the documents and qualifications required by law and regulation?Not learned 1622. On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) is the vessel required to maintain onboard?Not learned 1623. Your vessel (185 GT) is on a voyage between New York and San Francisco. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1624. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.Not learned 1625. A vessel has an amidships superstructure. Which location would be most suitable for main deck stowage of vehicles?Not learned 1626. The vessel's anchor chain consists of shots of chain connected by detachable links. What is the predominant piece that holds the detachable link together?Not learned 1627. Your vessel is anchored in an open roadstead with three shots of chain out on the port anchor. The wind freshens considerably, and the anchor begins to drag. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1628. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is 24 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?Not learned 1629. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?Not learned 1630. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located in a MARPOL designated special area, 14 nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to be discharged?Not learned 1631. Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics __________.Not learned 1632. A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed that the vessel is being sold to foreign interests. The new owners request that the crew remain on board to complete the voyage. Under these circumstances, which action can the crew take?Not learned 1633. A vessel arrives in the port of Los Angeles from a foreign port and discharges some of its inward foreign cargo. What additional manifest is required?Not learned 1634. Your vessel is backing on the starboard screw, and going ahead on the port screw. How will the vessel react?Not learned 1635. You are on a vessel that carries liquefied gases in bulk. The person on watch is required to have what information about the cargo easily accessible?Not learned 1636. Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. What is the minimum capacity of the container around the loading manifold?Not learned 1637. Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold at a minimum how many barrels?Not learned 1638. You are on a vessel carrying liquefied butadiene in bulk. Which document is NOT required to be either in the wheelhouse or easily accessible to the person on watch while underway?Not learned 1639. A vessel's Classification Certificate is issued by which organization?Not learned 1640. A vessel has completed loading cargo in the port of San Francisco. What document is signed by the Master stating the terms that goods were delivered and received by the ship?Not learned 1641. A vessel has a deadweight carrying capacity of 10,500 tons. Fuel, water, and stores require 1500 tons. The cubic capacity is 500,000 cubic feet. Which cargo will put her full and down?Not learned 1642. You are on a vessel designed to carry compressed gasses in bulk with a cargo of butadiene. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1643. A vessel is equipped with twin propellers, both turning outboard with the engines half ahead. If there is no wind or current and the rudders are amidships, what will happen?Not learned 1644. For vessels on international voyages fitted with cargo gear, an initial test of the units under a proof load shall be conducted. Subsequent tests and exams of the same nature shall be carried out at what time interval?Not learned 1645. Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________.Not learned 1646. Your vessel is going from a warm climate to a cold climate with a hygroscopic cargo. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1647. Your vessel is handling Class 1 explosive material. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is true?Not learned 1648. Your vessel is handling Class 1 explosive materials in a US port. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is true?Not learned 1649. Your vessel is issued a load line certificate dated 27 May 1992. Which is an acceptable date for one of the surveys for endorsements?Not learned 1650. Your vessel is issued a load line certificate dated 27 May 1992. What is NOT an acceptable date for one of the surveys for endorsements?Not learned 1651. Your vessel is off a lee shore in heavy weather and laboring. Which action should you take?Not learned 1652. Which vessel is most likely to be loaded full but not down?Not learned 1653. A vessel loads 100 tons of glass jars. The mate on watch discovers that some of the cartons have been damaged and has an exception made on the Bill of Lading. What is this document called?Not learned 1654. A vessel loads 5000 tons of manganese ore. The railroad cars that brought the ore to the vessel were previously loaded with iron ore so the ore is contaminated. The agent requests the Master to sign a Clean Bill of Lading and in return the shipper will give him a Letter of Indemnity. What is the best procedure to follow?Not learned 1655. Your vessel has been loaded with Class 1 explosives and is secured for sea. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is true?Not learned 1656. Once a vessel has loaded packaged hazardous cargo, the cargo spaces shall be inspected. The spaces shall also be inspected at least once in every 24 hours. The only exception to daily inspection is when __________.Not learned 1657. Your vessel is loading Class 1 explosives into hatch No. 2 when you observe an electrical storm approaching from the east. What actions should you take?Not learned 1658. Your vessel is loading Class 1 explosives using the vessel's cranes. What style of hook or shackle are you required to use to attach the lifting sling to the runner?Not learned 1659. Your vessel is loading Class 1G explosives. Which of the following statements is true concerning bunker operations?Not learned 1660. No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose unless it meets certain requirements. Which of the following is NOT among those requirements?Not learned 1661. Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V of MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 1662. Your vessel is preparing for cargo operations. Prior to handling various divisions of Class 1 explosives the responsible person must ensure which of the following?Not learned 1663. Your vessel is preparing to load Class 1 explosive material in a US port. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following best describes the procedure for rigging of the required tow wires?Not learned 1664. A vessel proceeding along the bank of a river or channel has the tendency to __________.Not learned 1665. Your vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel. The effect called bank cushion has which effect on the vessel?Not learned 1666. On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm climate with a cargo of a non-hygroscopic nature in the holds, which is TRUE?Not learned 1667. Your vessel is proceeding up a narrow channel. What is the effect on squat if you meet another vessel on a reciprocal course?Not learned 1668. How does a vessel's rate of turn change when entering shallow water?Not learned 1669. Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are __________.Not learned 1670. Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard posted on board?Not learned 1671. Which vessel is required by regulations to have an Official Logbook?Not learned 1672. Your vessel is required to have a slop chest. Which of the following articles is NOT required by law to be carried in the slop chest?Not learned 1673. On a vessel with a single propeller, transverse force has the most effect on the vessel when the engine is put __________.Not learned 1674. When a vessel with a single right-hand propeller backs to port which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1675. When will a vessel "squat" while underway?Not learned 1676. Most of your vessel's superstructure is forward. How will the vessel lie when drifting with no way on?Not learned 1677. Your vessel has the symbol shown in illustration D022DG below inscribed on the side. Which statement concerning this symbol is TRUE?Not learned 1678. Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________.Not learned 1679. A vessel transporting hazardous substances is required to have a Dangerous Cargo Manifest. Which organization requires this document?Not learned 1680. A vessel traveling down a narrow channel, especially if the draft is nearly equal to the depth of the water, may set off the nearer side. What is the name of this effect?Not learned 1681. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?Not learned 1682. When is a vessel wind rode?Not learned 1683. On your vessel, a wire rope for the cargo gear shows signs of excessive wear and must be replaced. In ordering a new wire for this 10-ton boom, what safety factor should you use?Not learned 1684. What does a Visaed Alien Crew List which is made and submitted to the U.S. Consul for visa show?Not learned 1685. Water may boil up around the stern of a vessel in a channel due to __________.Not learned 1686. When a wedge of water builds up between the head of the barge and the bank it is referred to as __________.Not learned 1687. When weighing anchor in a rough sea, how would you avoid risk of damaging the bow plating?Not learned 1688. The weight of the container and its contents is supported on deck by what part(s)?Not learned 1689. Before welding in a tank barge that has carried petroleum products, who must certify the tank to be safe for hot work?Not learned 1690. What is a wet cargo?Not learned 1691. A "wet cargo" refers to __________.Not learned 1692. The wheel on the windlass with indentations for the anchor chain is the __________.Not learned 1693. The wildcat is linked to the central drive shaft on most windlasses by __________.Not learned 1694. If the winch should fail while you are hauling in the anchor, what prevents the anchor cable from running out?Not learned 1695. Which wire rope purchase(s) is/are optional with a 30-Ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1696. Which wire rope purchases may be used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1697. The wire rope used for cargo handling on board your vessel has a safe working load of eight tons. It shall be able to withstand a breaking test load of __________.Not learned 1698. All wire rope used in shipboard cargo gear must be identified and described in a certificate. The certificate shall certify all of the following EXCEPT the __________.Not learned 1699. The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.Not learned 1700. When working on a tow, which is a good safety precaution?Not learned 1701. What would you consult to determine the number of persons required on duty while loading a cargo of leaded gasoline on your tanker?Not learned 1702. Who would normally certify that all preparations have been made and all regulations observed prior to loading a cargo of bulk grain?Not learned 1703. What would NOT require that a detailed report of the release of hazardous cargo be made to the Department of Transportation?Not learned 1704. What would you use to adjust the height of a cargo boom?Not learned 1705. Which would you NOT use to report the amount of anchor chain out? "Three shots __________."Not learned 1706. In writing up the logbook at the end of your watch, you make an error in writing an entry. What is the proper means of correcting this error?Not learned 1707. You have 10 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.8 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 1708. You have 12 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 4'B by 5'H and weighing 2.0 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 1709. The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator __________.Not learned 1710. You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 1711. You are on a 165 foot (50.3 meters) long vessel with a draft of 9 feet (2.7 meters) and twin screws. Which statement about rescuing a survivor in the water with ship pickup is TRUE?Not learned 1712. You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 1713. You have 200 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 140 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 4.2 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 1714. You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 1715. You have 260 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 150 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.2 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 1716. You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 1717. You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 1718. You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 1719. You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H and weighing 0.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 1720. You have 4 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 8'B by 8'H and weighing 1.2 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 1721. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 100 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 160 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 1722. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 230 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 1723. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 1724. You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 1725. You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 1726. You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 1727. You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 1728. You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 1729. You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.2, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 1730. Your 550 GT vessel is equipped with a free fall lifeboat. Where should the SART units be stowed to meet SOLAS requirements?Not learned 1731. You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet. What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 1732. You have 590 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 84 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 1733. You have 6 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 1.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 1734. You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 1735. You have 60 tons of below deck tonnage and 220 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 240 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 1736. Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for what type of service?Not learned 1737. You have 600 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 1738. You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 1739. You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 1740. You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 1741. You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 1742. You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 1743. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical advice. Your message should contain which code?Not learned 1744. Which is the abandon ship signal?Not learned 1745. You have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft with a SART. What signal will indicate to you that a 3 cm radar has interrogated the SART unit?Not learned 1746. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. Which action should you take?Not learned 1747. You have abandoned ship and are in a liferaft with several other members of the crew. One person in the liferaft is exhibiting symptoms of hypothermia. Which of the following could you do to aid the victim?Not learned 1748. You abandoned ship in the North Atlantic and one of the crew members is hypothermic. During a SAR helicopter extraction which lifting device should be avoided when hoisting this patient to the aircraft?Not learned 1749. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?Not learned 1750. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. Which is one of your FIRST actions that should be taken?Not learned 1751. When abandoning ship in cold waters, what actions can be taken to minimize the effects of entering the water?Not learned 1752. When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.Not learned 1753. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?Not learned 1754. An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.Not learned 1755. Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving which item?Not learned 1756. Aboard ship, which term is given to the vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates?Not learned 1757. Aboard a vessel, a common formula which consists of dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields which information?Not learned 1758. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.Not learned 1759. In accordance with SOLAS, which of the following best describes the obligation of the Master concerning cargo hold watertight doors?Not learned 1760. In accordance with SOLAS, the Master shall be furnished with information to obtain accurate guidance as to the stability of the vessel under varying conditions of service. Which of the following is included in this informationNot learned 1761. In accordance with SOLAS the Master of a vessel is required to have specific stability information at their disposal. Which of the following is part of the requirement?Not learned 1762. In accordance with SOLAS, stability information required to be available to the Master shall include which of the following?Not learned 1763. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?Not learned 1764. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?Not learned 1765. According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?Not learned 1766. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what information that affects your vessel is required to be entered into the radiotelephone log?Not learned 1767. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?Not learned 1768. Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?Not learned 1769. Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?Not learned 1770. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?Not learned 1771. Which action must be taken annually concerning inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels?Not learned 1772. Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry chemical cartridge- operated portable fire extinguisher?Not learned 1773. Which action should you take after sending a false distress alert on VHF?Not learned 1774. Which action should be taken once fueling has been completed?Not learned 1775. Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?Not learned 1776. Which action would you take to get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle?Not learned 1777. Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the __________.Not learned 1778. In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into English or __________.Not learned 1779. Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.Not learned 1780. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.Not learned 1781. An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.Not learned 1782. What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?Not learned 1783. What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?Not learned 1784. Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?Not learned 1785. An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________.Not learned 1786. What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?Not learned 1787. What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?Not learned 1788. What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?Not learned 1789. Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?Not learned 1790. What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?Not learned 1791. Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?Not learned 1792. At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.Not learned 1793. At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.Not learned 1794. At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.Not learned 1795. What is another name for the garboard strake?Not learned 1796. You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your approach?Not learned 1797. What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?Not learned 1798. With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________.Not learned 1799. Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?Not learned 1800. You have approximately 14 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 6 feet? (total displacement is 210 tons)Not learned 1801. You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons)Not learned 1802. You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons)Not learned 1803. You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons)Not learned 1804. Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI?Not learned 1805. Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?Not learned 1806. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.Not learned 1807. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.Not learned 1808. When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?Not learned 1809. The average rolling period of your ship puts it in the category of a "stiff ship". What effect can this condition have on the cargo carried onboard while underway?Not learned 1810. What is the basic concept of GMDSSNot learned 1811. In battery charging rooms, where should the exhaust ventilation be provided?Not learned 1812. Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies?Not learned 1813. Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________.Not learned 1814. What is the BEST conductor of electricity?Not learned 1815. What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?Not learned 1816. Which is the best source of information on the location of the blocks when dry docking a vessel?Not learned 1817. What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space?Not learned 1818. What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when attempting to place an INMARSAT-B callNot learned 1819. What is the best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident?Not learned 1820. What is the best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal?Not learned 1821. Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls under which condition?Not learned 1822. What does blowing tubes accomplish?Not learned 1823. You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?Not learned 1824. On board a vessel, which of the following is the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation?Not learned 1825. Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?Not learned 1826. On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with which chemical?Not learned 1827. A bulk freighter 580 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84 is floating in salt water at a draft of 21 ft. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft 1"?Not learned 1828. A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"?Not learned 1829. A burning pile of canvas is which classification of fire?Not learned 1830. What is a butt welded joint's strength compared to the base metal?Not learned 1831. What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?Not learned 1832. How is the Camber in a ship usually measured?Not learned 1833. Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?Not learned 1834. Carbon dioxide as a firefighting agent has which advantage over other agents?Not learned 1835. The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.Not learned 1836. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.Not learned 1837. Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be re-inspected no later than __________.Not learned 1838. A carling is used aboard ship to accomplish which function?Not learned 1839. When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of the search units should normally be which of the following?Not learned 1840. CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.Not learned 1841. Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT SHOULD NOT?Not learned 1842. Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?Not learned 1843. Which causes spontaneous combustion?Not learned 1844. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.Not learned 1845. The ceiling is __________.Not learned 1846. Where is the center of buoyancy located on a vessel?Not learned 1847. The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.Not learned 1848. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 1849. Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to __________.Not learned 1850. Channel 13 is primarily used for ship-to-ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for which purpose?Not learned 1851. Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?Not learned 1852. Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?Not learned 1853. Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission?Not learned 1854. What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?Not learned 1855. Which is TRUE concerning a chock?Not learned 1856. When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use which type of extinguisher?Not learned 1857. On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?Not learned 1858. A class B fire is most successfully fought by which method?Not learned 1859. A class C fire would be burning __________.Not learned 1860. After clearing the vessel, what is one of the FIRST things you would do in an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1861. The CO2 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.Not learned 1862. CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following?Not learned 1863. The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel __________.Not learned 1864. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.Not learned 1865. How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally identify itself?Not learned 1866. You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a South African station?Not learned 1867. Which describes a cofferdam?Not learned 1868. A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________.Not learned 1869. A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.Not learned 1870. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.Not learned 1871. How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?Not learned 1872. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?Not learned 1873. While communicating with a shore station concerning an injured female, your message should indicate the subject's age is 32. Which code would your message contain?Not learned 1874. Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?Not learned 1875. Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________.Not learned 1876. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?Not learned 1877. You have completed stability calculations for your vessel prior to getting underway. Your vessel's GM is small but positive. Which of the following is true?Not learned 1878. A concentration of weight has been shifted inboard to the center line of the vessel. Generally speaking, what effect will this have on the vessel?Not learned 1879. When should you be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks?Not learned 1880. What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any portNot learned 1881. Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?Not learned 1882. What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine?Not learned 1883. Under which condition will a SART unit have the greatest transmission potential?Not learned 1884. You should conduct a sector search under which of the following circumstances?Not learned 1885. In continuous operation, what is the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher?Not learned 1886. A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.Not learned 1887. There is an out of control fire on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire?Not learned 1888. The Coordinator Surface Search (CSS) in a SAR situation should display by night __________.Not learned 1889. The Coordinator Surface Search in a SAR situation should display by day __________.Not learned 1890. What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?Not learned 1891. Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to which of the following choices?Not learned 1892. A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you take?Not learned 1893. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?Not learned 1894. A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which code should your message contain?Not learned 1895. What should you do if a crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed?Not learned 1896. When does a cylinder in a two-cycle engine experience combustion?Not learned 1897. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should __________.Not learned 1898. The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________.Not learned 1899. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?Not learned 1900. What is the danger to personnel associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space?Not learned 1901. The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________.Not learned 1902. Deballasting a double bottom has what effect on KG?Not learned 1903. A deck beam does NOT __________.Not learned 1904. The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist which stresses?Not learned 1905. Why are deck beams cambered on a vessel?Not learned 1906. A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?Not learned 1907. What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?Not learned 1908. How deeply should the sternum be depressed when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR?Not learned 1909. With regards to GMDSS, define the acronym MSI.Not learned 1910. Which defines the function of a spark arrestor?Not learned 1911. Which defines the "margin plate"?Not learned 1912. Which defines reserve buoyancy?Not learned 1913. What is the definition of transverse metacenter?Not learned 1914. A Deratization Exemption Certificate is valid for which period of time?Not learned 1915. Which describes the floors aboard a ship?Not learned 1916. You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.Not learned 1917. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 1918. How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?Not learned 1919. How are all diesel engines classified?Not learned 1920. Why are diesel engines considered safer than gasoline engines?Not learned 1921. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.Not learned 1922. Which describes the difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity of a vessel?Not learned 1923. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.Not learned 1924. The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to __________.Not learned 1925. You are being directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside, frame 127. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what machinery is found in that exact location?Not learned 1926. When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.Not learned 1927. You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1928. At what distance can a SART be detected by aircraft, equipped with a 3cm radar, flying at approximately 3,000 feet?Not learned 1929. How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?Not learned 1930. The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. Which is TRUE concerning the information?Not learned 1931. Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?Not learned 1932. Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?Not learned 1933. A double male coupling is one that __________.Not learned 1934. You are downbound in an ice filled channel. An icebreaker is meeting you and sounds two short, one prolonged, and two short blasts on the whistle. What action should you take?Not learned 1935. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 1936. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 1937. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 1938. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-10". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 1939. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trimNot learned 1940. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 1941. A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance. How often is this drill required to be conducted?Not learned 1942. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by which method?Not learned 1943. Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?Not learned 1944. When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, why is there a danger of reflash?Not learned 1945. Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?Not learned 1946. While in dry dock your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process involves __________.Not learned 1947. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?Not learned 1948. What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine that is at normal operating temperature?Not learned 1949. Which is the most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires?Not learned 1950. Which is the most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical extinguisher?Not learned 1951. What is the most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia?Not learned 1952. How are electric generators protected against overload?Not learned 1953. Why should all electrical appliances aboard a vessel be grounded and ground fault protected?Not learned 1954. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, where should the stream of dry chemicals be directed?Not learned 1955. If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?Not learned 1956. After an engine is started which is the best action(s) to take?Not learned 1957. To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?Not learned 1958. Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.Not learned 1959. What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?Not learned 1960. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?Not learned 1961. When should an EPIRB be turned off in an actual distress situation?Not learned 1962. Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?Not learned 1963. Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?Not learned 1964. You are evacuating crew members from a survival craft that has been adrift in the North Atlantic for several days. What could occur if a person suffering from hypothermia is vertically lifted in a rescue sling to the helicopter?Not learned 1965. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?Not learned 1966. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1967. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1968. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be which of the following?Not learned 1969. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 1970. On every vessel, where must distress signals be stowed?Not learned 1971. EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position?Not learned 1972. Who has the exclusive use of the radiotelephone as stated in the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?Not learned 1973. The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.Not learned 1974. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 1975. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?Not learned 1976. Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?Not learned 1977. Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?Not learned 1978. Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?Not learned 1979. Which extinguishing agent is most effective for combating wood fires?Not learned 1980. As an extinguishing agent, foam _________.Not learned 1981. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.Not learned 1982. Which extinguishing agent is/are suitable to combat a class B fire in an engine compartment?Not learned 1983. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?Not learned 1984. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.Not learned 1985. What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine?Not learned 1986. Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in which of the following?Not learned 1987. What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?Not learned 1988. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.Not learned 1989. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?Not learned 1990. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then take which action?Not learned 1991. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, why should the hose team crouch as low as possible?Not learned 1992. Fighting a fire in the galley poses which additional threat?Not learned 1993. When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), which is the most prudent action to take?Not learned 1994. When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.Not learned 1995. When fighting a fire using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, where should the stream be directed to extinguish the fire?Not learned 1996. You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Why may the stability of the vessel be reduced?Not learned 1997. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 1998. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?Not learned 1999. To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should take which action?Not learned 2000. On the fire control plans, in illustration D039SA below, the CO2 bottle room is designated by which symbol?Not learned 2001. On fire control plans, in illustration D039SA, the dry chemical releasing station is designated by which symbol?Not learned 2002. The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems?Not learned 2003. Which fire control plan symbol in illustration D039SA below represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "A" fire?Not learned 2004. Which fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, represents a dry chemical delivery method for small scale fires?Not learned 2005. There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 2006. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?Not learned 2007. A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using which type of extinguishing agent?Not learned 2008. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by which action?Not learned 2009. If you have a fire in the engine room, what is the FIRST action you should take?Not learned 2010. Fire extinguishing agents used on class C fires must have which characteristic?Not learned 2011. Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?Not learned 2012. A fire hose has a __________.Not learned 2013. A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________.Not learned 2014. Fire hose should be washed with __________.Not learned 2015. A fire must be ventilated __________.Not learned 2016. A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?Not learned 2017. A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?Not learned 2018. A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 2019. A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?Not learned 2020. A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.Not learned 2021. When should a fire be ventilated?Not learned 2022. Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?Not learned 2023. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog which action would you take?Not learned 2024. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.Not learned 2025. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to which personnel?Not learned 2026. What does first aid mean?Not learned 2027. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?Not learned 2028. What is the FIRST treatment for a surface burn?Not learned 2029. A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.Not learned 2030. In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of 20 cylinders, what is the minimum number of required pilot cylinders?Not learned 2031. Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or at which other location?Not learned 2032. Which are the flammable limits of methyl ethyl ketone?Not learned 2033. Which is the flammable limit range of Diesel Oil mixed with air?Not learned 2034. When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.Not learned 2035. When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?Not learned 2036. For a floating vessel, which item is the result of subtracting KG from KM?Not learned 2037. The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by which item?Not learned 2038. Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?Not learned 2039. Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?Not learned 2040. How does foam extinguish a fire?Not learned 2041. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?Not learned 2042. Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.Not learned 2043. A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating which type of fire?Not learned 2044. Which of the following actions should be taken if you accidently test a 406 MHz EPIRB in transmit mode?Not learned 2045. Which of the following best defines the term "chock"?Not learned 2046. Which of the following is considered the normal operational range from a SART unit to a surface vessel?Not learned 2047. Which of the following defines the difference between the free-floating displacement and the KB of a grounded vessel?Not learned 2048. Which of the following defines "Rolling Period"?Not learned 2049. Which of the following describes the inspection and testing requirements of a SART?Not learned 2050. Which of the following describes the requirement for the testing of an EPIRB?Not learned 2051. Which of the following describes a SART?Not learned 2052. Which of the following formulas is an acceptable method to calculate the vertical shift of the vessel's center of gravity?Not learned 2053. Which of the followings is a global communication service to provide distress alerting and a network for SAR communications for mariners?Not learned 2054. Which of the following grounding scenarios would have the least damaging effect on vessel stability?Not learned 2055. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 2056. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 2057. Which of the following is one of the most important safety procedures that should be adhered to prior to starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat?Not learned 2058. Which of the following is part of the annual SOLAS required test on an EPIRB?Not learned 2059. Which of the following is part of a required monthly EPIRB inspection?Not learned 2060. Which of the following penalties can be imposed for a violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?Not learned 2061. Which of the following is the proper operating sequence of a SART?Not learned 2062. Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control Plans?Not learned 2063. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel's Fire Control Plan?Not learned 2064. Which of the following is a requirement if your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate?Not learned 2065. Which of the following requires the vessel to be dry-docked?Not learned 2066. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 2067. Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?Not learned 2068. Which of the following is a symptom of mild hypothermia?Not learned 2069. Which of the following terms defines a unit responsible for organizing search and rescue services?Not learned 2070. Which of the following is True if your radiotelephone fails while underway?Not learned 2071. Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?Not learned 2072. The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.Not learned 2073. Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?Not learned 2074. Four-cycle diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or which other means?Not learned 2075. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks accomplish which task?Not learned 2076. What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications?Not learned 2077. Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?Not learned 2078. A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. What should be your FIRST action?Not learned 2079. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining which minimal speed if it is not towing other survival craft?Not learned 2080. What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?Not learned 2081. What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vesselsNot learned 2082. What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?Not learned 2083. A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using _______.Not learned 2084. A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?Not learned 2085. The garboard strake is the __________.Not learned 2086. If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.Not learned 2087. In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?Not learned 2088. Which are general requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log?Not learned 2089. For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.Not learned 2090. Why can the vessel's GM not be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination?Not learned 2091. Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?Not learned 2092. For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave portNot learned 2093. Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board shipNot learned 2094. Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?Not learned 2095. What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?Not learned 2096. If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?Not learned 2097. When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.Not learned 2098. Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?Not learned 2099. For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?Not learned 2100. The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.Not learned 2101. The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?Not learned 2102. You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?Not learned 2103. What happens when the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pushed into the forward position?Not learned 2104. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will __________.Not learned 2105. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all- purpose nozzle will __________.Not learned 2106. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?Not learned 2107. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. What does this signal mean?Not learned 2108. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. What does this indicate?Not learned 2109. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?Not learned 2110. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.Not learned 2111. When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is referred to by which term?Not learned 2112. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 2113. Which is TRUE of High-velocity fog?Not learned 2114. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in firefighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the firefighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when which condition exists?Not learned 2115. The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?Not learned 2116. The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.Not learned 2117. A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.Not learned 2118. If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?Not learned 2119. If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what code should your message contain?Not learned 2120. In illustration D001SA below, which item represents the righting arm?Not learned 2121. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the center of gravity?Not learned 2122. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the metacentric height?Not learned 2123. In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D?Not learned 2124. In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate?Not learned 2125. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt?Not learned 2126. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard strake?Not learned 2127. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal?Not learned 2128. In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done?Not learned 2129. In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the letter N known as?Not learned 2130. In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known as?Not learned 2131. In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter J known as?Not learned 2132. In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating indicated by letter H known as?Not learned 2133. In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which letter?Not learned 2134. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter F?Not learned 2135. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter K?Not learned 2136. In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor?Not learned 2137. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter L?Not learned 2138. In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N known as?Not learned 2139. In illustration D035SA below, viewing the bridge level of your vessel's fire control plan, what do the two symbols within the machinery casing represent?Not learned 2140. In illustration D036SA below, what does the solid arrow in the Crew Mess represent on the Fire Control Plans?Not learned 2141. In illustration D039SA below, a complete recharge for a self-contained breathing apparatus can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 2142. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol does NOT contain personal protective equipment?Not learned 2143. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol designates a space or compartment protected by Halon 1301?Not learned 2144. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol is not part of the ship's foam system?Not learned 2145. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol(s) represent part of the vessel's ventilation system?Not learned 2146. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (16)?Not learned 2147. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (30)?Not learned 2148. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (37)?Not learned 2149. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (39)?Not learned 2150. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (56)?Not learned 2151. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (64)?Not learned 2152. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (67)?Not learned 2153. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (7)?Not learned 2154. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol(s) represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "B" fire?Not learned 2155. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "C" fire?Not learned 2156. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a Class Alpha fire?Not learned 2157. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a LARGE Class Bravo fire on deck?Not learned 2158. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a bilge pump?Not learned 2159. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the direction of primary means of escape?Not learned 2160. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency fire pump?Not learned 2161. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency generator?Not learned 2162. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment NOT to be found immediately outside the engine room?Not learned 2163. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment that is MOST likely to be found in the ship's galley?Not learned 2164. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire alarm panel?Not learned 2165. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire main with fire valves?Not learned 2166. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire pump?Not learned 2167. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire station?Not learned 2168. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a heat detector?Not learned 2169. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an international shore connection?Not learned 2170. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a NON-portable extinguisher?Not learned 2171. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a push button for a fire alarm?Not learned 2172. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a space protected by foam?Not learned 2173. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol signifies equipment you would use if your fire pump(s) failed?Not learned 2174. In illustration D039SA below, the halon room with the main battery of Halon 1301 bottles is designated by which symbol on the fire control plans?Not learned 2175. In illustration D039SA below the location of a spare set of fire control plans on board the vessel is designated by what approved symbol?Not learned 2176. In illustration D039SA below, what two fire control plan symbols designate the directional means of escape?Not learned 2177. An immersion suit must be equipped with which item(s)?Not learned 2178. What is MOST important when administering artificial respiration?Not learned 2179. What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?Not learned 2180. What is the most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns?Not learned 2181. What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?Not learned 2182. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?Not learned 2183. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 2184. What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?Not learned 2185. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.Not learned 2186. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to take which action?Not learned 2187. The improper stowage of cargo has caused vessels to have a negative GM. How will a ship in this condition handle in the seaway?Not learned 2188. Which will improve stability?Not learned 2189. When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is __________.Not learned 2190. To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could take which action?Not learned 2191. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?Not learned 2192. When must an inflatable liferaft that has been repacked be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility?Not learned 2193. Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry a minimum capacity of how many persons?Not learned 2194. The initial action of a Williamson turn is to put the rudder over full until which of the following?Not learned 2195. When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.Not learned 2196. Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.Not learned 2197. The "inner bottom" is the __________.Not learned 2198. Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?Not learned 2199. In the International Code of signals, what does a group of three letters indicates?Not learned 2200. The International Maritime Organization has specific stability requirements and recommendations for multiple vessel types. Which of the following are subject to these requirements?Not learned 2201. On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more, are required to have facilities to enable a connection on each side of the ship for which piece of equipment represented in illustration D039SA below?Not learned 2202. Who issues the regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?Not learned 2203. Who issues a ship's radiotelephone station license?Not learned 2204. Jettisoning weight from topside __________.Not learned 2205. When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.Not learned 2206. The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.Not learned 2207. Which term is given to the joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side?Not learned 2208. Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.Not learned 2209. The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the __________.Not learned 2210. Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET?Not learned 2211. Which is the proper term given to a large basin cut into the shore, closed off by a caisson, and used for dry docking of ships?Not learned 2212. A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, which action should you take?Not learned 2213. Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the __________.Not learned 2214. When launching an open lifeboat by falls, which is TRUE concerning the boathooks?Not learned 2215. The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into which of the following?Not learned 2216. How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 2217. If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?Not learned 2218. When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.Not learned 2219. Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include which of the following?Not learned 2220. Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.Not learned 2221. "Limber" is a term associated with which item?Not learned 2222. Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.Not learned 2223. Loading cargo above the vessel's center of gravity will increase the vessel's vertical center of gravity. How will this affect the vessel?Not learned 2224. In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located?Not learned 2225. How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee?Not learned 2226. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they relate to a distress situation or disaster?Not learned 2227. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?Not learned 2228. How long are radio station logs involving communications during a disaster required to be kept by the station licensee?Not learned 2229. A long ton is __________.Not learned 2230. How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 2231. When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.Not learned 2232. To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, which should be used?Not learned 2233. When should the lubricating oil be changed on a heavy-duty diesel engine?Not learned 2234. Before any machinery is put in operation, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 2235. The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.Not learned 2236. Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.Not learned 2237. Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?Not learned 2238. Which is a major advantage of the round turn maneuver in a man overboard situation?Not learned 2239. What is the major cause of shock in burn victims?Not learned 2240. Which is TRUE when making a Scharnow turn?Not learned 2241. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.Not learned 2242. A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a Williamson turn, the man is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?Not learned 2243. Which maneuver will return your vessel to a person who has fallen overboard in the shortest time?Not learned 2244. How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?Not learned 2245. How many ring life buoys should a 700-foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?Not learned 2246. How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?Not learned 2247. All marine low-speed diesels are of what design?Not learned 2248. Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?Not learned 2249. Which term is given to the maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel?Not learned 2250. What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?Not learned 2251. What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?Not learned 2252. What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?Not learned 2253. What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the International code of Signals?Not learned 2254. What is meant by "CES"Not learned 2255. What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?Not learned 2256. What is meant by the term "radio silence"Not learned 2257. Which is TRUE of the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engines?Not learned 2258. Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium?Not learned 2259. During a medivac one of the crew members requires assistance to be hoisted to the aircraft. Which of the following would be used to accomplish this task?Not learned 2260. Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?Not learned 2261. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.Not learned 2262. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.Not learned 2263. If the metacentric height is small, which is TRUE of the vessel?Not learned 2264. If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?Not learned 2265. What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio OperatorNot learned 2266. What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?Not learned 2267. What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2-inch fire hose?Not learned 2268. What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?Not learned 2269. What is the minimum operating capacity required for VHF Survival Craft Transceiver batteries?Not learned 2270. What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?Not learned 2271. What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?Not learned 2272. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?Not learned 2273. You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?Not learned 2274. According to the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds which percentage?Not learned 2275. An aluminum powder fire is classified as class __________.Not learned 2276. How are automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems operated?Not learned 2277. Which class of fire is an oil fire classified?Not learned 2278. Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with which item?Not learned 2279. Which describes a Kort nozzle as used on a vessel?Not learned 2280. In an emergency, which can directly control the electro-hydraulic steering units on the vessel?Not learned 2281. Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?Not learned 2282. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.Not learned 2283. Which is the flammable range of Bunker C mixed with air?Not learned 2284. Which of the following pieces of equipment is most commonly used by SAR helicopters when evacuating personnel from survival craft?Not learned 2285. Which of the following when removed will extinguish a fire?Not learned 2286. How are fusible link fire dampers operated?Not learned 2287. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, what will be the upright equilibrium?Not learned 2288. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter I?Not learned 2289. Which item(s) is/are a 2,000 GT tankship required to carry?Not learned 2290. Which item are the terms "pintle" and "gudgeon" associated with?Not learned 2291. All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at which time interval?Not learned 2292. A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry which items?Not learned 2293. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain which items?Not learned 2294. The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered. Which time interval is this action required?Not learned 2295. You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2296. You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a rectangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores be located on the bulkhead?Not learned 2297. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead be located?Not learned 2298. What is the name given to the canvas covering of fire hose?Not learned 2299. Which name is given to the frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a vessel?Not learned 2300. What name is given to the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains?Not learned 2301. Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.Not learned 2302. Normally, before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine which information about the water source?Not learned 2303. Normally, your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. How many sanitary inspections are required to be conducted during the voyage?Not learned 2304. Which officer is responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department?Not learned 2305. How often are CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system required to be pressure tested?Not learned 2306. How often are each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats required to be tested on the vessel?Not learned 2307. What is one of the main purposes of the inclining experiment on a vessel?Not learned 2308. One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is __________.Not learned 2309. The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing in which direction(s)?Not learned 2310. What can an oxygen indicator be used to determine?Not learned 2311. Where are panting frames located in the vessel?Not learned 2312. What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?Not learned 2313. You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons how should a small craft approach?Not learned 2314. The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.Not learned 2315. When positive stability exists, what does GZ represent?Not learned 2316. If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, which is the most effective extinguishing agent to use?Not learned 2317. What is the preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire?Not learned 2318. Which is the primary element to successfully rescuing a man overboard?Not learned 2319. What is the primary equipment for receiving Marine Safety Information (MSI) messages?Not learned 2320. Which is the primary type of welding employed in shipyards in the construction of cargo vessels?Not learned 2321. What is the primary use of antiseptics?Not learned 2322. Which is the prime function of the bilge keel?Not learned 2323. Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, which device prevents water from entering the hull?Not learned 2324. What is the proper name given to a deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two horizontally protruding horns?Not learned 2325. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment?Not learned 2326. On the all-purpose nozzle, what is the position of the nozzle valve when the handle is all the way forward?Not learned 2327. The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you take which action?Not learned 2328. What is the radiotelephone urgency signal?Not learned 2329. What is the rated capacity of a type B-III CO2 extinguisher?Not learned 2330. If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, what would it be referring to?Not learned 2331. When is it recommended that seawater be used for drinking?Not learned 2332. To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. What is the name of this plate?Not learned 2333. Which reference should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?Not learned 2334. You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. In which situation will the CO2 be most effective?Not learned 2335. When rendering assistance to personnel in the water a SAR helicopter utilizes a rescue sling for most extractions. In which case would the use of a litter be preferred?Not learned 2336. A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least which diameter?Not learned 2337. The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at which temperature?Not learned 2338. During a SAR helicopter evacuation which of the following describes the proper donning of a rescue sling?Not learned 2339. During a SAR helicopter evolution the rescue sling is the most widely used method of extraction. Which of the following describes the alternate Double Lift Method used to pick up incapacitated persons?Not learned 2340. A SAR helicopter has landed a litter on deck to medivac a patient from your vessel. After ensuring that it has been grounded, what precautionary action should you take prior to loading the patient into the litter?Not learned 2341. The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in which cycles?Not learned 2342. In ship construction, where should the keel scantlings be the greatest thickness?Not learned 2343. The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if which condition exists?Not learned 2344. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. Which action should be taken?Not learned 2345. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 2346. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?Not learned 2347. Why should storage batteries be charged in a well-ventilated area?Not learned 2348. What does subtracting GM from KM yield?Not learned 2349. On a tankship, who is responsible for the sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters?Not learned 2350. Which term defines the minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form a mixture that ignites and burns?Not learned 2351. Which term defines the volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline?Not learned 2352. Which term is given to the brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler?Not learned 2353. Which term is given to the fittings used to secure a watertight door?Not learned 2354. Which is the term given to the stability which remains after a compartment is flooded?Not learned 2355. Which term is used to describe the geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel?Not learned 2356. A thirty-pound plate would be which thickness?Not learned 2357. The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and which other condition?Not learned 2358. A thrust bearing is designed to accomplish which action?Not learned 2359. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?Not learned 2360. Transverse stability calculations require the use of which information?Not learned 2361. Which is TRUE concerning drinking salt water?Not learned 2362. Which is TRUE concerning fire hose couplings?Not learned 2363. Which is TRUE concerning a fuel-air mixture below the lower flammable limit?Not learned 2364. Which is TRUE concerning the most serious effect trapped air has on a diesel engine jacket water cooling system?Not learned 2365. Which is TRUE if passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out?Not learned 2366. Which is TRUE of the spray of water in low-velocity fog?Not learned 2367. The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.Not learned 2368. What type of messages should the "urgent" priority be used for?Not learned 2369. Which type of weld is used to attach stiffeners to a plate?Not learned 2370. Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and which other testing?Not learned 2371. An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is in which location?Not learned 2372. Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to perform which task?Not learned 2373. Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by which method?Not learned 2374. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which of the following?Not learned 2375. Your vessel has grounded and a report must be made to the United States Coast Guard. Which is the required form for this report?Not learned 2376. For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives which information?Not learned 2377. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?Not learned 2378. Your vessel is listing because of a negative GM. To lower G below M, which action should you take?Not learned 2379. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?Not learned 2380. Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. Which is a requirement of the auxiliary line?Not learned 2381. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. What does this indicate about the vessel?Not learned 2382. A vessel can be termed as either tender or stiff in relation to its rolling period. Which of the following would cause a vessel to be tender?Not learned 2383. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds which amount?Not learned 2384. You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. Which action should you take next?Not learned 2385. What is a wobbling tail shaft an indication of?Not learned 2386. A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?Not learned 2387. The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.Not learned 2388. What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?Not learned 2389. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?Not learned 2390. Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 2391. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. In illustration D039SA below what fire control plan symbol designates the primary means of escape?Not learned 2392. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. The primary means of escape is blocked by the fire. What fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, designates the secondary means of escape?Not learned 2393. You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2394. You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.Not learned 2395. If you must swim through an oil fire, which action should be avoided?Not learned 2396. What is the name given to the strake on each side of the keel?Not learned 2397. Which is the national distress, safety, and calling frequency channel?Not learned 2398. In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.Not learned 2399. Why is it necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire?Not learned 2400. A negative metacentric height __________.Not learned 2401. A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.Not learned 2402. When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.Not learned 2403. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of which item?Not learned 2404. How does the rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiate oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams?Not learned 2405. What would light gray smoke from a diesel engine probably indicate?Not learned 2406. The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is approximately __________.Not learned 2407. What is normal mouth temperature?Not learned 2408. What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?Not learned 2409. Normally, which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?Not learned 2410. Why is it desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks?Not learned 2411. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.Not learned 2412. The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.Not learned 2413. How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 2414. The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.Not learned 2415. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, what must the boat be supplied with?Not learned 2416. If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, how often are free-fall lifeboats required to be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew?Not learned 2417. You are the officer in charge of a navigational watch, what signal would indicate your 3 cm radar has interrogated a SART unit?Not learned 2418. How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?Not learned 2419. How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?Not learned 2420. How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?Not learned 2421. Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.Not learned 2422. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message contain?Not learned 2423. Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.Not learned 2424. One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________.Not learned 2425. One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.Not learned 2426. What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?Not learned 2427. What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?Not learned 2428. One function of a bulwark is to __________.Not learned 2429. One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________.Not learned 2430. One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about __________.Not learned 2431. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.Not learned 2432. To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________.Not learned 2433. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?Not learned 2434. While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is injured. What indicator should be in the preamble of a radio telegram asking for medical advice from a Greek station?Not learned 2435. You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.Not learned 2436. While operating off Panama a seaman is injured. What indicator should be included in the preamble of a radio telegram requesting medical advice from a Panamanian station?Not learned 2437. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least which of the following?Not learned 2438. In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by which of the following?Not learned 2439. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST take which action?Not learned 2440. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.Not learned 2441. Which organization reviews and approves a vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 2442. The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.Not learned 2443. The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.Not learned 2444. Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.Not learned 2445. Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause which situation to occur?Not learned 2446. Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. What is the name given to these strakes?Not learned 2447. You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire pump(s)?Not learned 2448. You are part of a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in the crew lounge. Where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furnitureNot learned 2449. A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.Not learned 2450. Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. How many life buoys are required for the vessel?Not learned 2451. If a passenger vessel navigating the Great Lakes is required to carry 8 life buoys, what is the allowable minimum number of these buoys that must have self-igniting lights attached?Not learned 2452. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?Not learned 2453. What is the period of validity of a De-Rat certificate?Not learned 2454. What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections?Not learned 2455. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 2456. A person is exhibiting signs of hypothermia and starts to shiver, what does this indicate?Not learned 2457. What should a person do after being revived by artificial respiration?Not learned 2458. When a person is in shock, how will their skin appear?Not learned 2459. How should a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries be treated?Not learned 2460. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water?Not learned 2461. Which piece(s) of equipment represented by the Fire Control Plan symbols in illustration D039SA below, can be found on the exterior of the vessel?Not learned 2462. Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?Not learned 2463. You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. Choose the best answer that states the requirement(s) of the regulations?Not learned 2464. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.Not learned 2465. A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.Not learned 2466. Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on which class of fires?Not learned 2467. A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.Not learned 2468. If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"?Not learned 2469. When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?Not learned 2470. What power source actuates a solenoid valve?Not learned 2471. What is the primary action when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis?Not learned 2472. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient?Not learned 2473. What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 2474. The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________.Not learned 2475. What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?Not learned 2476. What is the primary reason for placing covers over the top of storage batteries?Not learned 2477. What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass?Not learned 2478. What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?Not learned 2479. Which term defines the most probable position of the object of a search at any given time?Not learned 2480. You are proceeding to the area of reported distress. When you arrive at the reported position, the vessel in distress is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?Not learned 2481. You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2482. You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in making your vessel more visible to the survivors?Not learned 2483. You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will make your ship more visible to the survivors?Not learned 2484. You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2485. In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________.Not learned 2486. Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________.Not learned 2487. Which term is used to describe the projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder?Not learned 2488. What does proper GMDSS watchkeeping include?Not learned 2489. What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?Not learned 2490. What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?Not learned 2491. A pump room is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pump room atmosphere for combustible gases?Not learned 2492. What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?Not learned 2493. What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships?Not learned 2494. What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?Not learned 2495. What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?Not learned 2496. What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine?Not learned 2497. What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?Not learned 2498. Which quantity of fuel is required to be carried in a motor lifeboat?Not learned 2499. A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.Not learned 2500. Which is the quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open?Not learned 2501. In a racetrack turn, to recover a man overboard, the vessel is steadied for the SECOND time after a turn of how many degrees from the original heading?Not learned 2502. When would a racetrack turn be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a man overboard?Not learned 2503. How is "radio silence" imposed?Not learned 2504. What is the radiotelephone safety signal?Not learned 2505. Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?Not learned 2506. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________.Not learned 2507. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. What is the meaning of the message?Not learned 2508. After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. may ask you to switch to which SSB frequency?Not learned 2509. Regardless of the method it is sent, what does he signal K4 mean?Not learned 2510. Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?Not learned 2511. Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations)Not learned 2512. By regulation, how long you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone?Not learned 2513. Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.Not learned 2514. To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and __________.Not learned 2515. What represents poor sanitary procedures?Not learned 2516. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?Not learned 2517. What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?Not learned 2518. What is required during an annual FCC inspectionNot learned 2519. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?Not learned 2520. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 2521. What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?Not learned 2522. Which is a requirement for any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?Not learned 2523. How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?Not learned 2524. Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress communications have ceased?Not learned 2525. If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.Not learned 2526. Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?Not learned 2527. What is the result of a vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity?Not learned 2528. The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.Not learned 2529. To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.Not learned 2530. Your Ro Ro vessel has just completed discharging the lower decks and is commencing discharging the upper levels. What would it indicate if the vessel were to suddenly develop a list?Not learned 2531. When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposedNot learned 2532. You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take First to correct the situation?Not learned 2533. A safe fuel system must __________.Not learned 2534. SART units are designed to be manually carried to the survival craft. Which of the following is another characteristic of a SART?Not learned 2535. A SART unit is used for which of the following?Not learned 2536. How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?Not learned 2537. How can a SART's effective range be maximized?Not learned 2538. Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?Not learned 2539. The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when __________.Not learned 2540. In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?Not learned 2541. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, which presents the greatest danger?Not learned 2542. At sea, how must all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) be proven operationalNot learned 2543. You are at sea and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter Eight. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2544. A seaman is reported missing in the morning and was last seen after coming off the mid-watch. Which type of turn would you use to return to the track-line steamed during the night?Not learned 2545. Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in what body part?Not learned 2546. You are on the second deck of the engine room between frames 92 thru105 and the space is filling up with smoke. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, where is the primary means of escape from that area is via a ladderwell?Not learned 2547. You are on the second deck in the main machinery space. Utilizing illustration D037SA below what emergency equipment, if any, is located at frame 107?Not learned 2548. As seen in illustration D035SA below, when the remote push button located in the wheelhouse, starboard side, frame 122, is actuated, what is the result?Not learned 2549. As seen in illustration D039SA below a complete set of spare batteries for a fireman's outfit can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 2550. As seen in illustration D039SA below, a locker with additional breathing apparatuses can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 2551. As seen in illustration D039SA below a locker with additional protective clothing can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 2552. If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you conveying?Not learned 2553. When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.Not learned 2554. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL. What is the meaning of the message?Not learned 2555. Which is the most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system?Not learned 2556. The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.Not learned 2557. Which is the most serious type of fracture?Not learned 2558. A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is known as __________.Not learned 2559. Several merchant ships are arriving at the scene of a distress incident. One of them must assume the duties of the On-Scene Coordinator. Which of the following statements is TRUE?Not learned 2560. What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?Not learned 2561. Shell plating is _________.Not learned 2562. Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.Not learned 2563. Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. What would be the virtual rise in the center of gravity?Not learned 2564. In ship construction, which is TRUE concerning frame spacing?Not learned 2565. When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?Not learned 2566. A ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for which of the following terms?Not learned 2567. Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?Not learned 2568. The signal has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following describes the action to be taken with the EPIRB?Not learned 2569. Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT be given by which form of communication?Not learned 2570. What does the signal L1210 indicate?Not learned 2571. What does the signal "AS", when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals mean?Not learned 2572. What does the single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted vessel, mean?Not learned 2573. Which situation may require you to administer artificial respiration?Not learned 2574. What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?Not learned 2575. A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.Not learned 2576. In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.Not learned 2577. In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.Not learned 2578. In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through which point?Not learned 2579. Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.Not learned 2580. Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.Not learned 2581. SOLAS requires which of the following with regard to watertight doors in cargo spaces?Not learned 2582. SOLAS requires a logbook entry for the operation of watertight door drills. Which of the following lists the frequency that these drills are required to be conducted for passenger vessels?Not learned 2583. SOLAS requires that passenger vessels make an entry in the log book for all drills and inspections of watertight doors. What other information relevant to the watertight doors is required to be entered?Not learned 2584. Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?Not learned 2585. The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.Not learned 2586. Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.Not learned 2587. A spanner is a __________.Not learned 2588. Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?Not learned 2589. What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?Not learned 2590. What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?Not learned 2591. Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.Not learned 2592. The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have __________.Not learned 2593. The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.Not learned 2594. Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and which other force?Not learned 2595. When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM __________.Not learned 2596. Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is at which location?Not learned 2597. Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.Not learned 2598. Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?Not learned 2599. Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?Not learned 2600. Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?Not learned 2601. Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?Not learned 2602. Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUENot learned 2603. Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE?Not learned 2604. Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE?Not learned 2605. Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?Not learned 2606. Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?Not learned 2607. Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?Not learned 2608. Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?Not learned 2609. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?Not learned 2610. Which statement about damage control is TRUE?Not learned 2611. Which statement describes a compound fracture?Not learned 2612. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?Not learned 2613. Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?Not learned 2614. Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?Not learned 2615. Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?Not learned 2616. What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 2617. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 2618. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 2619. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 2620. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?Not learned 2621. Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE?Not learned 2622. Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?Not learned 2623. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2624. Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?Not learned 2625. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?Not learned 2626. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?Not learned 2627. Which statement is TRUE concerning a fire in a machinery space?Not learned 2628. Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel?Not learned 2629. Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?Not learned 2630. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat installations on Great Lakes vessels?Not learned 2631. Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?Not learned 2632. Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?Not learned 2633. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?Not learned 2634. Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels?Not learned 2635. Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?Not learned 2636. Which statement is TRUE about firefighting foam?Not learned 2637. Which statement is True for lifejackets on a small passenger vessel?Not learned 2638. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?Not learned 2639. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?Not learned 2640. Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is TRUE?Not learned 2641. Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE?Not learned 2642. With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?Not learned 2643. Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?Not learned 2644. Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?Not learned 2645. A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against which class of fires?Not learned 2646. The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to accomplish which task?Not learned 2647. The strength of a deck will be increased by adding which item?Not learned 2648. The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.Not learned 2649. Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause which to occur?Not learned 2650. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0015 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 2651. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0003 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 2652. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST- 0004 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 2653. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0015 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? I. Two reels of hoisting wire. Each reel is 8 feet in circumference and 4 feet wide and has 3000 feet of wire. Both reels are stowed on the flat. Wire weighs 1.55 pounds per linear foot. The tare weight of each reel is 500 pounds. II. Eight pallets of case goods stowed singly. Each pallet is 8' L X 4' W X 4' H and weighs 1 long ton. III. 12 steel containers of cement. Each container weighs 1 1/2 tons. Each container is 8' L X 4' W X 4' H. The containers are stowed singly fore and aft. IV. 10 crates of stewards stores. Each crate measures 4' L X 4' W 3' H and weighs 420 pounds. Each crate is stowed on deck.Not learned 2654. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0018 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 2655. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0019 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 2656. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0027 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 2657. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0030 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 2658. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0036 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 2659. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0039 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 2660. A survivor has been pulled from the water off the coast of Greenland. The patient is in a state of confusion and has ceased shivering. Which of the following best describes the patient's condition?Not learned 2661. You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances?Not learned 2662. The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization?Not learned 2663. Symbol number (51) in illustration D039SA below is found all throughout the ship. What fire control equipment does this symbol represent?Not learned 2664. What are the symptoms of a fractured back?Not learned 2665. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?Not learned 2666. Which is a symptom of traumatic shock?Not learned 2667. Which system has the least effective radius of operation?Not learned 2668. Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?Not learned 2669. Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?Not learned 2670. Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?Not learned 2671. Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?Not learned 2672. Which system provides maximum communications range?Not learned 2673. Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?Not learned 2674. A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone five days after departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?Not learned 2675. A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone six days after departing the loading port. She will burn off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?Not learned 2676. A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.Not learned 2677. Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?Not learned 2678. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?Not learned 2679. Which term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship?Not learned 2680. The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with which part of the vessel?Not learned 2681. The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with which areas of the vessel?Not learned 2682. Which term defines the vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors?Not learned 2683. Which term is given to the wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading?Not learned 2684. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body?Not learned 2685. What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?Not learned 2686. What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the aft side of the rudder post?Not learned 2687. Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?Not learned 2688. Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?Not learned 2689. The term "scantlings" refers to the __________.Not learned 2690. The term "strake" is used in reference to which item(s)?Not learned 2691. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?Not learned 2692. What are the three basic types of engine starters?Not learned 2693. Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________.Not learned 2694. Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers _________.Not learned 2695. On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, which action should you take?Not learned 2696. All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?Not learned 2697. Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?Not learned 2698. What is the traditional signal for fire aboard ship?Not learned 2699. What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?Not learned 2700. Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.Not learned 2701. In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 2702. How should you treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion?Not learned 2703. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?Not learned 2704. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 2705. You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?Not learned 2706. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?Not learned 2707. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. How should you make your approach?Not learned 2708. When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?Not learned 2709. Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.Not learned 2710. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?Not learned 2711. Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?Not learned 2712. Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel's fire fighting arrangement within the fire control plan?Not learned 2713. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?Not learned 2714. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?Not learned 2715. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?Not learned 2716. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?Not learned 2717. What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction?Not learned 2718. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?Not learned 2719. When do U.S. regulations require your vessel's EPIRB to be tested?Not learned 2720. If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, which action can you take?Not learned 2721. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on which of the following channels?Not learned 2722. While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?Not learned 2723. Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when __________.Not learned 2724. Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene of the distress. Under which of the following cases would this NOT be true?Not learned 2725. When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.Not learned 2726. What is used as an indicator of initial stability?Not learned 2727. What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?Not learned 2728. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?Not learned 2729. What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?Not learned 2730. What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel?Not learned 2731. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?Not learned 2732. When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.Not learned 2733. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.Not learned 2734. When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when __________.Not learned 2735. You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter?Not learned 2736. When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument?Not learned 2737. You are using a racetrack turn to recover a man overboard. The vessel is first steadied when how many degrees away from the original heading?Not learned 2738. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.Not learned 2739. On the illustrated fire control plan, what emergency equipment is located in the sculleryNot learned 2740. What is the usual depth of a beam bracket?Not learned 2741. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?Not learned 2742. What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?Not learned 2743. Utilizing illustration D035SA below, the Master has ordered you to pull the remote ventilation shut down, where is it found?Not learned 2744. Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represent?Not learned 2745. Utilizing illustration D038SA below a view of a vessel fire control plan, how many spaces are protected by a fixed CO2 extinguishing system?Not learned 2746. The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and which other item?Not learned 2747. The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is __________.Not learned 2748. The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2749. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.Not learned 2750. Vertical moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.Not learned 2751. If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from which area(s) of the vessel?Not learned 2752. A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.Not learned 2753. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?Not learned 2754. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", which of the following is True if there is a failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment?Not learned 2755. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or which channel?Not learned 2756. Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what?Not learned 2757. Your vessel is conducting helicopter evacuation operations for an injured crew member. Which of the following statements is true concerning the hoisting line?Not learned 2758. Your vessel is conducting a "Vessel Grounded Drill". Where is the plan indicating the vessel's watertight boundaries required to be located?Not learned 2759. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2760. In vessel construction, which is TRUE of the garboard strake?Not learned 2761. Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability?Not learned 2762. Your vessel was damaged and initially assumed a significant list and trim; however, further increase has been slow. Based on this data, what should you expect?Not learned 2763. Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?Not learned 2764. Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00" (1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST?Not learned 2765. Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?Not learned 2766. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 2767. Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?Not learned 2768. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________.Not learned 2769. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________.Not learned 2770. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 2771. A vessel has been damaged and is taking on water. Where can you find the data that will indicate how much water the vessel can retain and still possess reserve buoyancy?Not learned 2772. Your vessel is discharging containers from the main deck with the ship's cranes. Which of the following must be taken into account when calculating the center of gravity as the containers are discharged?Not learned 2773. Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 2774. Your vessel displaces 479 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.0 feet above the deck and weighs 16 tons. If you load 23 tons of anchor and anchor chain with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG above the deck?Not learned 2775. Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 2776. Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 2777. Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 2778. Your vessel displaces 640 tons. The existing deck cargo has center of gravity of 2.3 feet above the deck and weighs 18 tons. If you load 12 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 21 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 2779. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 2780. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 16'-05". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 2781. A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 2782. A vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 2783. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 2784. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested at which time interval?Not learned 2785. What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?Not learned 2786. If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?Not learned 2787. The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan?Not learned 2788. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT?Not learned 2789. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT?Not learned 2790. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol helps to control the spread of fire?Not learned 2791. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol represents a fire damper?Not learned 2792. A vessel's fire control plan shall be __________.Not learned 2793. A vessel's fire control plan shall do which of the following?Not learned 2794. Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06" if the TPI is 69?Not learned 2795. On which vessels is GMDSS required?Not learned 2796. Your vessel has run aground in waters where the tide is falling. Which of the following is the best action you can take?Not learned 2797. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.Not learned 2798. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?Not learned 2799. When a vessel has grounded which of the following could result from the forces acting upward on the bottom?Not learned 2800. Your vessel has just grounded on the rocks and is flooding. What should be the initial action in this situation?Not learned 2801. Your vessel is involved in Search and Rescue Operations. What is the purpose of the "Situation ReportNot learned 2802. Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating?Not learned 2803. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 2804. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 2805. A vessel's KG is determined by __________.Not learned 2806. A vessel with a large GM will __________.Not learned 2807. A vessel with a large GM will __________.Not learned 2808. Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 2809. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.Not learned 2810. A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be __________.Not learned 2811. Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 2812. As a vessel officer part of your duties is to inspect the lifesaving equipment. What should be done to facilitate a test of the vessel's EPIRB?Not learned 2813. When a vessel has positive stability, which term is used to describe the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G?Not learned 2814. A vessel that does not possess any reserve buoyancy will sink. Which of the following is considered a direct measure of reserve buoyancy?Not learned 2815. Your vessel is preparing to enter port. What is the SOLAS requirement for opening of the vessel's cargo hold watertight doors in this situationNot learned 2816. A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________.Not learned 2817. Your vessel has just received a distress message. As the master of the vessel, when are you relieved of your obligation to assist in the search and rescue operations?Not learned 2818. Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?Not learned 2819. Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone?Not learned 2820. Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure?Not learned 2821. Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be taken next?Not learned 2822. Your vessel is securely moored and commencing to load cargo. What effect does loading cargo have on the vessel's vertical center of gravity?Not learned 2823. A vessel with a small GM will __________.Not learned 2824. A vessel with a small GM will __________.Not learned 2825. Vessels subject to SOLAS are required to keep watertight doors closed while the vessel is navigating. Which of the following is an exception to this requirement?Not learned 2826. Your vessel has suffered a casualty and is in danger of sinking. The Master orders abandon ship but a crew member is missing. You have located the crew member but she is trapped in the Steward's Office. Using the Fire Control Plans in illustration D036SA below, where is the nearest fire axe to gain entry?Not learned 2827. Your vessel has been taking on water but now the breached hole has been repaired. Which effects can the flooding have on your vessel's GM?Not learned 2828. A vessel is taking on water but is not in immediate danger of sinking. What would be the best action to take to increase the vessel's stability?Not learned 2829. Your vessel is taking on water and the order has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following is an effective method of combating hypothermia if you must enter the water?Not learned 2830. A vessel's tropical load line is 6 in. above her summer load line. Her TPI is 127 tons. She will arrive in the summer zone 8 days after departure. She will burn off about 47 tons/day fuel and water consumption is 12 tons/day. How many tons may she load above her summer load line if she loads in the tropical zone?Not learned 2831. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.Not learned 2832. Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?Not learned 2833. Which is the VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel?Not learned 2834. In the view of the bridge deck on the fire control plan shown in illustration D035SA below, what is represented by the symbol on the aft bulkhead, port side of the wheelhouse?Not learned 2835. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?Not learned 2836. Wale shores would be used when dry docking a vessel with __________.Not learned 2837. How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time?Not learned 2838. While you are on watch, you learn that a crewman has not been seen on board for the past three hours. Which type of turn is best in this man-overboard situation?Not learned 2839. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?Not learned 2840. You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which man overboard turn should NOT be used in this situation?Not learned 2841. Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to __________.Not learned 2842. When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, how long will a 5-gallon can of liquid foam last?Not learned 2843. In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion?Not learned 2844. In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?Not learned 2845. When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?Not learned 2846. Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of which extinguisher(s)?Not learned 2847. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?Not learned 2848. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?Not learned 2849. The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.Not learned 2850. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.Not learned 2851. What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?Not learned 2852. Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.Not learned 2853. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?Not learned 2854. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. Which action should you take?Not learned 2855. What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?Not learned 2856. How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?Not learned 2857. What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?Not learned 2858. What would be a major consequence of allowing the refrigeration system of a low-pressure fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain inoperable?Not learned 2859. What would be the result of physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water?Not learned 2860. What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean?Not learned 2861. U.S. regulations require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. Who must be in attendance at this meeting?Not learned 2862. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of which duration?Not learned 2863. Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.Not learned 2864. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 2865. In any major injury, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and what secondary condition?Not learned 2866. What is the preferred method of controlling external bleeding?Not learned 2867. Which is the required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage?Not learned 2868. Which of the following choices best defines EPIRB, ELT, PLBS?Not learned 2869. Which of the following describes the condition of Hypothermia?Not learned 2870. Which of the following is a treatment of frostbite?Not learned 2871. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a U.S. port and fails to return. The first report you make should be to which organization?Not learned 2872. Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed which amount?Not learned 2873. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by which means?Not learned 2874. Longitudinal moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and which other component?Not learned 2875. Stress on the topping lift of a swinging boom can be reduced by __________.Not learned 2876. The annual survey for endorsement of a Load Line Certificate must be held within which time frame?Not learned 2877. The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill during which time frame?Not learned 2878. The moisture equilibrium chart can be used to determine which item?Not learned 2879. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet?Not learned 2880. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels?Not learned 2881. What is the thickness of a 30.6-pound plate?Not learned 2882. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to which system?Not learned 2883. Which is TRUE concerning a certified lifeboat operator assigned to command a lifeboat?Not learned 2884. Which is TRUE of a pelican hook?Not learned 2885. Why must a sufficient amount of chain be veered when anchoring a vessel?Not learned 2886. You are signing on a crew. You can determine the minimum number and qualifications of the crew that you are required to carry by consulting which document?Not learned 2887. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. What is the designation number for the middle boat on the starboard side?Not learned 2888. At least one reinspection shall be made on each vessel holding a Certificate of Inspection valid for two years. This inspection shall be held between the tenth and fourteenth months of the duration period of the certificate. Which describes the scope of the annual inspection?Not learned 2889. Generally speaking, how is the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber ignited?Not learned 2890. How does bleeding from a vein appear?Not learned 2891. The Safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by which organization?Not learned 2892. Which statement about the forecastle card is TRUE?Not learned 2893. Which statement is TRUE concerning the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or boat hoists?Not learned 2894. Your vessel is in distress and the order has been given to abandon ship. If you must enter the water which of the following would aid in preventing hypothermia?Not learned 2895. A twin-screw ship going ahead on the starboard screw only, will move the bow in which direction?Not learned 2896. After your vessel has been involved in a casualty, who are you required to make your logbooks, bell books, etc., available to?Not learned 2897. An implied warranty of seaworthiness on the part of the vessel's owner lies in which document?Not learned 2898. As seen in illustration D004SA below, what action must be taken before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle?Not learned 2899. Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are which classification?Not learned 2900. How can the accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries be prevented?Not learned 2901. If another station sent you the signal "KG", what would this indicate?Not learned 2902. On stud-link anchor chain, how much does the addition of the stud increase the strength of the link?Not learned 2903. Safety shackles are fitted with which items?Not learned 2904. The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to what duration?Not learned 2905. What is the FIRST thing the rescuer must do if the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation?Not learned 2906. What is the main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire?Not learned 2907. What is the number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected "Motor vessel" based on?Not learned 2908. What is the principle treatment of sunstroke?Not learned 2909. What should be the FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns?Not learned 2910. Which is the BEST way to reduce your wake in a narrow channel?Not learned 2911. Which is the easiest way to anchor a vessel in a current?Not learned 2912. Which is the most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen?Not learned 2913. Which is the principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel?Not learned 2914. Which is the VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency?Not learned 2915. You are attending to survivors after abandoning ship. Several of the personnel have a slow pulse and slow breathing rates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these conditions?Not learned 2916. You are backing on twin engines with rudders amidships. Your starboard engine stalls. To continue backing on course, which action should you take?Not learned 2917. You are going ahead on twin engines with rudder amidships. Your starboard engine stalls. To continue on course, which action should you take?Not learned 2918. You are in port A in the United States, and your Certificate of Inspection has expired. You wish to go to port B in the United States for repairs and to complete the inspection. If the Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspection deems it safe, he may issue which document?Not learned 2919. You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. How would you describe this swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals?Not learned 2920. Your ship is dead in the water with the rudder amidships. As the right-handed screw starts to turn ahead, which way will the bow tend to go?Not learned 2921. Your stability calculations indicate your vessel has a marginal GM. Which of the following is the most effective way to increase the stability of the vessel?Not learned 2922. Your twin-screw vessel is moving ASTERN with rudders amidships. The starboard screw suddenly stops turning. How will your vessel respond?Not learned 2923. Your vessel has just run aground. Which of the following would be one of the first actions you should take in this situation?Not learned 2924. Your vessel is preparing to proceed up a river. Which of the following is true concerning the handling of the vessel in shallow water?Not learned 2925. Which defines the term reserve buoyancy?Not learned 2926. How should the number "3" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 2927. Who is responsible for the revision of muster lists?Not learned 2928. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter C in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 2929. Your cargo vessel is transiting pirate waters with a temporary security team onboard. The ship has been attacked and starts sinking. The decision has been made to abandon ship. During the muster, the security force leader is determined to be missing. What initial action should be taken?Not learned 2930. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter F in illustration D003DG below?Not learned