Q137 - Deck Safety, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 2. What is the function of wearing rings found on some centrifugal pumps?Not learned 3. In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.Not learned 4. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.Not learned 5. Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?Not learned 6. The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by which organization?Not learned 7. AMVER is a system which provides __________.Not learned 8. Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.Not learned 9. The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?Not learned 10. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?Not learned 11. When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?Not learned 12. While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.Not learned 13. What is the signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats?Not learned 14. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.Not learned 15. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 16. When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.Not learned 17. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?Not learned 18. Which signaling device(s) is/are required on inflatable liferafts?Not learned 19. All of the following are recognized distress signals under the Navigation Rules EXCEPT which signal?Not learned 20. When a vessel signals its distress by means of a gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be at approximately which time intervals?Not learned 21. How can you indicate that your vessel is in distress?Not learned 22. Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?Not learned 23. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 24. Fires are grouped into what categories?Not learned 25. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.Not learned 26. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 27. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.Not learned 28. How are fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium classified?Not learned 29. Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?Not learned 30. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 31. Which defines the "flammable limits" of an atmosphere?Not learned 32. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.Not learned 33. Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.Not learned 34. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.Not learned 35. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?Not learned 36. Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.Not learned 37. Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.Not learned 38. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.Not learned 39. There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, which is the other?Not learned 40. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?Not learned 41. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?Not learned 42. Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?Not learned 43. Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?Not learned 44. After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.Not learned 45. When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?Not learned 46. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.Not learned 47. In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?Not learned 48. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.Not learned 49. How can the spread of fire be prevented?Not learned 50. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 51. Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.Not learned 52. Convection spreads a fire by __________.Not learned 53. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 54. Fire may be spread by which means?Not learned 55. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.Not learned 56. Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.Not learned 57. Which is the best method of extinguishing a class A fire?Not learned 58. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 59. Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?Not learned 60. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.Not learned 61. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 62. Which is the BEST method of applying foam to a fire?Not learned 63. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by which action?Not learned 64. The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting nozzle should always be __________.Not learned 65. No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.Not learned 66. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.Not learned 67. Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?Not learned 68. CO₂ cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.Not learned 69. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.Not learned 70. In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________.Not learned 71. Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push- buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 72. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 73. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?Not learned 74. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for manually releasing the CO2 at which location?Not learned 75. When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, how many pilot cylinders are required?Not learned 76. Spaces protected by a fixed CO₂ system must be equipped with an alarm which is to sound __________.Not learned 77. A safety outlet is provided on the CO₂ discharge piping to prevent __________.Not learned 78. CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?Not learned 79. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?Not learned 80. Which statement is TRUE to safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system?Not learned 81. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.Not learned 82. Which defines the flash point of a liquid?Not learned 83. Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?Not learned 84. Which term defines the lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition?Not learned 85. Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?Not learned 86. You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?Not learned 87. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.Not learned 88. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.Not learned 89. Where would spontaneous combustion most likely occur?Not learned 90. Which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous combustion?Not learned 91. Which may ignite fuel vapors?Not learned 92. What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?Not learned 93. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 94. The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.Not learned 95. The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.Not learned 96. Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.Not learned 97. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?Not learned 98. When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, what is the MOST important symptom to check for?Not learned 99. Where should muster lists be posted?Not learned 100. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?Not learned 101. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.Not learned 102. A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of the following?Not learned 103. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.Not learned 104. All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.Not learned 105. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 106. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?Not learned 107. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make __________.Not learned 108. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat. In a mild breeze how should the boat approach the person in the water?Not learned 109. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?Not learned 110. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.Not learned 111. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?Not learned 112. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.Not learned 113. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?Not learned 114. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.Not learned 115. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?Not learned 116. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.Not learned 117. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?Not learned 118. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 119. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 120. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, what should be your main course of action?Not learned 121. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?Not learned 122. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 123. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 124. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 125. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?Not learned 126. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 127. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?Not learned 128. Life jackets should be marked with which item?Not learned 129. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.Not learned 130. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, which action should you take?Not learned 131. Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to accomplish which task?Not learned 132. What is the purpose of rigging frapping lines on lifeboat falls?Not learned 133. Which of the following persons may command a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 134. Which of the following is NOT a function of the pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat?Not learned 135. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?Not learned 136. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 137. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 138. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.Not learned 139. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the following colors?Not learned 140. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?Not learned 141. You will find a limit switch on which type of davit?Not learned 142. Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.Not learned 143. After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.Not learned 144. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 145. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on which item?Not learned 146. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 147. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.Not learned 148. Which item is a feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people inside the raft stationary in rough weather?Not learned 149. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 150. Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?Not learned 151. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?Not learned 152. The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.Not learned 153. Inflatable liferafts are provided with which item?Not learned 154. What must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 155. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.Not learned 156. How should an inflatable liferaft be manually released from its cradle?Not learned 157. An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.Not learned 158. Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?Not learned 159. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.Not learned 160. Which is TRUE concerning a hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft?Not learned 161. Under normal conditions, how is a liferaft released from its cradle?Not learned 162. Where are the lifelines connected to the liferaft?Not learned 163. The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.Not learned 164. To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.Not learned 165. After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.Not learned 166. After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, how is the liferaft inflated?Not learned 167. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?Not learned 168. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 169. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.Not learned 170. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which action will aid in your rescue?Not learned 171. After launching, how can the inside of an inflatable raft be kept dry?Not learned 172. Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship which item(s) would you use?Not learned 173. How is the inside light in an inflatable liferaft activated?Not learned 174. You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?Not learned 175. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?Not learned 176. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 177. Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?Not learned 178. What is the function of the hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 179. Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 180. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?Not learned 181. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.Not learned 182. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 183. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.Not learned 184. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF which condition exists?Not learned 185. Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________.Not learned 186. When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should take which action?Not learned 187. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 188. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.Not learned 189. A sea anchor is __________.Not learned 190. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using which item(s)?Not learned 191. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.Not learned 192. When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.Not learned 193. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?Not learned 194. Initial stability is indicated by __________.Not learned 195. The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known as the __________.Not learned 196. Which term is used for the horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces?Not learned 197. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.Not learned 198. Which term defines the upward pressure of displaced water of a vessel?Not learned 199. At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.Not learned 200. Initial stability refers to stability __________.Not learned 201. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.Not learned 202. Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel. These points are the center of buoyancy and the __________.Not learned 203. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.Not learned 204. The important initial stability parameter, GM, is which of the following?Not learned 205. The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the __________.Not learned 206. When a vessel is floating upright, which term is used to define the distance from the keel to the metacenter of a vessel?Not learned 207. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.Not learned 208. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.Not learned 209. At all angles of inclination, which is the true measure of a vessel's stability?Not learned 210. Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as __________.Not learned 211. Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 212. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 213. The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after a change in load has occurred is known as __________.Not learned 214. Which term defines the difference between the forward and aft drafts?Not learned 215. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.Not learned 216. Which term is given to the difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely in the vessel?Not learned 217. The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.Not learned 218. What does reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduce?Not learned 219. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.Not learned 220. For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.Not learned 221. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.Not learned 222. A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.Not learned 223. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.Not learned 224. When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.Not learned 225. If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.Not learned 226. A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.Not learned 227. Forces within a vessel may cause a difference between the starboard and port drafts. What is this difference called?Not learned 228. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.Not learned 229. When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.Not learned 230. When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.Not learned 231. The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.Not learned 232. During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. Which action should you take?Not learned 233. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed?Not learned 234. The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.Not learned 235. Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.Not learned 236. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 237. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 238. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 239. A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.Not learned 240. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.Not learned 241. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.Not learned 242. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces which threat?Not learned 243. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.Not learned 244. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.Not learned 245. Which is the best action to take when plugging holes below the waterline for the safety of the vessel?Not learned 246. Which term describes the strengthening of damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel?Not learned 247. In plugging submerged holes; why are rags, wedges, and other materials used in conjunction with plugs?Not learned 248. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.Not learned 249. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?Not learned 250. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?Not learned 251. How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be treated?Not learned 252. Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?Not learned 253. As a last resort, what can a tourniquet be used for?Not learned 254. Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear __________.Not learned 255. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 256. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?Not learned 257. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 258. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 259. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?Not learned 260. What is the primary purpose of a splint when applied in first aid treatment?Not learned 261. How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture?Not learned 262. Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what action is taken?Not learned 263. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?Not learned 264. Which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock?Not learned 265. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?Not learned 266. After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?Not learned 267. Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?Not learned 268. In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which of the following treatments would you AVOID using?Not learned 269. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?Not learned 270. A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology what type of burn is this?Not learned 271. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, what type of burn is this?Not learned 272. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to __________.Not learned 273. For small, first-degree burns, what is the quickest method to relieve pain?Not learned 274. A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper first aid treatment for this injury?Not learned 275. What should you do if a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm?Not learned 276. What can be caused by severe airway burns?Not learned 277. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.Not learned 278. When treating a chemical burn, what is the minimum amount of time you should flood the burned area?Not learned 279. Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with what substance(s)?Not learned 280. Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?Not learned 281. If a person is unconscious from electric shock, the first action is to remove him from the electrical source. What is the secondary action?Not learned 282. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, what is the FIRST medical indicator to check for?Not learned 283. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 284. If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and _______.Not learned 285. What causes heat exhaustion?Not learned 286. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?Not learned 287. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 288. What are the symptoms of sugar diabetes?Not learned 289. A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injury. What symptoms would indicate the onset of a diabetic coma?Not learned 290. If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.Not learned 291. Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.Not learned 292. What should you do if a crew member is having an epileptic convulsion?Not learned 293. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?Not learned 294. How should the pain be relieved when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis?Not learned 295. When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary surveys, what should you be familiar with?Not learned 296. What are the symptoms of seasickness?Not learned 297. What is an effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board?Not learned 298. What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?Not learned 299. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?Not learned 300. Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 301. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?Not learned 302. What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?Not learned 303. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.Not learned 304. Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?Not learned 305. Which procedure should NOT be done for a person whom has fainted?Not learned 306. What should a observer do if a victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway?Not learned 307. While providing assistant to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.Not learned 308. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 309. Which of the following medical conditions has symptoms of: burning pain with redness of the skin, an irritating rash, blistering or loss of skin and or toxic poisoning?Not learned 310. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 311. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 312. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 313. What should you do before CPR is started?Not learned 314. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 315. While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out?Not learned 316. Which is TRUE concerning the vapor pressure of a substance?Not learned 317. Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.Not learned 318. The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.Not learned 319. A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.Not learned 320. What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?Not learned 321. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.Not learned 322. Which of the following describes why topside icing, which is usually off-center, decreases vessel stability?Not learned 323. What will cause the free surface effects of a partially full tank on a vessel in motion to increase?Not learned 324. What grade are most crude oils are classified as?Not learned 325. The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.Not learned 326. For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.Not learned 327. Which of the following terms defines the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present?Not learned 328. Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.Not learned 329. You are approaching a ship that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, which action should you take?Not learned 330. One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY take which action?Not learned 331. For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have __________.Not learned 332. The time required to incline from bow down to stern down and return to bow down again is called __________.Not learned 333. Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and weighs 36 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 334. In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.Not learned 335. When patching holes in the hull, how can pillows, bedding, and other soft materials be used?Not learned 336. Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.Not learned 337. Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.Not learned 338. Why do spaces containing batteries require good ventilation?Not learned 339. You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?Not learned 340. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in which condition?Not learned 341. What does the term "head" mean when applied to a pump?Not learned 342. Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.Not learned 343. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to take which action?Not learned 344. Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?Not learned 345. The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.Not learned 346. You have 10 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.8 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 347. You have 12 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 4'B by 5'H and weighing 2.0 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 348. The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator __________.Not learned 349. You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 350. You are on a 165 foot (50.3 meters) long vessel with a draft of 9 feet (2.7 meters) and twin screws. Which statement about rescuing a survivor in the water with ship pickup is TRUE?Not learned 351. You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 352. You have 200 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 140 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 4.2 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 353. You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 354. You have 260 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 150 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.2 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 355. You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 356. You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 357. You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 358. You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H and weighing 0.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 359. You have 4 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 8'B by 8'H and weighing 1.2 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 360. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 100 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 160 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 361. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 230 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 362. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 363. You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 364. You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 365. You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 366. You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 367. You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 368. You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.2, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 369. Your 550 GT vessel is equipped with a free fall lifeboat. Where should the SART units be stowed to meet SOLAS requirements?Not learned 370. You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet. What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 371. You have 590 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 84 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 372. You have 6 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 1.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 373. You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 374. You have 60 tons of below deck tonnage and 220 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 240 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 375. Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for what type of service?Not learned 376. You have 600 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 377. You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 378. You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 379. You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 380. A 7,000 ton displacement tankship carries two slack tanks of alcohol with a S.G. of 0.8. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 30 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water, S.G. is 1.026?Not learned 381. You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 382. You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 383. Which is the abandon ship signal?Not learned 384. You have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft with a SART. What signal will indicate to you that a 3 cm radar has interrogated the SART unit?Not learned 385. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. Which action should you take?Not learned 386. You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?Not learned 387. You have abandoned ship and are in a liferaft with several other members of the crew. One person in the liferaft is exhibiting symptoms of hypothermia. Which of the following could you do to aid the victim?Not learned 388. You abandoned ship in the North Atlantic and one of the crew members is hypothermic. During a SAR helicopter extraction which lifting device should be avoided when hoisting this patient to the aircraft?Not learned 389. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?Not learned 390. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. Which is one of your FIRST actions that should be taken?Not learned 391. You have abandoned your vessel and are the person in charge of lifeboat No. 2. Which procedure should be followed when landing a boat under oars through a slight surf?Not learned 392. After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?Not learned 393. When abandoning ship in cold waters, what actions can be taken to minimize the effects of entering the water?Not learned 394. When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.Not learned 395. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?Not learned 396. An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.Not learned 397. Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving which item?Not learned 398. Aboard ship, which term is given to the vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates?Not learned 399. Aboard a vessel, a common formula which consists of dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields which information?Not learned 400. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.Not learned 401. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.Not learned 402. In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.Not learned 403. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.Not learned 404. In accordance with SOLAS, which of the following best describes the obligation of the Master concerning cargo hold watertight doors?Not learned 405. In accordance with SOLAS, the Master shall be furnished with information to obtain accurate guidance as to the stability of the vessel under varying conditions of service. Which of the following is included in this informationNot learned 406. In accordance with SOLAS the Master of a vessel is required to have specific stability information at their disposal. Which of the following is part of the requirement?Not learned 407. In accordance with SOLAS, stability information required to be available to the Master shall include which of the following?Not learned 408. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?Not learned 409. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?Not learned 410. According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?Not learned 411. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what information that affects your vessel is required to be entered into the radiotelephone log?Not learned 412. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?Not learned 413. Which action will affect the trim of a vessel?Not learned 414. Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?Not learned 415. Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?Not learned 416. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?Not learned 417. Which action must be taken annually concerning inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels?Not learned 418. Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry chemical cartridge- operated portable fire extinguisher?Not learned 419. Which action should you take after sending a false distress alert on VHF?Not learned 420. Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?Not learned 421. Which action would you take to get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle?Not learned 422. After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, which is the appropriate action to take?Not learned 423. Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the __________.Not learned 424. In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into English or __________.Not learned 425. Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.Not learned 426. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.Not learned 427. An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.Not learned 428. What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?Not learned 429. Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?Not learned 430. An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________.Not learned 431. What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?Not learned 432. What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?Not learned 433. Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?Not learned 434. What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?Not learned 435. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?Not learned 436. With the air supply on, which is TRUE concerning the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat?Not learned 437. When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?Not learned 438. Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.Not learned 439. Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?Not learned 440. The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on which item?Not learned 441. AMVER is a system which as its main goal is to provide which information?Not learned 442. Which does the AMVER system require?Not learned 443. At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.Not learned 444. At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.Not learned 445. At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.Not learned 446. Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 447. Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel refers to which term?Not learned 448. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is known by which term?Not learned 449. What is another name for the garboard strake?Not learned 450. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoisted. What should you do?Not learned 451. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do?Not learned 452. You are approaching another vessel and see that it has the signal flag "O" hoisted. What is your next action?Not learned 453. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "J" hoisted. What should you do?Not learned 454. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do?Not learned 455. You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your approach?Not learned 456. You are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "T" hoisted. What should you do?Not learned 457. What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?Not learned 458. With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________.Not learned 459. You have approximately 14 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 6 feet? (total displacement is 210 tons)Not learned 460. You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons)Not learned 461. You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons)Not learned 462. You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons)Not learned 463. Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI?Not learned 464. Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?Not learned 465. If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you the single letter "Q", what would he be telling you?Not learned 466. Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?Not learned 467. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.Not learned 468. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.Not learned 469. When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?Not learned 470. You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. How should you get underway?Not learned 471. The average rolling period of your ship puts it in the category of a "stiff ship". What effect can this condition have on the cargo carried onboard while underway?Not learned 472. When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.Not learned 473. What is the basic concept of GMDSSNot learned 474. In battery charging rooms, where should the exhaust ventilation be provided?Not learned 475. You are on the beach and want to signal to a small boat in distress that your present location is dangerous and that they should land to the left. How would you indicate this?Not learned 476. What does the term "beam of a vessel" refer to?Not learned 477. Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies?Not learned 478. Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________.Not learned 479. What is the BEST conductor of electricity?Not learned 480. Which is the best source of information on the location of the blocks when dry docking a vessel?Not learned 481. What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space?Not learned 482. What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when attempting to place an INMARSAT-B callNot learned 483. What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?Not learned 484. What is the best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident?Not learned 485. What is the best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal?Not learned 486. Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls under which condition?Not learned 487. Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.Not learned 488. You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?Not learned 489. On board a vessel, which of the following is the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation?Not learned 490. Which command means to complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft?Not learned 491. The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________.Not learned 492. Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?Not learned 493. The brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler is known as __________.Not learned 494. On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with which chemical?Not learned 495. A bulk freighter 580 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84 is floating in salt water at a draft of 21 ft. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft 1"?Not learned 496. A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"?Not learned 497. Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.Not learned 498. A burning pile of canvas is which classification of fire?Not learned 499. What is a butt welded joint's strength compared to the base metal?Not learned 500. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be __________.Not learned 501. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened in which situation?Not learned 502. To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.Not learned 503. How is the "call" part of a signal by flashing light made?Not learned 504. A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of __________.Not learned 505. You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has answered your call properly. You now send your call sign "DE KLIS". What should he respond with?Not learned 506. You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". What does this indicate?Not learned 507. What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?Not learned 508. How is the Camber in a ship usually measured?Not learned 509. Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?Not learned 510. Carbon dioxide as a firefighting agent has which advantage over other agents?Not learned 511. A cargo of 100 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 100 tons of cargo will be 10,000 tons and the GM two feet. What would be the list of the vessel after loading the cargo?Not learned 512. A cargo of 30 tons is to be loaded on deck 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 30 tons cargo will be 9,000 tons and the GM will be 5 feet. What would be the list of the vessel after loading this cargo?Not learned 513. A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 2 feet with cargo suspended. What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended?Not learned 514. A cargo of 50 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 50 ton cargo will be 3,000 tons and the GM three feet. What would be the list of the vessel after loading the cargo?Not learned 515. A cargo of 60 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 60 ton cargo will be 6,000 tons and the GM two feet. What would be the list of the vessel after loading this cargo?Not learned 516. A cargo of 75 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 6,000 tons and GM is 6 feet. The list of the ship with the cargo suspended from the boom will be __________.Not learned 517. During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. Which is the most prudent action to correct the list?Not learned 518. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.Not learned 519. A cargo vessel of 9,000 tons displacement is carrying a slack deep tank of molasses (SG 1.4). The tank measures 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. What will be the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface, with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?Not learned 520. Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be re-inspected no later than __________.Not learned 521. A carling is used aboard ship to accomplish which function?Not learned 522. When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of the search units should normally be which of the following?Not learned 523. CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.Not learned 524. Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT SHOULD NOT?Not learned 525. Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?Not learned 526. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty tanks will __________.Not learned 527. Which causes spontaneous combustion?Not learned 528. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.Not learned 529. The ceiling is __________.Not learned 530. What is the center around which a vessel trims called?Not learned 531. Where is the center of buoyancy located on a vessel?Not learned 532. The center of flotation of a vessel is __________.Not learned 533. The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.Not learned 534. How may the change in trim of a vessel be found?Not learned 535. The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is __________.Not learned 536. Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to __________.Not learned 537. Channel 13 is primarily used for ship-to-ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for which purpose?Not learned 538. Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?Not learned 539. Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?Not learned 540. Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission?Not learned 541. What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?Not learned 542. To check stability, a weight of 10 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom whose head is 45 ft. from the ship's centerline. The clinometer show's a list of 5.0° with weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 9,000 tons. What would be the GM in this condition?Not learned 543. To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 35 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7.0° with the weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 14,000 tons. What would the length of GM in this condition?Not learned 544. To check stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 6.5° with the weight suspended. Displacement including weight is 16,000 tons. What would be the GM while in this condition?Not learned 545. Which is TRUE concerning a chock?Not learned 546. When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use which type of extinguisher?Not learned 547. On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?Not learned 548. A class B fire is most successfully fought by which method?Not learned 549. A class C fire would be burning __________.Not learned 550. After clearing the vessel, what is one of the FIRST things you would do in an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 551. The CO2 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.Not learned 552. CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following?Not learned 553. The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel __________.Not learned 554. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.Not learned 555. A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.Not learned 556. How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally identify itself?Not learned 557. You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is injured. What indicator should be used in a message requesting medical advice from a South African station?Not learned 558. Which describes a cofferdam?Not learned 559. Which color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares are used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance?Not learned 560. A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________.Not learned 561. A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.Not learned 562. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.Not learned 563. When in command of a lifeboat under oars, what does the command "Backwater" mean?Not learned 564. You have been in-command of a lifeboat since abandoning ship three days prior and land has been sighted ahead. Under which circumstances would you attempt beaching your lifeboat through a heavy surf?Not learned 565. Which is the most common type of davit found on ocean service merchant vessels today?Not learned 566. You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3?Not learned 567. You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another vessel's transmission?Not learned 568. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?Not learned 569. While communicating with a shore station concerning an injured female, your message should indicate the subject's age is 32. Which code would your message contain?Not learned 570. Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?Not learned 571. Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________.Not learned 572. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?Not learned 573. You have completed stability calculations for your vessel prior to getting underway. Your vessel's GM is small but positive. Which of the following is true?Not learned 574. A concentration of weight has been shifted inboard to the center line of the vessel. Generally speaking, what effect will this have on the vessel?Not learned 575. When should you be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks?Not learned 576. What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any portNot learned 577. Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?Not learned 578. Under which condition will a SART unit have the greatest transmission potential?Not learned 579. You should conduct a sector search under which of the following circumstances?Not learned 580. In continuous operation, what is the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher?Not learned 581. A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.Not learned 582. There is an out of control fire on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire?Not learned 583. The Coordinator Surface Search (CSS) in a SAR situation should display by night __________.Not learned 584. The Coordinator Surface Search in a SAR situation should display by day __________.Not learned 585. What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist F 2 1 3 second substitute?Not learned 586. What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.Not learned 587. The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.Not learned 588. The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.Not learned 589. What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?Not learned 590. What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?Not learned 591. What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?Not learned 592. Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to which of the following choices?Not learned 593. A covered liferaft has very limited maneuverability. Which of the following is True concerning the beaching of a liferaft in a rough surf?Not learned 594. If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________.Not learned 595. A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you take?Not learned 596. What should you do if a crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed?Not learned 597. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should __________.Not learned 598. The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________.Not learned 599. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?Not learned 600. What is the danger to personnel associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space?Not learned 601. The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________.Not learned 602. Which davit type may be operated by one person?Not learned 603. By day, what does the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicate?Not learned 604. By day, what is the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land"?Not learned 605. Deballasting a double bottom has what effect on KG?Not learned 606. The decision has been made to make landfall through a slight surf in an oar-propelled lifeboat. How should the sea anchor be utilized?Not learned 607. A deck beam does NOT __________.Not learned 608. The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist which stresses?Not learned 609. Why are deck beams cambered on a vessel?Not learned 610. A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?Not learned 611. What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?Not learned 612. How deeply should the sternum be depressed when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR?Not learned 613. With regards to GMDSS, define the acronym MSI.Not learned 614. Which defines the function of a spark arrestor?Not learned 615. Which defines the "margin plate"?Not learned 616. What is the definition of transverse metacenter?Not learned 617. A Deratization Exemption Certificate is valid for which period of time?Not learned 618. Which describes the floors aboard a ship?Not learned 619. Which describes the term intact buoyancy?Not learned 620. What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or deck plating?Not learned 621. You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.Not learned 622. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 623. Determine the free surface constant for a fuel oil tank 30 ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep. The specific gravity of the fuel oil is .85 and the ship is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026).Not learned 624. How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?Not learned 625. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.Not learned 626. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.Not learned 627. Which describes the difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity of a vessel?Not learned 628. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.Not learned 629. What is the difference between the starboard and port drafts due to the wind or seas called?Not learned 630. The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to __________.Not learned 631. You are being directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside, frame 127. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what machinery is found in that exact location?Not learned 632. When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.Not learned 633. What is the displacement of a barge which measures 85' x 46' x 13' and is floating in salt water with a draft of ten feet?Not learned 634. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.Not learned 635. When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.Not learned 636. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.Not learned 637. The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.Not learned 638. At what distance can a SART be detected by aircraft, equipped with a 3cm radar, flying at approximately 3,000 feet?Not learned 639. The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main deck is called __________.Not learned 640. A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________.Not learned 641. How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?Not learned 642. The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. Which is TRUE concerning the information?Not learned 643. Distress signals may be __________.Not learned 644. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?Not learned 645. Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?Not learned 646. Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?Not learned 647. A double male coupling is one that __________.Not learned 648. How will the draft at the center of floatation change after transferring a weight forward on a vessel?Not learned 649. Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 20'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.Not learned 650. Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.Not learned 651. Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.Not learned 652. Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.Not learned 653. Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water.Not learned 654. Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.Not learned 655. Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water.Not learned 656. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 657. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 658. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 659. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-10". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 660. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trimNot learned 661. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 662. Where are the draft marks required to be displayed on a ship?Not learned 663. A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance. How often is this drill required to be conducted?Not learned 664. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by which method?Not learned 665. Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?Not learned 666. When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, why is there a danger of reflash?Not learned 667. Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?Not learned 668. While in dry dock your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process involves __________.Not learned 669. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?Not learned 670. Where, due to the arrangement of the vessel, lifejackets may become inaccessible, additional lifejackets shall be carried __________.Not learned 671. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, which is the best way to haul it back aboard?Not learned 672. The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.Not learned 673. Which has the MOST effect on the range of a SSB transmission?Not learned 674. What is the effect of spreading oil on the open sea?Not learned 675. Which is the most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires?Not learned 676. Which is the most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical extinguisher?Not learned 677. What is the most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia?Not learned 678. Why should all electrical appliances aboard a vessel be grounded and ground fault protected?Not learned 679. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, where should the stream of dry chemicals be directed?Not learned 680. The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the __________.Not learned 681. To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?Not learned 682. Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.Not learned 683. What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?Not learned 684. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?Not learned 685. When should an EPIRB be turned off in an actual distress situation?Not learned 686. Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?Not learned 687. Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?Not learned 688. You are evacuating crew members from a survival craft that has been adrift in the North Atlantic for several days. What could occur if a person suffering from hypothermia is vertically lifted in a rescue sling to the helicopter?Not learned 689. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?Not learned 690. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 691. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 692. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be which of the following?Not learned 693. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 694. On every vessel, where must distress signals be stowed?Not learned 695. EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position?Not learned 696. Who has the exclusive use of the radiotelephone as stated in the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?Not learned 697. What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?Not learned 698. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 699. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?Not learned 700. Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?Not learned 701. Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?Not learned 702. Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?Not learned 703. Which extinguishing agent is most effective for combating wood fires?Not learned 704. As an extinguishing agent, foam _________.Not learned 705. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.Not learned 706. Which extinguishing agent is/are suitable to combat a class B fire in an engine compartment?Not learned 707. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?Not learned 708. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.Not learned 709. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?Not learned 710. Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in which of the following?Not learned 711. The falls on gravity davits are __________.Not learned 712. What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?Not learned 713. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.Not learned 714. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?Not learned 715. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then take which action?Not learned 716. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, why should the hose team crouch as low as possible?Not learned 717. Fighting a fire in the galley poses which additional threat?Not learned 718. When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), which is the most prudent action to take?Not learned 719. When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.Not learned 720. When fighting a fire using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, where should the stream be directed to extinguish the fire?Not learned 721. You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Why may the stability of the vessel be reduced?Not learned 722. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 723. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?Not learned 724. On the fire control plans, in illustration D039SA below, the CO2 bottle room is designated by which symbol?Not learned 725. On fire control plans, in illustration D039SA, the dry chemical releasing station is designated by which symbol?Not learned 726. The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems?Not learned 727. Which fire control plan symbol in illustration D039SA below represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "A" fire?Not learned 728. Which fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, represents a dry chemical delivery method for small scale fires?Not learned 729. There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 730. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?Not learned 731. A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using which type of extinguishing agent?Not learned 732. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by which action?Not learned 733. If you have a fire in the engine room, what is the FIRST action you should take?Not learned 734. Fire extinguishing agents used on class C fires must have which characteristic?Not learned 735. Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?Not learned 736. A fire hose has a __________.Not learned 737. A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________.Not learned 738. Fire hose should be washed with __________.Not learned 739. A fire must be ventilated __________.Not learned 740. A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?Not learned 741. A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?Not learned 742. A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 743. A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?Not learned 744. A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.Not learned 745. When should a fire be ventilated?Not learned 746. Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?Not learned 747. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog which action would you take?Not learned 748. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.Not learned 749. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to which personnel?Not learned 750. The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?Not learned 751. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?Not learned 752. What is the FIRST treatment for a surface burn?Not learned 753. You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?Not learned 754. The fittings used to secure a watertight door are known as __________.Not learned 755. A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.Not learned 756. In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of 20 cylinders, what is the minimum number of required pilot cylinders?Not learned 757. Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or at which other location?Not learned 758. The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2 followed by what?Not learned 759. What flag signal would you hoist if you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if it had a doctor on board?Not learned 760. Which are the flammable limits of methyl ethyl ketone?Not learned 761. Which is the flammable limit range of Diesel Oil mixed with air?Not learned 762. When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.Not learned 763. When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?Not learned 764. For a floating vessel, which item is the result of subtracting KG from KM?Not learned 765. The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by which item?Not learned 766. Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?Not learned 767. Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?Not learned 768. How does foam extinguish a fire?Not learned 769. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?Not learned 770. Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.Not learned 771. A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating which type of fire?Not learned 772. Which of the following actions should be taken if you accidently test a 406 MHz EPIRB in transmit mode?Not learned 773. Which of the following best defines the term "chock"?Not learned 774. Which of the following is considered the normal operational range from a SART unit to a surface vessel?Not learned 775. Which of the following defines the difference between the free-floating displacement and the KB of a grounded vessel?Not learned 776. Which of the following defines "Rolling Period"?Not learned 777. Which of the following describes the function of a sea anchor when utilized as a tool for beaching a lifeboat through surf?Not learned 778. Which of the following describes the inspection and testing requirements of a SART?Not learned 779. Which of the following describes the requirement for the testing of an EPIRB?Not learned 780. Which of the following describes a SART?Not learned 781. Which of the following formulas is an acceptable method to calculate the vertical shift of the vessel's center of gravity?Not learned 782. Which of the followings is a global communication service to provide distress alerting and a network for SAR communications for mariners?Not learned 783. Which of the following grounding scenarios would have the least damaging effect on vessel stability?Not learned 784. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 785. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 786. Which of the following organizations operate the AMVER system?Not learned 787. Which of the following is part of the annual SOLAS required test on an EPIRB?Not learned 788. Which of the following is part of a required monthly EPIRB inspection?Not learned 789. Which of the following penalties can be imposed for a violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?Not learned 790. Which of the following is the proper operating sequence of a SART?Not learned 791. Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control Plans?Not learned 792. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel's Fire Control Plan?Not learned 793. Which of the following is a requirement if your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate?Not learned 794. Which of the following is a requirement of the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat?Not learned 795. Which of the following requires the vessel to be dry-docked?Not learned 796. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 797. Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?Not learned 798. Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?Not learned 799. Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?Not learned 800. Which of the following is a symptom of mild hypothermia?Not learned 801. Which of the following terms defines a unit responsible for organizing search and rescue services?Not learned 802. Which of the following is True if your radiotelephone fails while underway?Not learned 803. Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?Not learned 804. The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.Not learned 805. In all forms of signaling, what is the waiting signal?Not learned 806. Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?Not learned 807. When the forward drafts and the after drafts are averaged, which of the following describes the result?Not learned 808. The forward draft of your ship is 27'-11" and the after draft is 29'-03". The draft amidships is 28'-05". Which is TRUE of your vessel?Not learned 809. Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.Not learned 810. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.Not learned 811. The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with the increase of which item?Not learned 812. Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.Not learned 813. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks accomplish which task?Not learned 814. What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications?Not learned 815. Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?Not learned 816. A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. What should be your FIRST action?Not learned 817. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining which minimal speed if it is not towing other survival craft?Not learned 818. What is the function of bottles of compressed air in a lifeboat?Not learned 819. What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?Not learned 820. What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vesselsNot learned 821. What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?Not learned 822. A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using _______.Not learned 823. A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?Not learned 824. The garboard strake is the __________.Not learned 825. In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?Not learned 826. Which are general requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log?Not learned 827. The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the __________.Not learned 828. For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.Not learned 829. Why can the vessel's GM not be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination?Not learned 830. Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?Not learned 831. For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave portNot learned 832. Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board shipNot learned 833. Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?Not learned 834. What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?Not learned 835. If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?Not learned 836. When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.Not learned 837. Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?Not learned 838. For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?Not learned 839. The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.Not learned 840. Where are the grab rails of a metal lifeboat normally located?Not learned 841. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.Not learned 842. What does the gross tonnage of a vessel indicate?Not learned 843. The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?Not learned 844. The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light?Not learned 845. Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude 73° 25' North"?Not learned 846. Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109° 34' West?Not learned 847. Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean time 11:35 pm?Not learned 848. The half-breadth plan is __________.Not learned 849. You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?Not learned 850. What happens when the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pushed into the forward position?Not learned 851. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will __________.Not learned 852. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all- purpose nozzle will __________.Not learned 853. What will happen if cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck on the vessel?Not learned 854. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?Not learned 855. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. What does this signal mean?Not learned 856. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. What does this indicate?Not learned 857. Heave is motion along which axis?Not learned 858. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?Not learned 859. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.Not learned 860. When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is referred to by which term?Not learned 861. Why is the height of a VHF radio antenna more important than the power output wattage of the radio?Not learned 862. Which is TRUE of High-velocity fog?Not learned 863. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in firefighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the firefighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when which condition exists?Not learned 864. You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 5230 T. The 35-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 105' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 42' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 865. You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8560 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 95' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 55' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 866. The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?Not learned 867. The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.Not learned 868. Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 869. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?Not learned 870. If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?Not learned 871. If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of improvement, what code should your message contain?Not learned 872. In illustration D001SA below, which item represents the righting arm?Not learned 873. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the center of gravity?Not learned 874. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the metacentric height?Not learned 875. In illustration D008SA below, what type of davits are displayed?Not learned 876. In illustration D011SA below, what does the item labeled number (1) operate?Not learned 877. In illustration D012SA below, what is the mechanism that will release the tricing pendant?Not learned 878. In illustration D012SA below, what will be released when pulling on line number 5?Not learned 879. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags?Not learned 880. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external lifelines?Not learned 881. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external recognition light, which can be seem up to two miles?Not learned 882. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the floating sheath knife?Not learned 883. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the sea anchor?Not learned 884. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the towing connection?Not learned 885. In illustration D014SA below, which item is the righting strap?Not learned 886. In illustration D014SA below, what number is the sea painter?Not learned 887. In illustration D014SA below, where would you find the knife?Not learned 888. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the hydrostatic release?Not learned 889. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the weak link?Not learned 890. In the illustration, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to which of the followingNot learned 891. In illustration D016SA below, what number indicates the frapping line?Not learned 892. In illustration D033DG below, what is the area indicated by the letter G is known as?Not learned 893. In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D?Not learned 894. In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate?Not learned 895. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt?Not learned 896. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard strake?Not learned 897. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal?Not learned 898. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a seam?Not learned 899. In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done?Not learned 900. In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the letter N known as?Not learned 901. In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known as?Not learned 902. In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter J known as?Not learned 903. In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating indicated by letter H known as?Not learned 904. In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which letter?Not learned 905. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter F?Not learned 906. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter K?Not learned 907. In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor?Not learned 908. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter L?Not learned 909. In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N known as?Not learned 910. In illustration D035SA below, viewing the bridge level of your vessel's fire control plan, what do the two symbols within the machinery casing represent?Not learned 911. In illustration D036SA below, what does the solid arrow in the Crew Mess represent on the Fire Control Plans?Not learned 912. In illustration D039SA below, a complete recharge for a self-contained breathing apparatus can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 913. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol does NOT contain personal protective equipment?Not learned 914. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol designates a space or compartment protected by Halon 1301?Not learned 915. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol is not part of the ship's foam system?Not learned 916. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol(s) represent part of the vessel's ventilation system?Not learned 917. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (16)?Not learned 918. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (30)?Not learned 919. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (37)?Not learned 920. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (39)?Not learned 921. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (56)?Not learned 922. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (64)?Not learned 923. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (67)?Not learned 924. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (7)?Not learned 925. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol(s) represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "B" fire?Not learned 926. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "C" fire?Not learned 927. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a Class Alpha fire?Not learned 928. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a LARGE Class Bravo fire on deck?Not learned 929. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a bilge pump?Not learned 930. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the direction of primary means of escape?Not learned 931. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency fire pump?Not learned 932. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency generator?Not learned 933. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment NOT to be found immediately outside the engine room?Not learned 934. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment that is MOST likely to be found in the ship's galley?Not learned 935. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire alarm panel?Not learned 936. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire main with fire valves?Not learned 937. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire pump?Not learned 938. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire station?Not learned 939. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a heat detector?Not learned 940. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an international shore connection?Not learned 941. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a NON-portable extinguisher?Not learned 942. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a push button for a fire alarm?Not learned 943. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a space protected by foam?Not learned 944. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol signifies equipment you would use if your fire pump(s) failed?Not learned 945. In illustration D039SA below, the halon room with the main battery of Halon 1301 bottles is designated by which symbol on the fire control plans?Not learned 946. In illustration D039SA below the location of a spare set of fire control plans on board the vessel is designated by what approved symbol?Not learned 947. In illustration D039SA below, what two fire control plan symbols designate the directional means of escape?Not learned 948. An immersion suit must be equipped with which item(s)?Not learned 949. What is MOST important when administering artificial respiration?Not learned 950. What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?Not learned 951. What is the most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns?Not learned 952. What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?Not learned 953. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?Not learned 954. The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.Not learned 955. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 956. What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?Not learned 957. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.Not learned 958. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to take which action?Not learned 959. The improper stowage of cargo has caused vessels to have a negative GM. How will a ship in this condition handle in the seaway?Not learned 960. Which will improve stability?Not learned 961. When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is __________.Not learned 962. To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could take which action?Not learned 963. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?Not learned 964. If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?Not learned 965. An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What should occur after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?Not learned 966. When must an inflatable liferaft that has been repacked be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility?Not learned 967. Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.Not learned 968. Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry a minimum capacity of how many persons?Not learned 969. The initial action of a Williamson turn is to put the rudder over full until which of the following?Not learned 970. After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.Not learned 971. When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.Not learned 972. Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.Not learned 973. The "inner bottom" is the __________.Not learned 974. Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?Not learned 975. What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station using flashing light?Not learned 976. In the International Code of Signals, what is the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance?Not learned 977. What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light?Not learned 978. What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?Not learned 979. The International Maritime Organization has specific stability requirements and recommendations for multiple vessel types. Which of the following are subject to these requirements?Not learned 980. On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more, are required to have facilities to enable a connection on each side of the ship for which piece of equipment represented in illustration D039SA below?Not learned 981. Who issues the regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?Not learned 982. Who issues a ship's radiotelephone station license?Not learned 983. Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?Not learned 984. Which item is a safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts?Not learned 985. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?Not learned 986. Jettisoning weight from topside __________.Not learned 987. When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.Not learned 988. The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.Not learned 989. Which term is given to the joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side?Not learned 990. Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.Not learned 991. The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the __________.Not learned 992. Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET?Not learned 993. If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?Not learned 994. Landing a lifeboat through surf should only be done if absolutely necessary. What should be done with the lifeboat rudder if this type of landing is unavoidable?Not learned 995. You are landing an oar propelled lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward). Which is the recommended procedure to follow?Not learned 996. Which is the proper term given to a large basin cut into the shore, closed off by a caisson, and used for dry docking of ships?Not learned 997. You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances which is TRUE?Not learned 998. A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, which action should you take?Not learned 999. Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the __________.Not learned 1000. How should latitude 51° 48.7' S be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 1001. How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 1002. To launch a liferaft by hand, you should take which actions?Not learned 1003. In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?Not learned 1004. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.Not learned 1005. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?Not learned 1006. When launching a lifeboat, how should the tricing pennants be released?Not learned 1007. When launching an open lifeboat by falls, which is TRUE concerning the boathooks?Not learned 1008. The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into which of the following?Not learned 1009. Which is TRUE concerning the length of the steering oar in a lifeboat?Not learned 1010. How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 1011. What letter is a signal indicating zone time preceded with?Not learned 1012. Your lifeboat has been adrift for several days when land is sighted. Which procedure should you use to survey a potential site to beach your lifeboat?Not learned 1013. You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?Not learned 1014. On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, what does turning the releasing lever release?Not learned 1015. Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept?Not learned 1016. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?Not learned 1017. How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?Not learned 1018. If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?Not learned 1019. When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.Not learned 1020. Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include which of the following?Not learned 1021. Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place to land"?Not learned 1022. What does the lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a white light or white flare mean?Not learned 1023. What is the lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?Not learned 1024. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?Not learned 1025. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?Not learned 1026. How do the lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate?Not learned 1027. Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.Not learned 1028. "Limber" is a term associated with which item?Not learned 1029. What is the function of the lifeboat davit limit switches?Not learned 1030. Limit switches are used on which davits?Not learned 1031. Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.Not learned 1032. Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.Not learned 1033. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 18'L by 10'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 944 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.9. What is the reduction in GM due to a pair of these tanks (p/s) being slack?Not learned 1034. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 866 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to a pair of these tanks (p/s) being slack?Not learned 1035. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 986 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to a pair of these tanks (p/s) being slack?Not learned 1036. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 22'L by 16'B by 7'D. The vessel's displacement is 568 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due to a pair of these tanks (p/s) being slack?Not learned 1037. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to a pair of these tanks (p/s) being slack?Not learned 1038. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement in salt water (specific gravity 1.025) is 864 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to a pair of these tanks (p/s) being slack?Not learned 1039. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 30'L by 15'B by 6'D. The vessel's displacement is 968 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to a pair of these tanks (p/s) being slack?Not learned 1040. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due to a pair of these tanks (p/s) being slack?Not learned 1041. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 40'L by 20'B by 8'D. The vessel's displacement is 996 T and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.7. What is the reduction in GM due to a pair of these tanks (p/s) being slack?Not learned 1042. You are loading cargo on deck aboard a vessel whose beam is 60 feet and full period of roll is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?Not learned 1043. Loading cargo above the vessel's center of gravity will increase the vessel's vertical center of gravity. How will this affect the vessel?Not learned 1044. You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the tropical zone after steaming four days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 66. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0022 below.Not learned 1045. You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the winter zone after steaming four days. You will consume 35 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.0083, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0018 below.Not learned 1046. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days. You will consume 41 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.000 and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0019 below.Not learned 1047. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming ten days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.021, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0017 below.Not learned 1048. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming two days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0021 below.Not learned 1049. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming eight days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of ten days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.016, and the average TPI is 41. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0015 below.Not learned 1050. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of nine days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.008, and the average TPI is 53. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0016 below.Not learned 1051. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eight days. You will consume 36 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.002, and the TPI is 47. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0005 below.Not learned 1052. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eleven days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0011 below.Not learned 1053. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one and one-half days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of six days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 43. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0008 below.Not learned 1054. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will enter the winter zone after an additional three days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0012 below.Not learned 1055. You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will consume 32 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.005, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0020 below.Not learned 1056. You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of seven days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0007 below.Not learned 1057. You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of twelve days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.000, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0013 below.Not learned 1058. You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after twelve days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage?Not learned 1059. In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located?Not learned 1060. If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.Not learned 1061. How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee?Not learned 1062. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they relate to a distress situation or disaster?Not learned 1063. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?Not learned 1064. How long are radio station logs involving communications during a disaster required to be kept by the station licensee?Not learned 1065. A long ton is __________.Not learned 1066. How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 1067. When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.Not learned 1068. When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be initially pulled into the embarkation deck by which item?Not learned 1069. When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 1070. To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, which should be used?Not learned 1071. The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.Not learned 1072. When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be __________.Not learned 1073. Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?Not learned 1074. Which is a major advantage of the round turn maneuver in a man overboard situation?Not learned 1075. What is the major cause of shock in burn victims?Not learned 1076. If you make an error while signaling by flashing light what action should you take?Not learned 1077. You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 18,000 T. The 50-ton weight is on the pier, and its center is 75 feet to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 112 feet above the base line, and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 56 feet above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain, the ship lists 3.5°. What is the GM when the cargo is stowed?Not learned 1078. You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 7940 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 4.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 1079. You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the pier and its center is 55' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 45' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 3.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 1080. You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8530 T. The 40-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 115' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 1081. Which is TRUE when making a Scharnow turn?Not learned 1082. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.Not learned 1083. You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.Not learned 1084. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.Not learned 1085. When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?Not learned 1086. A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a Williamson turn, the man is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?Not learned 1087. Which maneuver will return your vessel to a person who has fallen overboard in the shortest time?Not learned 1088. How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?Not learned 1089. How many ring life buoys should a 700-foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?Not learned 1090. Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.Not learned 1091. How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?Not learned 1092. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.Not learned 1093. Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?Not learned 1094. Which term is given to the maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel?Not learned 1095. What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?Not learned 1096. What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?Not learned 1097. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.Not learned 1098. What may the firing of a red star signal mean?Not learned 1099. What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"?Not learned 1100. What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?Not learned 1101. What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?Not learned 1102. What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the International code of Signals?Not learned 1103. What is the meaning of the signal VJ 8 when sent by the International Code of Signals?Not learned 1104. What is meant by "CES"Not learned 1105. What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?Not learned 1106. What is meant by the term "radio silence"Not learned 1107. Which is TRUE of the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engines?Not learned 1108. During a medivac one of the crew members requires assistance to be hoisted to the aircraft. Which of the following would be used to accomplish this task?Not learned 1109. Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?Not learned 1110. Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.Not learned 1111. A message by flashing light consists of four elements, including the call, the identity, the text, and what fourth element?Not learned 1112. A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?Not learned 1113. In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender?Not learned 1114. How should a message warning of a tropical storm be sent?Not learned 1115. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.Not learned 1116. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.Not learned 1117. If the metacentric height is small, which is TRUE of the vessel?Not learned 1118. If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?Not learned 1119. What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio OperatorNot learned 1120. What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?Not learned 1121. What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2-inch fire hose?Not learned 1122. What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?Not learned 1123. What is the minimum operating capacity required for VHF Survival Craft Transceiver batteries?Not learned 1124. What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?Not learned 1125. What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?Not learned 1126. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?Not learned 1127. You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?Not learned 1128. According to the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds which percentage?Not learned 1129. An aluminum powder fire is classified as class __________.Not learned 1130. How are automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems operated?Not learned 1131. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, where does the air flow?Not learned 1132. Which class of fire is an oil fire classified?Not learned 1133. Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with which item?Not learned 1134. Which describes a Kort nozzle as used on a vessel?Not learned 1135. Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?Not learned 1136. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.Not learned 1137. Which is the flammable range of Bunker C mixed with air?Not learned 1138. Which of the following pieces of equipment is most commonly used by SAR helicopters when evacuating personnel from survival craft?Not learned 1139. Which of the following when removed will extinguish a fire?Not learned 1140. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus?Not learned 1141. How are fusible link fire dampers operated?Not learned 1142. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, what will be the upright equilibrium?Not learned 1143. When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up to which position?Not learned 1144. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter I?Not learned 1145. What is indicated by the signal letter R followed by one or more numbers?Not learned 1146. Which item(s) is/are a 2,000 GT tankship required to carry?Not learned 1147. Which item are the terms "pintle" and "gudgeon" associated with?Not learned 1148. All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at which time interval?Not learned 1149. What is the lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here is highly dangerous"?Not learned 1150. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain which items?Not learned 1151. The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered. Which time interval is this action required?Not learned 1152. You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1153. Where must immersion suits be stowed?Not learned 1154. When must the Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, be sent?Not learned 1155. You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a rectangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores be located on the bulkhead?Not learned 1156. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead be located?Not learned 1157. What is the name given to the bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat?Not learned 1158. What is the name given to the canvas covering of fire hose?Not learned 1159. Which name is given to the frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a vessel?Not learned 1160. What is the name given to the lines that are passed around the falls to hold the boat and prevent it from swinging violently?Not learned 1161. What name is given to the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains?Not learned 1162. Which is the normal tendency for a loaded tanker?Not learned 1163. Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.Not learned 1164. Normally, before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine which information about the water source?Not learned 1165. Normally, your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. How many sanitary inspections are required to be conducted during the voyage?Not learned 1166. Which officer is responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department?Not learned 1167. How often are CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system required to be pressure tested?Not learned 1168. How often are each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats required to be tested on the vessel?Not learned 1169. What is one of the main purposes of the inclining experiment on a vessel?Not learned 1170. The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing in which direction(s)?Not learned 1171. What can an oxygen indicator be used to determine?Not learned 1172. Where are panting frames located in the vessel?Not learned 1173. What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?Not learned 1174. You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons how should a small craft approach?Not learned 1175. The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.Not learned 1176. When positive stability exists, what does GZ represent?Not learned 1177. If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, which is the most effective extinguishing agent to use?Not learned 1178. What is the preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire?Not learned 1179. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent what from happening?Not learned 1180. Which is the primary element to successfully rescuing a man overboard?Not learned 1181. What is the primary equipment for receiving Marine Safety Information (MSI) messages?Not learned 1182. Which is the primary type of welding employed in shipyards in the construction of cargo vessels?Not learned 1183. What is the primary use of antiseptics?Not learned 1184. Which is the prime function of the bilge keel?Not learned 1185. Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, which device prevents water from entering the hull?Not learned 1186. What is the proper name given to a deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two horizontally protruding horns?Not learned 1187. What is the purpose of a bilge well?Not learned 1188. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment?Not learned 1189. What is the purpose of limber holes in a lifeboat?Not learned 1190. On the all-purpose nozzle, what is the position of the nozzle valve when the handle is all the way forward?Not learned 1191. The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you take which action?Not learned 1192. What is the purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat?Not learned 1193. What is the radiotelephone urgency signal?Not learned 1194. If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, what would it be referring to?Not learned 1195. If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, which action should you take?Not learned 1196. When is it recommended that seawater be used for drinking?Not learned 1197. To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. What is the name of this plate?Not learned 1198. Which reference should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?Not learned 1199. You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. In which situation will the CO2 be most effective?Not learned 1200. When rendering assistance to personnel in the water a SAR helicopter utilizes a rescue sling for most extractions. In which case would the use of a litter be preferred?Not learned 1201. A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least which diameter?Not learned 1202. In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, which is TRUE when launching a lifeboat?Not learned 1203. The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at which temperature?Not learned 1204. During a SAR helicopter evacuation which of the following describes the proper donning of a rescue sling?Not learned 1205. During a SAR helicopter evolution the rescue sling is the most widely used method of extraction. Which of the following describes the alternate Double Lift Method used to pick up incapacitated persons?Not learned 1206. A SAR helicopter has landed a litter on deck to medivac a patient from your vessel. After ensuring that it has been grounded, what precautionary action should you take prior to loading the patient into the litter?Not learned 1207. The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in which cycles?Not learned 1208. The shearing stresses on a ship's structure are usually greatest at which area?Not learned 1209. In ship construction, where should the keel scantlings be the greatest thickness?Not learned 1210. The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if which condition exists?Not learned 1211. A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?Not learned 1212. A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel passes the towing line to you, where should you secure the line?Not learned 1213. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. Which action should be taken?Not learned 1214. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1215. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?Not learned 1216. If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", which action should you take?Not learned 1217. Why should storage batteries be charged in a well-ventilated area?Not learned 1218. What do stretchers that are fitted in lifeboats provide?Not learned 1219. What does subtracting GM from KM yield?Not learned 1220. You have taken another vessel in tow. Which is an indicator that the towing speed is too fast?Not learned 1221. On a tankship, who is responsible for the sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters?Not learned 1222. Which term defines the horizontal fore-and-aft movement of a vessel?Not learned 1223. Which term defines the minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form a mixture that ignites and burns?Not learned 1224. Which term defines the volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline?Not learned 1225. Which term describes the holes in the bulwark that allow deck water to drain into the sea?Not learned 1226. Which term describes the time required to incline the vessel from port to starboard and back to port again?Not learned 1227. The term displacement refers to which of the following?Not learned 1228. Which term is given to the brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler?Not learned 1229. Which term is given to the fittings used to secure a watertight door?Not learned 1230. Which is the term given to the stability which remains after a compartment is flooded?Not learned 1231. Which term indicates how many tons of cargo a vessel can carry?Not learned 1232. Which term is used to describe the geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel?Not learned 1233. Which term is used to describe the horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel?Not learned 1234. Which term is used to describe the point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vessel construction?Not learned 1235. A thirty-pound plate would be which thickness?Not learned 1236. A thrust bearing is designed to accomplish which action?Not learned 1237. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?Not learned 1238. Transverse stability calculations require the use of which information?Not learned 1239. Which is TRUE concerning drinking salt water?Not learned 1240. Which is TRUE concerning fire hose couplings?Not learned 1241. Which is TRUE concerning a fuel-air mixture below the lower flammable limit?Not learned 1242. Which is TRUE if passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out?Not learned 1243. Which is TRUE of the spray of water in low-velocity fog?Not learned 1244. Which is TRUE of the vessel's Sheer Plan?Not learned 1245. The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.Not learned 1246. What type of messages should the "urgent" priority be used for?Not learned 1247. Which type of weld is used to attach stiffeners to a plate?Not learned 1248. Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and which other testing?Not learned 1249. An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is in which location?Not learned 1250. Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. Which is the FIRST thing to do in the lifeboat?Not learned 1251. For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and which other item?Not learned 1252. When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, how should you activate the signal?Not learned 1253. When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by which signal?Not learned 1254. Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by which method?Not learned 1255. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known by which term?Not learned 1256. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as which boat number?Not learned 1257. A vessel's bottom will be subjected to tension when weight is concentrated in which location(s)?Not learned 1258. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which of the following?Not learned 1259. Your vessel has grounded and a report must be made to the United States Coast Guard. Which is the required form for this report?Not learned 1260. For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives which information?Not learned 1261. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?Not learned 1262. When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, how will the vessel respond?Not learned 1263. Your vessel is listing because of a negative GM. To lower G below M, which action should you take?Not learned 1264. Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. Which is TRUE of your vessel?Not learned 1265. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?Not learned 1266. Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. Which is a requirement of the auxiliary line?Not learned 1267. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. What does this indicate about the vessel?Not learned 1268. When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress?Not learned 1269. A vessel can be termed as either tender or stiff in relation to its rolling period. Which of the following would cause a vessel to be tender?Not learned 1270. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds which amount?Not learned 1271. You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. Which action should you take next?Not learned 1272. Where is the molded depth measured from on a vessel?Not learned 1273. A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?Not learned 1274. The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.Not learned 1275. A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its __________.Not learned 1276. What is NOT a motion of the vessel?Not learned 1277. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?Not learned 1278. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?Not learned 1279. Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 1280. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. In illustration D039SA below what fire control plan symbol designates the primary means of escape?Not learned 1281. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. The primary means of escape is blocked by the fire. What fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, designates the secondary means of escape?Not learned 1282. If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.Not learned 1283. You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1284. You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.Not learned 1285. If you must swim through an oil fire, which action should be avoided?Not learned 1286. What is the name given to the strake on each side of the keel?Not learned 1287. Which is the national distress, safety, and calling frequency channel?Not learned 1288. In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.Not learned 1289. Why is it necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire?Not learned 1290. A negative metacentric height __________.Not learned 1291. A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.Not learned 1292. A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.Not learned 1293. When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.Not learned 1294. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of which item?Not learned 1295. The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is approximately __________.Not learned 1296. What is normal mouth temperature?Not learned 1297. What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?Not learned 1298. Normally, which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?Not learned 1299. Why is it desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks?Not learned 1300. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.Not learned 1301. Where would the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker be located?Not learned 1302. Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.Not learned 1303. How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 1304. The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.Not learned 1305. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, what must the boat be supplied with?Not learned 1306. If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, how often are free-fall lifeboats required to be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew?Not learned 1307. You are the officer in charge of a navigational watch, what signal would indicate your 3 cm radar has interrogated a SART unit?Not learned 1308. How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?Not learned 1309. How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?Not learned 1310. How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?Not learned 1311. Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.Not learned 1312. Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.Not learned 1313. One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________.Not learned 1314. One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.Not learned 1315. What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?Not learned 1316. Which one of the following signals is made at night by a lifesaving station to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?Not learned 1317. One function of a bulwark is to __________.Not learned 1318. One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________.Not learned 1319. One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about __________.Not learned 1320. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.Not learned 1321. One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without distorting the meaning of your words is by using __________.Not learned 1322. Which is one of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention?Not learned 1323. In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.Not learned 1324. To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________.Not learned 1325. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?Not learned 1326. When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.Not learned 1327. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as which item?Not learned 1328. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.Not learned 1329. You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.Not learned 1330. When operating gravity davits, the __________.Not learned 1331. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least which of the following?Not learned 1332. In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by which of the following?Not learned 1333. In order to check your vessel's stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, the boom head being 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer is then carefully read and shows a list of 5°. The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons including the suspended weight. What will be the metacentric height of the vessel at this time?Not learned 1334. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST take which action?Not learned 1335. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.Not learned 1336. In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?Not learned 1337. Which organization reviews and approves a vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 1338. The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.Not learned 1339. The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.Not learned 1340. Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.Not learned 1341. Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. What is the name given to these strakes?Not learned 1342. The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.Not learned 1343. In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red?Not learned 1344. "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?Not learned 1345. You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire pump(s)?Not learned 1346. You are part of a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in the crew lounge. Where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furnitureNot learned 1347. A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.Not learned 1348. Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. How many life buoys are required for the vessel?Not learned 1349. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?Not learned 1350. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage defines which term?Not learned 1351. What is the period of validity of a De-Rat certificate?Not learned 1352. What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections?Not learned 1353. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 1354. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat when land is sighted. Due to a medical emergency, you have made the decision to beach the lifeboat through the surf. Which of the following is of greatest consideration in making this decision?Not learned 1355. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat and have made the decision to beach your craft through a heavy surf. Which of the following is the recommended procedure for a boat under oars?Not learned 1356. A person is exhibiting signs of hypothermia and starts to shiver, what does this indicate?Not learned 1357. A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.Not learned 1358. What should a person do after being revived by artificial respiration?Not learned 1359. When a person is in shock, how will their skin appear?Not learned 1360. How should a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries be treated?Not learned 1361. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water?Not learned 1362. When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, where should the sea painter be secured?Not learned 1363. Which piece(s) of equipment represented by the Fire Control Plan symbols in illustration D039SA below, can be found on the exterior of the vessel?Not learned 1364. Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?Not learned 1365. You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. Choose the best answer that states the requirement(s) of the regulations?Not learned 1366. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.Not learned 1367. While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea?Not learned 1368. A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.Not learned 1369. Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on which class of fires?Not learned 1370. A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.Not learned 1371. If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"?Not learned 1372. When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?Not learned 1373. What power source actuates a solenoid valve?Not learned 1374. You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?Not learned 1375. In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with which item?Not learned 1376. To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should take which action?Not learned 1377. What prevents an inflated life raft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?Not learned 1378. What is the primary action when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis?Not learned 1379. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient?Not learned 1380. What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 1381. The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________.Not learned 1382. What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?Not learned 1383. What is the primary reason for placing covers over the top of storage batteries?Not learned 1384. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?Not learned 1385. Which term defines the most probable position of the object of a search at any given time?Not learned 1386. You are proceeding to the area of reported distress. When you arrive at the reported position, the vessel in distress is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?Not learned 1387. You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1388. While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?Not learned 1389. You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in making your vessel more visible to the survivors?Not learned 1390. You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will make your ship more visible to the survivors?Not learned 1391. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?Not learned 1392. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?Not learned 1393. You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1394. In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________.Not learned 1395. Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________.Not learned 1396. Which term is used to describe the projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder?Not learned 1397. What does proper GMDSS watchkeeping include?Not learned 1398. What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?Not learned 1399. What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?Not learned 1400. A pump room is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pump room atmosphere for combustible gases?Not learned 1401. What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?Not learned 1402. What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships?Not learned 1403. What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?Not learned 1404. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1405. What is the purpose of sheer in the construction of the vessel?Not learned 1406. What is the purpose of the tricing pendants?Not learned 1407. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor?Not learned 1408. After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?Not learned 1409. What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?Not learned 1410. Which quantity of fuel is required to be carried in a motor lifeboat?Not learned 1411. A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.Not learned 1412. In a racetrack turn, to recover a man overboard, the vessel is steadied for the SECOND time after a turn of how many degrees from the original heading?Not learned 1413. When would a racetrack turn be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a man overboard?Not learned 1414. How is "radio silence" imposed?Not learned 1415. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.Not learned 1416. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by which word?Not learned 1417. What is the radiotelephone safety signal?Not learned 1418. Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?Not learned 1419. Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?Not learned 1420. The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.Not learned 1421. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The top 2 inches of the 9 forward is visible above the water level, and the water level is four inches below the 10 aft. What is the mean draft?Not learned 1422. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The top 2 inches of number "9" are visible above the waterline. What is the draft?Not learned 1423. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of 10. What is the draft?Not learned 1424. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of the number 11. What is the draft?Not learned 1425. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level is at the bottom of number 11. What is the draft?Not learned 1426. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is 4 inches below the 11, and the water level aft is 2 inches below the top of the 11. What is the mean draft?Not learned 1427. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level forward leaves about 4 inches of the 11 visible, and the water level aft is at the top of the 10. What is the mean draft?Not learned 1428. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is at the top of the 8, and the water level aft is at the top of the 8. What is the mean draft?Not learned 1429. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level is at the top of number 8. What is the draft?Not learned 1430. You are reading draft marks on a vessel. The water level is halfway between the bottom of the number 5 and the top of the number 5. What is the draft of the vessel?Not learned 1431. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________.Not learned 1432. You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan- Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?Not learned 1433. After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. may ask you to switch to which SSB frequency?Not learned 1434. How should a receiving station indicate that it cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist?Not learned 1435. The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control?Not learned 1436. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 30 feet wide is partially filled with salt water, and is fitted with a centerline bulkhead? (The vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons.)Not learned 1437. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 ft. wide and 60 ft. long is partially filled with saltwater? (The vessel's displacement is 10,000 tons.)Not learned 1438. Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?Not learned 1439. By regulation, how long you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone?Not learned 1440. The regulations require that inspected vessels on an international voyage, other than small passenger vessels, must carry which of the following distress signals on or near the navigating bridge?Not learned 1441. Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.Not learned 1442. The releasing lever of a lifeboat shall be red in color with a placard stating which of the following?Not learned 1443. To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and __________.Not learned 1444. What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?Not learned 1445. What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?Not learned 1446. What represents poor sanitary procedures?Not learned 1447. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?Not learned 1448. What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?Not learned 1449. What is required during an annual FCC inspectionNot learned 1450. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?Not learned 1451. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 1452. What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?Not learned 1453. Which is a requirement for any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?Not learned 1454. How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?Not learned 1455. Reserve buoyancy is __________.Not learned 1456. Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress communications have ceased?Not learned 1457. If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.Not learned 1458. What is the result of multiplying a weight by a distance?Not learned 1459. Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?Not learned 1460. The result of two forces acting in opposite directions and along parallel lines, is an example of what type of stress?Not learned 1461. What is the result of a vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity?Not learned 1462. The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.Not learned 1463. On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a __________.Not learned 1464. To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.Not learned 1465. Your Ro Ro vessel has just completed discharging the lower decks and is commencing discharging the upper levels. What would it indicate if the vessel were to suddenly develop a list?Not learned 1466. When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposedNot learned 1467. Routine radio communications should be no more than which duration?Not learned 1468. The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 16'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 73 tons of seawater.Not learned 1469. The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 19'-04", AFT 21'-02". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 68 tons of seawater.Not learned 1470. The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 24'-00". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 100.7 tons of seawater.Not learned 1471. The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 22'-03", AFT 25'-05". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 97 tons of seawater.Not learned 1472. The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 26'-04", AFT 28'-08". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 101 tons of seawater.Not learned 1473. The SS AMERICAN MARINER has drafts of: FWD 28'-00", AFT 30'-04". Use the white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the drafts if you ballast the forepeak with 110.8 tons of seawater.Not learned 1474. You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take First to correct the situation?Not learned 1475. The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 14'-04", AFT 18'-08". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown in table ST-0176 below. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction.Not learned 1476. The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 18'-06", AFT 20'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown in table ST-0099 below. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction.Not learned 1477. The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 21'-04", AFT 26'-04". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown in table ST-0170 below. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction.Not learned 1478. The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to bunker with drafts of FWD 20'-04", AFT 23'-06". After all bunkers are on board, soundings indicate the tonnages shown in table ST-0172 below. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the free surface correction.Not learned 1479. What is the SAFEST action to take with an accumulation of oily rags?Not learned 1480. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 16'-02" and the GM is 3.0 feet. What will be the angle of list if #5 port double bottom (capacity 195 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 18.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1481. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-03" and the GM is 2.8 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #4 starboard double bottom (capacity 141 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 23.8 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1482. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-05" and the GM is 3.4 feet. What will be the angle of list if #4 port double bottom (capacity 140 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 26 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1483. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 19'-07" and the GM is 4.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if #2 starboard double bottom (capacity 78 tons, VCG 2.7 feet, and 24.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1484. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-10" and the GM is 3.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #2 starboard deep tank (capacity 100 tons, VCG 19.1 feet, and 24 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1485. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 22'-04" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #6 port deep tank (capacity 201 tons, VCG 11.4 feet, and 25.5 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1486. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if #3 starboard double bottom (capacity 97 tons, VCG 2.5 feet and 23 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1487. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-10" and the GM is 4.6 feet. What will be the angle of list if #6 starboard double bottom (capacity 95 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 21 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1488. SART units are designed to be manually carried to the survival craft. Which of the following is another characteristic of a SART?Not learned 1489. A SART unit is used for which of the following?Not learned 1490. How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?Not learned 1491. How can a SART's effective range be maximized?Not learned 1492. Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?Not learned 1493. The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when __________.Not learned 1494. You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water:Not learned 1495. You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.Not learned 1496. You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.Not learned 1497. You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.Not learned 1498. You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.Not learned 1499. You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.Not learned 1500. You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.Not learned 1501. You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.Not learned 1502. When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.Not learned 1503. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.Not learned 1504. At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do?Not learned 1505. In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?Not learned 1506. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, which presents the greatest danger?Not learned 1507. At sea, how must all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) be proven operationalNot learned 1508. Where should the sea painter of a lifeboat be secured?Not learned 1509. How is the sea painter secured in an open lifeboat?Not learned 1510. You are at sea and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter Eight. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1511. You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 50 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 22 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?Not learned 1512. A seaman is reported missing in the morning and was last seen after coming off the mid-watch. Which type of turn would you use to return to the track-line steamed during the night?Not learned 1513. Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in what body part?Not learned 1514. You are on the second deck of the engine room between frames 92 thru105 and the space is filling up with smoke. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, where is the primary means of escape from that area is via a ladderwell?Not learned 1515. You are on the second deck in the main machinery space. Utilizing illustration D037SA below what emergency equipment, if any, is located at frame 107?Not learned 1516. You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?Not learned 1517. As seen in illustration D035SA below, when the remote push button located in the wheelhouse, starboard side, frame 122, is actuated, what is the result?Not learned 1518. As seen in illustration D039SA below a complete set of spare batteries for a fireman's outfit can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 1519. As seen in illustration D039SA below, a locker with additional breathing apparatuses can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 1520. As seen in illustration D039SA below a locker with additional protective clothing can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 1521. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.Not learned 1522. The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation?Not learned 1523. When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.Not learned 1524. When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the __________.Not learned 1525. If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by __________.Not learned 1526. Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?Not learned 1527. Which is the most serious type of fracture?Not learned 1528. A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is known as __________.Not learned 1529. Several merchant ships are arriving at the scene of a distress incident. One of them must assume the duties of the On-Scene Coordinator. Which of the following statements is TRUE?Not learned 1530. Several vessels are at an anchorage. You wish to communicate with the vessel bearing 046° T from you but do not know the vessels call letters. Which flag hoist should NOT be used to establish communications?Not learned 1531. A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 20 ft. wide by 60 ft. long. Each tank is filled with saltwater below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 7,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?Not learned 1532. A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks, each 25 ft. wide by 50 ft. long. Each tank is filled with salt water below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's displacement is 6,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?Not learned 1533. What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?Not learned 1534. Shell plating is _________.Not learned 1535. Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.Not learned 1536. Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. What would be the virtual rise in the center of gravity?Not learned 1537. You are on a ship that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1538. In ship construction, which is TRUE concerning frame spacing?Not learned 1539. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 23'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". Using this information, where is the concentration of weight on the vessel?Not learned 1540. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and it’s after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight is located at which of the following areas?Not learned 1541. When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?Not learned 1542. A ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for which of the following terms?Not learned 1543. The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the __________.Not learned 1544. Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?Not learned 1545. A short ton is a unit of weight consisting of __________.Not learned 1546. Where do signs of racking stresses generally appear on the vessel?Not learned 1547. The signal T 0735 means __________.Not learned 1548. What signal flag is the "Pilot Flag" ("I have a pilot on board")?Not learned 1549. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?Not learned 1550. The signal has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following describes the action to be taken with the EPIRB?Not learned 1551. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question?Not learned 1552. What is the signal to guide vessels in distress, indicating, "This is the best place to land"?Not learned 1553. What does the signal L1210 indicate?Not learned 1554. Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"?Not learned 1555. Which signal should be used to send the group "Distance 750 nautical miles"?Not learned 1556. What is the signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative"?Not learned 1557. What does the signal "AS", when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals mean?Not learned 1558. Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?Not learned 1559. When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, which is TRUE?Not learned 1560. When signaling by flag hoist, what signal indicates completion of the communication?Not learned 1561. You are signaling by flag hoist using the International Code of Signals. You wish to send the signals CL and IW and have them read in that order. What would ensure this?Not learned 1562. When signaling by flashing light, how should you acknowledge a correctly received repetition of a signal?Not learned 1563. When signaling by flashing light, what should the signal "C" should be used to indicate?Not learned 1564. In signaling, when sent with a complement, what may the letter G be followed by?Not learned 1565. What does the single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted vessel, mean?Not learned 1566. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road?Not learned 1567. If the situation arose where it became necessary to tow a disabled vessel, which statement is TRUE concerning the towing line?Not learned 1568. Which situation may require you to administer artificial respiration?Not learned 1569. What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?Not learned 1570. A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.Not learned 1571. In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.Not learned 1572. In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.Not learned 1573. In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through which point?Not learned 1574. Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.Not learned 1575. Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.Not learned 1576. SOLAS requires which of the following with regard to watertight doors in cargo spaces?Not learned 1577. SOLAS requires a logbook entry for the operation of watertight door drills. Which of the following lists the frequency that these drills are required to be conducted for passenger vessels?Not learned 1578. SOLAS requires that passenger vessels make an entry in the log book for all drills and inspections of watertight doors. What other information relevant to the watertight doors is required to be entered?Not learned 1579. Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?Not learned 1580. The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.Not learned 1581. What is the space above the engine room called?Not learned 1582. Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.Not learned 1583. A spanner is a __________.Not learned 1584. Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?Not learned 1585. Specific radio frequencies are designated as International Maritime frequencies used for voice distress, safety and hailing. Which of the following is an International Maritime VHF-FM frequency as described previously?Not learned 1586. What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?Not learned 1587. What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?Not learned 1588. Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard?Not learned 1589. Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.Not learned 1590. The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have __________.Not learned 1591. The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.Not learned 1592. Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and which other force?Not learned 1593. When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM __________.Not learned 1594. Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is at which location?Not learned 1595. What is the standard rate of signaling by flashing light?Not learned 1596. Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?Not learned 1597. Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?Not learned 1598. Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?Not learned 1599. Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?Not learned 1600. Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUENot learned 1601. Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE?Not learned 1602. Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE?Not learned 1603. Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?Not learned 1604. Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?Not learned 1605. Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?Not learned 1606. Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?Not learned 1607. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?Not learned 1608. Which statement about damage control is TRUE?Not learned 1609. Which statement describes a compound fracture?Not learned 1610. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?Not learned 1611. Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?Not learned 1612. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?Not learned 1613. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?Not learned 1614. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?Not learned 1615. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?Not learned 1616. Which statement about free surface is TRUE?Not learned 1617. Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?Not learned 1618. What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1619. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1620. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1621. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1622. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?Not learned 1623. Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE?Not learned 1624. Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?Not learned 1625. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1626. Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?Not learned 1627. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?Not learned 1628. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?Not learned 1629. Which statement is TRUE concerning a fire in a machinery space?Not learned 1630. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?Not learned 1631. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat installations on Great Lakes vessels?Not learned 1632. Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?Not learned 1633. Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?Not learned 1634. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?Not learned 1635. Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels?Not learned 1636. Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?Not learned 1637. Which statement is TRUE about firefighting foam?Not learned 1638. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?Not learned 1639. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?Not learned 1640. Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is TRUE?Not learned 1641. Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE?Not learned 1642. The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34°. For this ship, what would be the danger angle for a permanent list?Not learned 1643. With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?Not learned 1644. While steering by autopilot you notice that the vessel is deviating from the given course and there is no follow up with corrective rudder action to return to the proper heading. The emergency operating procedure should require you to immediately change operation from __________.Not learned 1645. Which is TRUE of the steering oar in a lifeboat?Not learned 1646. The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.Not learned 1647. Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?Not learned 1648. Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?Not learned 1649. A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against which class of fires?Not learned 1650. The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to accomplish which task?Not learned 1651. When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.Not learned 1652. The strength of a deck will be increased by adding which item?Not learned 1653. A "strongback" refers to a __________.Not learned 1654. The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.Not learned 1655. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0015 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1656. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0003 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1657. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST- 0004 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1658. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0015 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? I. Two reels of hoisting wire. Each reel is 8 feet in circumference and 4 feet wide and has 3000 feet of wire. Both reels are stowed on the flat. Wire weighs 1.55 pounds per linear foot. The tare weight of each reel is 500 pounds. II. Eight pallets of case goods stowed singly. Each pallet is 8' L X 4' W X 4' H and weighs 1 long ton. III. 12 steel containers of cement. Each container weighs 1 1/2 tons. Each container is 8' L X 4' W X 4' H. The containers are stowed singly fore and aft. IV. 10 crates of stewards stores. Each crate measures 4' L X 4' W 3' H and weighs 420 pounds. Each crate is stowed on deck.Not learned 1659. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0018 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1660. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0019 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1661. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0027 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1662. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0030 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1663. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0036 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1664. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0039 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1665. A survivor has been pulled from the water off the coast of Greenland. The patient is in a state of confusion and has ceased shivering. Which of the following best describes the patient's condition?Not learned 1666. You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances?Not learned 1667. A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.Not learned 1668. The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization?Not learned 1669. Symbol number (51) in illustration D039SA below is found all throughout the ship. What fire control equipment does this symbol represent?Not learned 1670. What are the symptoms of a fractured back?Not learned 1671. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?Not learned 1672. Which is a symptom of traumatic shock?Not learned 1673. Which system has the least effective radius of operation?Not learned 1674. Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?Not learned 1675. Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?Not learned 1676. Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?Not learned 1677. Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?Not learned 1678. Which system provides maximum communications range?Not learned 1679. A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?Not learned 1680. A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.Not learned 1681. A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?Not learned 1682. You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"?Not learned 1683. A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone five days after departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?Not learned 1684. A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone six days after departing the loading port. She will burn off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?Not learned 1685. A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.Not learned 1686. Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?Not learned 1687. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?Not learned 1688. Which term defines the tendency of a vessel to return to its original TRIM after being inclined by an external force?Not learned 1689. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should back out?Not learned 1690. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?Not learned 1691. Tensile stress is a result of two forces acting in __________.Not learned 1692. Which term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship?Not learned 1693. The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with which part of the vessel?Not learned 1694. The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with which areas of the vessel?Not learned 1695. Which term defines the vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors?Not learned 1696. Which term describes the horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel?Not learned 1697. Which term is given to the upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge?Not learned 1698. Which term is given to the wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading?Not learned 1699. What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction?Not learned 1700. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body?Not learned 1701. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body?Not learned 1702. What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?Not learned 1703. What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the aft side of the rudder post?Not learned 1704. What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel?Not learned 1705. What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section?Not learned 1706. What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?Not learned 1707. Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?Not learned 1708. Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?Not learned 1709. Which term represents the weight (measured in tons) required to cause a change in mean draft of one inch?Not learned 1710. The term "scantlings" refers to the __________.Not learned 1711. The term "strake" is used in reference to which item(s)?Not learned 1712. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?Not learned 1713. "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?Not learned 1714. What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?Not learned 1715. Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________.Not learned 1716. Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers _________.Not learned 1717. The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and their effects, that a ship can carry, is known as which term?Not learned 1718. On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, which action should you take?Not learned 1719. All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?Not learned 1720. Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?Not learned 1721. The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.Not learned 1722. What is the traditional signal for fire aboard ship?Not learned 1723. What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?Not learned 1724. Which is TRUE if you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone?Not learned 1725. Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.Not learned 1726. In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 1727. How should you treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion?Not learned 1728. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?Not learned 1729. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 1730. The tricing pendants should be released __________.Not learned 1731. You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?Not learned 1732. The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the __________.Not learned 1733. Which is TRUE of a combination or all-purpose nozzle?Not learned 1734. What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?Not learned 1735. Which is TRUE concerning the production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner?Not learned 1736. Which is TRUE concerning the stowage of life jackets?Not learned 1737. Which is TRUE in order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly?Not learned 1738. Which is TRUE of the sea painter of an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1739. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?Not learned 1740. Which is TRUE of the term negative slip on a vessel?Not learned 1741. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. How should you make your approach?Not learned 1742. Which are the two points that act together to trim a ship?Not learned 1743. Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.Not learned 1744. On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?Not learned 1745. Which type of davit requires you to turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side?Not learned 1746. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?Not learned 1747. Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?Not learned 1748. Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel's fire fighting arrangement within the fire control plan?Not learned 1749. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?Not learned 1750. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?Not learned 1751. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?Not learned 1752. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?Not learned 1753. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?Not learned 1754. When do U.S. regulations require your vessel's EPIRB to be tested?Not learned 1755. You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?Not learned 1756. You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?Not learned 1757. You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?Not learned 1758. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on which of the following channels?Not learned 1759. While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?Not learned 1760. What is the unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code?Not learned 1761. Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when __________.Not learned 1762. Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene of the distress. Under which of the following cases would this NOT be true?Not learned 1763. An upright vessel has negative GM. GM becomes positive at the angle of loll because the __________.Not learned 1764. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?Not learned 1765. When do you use your FCC call sign when transmitting on channel 16?Not learned 1766. When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.Not learned 1767. What is used as an indicator of initial stability?Not learned 1768. What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?Not learned 1769. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?Not learned 1770. What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?Not learned 1771. What should be used to send the group "Bearing 074° True"?Not learned 1772. What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?Not learned 1773. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?Not learned 1774. When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.Not learned 1775. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.Not learned 1776. When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when __________.Not learned 1777. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-07".Not learned 1778. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 19'-05", AFT 20'-01".Not learned 1779. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'- 04".Not learned 1780. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'- 03".Not learned 1781. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09".Not learned 1782. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-00".Not learned 1783. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 23.7 feet and the drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 28'-06".Not learned 1784. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 25.0 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-04", AFT 15'-08".Not learned 1785. While using the International Code of Signals, how can the receiving station indicate that they are able to distinguish the flag signal of the transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of it?Not learned 1786. When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.Not learned 1787. You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter?Not learned 1788. When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument?Not learned 1789. You are using a racetrack turn to recover a man overboard. The vessel is first steadied when how many degrees away from the original heading?Not learned 1790. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.Not learned 1791. On the illustrated fire control plan, what emergency equipment is located in the sculleryNot learned 1792. You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger, which signal signifies urgency?Not learned 1793. What is the usual depth of a beam bracket?Not learned 1794. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?Not learned 1795. What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?Not learned 1796. Utilizing illustration D035SA below, the Master has ordered you to pull the remote ventilation shut down, where is it found?Not learned 1797. Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represent?Not learned 1798. Utilizing illustration D038SA below a view of a vessel fire control plan, how many spaces are protected by a fixed CO2 extinguishing system?Not learned 1799. The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and which other item?Not learned 1800. The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is __________.Not learned 1801. The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1802. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.Not learned 1803. Vertical moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.Not learned 1804. On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 50 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height?Not learned 1805. On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, what is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 60 feet long and 60 feet wide is partially filled with water?Not learned 1806. On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, a tank 60 feet long, 50 feet wide, and 20 feet deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026) What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface?Not learned 1807. On a vessel of 12,500 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 35 feet long and 50 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height?Not learned 1808. On a vessel of 15,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 50 feet long and 60 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height?Not learned 1809. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.Not learned 1810. On a vessel of 34,000 tons displacement, a tank 80 ft. long, 60 ft. wide and 30 ft. deep is half filled with fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (SG 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?Not learned 1811. On a vessel of 5,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of acid (SG 1.8). Each tank is 30 feet long and 20 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?Not learned 1812. On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet long and 25 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?Not learned 1813. On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide and 15 ft. deep is half filled with oil cargo (S.G. 0.948) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?Not learned 1814. On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 30 ft. long, 32 ft. wide and 18 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.048) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?Not learned 1815. On a vessel of 6500 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 25 ft. wide, and 8 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 1.053) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?Not learned 1816. On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 4 ft. deep is half filled with fuel oil (S.G. 0.962) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?Not learned 1817. On a vessel of 7000 tons displacement, a tank 35 ft. long, 30 ft. wide and 46 ft. deep is half filled with liquid cargo (S.G. 0.923) while the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this tank?Not learned 1818. On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 40 feet long and 20 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height?Not learned 1819. On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank tops. The hold is 20 feet long and 30 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height?Not learned 1820. On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement there are two slack deep tanks of palm oil (SG .86). Each tank is 40 feet long and 30 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?Not learned 1821. If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from which area(s) of the vessel?Not learned 1822. A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.Not learned 1823. Your vessel has a beam of 40 feet, and you observe a still water rolling period of 20 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?Not learned 1824. Your vessel's has a beam of 60 feet, and you observe a still water rolling period of 25 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?Not learned 1825. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?Not learned 1826. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", which of the following is True if there is a failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment?Not learned 1827. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or which channel?Not learned 1828. A vessel has a cargo hold divided by a shaft alley into two tanks, each 35 feet long and 20 feet wide. Each tank is half filled with sea water. The vessel displaces 5,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface effect?Not learned 1829. A vessel carries three slack tanks of gasoline (SG .68). The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons. Each tank is 50 ft. long and 20 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?Not learned 1830. Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what?Not learned 1831. Your vessel is conducting helicopter evacuation operations for an injured crew member. Which of the following statements is true concerning the hoisting line?Not learned 1832. Your vessel is conducting a "Vessel Grounded Drill". Where is the plan indicating the vessel's watertight boundaries required to be located?Not learned 1833. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1834. In vessel construction, which is TRUE of the garboard strake?Not learned 1835. A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1836. Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability?Not learned 1837. Your vessel was damaged and initially assumed a significant list and trim; however, further increase has been slow. Based on this data, what should you expect?Not learned 1838. Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?Not learned 1839. Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00" (1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST?Not learned 1840. Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?Not learned 1841. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1842. Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?Not learned 1843. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________.Not learned 1844. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________.Not learned 1845. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1846. A vessel has been damaged and is taking on water. Where can you find the data that will indicate how much water the vessel can retain and still possess reserve buoyancy?Not learned 1847. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. How would you preface a message advising other vessels of your situation?Not learned 1848. A vessel is described as a two-compartment vessel when it __________.Not learned 1849. Your vessel is discharging containers from the main deck with the ship's cranes. Which of the following must be taken into account when calculating the center of gravity as the containers are discharged?Not learned 1850. Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed its rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?Not learned 1851. Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464 feet long, and has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its rolling period to be 21.0 seconds in still water. What is your vessel's approximate GM?Not learned 1852. Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your vessel's rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?Not learned 1853. Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the weight of the water is 36 tons?Not learned 1854. Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1855. Your vessel displaces 477 tons and measures 116'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 54'L x 31'B and the weight of the water is 51.5 tons?Not learned 1856. Your vessel displaces 479 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.0 feet above the deck and weighs 16 tons. If you load 23 tons of anchor and anchor chain with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG above the deck?Not learned 1857. Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1858. Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1859. Your vessel displaces 562 tons and measures 121'L x 29'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 46'L x 29'B and the weight of the water is 41 tons?Not learned 1860. Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1861. Your vessel displaces 585 tons and measures 128'L by 26'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 18'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.8 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 15.4 tons)Not learned 1862. Your vessel displaces 640 tons. The existing deck cargo has center of gravity of 2.3 feet above the deck and weighs 18 tons. If you load 12 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 21 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1863. Your vessel displaces 645 tons and measures 132'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (30'L by 26'B by 8'D) is filled with 3.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 22.3 tons)Not learned 1864. Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)Not learned 1865. Your vessel displaces 689 tons and measures 123'L x 31'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 65'Lx 31'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 62 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?Not learned 1866. Your vessel displaces 696 tons and measures 135'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.0 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)Not learned 1867. Your vessel displaces 728 tons and measures 138'L by 31'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (36'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 3.6 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 29.8 tons)Not learned 1868. Your vessel displaces 740 tons and measures 141'L by 34'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (41'L by 30'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 35.1 tons)Not learned 1869. Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 56'L x 34'B and the weight of the water is 58.6 tons?Not learned 1870. Your vessel displaces 750 tons and measures 151'L by 35'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (60'L by 31'B by 10'D) is filled with 3.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 53.1 tons)Not learned 1871. Your vessel displaces 840 tons and measures 146'L x 38'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 38'B and the weight of the water is 76 tons?Not learned 1872. Your vessel displaces 869 tons and measures 136'L x33'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 52'Lx 33'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 52.8 tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard?Not learned 1873. Your vessel displaces 930 tons and measures 156'L by 38'B. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish hold (46'L by 28'B by 8'D) is filled with 1.5 feet of water? (Each foot of water weighs 36.8 tons)Not learned 1874. Your vessel displaces 968 tons and measures 158'L x 40'B. You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 40'B and the weight of the water is 80 tons?Not learned 1875. On a vessel displacing 8,000 tons, what is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 45 feet long and 45 feet wide is partly filled with salt water?Not learned 1876. Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that __________.Not learned 1877. A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal. What follows the signal?Not learned 1878. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1879. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 16'-05". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1880. A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1881. A vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1882. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1883. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested at which time interval?Not learned 1884. What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?Not learned 1885. A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross- connection valve be closed?Not learned 1886. If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?Not learned 1887. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?Not learned 1888. Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.Not learned 1889. The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan?Not learned 1890. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT?Not learned 1891. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT?Not learned 1892. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol helps to control the spread of fire?Not learned 1893. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol represents a fire damper?Not learned 1894. A vessel's fire control plan shall be __________.Not learned 1895. A vessel's fire control plan shall do which of the following?Not learned 1896. Your vessel is floating in water of density 1.010. The fresh water allowance is 8 inches. How far below her marks may she be loaded so as to float at her mark in saltwater of density 1.025?Not learned 1897. Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06" if the TPI is 69?Not learned 1898. If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50 feet, what is your vessel's estimated rolling period?Not learned 1899. On which vessels is GMDSS required?Not learned 1900. Your vessel has run aground in waters where the tide is falling. Which of the following is the best action you can take?Not learned 1901. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.Not learned 1902. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?Not learned 1903. When a vessel has grounded which of the following could result from the forces acting upward on the bottom?Not learned 1904. Your vessel has just grounded on the rocks and is flooding. What should be the initial action in this situation?Not learned 1905. When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.Not learned 1906. Your vessel is involved in Search and Rescue Operations. What is the purpose of the "Situation ReportNot learned 1907. Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating?Not learned 1908. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 1909. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 1910. A vessel's KG is determined by __________.Not learned 1911. A vessel with a large GM will __________.Not learned 1912. A vessel with a large GM will __________.Not learned 1913. Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Where is Lifeboat No. 2 located?Not learned 1914. A vessel's light displacement is 12,000 tons. Its heavy displacement is 28,000 tons. When fully loaded it carries 200 tons of fuel and 100 tons of water and stores. What is the cargo carrying capacity in tons?Not learned 1915. If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by which condition?Not learned 1916. If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will __________.Not learned 1917. If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.Not learned 1918. A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.Not learned 1919. Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1920. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.Not learned 1921. A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a fresh water allowance of 8 inches. At the loading berth, the water density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her marks when she reaches the sea? (The salt water density is 1.025.)Not learned 1922. A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be __________.Not learned 1923. Your vessel measures 114 feet long by 16 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'- 06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 1924. Your vessel measures 119 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-05" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 1925. Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 1926. Your vessel measures 125 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'- 09" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 1927. Your vessel measures 126 feet (38.41 meters) long by 21 feet (6.4 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2.44 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 1928. Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 1929. Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 1930. Your vessel measures 131 feet long by 20 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8'-03" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 1931. You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 1.0 foot and a beam of 40 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?Not learned 1932. Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam of 60 feet. What will your average rolling period be?Not learned 1933. You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 4 feet, and a beam of 50 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?Not learned 1934. Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 1935. As a vessel officer part of your duties is to inspect the lifesaving equipment. What should be done to facilitate a test of the vessel's EPIRB?Not learned 1936. Your vessel participates in AMVER. Which of the following is an AMVER reporting requirement?Not learned 1937. When a vessel has positive stability, which term is used to describe the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G?Not learned 1938. A vessel that does not possess any reserve buoyancy will sink. Which of the following is considered a direct measure of reserve buoyancy?Not learned 1939. Your vessel is preparing to enter port. What is the SOLAS requirement for opening of the vessel's cargo hold watertight doors in this situationNot learned 1940. Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft, KG is 20.5 ft. What would be the angle of list when the weight is lifted?Not learned 1941. A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________.Not learned 1942. Your vessel has just received a distress message. As the master of the vessel, when are you relieved of your obligation to assist in the search and rescue operations?Not learned 1943. Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?Not learned 1944. Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone?Not learned 1945. Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure?Not learned 1946. Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be taken next?Not learned 1947. If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?Not learned 1948. Your vessel is securely moored and commencing to load cargo. What effect does loading cargo have on the vessel's vertical center of gravity?Not learned 1949. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?Not learned 1950. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. Both vessels are making the same amount of leeway. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?Not learned 1951. A vessel is signaling to you by flag hoist, and the answer pennant is hoisted close-up. What action should you take?Not learned 1952. A vessel with a small GM will __________.Not learned 1953. A vessel with a small GM will __________.Not learned 1954. () A vessel has a strong wind on the port beam. This has the same effect on stability as __________.Not learned 1955. Vessels subject to SOLAS are required to keep watertight doors closed while the vessel is navigating. Which of the following is an exception to this requirement?Not learned 1956. Your vessel has suffered a casualty and is in danger of sinking. The Master orders abandon ship but a crew member is missing. You have located the crew member but she is trapped in the Steward's Office. Using the Fire Control Plans in illustration D036SA below, where is the nearest fire axe to gain entry?Not learned 1957. Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The __________.Not learned 1958. Your vessel has been taking on water but now the breached hole has been repaired. Which effects can the flooding have on your vessel's GM?Not learned 1959. A vessel is taking on water but is not in immediate danger of sinking. What would be the best action to take to increase the vessel's stability?Not learned 1960. Your vessel is taking on water and the order has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following is an effective method of combating hypothermia if you must enter the water?Not learned 1961. A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.Not learned 1962. A vessel's tropical load line is 6 in. above her summer load line. Her TPI is 127 tons. She will arrive in the summer zone 8 days after departure. She will burn off about 47 tons/day fuel and water consumption is 12 tons/day. How many tons may she load above her summer load line if she loads in the tropical zone?Not learned 1963. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.Not learned 1964. VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?Not learned 1965. Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?Not learned 1966. All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode. Which is an example of the operation of a radio in simplex mode?Not learned 1967. Which is the VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel?Not learned 1968. In the view of the bridge deck on the fire control plan shown in illustration D035SA below, what is represented by the symbol on the aft bulkhead, port side of the wheelhouse?Not learned 1969. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 049°16.3' W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?Not learned 1970. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149° 16.3' E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?Not learned 1971. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?Not learned 1972. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?Not learned 1973. Wale shores would be used when dry docking a vessel with __________.Not learned 1974. How does a warship indicates that it wishes to communicate with a merchant ship?Not learned 1975. While you are on watch, you learn that a crewman has not been seen on board for the past three hours. Which type of turn is best in this man-overboard situation?Not learned 1976. You are on watch and receive word that a person has fallen overboard from the starboard side. What should your first action be?Not learned 1977. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?Not learned 1978. You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which man overboard turn should NOT be used in this situation?Not learned 1979. Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to __________.Not learned 1980. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.Not learned 1981. Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for _________.Not learned 1982. When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, how long will a 5-gallon can of liquid foam last?Not learned 1983. When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?Not learned 1984. The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.Not learned 1985. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help?Not learned 1986. A weight of 1,000 short tons is equivalent to __________.Not learned 1987. Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?Not learned 1988. Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of which extinguisher(s)?Not learned 1989. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?Not learned 1990. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?Not learned 1991. The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.Not learned 1992. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.Not learned 1993. What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?Not learned 1994. A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________.Not learned 1995. Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor __________.Not learned 1996. Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.Not learned 1997. The wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is known as which of the following?Not learned 1998. You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal __________.Not learned 1999. If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.Not learned 2000. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?Not learned 2001. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. Which action should you take?Not learned 2002. What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?Not learned 2003. How would the flag hoist 1.33 be sent?Not learned 2004. What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength?Not learned 2005. What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?Not learned 2006. What would be a major consequence of allowing the refrigeration system of a low-pressure fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain inoperable?Not learned 2007. Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?Not learned 2008. What would be the result of physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water?Not learned 2009. What would a signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with?Not learned 2010. What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?Not learned 2011. Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 2012. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of which duration?Not learned 2013. All inflatable liferafts have which item?Not learned 2014. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 2015. In any major injury, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and what secondary condition?Not learned 2016. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, which is the most important item to check?Not learned 2017. The lever shown in illustration D013SA below is operated when a lifeboat is in which of the following positions?Not learned 2018. What is the preferred method of controlling external bleeding?Not learned 2019. What is the purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat?Not learned 2020. Which is the required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage?Not learned 2021. Which of the following choices best defines EPIRB, ELT, PLBS?Not learned 2022. Which of the following describes the condition of Hypothermia?Not learned 2023. Which of the following is a treatment of frostbite?Not learned 2024. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by which means?Not learned 2025. Longitudinal moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and which other component?Not learned 2026. The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon which item(s)?Not learned 2027. What is the thickness of a 30.6-pound plate?Not learned 2028. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to which system?Not learned 2029. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. What is the designation number for the middle boat on the starboard side?Not learned 2030. How does bleeding from a vein appear?Not learned 2031. What does the boat command "Oars" mean?Not learned 2032. Which of the following is the best action to take prior to attempting to land a survival craft through heavy surf?Not learned 2033. Your vessel is in distress and the order has been given to abandon ship. If you must enter the water which of the following would aid in preventing hypothermia?Not learned 2034. As seen in illustration D004SA below, what action must be taken before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle?Not learned 2035. Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are which classification?Not learned 2036. How can the accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries be prevented?Not learned 2037. If another station sent you the signal "KG", what would this indicate?Not learned 2038. What is the FIRST thing the rescuer must do if the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation?Not learned 2039. What is the main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire?Not learned 2040. What is the principle treatment of sunstroke?Not learned 2041. What should be the FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns?Not learned 2042. Which is an advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher?Not learned 2043. Which is an advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher?Not learned 2044. Which is the most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen?Not learned 2045. Which is the principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel?Not learned 2046. Which is the VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency?Not learned 2047. You are attending to survivors after abandoning ship. Several of the personnel have a slow pulse and slow breathing rates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these conditions?Not learned 2048. You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. How would you describe this swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals?Not learned 2049. Your stability calculations indicate your vessel has a marginal GM. Which of the following is the most effective way to increase the stability of the vessel?Not learned 2050. Your vessel has just run aground. Which of the following would be one of the first actions you should take in this situation?Not learned 2051. What is a ceiling on a vessel?Not learned 2052. How should the letter "Q" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 2053. How should the letter "W" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 2054. What is the name given to the distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main continuous deck of a vessel?Not learned 2055. How should the number "1" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 2056. What does subtracting KG from KM yield?Not learned 2057. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, what should be done with the first collection?Not learned 2058. Which is the primary method by which water spray puts out fires?Not learned 2059. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam. You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?Not learned 2060. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should advance?Not learned