Q309 - Deck Safety, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. Which of the following describes the function of the air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?Not learned 2. Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.Not learned 3. Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless which situation occurs?Not learned 4. The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.Not learned 5. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.Not learned 6. When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?Not learned 7. If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can initially be maintained by activating which of the following units?Not learned 8. Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.Not learned 9. According to the Code of Federal Regulations, which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995?Not learned 10. In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.Not learned 11. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.Not learned 12. The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by which organization?Not learned 13. AMVER is a system which provides __________.Not learned 14. Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.Not learned 15. The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?Not learned 16. When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?Not learned 17. While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.Not learned 18. What is the signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats?Not learned 19. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.Not learned 20. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 21. When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.Not learned 22. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?Not learned 23. Which signaling devices are required on inflatable liferafts?Not learned 24. Which signaling device(s) is/are required on inflatable liferafts?Not learned 25. All of the following are recognized distress signals under the Navigation Rules EXCEPT which signal?Not learned 26. When a vessel signals its distress by means of a gun or other explosive signal, the firing should be at approximately which time intervals?Not learned 27. How can you indicate that your vessel is in distress?Not learned 28. What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for?Not learned 29. By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?Not learned 30. Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?Not learned 31. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 32. Fires are grouped into what categories?Not learned 33. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.Not learned 34. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 35. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.Not learned 36. How are fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium classified?Not learned 37. Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?Not learned 38. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 39. Which defines the "flammable limits" of an atmosphere?Not learned 40. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.Not learned 41. Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.Not learned 42. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.Not learned 43. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?Not learned 44. Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.Not learned 45. Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.Not learned 46. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.Not learned 47. There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, which is the other?Not learned 48. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?Not learned 49. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?Not learned 50. Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?Not learned 51. Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?Not learned 52. After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.Not learned 53. When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?Not learned 54. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.Not learned 55. In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?Not learned 56. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.Not learned 57. How can the spread of fire be prevented?Not learned 58. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 59. Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.Not learned 60. Convection spreads a fire by __________.Not learned 61. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 62. Fire may be spread by which means?Not learned 63. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.Not learned 64. Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.Not learned 65. Which is the best method of extinguishing a class A fire?Not learned 66. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 67. Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?Not learned 68. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.Not learned 69. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 70. Which is the BEST method of applying foam to a fire?Not learned 71. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by which action?Not learned 72. The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting nozzle should always be __________.Not learned 73. No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.Not learned 74. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.Not learned 75. Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?Not learned 76. CO₂ cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.Not learned 77. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.Not learned 78. In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________.Not learned 79. Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push- buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 80. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 81. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?Not learned 82. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for manually releasing the CO2 at which location?Not learned 83. When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, how many pilot cylinders are required?Not learned 84. Spaces protected by a fixed CO₂ system must be equipped with an alarm which is to sound __________.Not learned 85. A safety outlet is provided on the CO₂ discharge piping to prevent __________.Not learned 86. CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?Not learned 87. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?Not learned 88. Which statement is TRUE to safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system?Not learned 89. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.Not learned 90. Which defines the flash point of a liquid?Not learned 91. Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?Not learned 92. Which term defines the lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition?Not learned 93. Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?Not learned 94. You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?Not learned 95. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.Not learned 96. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.Not learned 97. Where would spontaneous combustion most likely occur?Not learned 98. Which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous combustion?Not learned 99. Which may ignite fuel vapors?Not learned 100. What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?Not learned 101. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 102. The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.Not learned 103. The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.Not learned 104. Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.Not learned 105. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?Not learned 106. When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, what is the MOST important symptom to check for?Not learned 107. Where should muster lists be posted?Not learned 108. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?Not learned 109. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.Not learned 110. A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of the following?Not learned 111. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.Not learned 112. All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.Not learned 113. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 114. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?Not learned 115. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make __________.Not learned 116. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat. In a mild breeze how should the boat approach the person in the water?Not learned 117. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?Not learned 118. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.Not learned 119. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?Not learned 120. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.Not learned 121. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?Not learned 122. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.Not learned 123. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.Not learned 124. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?Not learned 125. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.Not learned 126. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?Not learned 127. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 128. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 129. If your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should first __________.Not learned 130. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, what should be your main course of action?Not learned 131. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?Not learned 132. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 133. An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an __________.Not learned 134. Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 135. You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which is the BEST action to be taken?Not learned 136. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?Not learned 137. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________.Not learned 138. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 139. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 140. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?Not learned 141. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 142. Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?Not learned 143. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?Not learned 144. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a life raft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.Not learned 145. A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water would be correctly called a __________.Not learned 146. Life jackets should be marked with which item?Not learned 147. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.Not learned 148. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, which action should you take?Not learned 149. Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to accomplish which task?Not learned 150. What is the purpose of rigging frapping lines on lifeboat falls?Not learned 151. Which of the following persons may command a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 152. Which of the following is NOT a function of the pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat?Not learned 153. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?Not learned 154. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 155. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 156. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.Not learned 157. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the following colors?Not learned 158. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?Not learned 159. You will find a limit switch on which type of davit?Not learned 160. Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.Not learned 161. After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.Not learned 162. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 163. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on which item?Not learned 164. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 165. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.Not learned 166. Which item is a feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people inside the raft stationary in rough weather?Not learned 167. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.Not learned 168. What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?Not learned 169. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 170. Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?Not learned 171. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?Not learned 172. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with __________.Not learned 173. The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.Not learned 174. Inflatable liferafts are provided with which item?Not learned 175. What must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 176. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.Not learned 177. How should an inflatable liferaft be manually released from its cradle?Not learned 178. An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.Not learned 179. Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?Not learned 180. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.Not learned 181. What must be carried out in order to manually launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?Not learned 182. Which is TRUE concerning a hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft?Not learned 183. Under normal conditions, how is a liferaft released from its cradle?Not learned 184. Where are the lifelines connected to the liferaft?Not learned 185. The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.Not learned 186. What is the correct procedure to follow when manually launching an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 187. To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.Not learned 188. After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.Not learned 189. After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, how is the liferaft inflated?Not learned 190. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?Not learned 191. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 192. An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. Which of the following actions occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO₂ bottles to inflate the raft?Not learned 193. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.Not learned 194. When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, which task must be done to aid in your rescue?Not learned 195. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which action will aid in your rescue?Not learned 196. After launching, how can the inside of an inflatable raft be kept dry?Not learned 197. Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship which item(s) would you use?Not learned 198. On most makes of inflatable liferafts, the batteries to operate the light on the inside of the rafts can be made to last longer by __________.Not learned 199. How is the inside light in an inflatable liferaft activated?Not learned 200. What does the air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft provide protection against?Not learned 201. You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?Not learned 202. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?Not learned 203. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 204. The float free link attached to a sea painter on an inflatable liferaft has a breaking strength of __________.Not learned 205. Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?Not learned 206. If you find an inflatable liferaft container with the steel bands still in place around its case, which action should you take?Not learned 207. What is the function of the hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 208. Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 209. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?Not learned 210. Inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed which time frame?Not learned 211. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.Not learned 212. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 213. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF which condition exists?Not learned 214. How is the "off-load" release system on a survival craft designed to be activated?Not learned 215. When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should take which action?Not learned 216. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 217. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.Not learned 218. Your rescue craft is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by taking which action?Not learned 219. When a sea anchor for survival craft is properly rigged, it will __________.Not learned 220. A sea anchor is __________.Not learned 221. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using which item(s)?Not learned 222. When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.Not learned 223. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?Not learned 224. Initial stability is indicated by __________.Not learned 225. The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known as the __________.Not learned 226. Which term is used for the horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces?Not learned 227. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.Not learned 228. Which term defines the upward pressure of displaced water of a vessel?Not learned 229. At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.Not learned 230. Initial stability refers to stability __________.Not learned 231. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.Not learned 232. Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel. These points are the center of buoyancy and the __________.Not learned 233. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.Not learned 234. The important initial stability parameter, GM, is which of the following?Not learned 235. The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the __________.Not learned 236. When a vessel is floating upright, which term is used to define the distance from the keel to the metacenter of a vessel?Not learned 237. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.Not learned 238. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.Not learned 239. At all angles of inclination, which is the true measure of a vessel's stability?Not learned 240. Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as __________.Not learned 241. Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 242. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 243. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.Not learned 244. Which term is given to the difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely in the vessel?Not learned 245. The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.Not learned 246. For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.Not learned 247. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.Not learned 248. A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.Not learned 249. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.Not learned 250. When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.Not learned 251. If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.Not learned 252. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.Not learned 253. When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.Not learned 254. When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.Not learned 255. The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.Not learned 256. During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. Which action should you take?Not learned 257. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed?Not learned 258. Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.Not learned 259. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 260. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 261. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 262. A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.Not learned 263. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.Not learned 264. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.Not learned 265. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces which threat?Not learned 266. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.Not learned 267. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.Not learned 268. Which is the best action to take when plugging holes below the waterline for the safety of the vessel?Not learned 269. Which term describes the strengthening of damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel?Not learned 270. In plugging submerged holes; why are rags, wedges, and other materials used in conjunction with plugs?Not learned 271. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.Not learned 272. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?Not learned 273. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?Not learned 274. How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be treated?Not learned 275. Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?Not learned 276. As a last resort, what can a tourniquet be used for?Not learned 277. Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear __________.Not learned 278. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 279. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?Not learned 280. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 281. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 282. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?Not learned 283. What is the primary purpose of a splint when applied in first aid treatment?Not learned 284. How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture?Not learned 285. Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what action is taken?Not learned 286. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?Not learned 287. Which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock?Not learned 288. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?Not learned 289. After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?Not learned 290. Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?Not learned 291. In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which of the following treatments would you AVOID using?Not learned 292. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?Not learned 293. A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology what type of burn is this?Not learned 294. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, what type of burn is this?Not learned 295. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to __________.Not learned 296. For small, first-degree burns, what is the quickest method to relieve pain?Not learned 297. A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper first aid treatment for this injury?Not learned 298. What should you do if a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm?Not learned 299. What can be caused by severe airway burns?Not learned 300. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.Not learned 301. When treating a chemical burn, what is the minimum amount of time you should flood the burned area?Not learned 302. Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with what substance(s)?Not learned 303. Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?Not learned 304. If a person is unconscious from electric shock, the first action is to remove him from the electrical source. What is the secondary action?Not learned 305. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, what is the FIRST medical indicator to check for?Not learned 306. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 307. If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and _______.Not learned 308. What causes heat exhaustion?Not learned 309. What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?Not learned 310. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?Not learned 311. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 312. What are the symptoms of sugar diabetes?Not learned 313. A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injury. What symptoms would indicate the onset of a diabetic coma?Not learned 314. If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.Not learned 315. Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.Not learned 316. What should you do if a crew member is having an epileptic convulsion?Not learned 317. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?Not learned 318. How should the pain be relieved when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis?Not learned 319. When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary surveys, what should you be familiar with?Not learned 320. What are the symptoms of seasickness?Not learned 321. What is an effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board?Not learned 322. What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?Not learned 323. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?Not learned 324. Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 325. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?Not learned 326. What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?Not learned 327. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.Not learned 328. Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?Not learned 329. What is the most useful drug to reduce a high fever?Not learned 330. Which procedure should NOT be done for a person whom has fainted?Not learned 331. Where can a rescuer most easily check to determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse?Not learned 332. What should a observer do if a victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway?Not learned 333. What action should you take if a shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue?Not learned 334. While providing assistant to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.Not learned 335. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 336. Which of the following medical conditions has symptoms of: burning pain with redness of the skin, an irritating rash, blistering or loss of skin and or toxic poisoning?Not learned 337. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 338. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 339. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 340. What should you do before CPR is started?Not learned 341. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 342. While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out?Not learned 343. Which is TRUE concerning the vapor pressure of a substance?Not learned 344. A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.Not learned 345. What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?Not learned 346. Which of the following describes why topside icing, which is usually off-center, decreases vessel stability?Not learned 347. What grade are most crude oils are classified as?Not learned 348. The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.Not learned 349. For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.Not learned 350. Which of the following terms defines the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present?Not learned 351. Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.Not learned 352. You are approaching a ship that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, which action should you take?Not learned 353. One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY take which action?Not learned 354. For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have __________.Not learned 355. Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and weighs 36 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 356. In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.Not learned 357. Which is TRUE of outlets in gasoline fuel lines of your small vessel?Not learned 358. When patching holes in the hull, how can pillows, bedding, and other soft materials be used?Not learned 359. Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.Not learned 360. Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.Not learned 361. Why do spaces containing batteries require good ventilation?Not learned 362. You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?Not learned 363. What does the term "head" mean when applied to a pump?Not learned 364. Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.Not learned 365. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to take which action?Not learned 366. Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?Not learned 367. The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.Not learned 368. A man aboard a vessel, is signaling by raising and lowering his outstretched arms to each side. What does this signal indicate?Not learned 369. You have 10 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.8 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 370. You have 12 containers of rig supplies each measuring 10'L by 4'B by 5'H and weighing 2.0 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 371. The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator __________.Not learned 372. You have 160 tons of below deck tonnage and 300 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 110 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 373. You are on a 165 foot (50.3 meters) long vessel with a draft of 9 feet (2.7 meters) and twin screws. Which statement about rescuing a survivor in the water with ship pickup is TRUE?Not learned 374. You have 180 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 300 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 375. You have 200 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 140 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 4.2 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 376. You have 240 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 360 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.9 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 377. You have 260 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 150 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.2 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 378. You have 300 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 180 tons with a VCG above the deck of 1.9 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 379. You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 145 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 380. You have 360 tons of below deck tonnage and 210 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 100 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 381. You have 38 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 5'H and weighing 0.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 382. You have 4 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 8'B by 8'H and weighing 1.2 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 383. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 100 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 160 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 384. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage and 230 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 220 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 385. You have 400 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 225 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 386. You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 150 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 135 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 387. You have 420 tons of below deck tonnage and 180 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 140 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 388. You have 480 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 389. You have 50 containers of ships stores each measuring 6'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 0.4 ton each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 390. You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 160 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet. What is the maximum cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 391. You have 520 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.2, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 392. Your 550 GT vessel is equipped with a free fall lifeboat. Where should the SART units be stowed to meet SOLAS requirements?Not learned 393. You have 550 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 120 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.6 feet. What is the maximum additional deck cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 394. You have 590 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 84 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.7 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 395. You have 6 containers of rig supplies each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 3'H and weighing 1.6 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 396. You have 6 containers of ship stores each measuring 8'L by 4'B by 6'H and weighing 0.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 397. You have 60 tons of below deck tonnage and 220 tons of above deck cargo on board. You must load 240 tons of liquid mud below deck. How much more deck cargo can you loadNot learned 398. Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for what type of service?Not learned 399. You have 600 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 2.8 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 400. You have 640 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 160 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.4 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 401. You have 650 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 140 tons with a VCG above the deck of 2.5 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 402. You have 700 tons of below deck tonnage including liquid mud. Your existing deck cargo is 200 tons with a VCG above the deck of 3.0 feet. What is the maximum additional cargo tonnage you are permitted to loadNot learned 403. You have 710 tons of below deck tonnage. There is no liquid mud aboard. If you have 150 tons of cargo above deck with a VCG above the deck of 3.1 feet, what is the maximum allowed VCG of the remainder of the deck cargo that is permittedNot learned 404. A 750-foot passenger vessel operating on the Great Lakes, not subject to SOLAS regulations, is required to carry how many ring life buoys?Not learned 405. You have 8 containers of steward's supplies each measuring 6'L by 6'B by 6'H and weighing 1.5 tons each. Each container is stowed on deck. What is the maximum VCG permitted of the remaining cargo if you are carrying rig water and load to maximum capacityNot learned 406. If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to __________.Not learned 407. Which is the abandon ship signal?Not learned 408. You have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft with a SART. What signal will indicate to you that a 3 cm radar has interrogated the SART unit?Not learned 409. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. Which action should you take?Not learned 410. You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?Not learned 411. You have abandoned ship and are in a liferaft with several other members of the crew. One person in the liferaft is exhibiting symptoms of hypothermia. Which of the following could you do to aid the victim?Not learned 412. You abandoned ship in the North Atlantic and one of the crew members is hypothermic. During a SAR helicopter extraction which lifting device should be avoided when hoisting this patient to the aircraft?Not learned 413. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?Not learned 414. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. Which is one of your FIRST actions that should be taken?Not learned 415. You have abandoned your vessel and are the person in charge of lifeboat No. 2. Which procedure should be followed when landing a boat under oars through a slight surf?Not learned 416. After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?Not learned 417. When abandoning ship in cold waters, what actions can be taken to minimize the effects of entering the water?Not learned 418. When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.Not learned 419. During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should __________.Not learned 420. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?Not learned 421. An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.Not learned 422. Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving which item?Not learned 423. Aboard ship, which term is given to the vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates?Not learned 424. Aboard a vessel, a common formula which consists of dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields which information?Not learned 425. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.Not learned 426. In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.Not learned 427. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.Not learned 428. What is the accepted standard for wire rope falls used in connection with the lifeboat gear?Not learned 429. In accordance with SOLAS, which of the following best describes the obligation of the Master concerning cargo hold watertight doors?Not learned 430. In accordance with SOLAS, the Master shall be furnished with information to obtain accurate guidance as to the stability of the vessel under varying conditions of service. Which of the following is included in this informationNot learned 431. In accordance with SOLAS the Master of a vessel is required to have specific stability information at their disposal. Which of the following is part of the requirement?Not learned 432. In accordance with SOLAS, stability information required to be available to the Master shall include which of the following?Not learned 433. According to the regulations, where is the capacity of a liferaft required to be marked?Not learned 434. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?Not learned 435. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?Not learned 436. According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?Not learned 437. Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?Not learned 438. Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?Not learned 439. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?Not learned 440. Which action must be taken annually concerning inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels?Not learned 441. Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry chemical cartridge- operated portable fire extinguisher?Not learned 442. Which action should you take after sending a false distress alert on VHF?Not learned 443. Which action should be taken once fueling has been completed?Not learned 444. Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?Not learned 445. Which action would you take to get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle?Not learned 446. After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, which is the appropriate action to take?Not learned 447. Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the __________.Not learned 448. In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into English or __________.Not learned 449. Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.Not learned 450. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.Not learned 451. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.Not learned 452. An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.Not learned 453. What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?Not learned 454. What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?Not learned 455. Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?Not learned 456. An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________.Not learned 457. What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?Not learned 458. What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?Not learned 459. What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?Not learned 460. Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?Not learned 461. What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?Not learned 462. With the air supply on, which is TRUE concerning the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat?Not learned 463. An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change course and follow him. You cannot comply because of an emergency on board. Which signal should you make?Not learned 464. If an airplane circles a vessel 3 times, crosses the vessel's course close ahead while rocking the wings, and heads off in a certain direction, what does this indicate?Not learned 465. An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface craft?Not learned 466. An airplane wants a vessel to change course and proceed towards a vessel in distress. The actions of the aircraft to convey this message will NOT include __________.Not learned 467. When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?Not learned 468. Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.Not learned 469. Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?Not learned 470. Which does the AMVER system require?Not learned 471. At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.Not learned 472. At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.Not learned 473. At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.Not learned 474. Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 475. Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel refers to which term?Not learned 476. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is known by which term?Not learned 477. What is another name for the garboard strake?Not learned 478. You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your approach?Not learned 479. What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?Not learned 480. With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________.Not learned 481. You have approximately 14 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 6 feet? (total displacement is 210 tons)Not learned 482. You have approximately 34 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7.5 feet? (total displacement is 638 tons)Not learned 483. You have approximately 6 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 7 feet? (total displacement is 422 tons)Not learned 484. You have approximately 60 tons of fish on deck. What will be the shift in the center of gravity after you shift the fish to the fish hold, a vertical distance of 8 feet? (total displacement is 960 tons)Not learned 485. Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI?Not learned 486. Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?Not learned 487. Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?Not learned 488. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.Not learned 489. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.Not learned 490. When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?Not learned 491. You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. How should you get underway?Not learned 492. The average rolling period of your ship puts it in the category of a "stiff ship". What effect can this condition have on the cargo carried onboard while underway?Not learned 493. When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.Not learned 494. What is the basic concept of GMDSSNot learned 495. In battery charging rooms, where should the exhaust ventilation be provided?Not learned 496. You are on the beach and want to signal to a small boat in distress that your present location is dangerous and that they should land to the left. How would you indicate this?Not learned 497. What does the term "beam of a vessel" refer to?Not learned 498. Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies?Not learned 499. Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________.Not learned 500. What is the BEST conductor of electricity?Not learned 501. What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?Not learned 502. What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space?Not learned 503. What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when attempting to place an INMARSAT-B callNot learned 504. What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?Not learned 505. What is the best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident?Not learned 506. What is the best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal?Not learned 507. Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls under which condition?Not learned 508. Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.Not learned 509. What does blowing tubes accomplish?Not learned 510. You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?Not learned 511. On board a vessel, which of the following is the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation?Not learned 512. Which command means to complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft?Not learned 513. The boat is stowed on the davit rather than on a cradle with which type of davit?Not learned 514. The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________.Not learned 515. Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?Not learned 516. What is the breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliance?Not learned 517. On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with which chemical?Not learned 518. A bulk freighter 580 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84 is floating in salt water at a draft of 21 ft. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft 1"?Not learned 519. A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"?Not learned 520. A burning pile of canvas is which classification of fire?Not learned 521. What is a butt welded joint's strength compared to the base metal?Not learned 522. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be __________.Not learned 523. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened in which situation?Not learned 524. A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of __________.Not learned 525. You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". What does this indicate?Not learned 526. What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?Not learned 527. How is the Camber in a ship usually measured?Not learned 528. The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by __________.Not learned 529. Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?Not learned 530. Carbon dioxide as a firefighting agent has which advantage over other agents?Not learned 531. The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.Not learned 532. During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. Which is the most prudent action to correct the list?Not learned 533. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.Not learned 534. Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be re-inspected no later than __________.Not learned 535. A carling is used aboard ship to accomplish which function?Not learned 536. CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.Not learned 537. Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT SHOULD NOT?Not learned 538. Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?Not learned 539. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty tanks will __________.Not learned 540. Which causes spontaneous combustion?Not learned 541. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.Not learned 542. The ceiling is __________.Not learned 543. Where is the center of buoyancy located on a vessel?Not learned 544. The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.Not learned 545. Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to __________.Not learned 546. Channel 13 is primarily used for ship-to-ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for which purpose?Not learned 547. Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?Not learned 548. Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?Not learned 549. Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission?Not learned 550. What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?Not learned 551. Which is TRUE concerning a chock?Not learned 552. When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use which type of extinguisher?Not learned 553. On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?Not learned 554. A class B fire is most successfully fought by which method?Not learned 555. A class C fire would be burning __________.Not learned 556. After clearing the vessel, what is one of the FIRST things you would do in an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 557. The CO2 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.Not learned 558. CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following?Not learned 559. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.Not learned 560. A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.Not learned 561. How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally identify itself?Not learned 562. Which describes a cofferdam?Not learned 563. Which color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares are used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance?Not learned 564. What color signal flare is sent up by a submarine to indicate an emergency?Not learned 565. What is the color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training exercise?Not learned 566. The color of the signal flares sent up by a submarine surfacing from periscope depth is __________.Not learned 567. A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________.Not learned 568. A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.Not learned 569. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.Not learned 570. How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?Not learned 571. When in command of a lifeboat under oars, what does the command "Backwater" mean?Not learned 572. You have been in-command of a lifeboat since abandoning ship three days prior and land has been sighted ahead. Under which circumstances would you attempt beaching your lifeboat through a heavy surf?Not learned 573. Which is the most common type of davit found on ocean service merchant vessels today?Not learned 574. You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3?Not learned 575. You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another vessel's transmission?Not learned 576. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?Not learned 577. Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?Not learned 578. Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________.Not learned 579. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?Not learned 580. You have completed stability calculations for your vessel prior to getting underway. Your vessel's GM is small but positive. Which of the following is true?Not learned 581. A concentration of weight has been shifted inboard to the center line of the vessel. Generally speaking, what effect will this have on the vessel?Not learned 582. When should you be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks?Not learned 583. What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any portNot learned 584. Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?Not learned 585. What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine?Not learned 586. Under which condition will a SART unit have the greatest transmission potential?Not learned 587. In continuous operation, what is the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher?Not learned 588. A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.Not learned 589. There is an out of control fire on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire?Not learned 590. What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?Not learned 591. What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?Not learned 592. What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?Not learned 593. Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to which of the following choices?Not learned 594. A covered liferaft has very limited maneuverability. Which of the following is True concerning the beaching of a liferaft in a rough surf?Not learned 595. If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________.Not learned 596. While cranking out a quadrantal davit, slippage of the quadrant due to excessive wear or failure of the teeth in the quadrant will cause the __________.Not learned 597. A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you take?Not learned 598. What should you do if a crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed?Not learned 599. When does a cylinder in a two-cycle engine experience combustion?Not learned 600. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should __________.Not learned 601. The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________.Not learned 602. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?Not learned 603. What is the danger to personnel associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space?Not learned 604. Which davit type may be operated by one person?Not learned 605. By day, what does the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicate?Not learned 606. By day, what is the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land"?Not learned 607. Deballasting a double bottom has what effect on KG?Not learned 608. The decision has been made to make landfall through a slight surf in an oar-propelled lifeboat. How should the sea anchor be utilized?Not learned 609. A deck beam does NOT __________.Not learned 610. The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist which stresses?Not learned 611. Why are deck beams cambered on a vessel?Not learned 612. A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?Not learned 613. What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?Not learned 614. How deeply should the sternum be depressed when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR?Not learned 615. With regards to GMDSS, define the acronym MSI.Not learned 616. Which defines the function of a spark arrestor?Not learned 617. Which defines the "margin plate"?Not learned 618. By definition, a "spar deck" is the __________.Not learned 619. What is the definition of transverse metacenter?Not learned 620. A Deratization Exemption Certificate is valid for which period of time?Not learned 621. Which describes the floors aboard a ship?Not learned 622. What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or deck plating?Not learned 623. If you desire to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not functioning, what signal would you send?Not learned 624. You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.Not learned 625. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 626. How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?Not learned 627. Who determines the number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled lifeboat on a cargo vessel?Not learned 628. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.Not learned 629. How are all diesel engines classified?Not learned 630. Why are diesel engines considered safer than gasoline engines?Not learned 631. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.Not learned 632. Which describes the difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity of a vessel?Not learned 633. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.Not learned 634. The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to __________.Not learned 635. You are being directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside, frame 127. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what machinery is found in that exact location?Not learned 636. When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.Not learned 637. You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 638. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.Not learned 639. When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.Not learned 640. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.Not learned 641. At what distance can a SART be detected by aircraft, equipped with a 3cm radar, flying at approximately 3,000 feet?Not learned 642. A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________.Not learned 643. How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?Not learned 644. The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. Which is TRUE concerning the information?Not learned 645. Distress signals may be __________.Not learned 646. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?Not learned 647. Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?Not learned 648. Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?Not learned 649. A double male coupling is one that __________.Not learned 650. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 651. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 652. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 653. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-10". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 654. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trimNot learned 655. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 656. A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance. How often is this drill required to be conducted?Not learned 657. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by which method?Not learned 658. Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?Not learned 659. When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, why is there a danger of reflash?Not learned 660. Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?Not learned 661. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?Not learned 662. Where, due to the arrangement of the vessel, lifejackets may become inaccessible, additional lifejackets shall be carried __________.Not learned 663. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, which is the best way to haul it back aboard?Not learned 664. What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine that is at normal operating temperature?Not learned 665. Which has the MOST effect on the range of a SSB transmission?Not learned 666. What is the effect of spreading oil on the open sea?Not learned 667. Which is the most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires?Not learned 668. Which is the most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical extinguisher?Not learned 669. What is the most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia?Not learned 670. Why should all electrical appliances aboard a vessel be grounded and ground fault protected?Not learned 671. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, where should the stream of dry chemicals be directed?Not learned 672. When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning a MODU?Not learned 673. If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?Not learned 674. After an engine is started which is the best action(s) to take?Not learned 675. To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?Not learned 676. Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.Not learned 677. What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?Not learned 678. What does "EPIRB" stand for?Not learned 679. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?Not learned 680. When should an EPIRB be turned off in an actual distress situation?Not learned 681. Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?Not learned 682. Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?Not learned 683. You are evacuating crew members from a survival craft that has been adrift in the North Atlantic for several days. What could occur if a person suffering from hypothermia is vertically lifted in a rescue sling to the helicopter?Not learned 684. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?Not learned 685. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 686. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 687. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be which of the following?Not learned 688. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 689. On every vessel, where must distress signals be stowed?Not learned 690. EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position?Not learned 691. The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.Not learned 692. What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?Not learned 693. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 694. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?Not learned 695. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 696. Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?Not learned 697. Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?Not learned 698. Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?Not learned 699. Which extinguishing agent is most effective for combating wood fires?Not learned 700. As an extinguishing agent, foam _________.Not learned 701. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.Not learned 702. Which extinguishing agent is/are suitable to combat a class B fire in an engine compartment?Not learned 703. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?Not learned 704. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.Not learned 705. What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine?Not learned 706. The falls on gravity davits are __________.Not learned 707. What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?Not learned 708. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.Not learned 709. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?Not learned 710. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then take which action?Not learned 711. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, why should the hose team crouch as low as possible?Not learned 712. Fighting a fire in the galley poses which additional threat?Not learned 713. When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), which is the most prudent action to take?Not learned 714. When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.Not learned 715. When fighting a fire using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, where should the stream be directed to extinguish the fire?Not learned 716. You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Why may the stability of the vessel be reduced?Not learned 717. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 718. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?Not learned 719. To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should take which action?Not learned 720. On the fire control plans, in illustration D039SA below, the CO2 bottle room is designated by which symbol?Not learned 721. On fire control plans, in illustration D039SA, the dry chemical releasing station is designated by which symbol?Not learned 722. The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems?Not learned 723. Which fire control plan symbol in illustration D039SA below represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "A" fire?Not learned 724. Which fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, represents a dry chemical delivery method for small scale fires?Not learned 725. There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 726. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?Not learned 727. A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using which type of extinguishing agent?Not learned 728. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by which action?Not learned 729. If you have a fire in the engine room, what is the FIRST action you should take?Not learned 730. Fire extinguishing agents used on class C fires must have which characteristic?Not learned 731. Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?Not learned 732. A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses which additional threat?Not learned 733. A fire hose has a __________.Not learned 734. A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________.Not learned 735. Fire hose should be washed with __________.Not learned 736. A fire must be ventilated __________.Not learned 737. A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?Not learned 738. A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?Not learned 739. A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 740. A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.Not learned 741. When should a fire be ventilated?Not learned 742. Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?Not learned 743. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog which action would you take?Not learned 744. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.Not learned 745. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to which personnel?Not learned 746. What does first aid mean?Not learned 747. The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?Not learned 748. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?Not learned 749. What is the FIRST treatment for a surface burn?Not learned 750. You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?Not learned 751. A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.Not learned 752. In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of 20 cylinders, what is the minimum number of required pilot cylinders?Not learned 753. Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or at which other location?Not learned 754. What flag signal would you hoist if you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if it had a doctor on board?Not learned 755. Which are the flammable limits of methyl ethyl ketone?Not learned 756. Which is the flammable limit range of Diesel Oil mixed with air?Not learned 757. When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.Not learned 758. When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?Not learned 759. For a floating vessel, which item is the result of subtracting KG from KM?Not learned 760. The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by which item?Not learned 761. Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?Not learned 762. Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?Not learned 763. How does foam extinguish a fire?Not learned 764. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?Not learned 765. Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.Not learned 766. A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating which type of fire?Not learned 767. Which of the following actions should be taken if you accidently test a 406 MHz EPIRB in transmit mode?Not learned 768. Which of the following aspects of a flooded space will most adversely affect transverse stability if it is subject to free communication?Not learned 769. Which of the following best defines the term "chock"?Not learned 770. Which of the following is considered the normal operational range from a SART unit to a surface vessel?Not learned 771. Which of the following defines the difference between the free-floating displacement and the KB of a grounded vessel?Not learned 772. Which of the following defines "Rolling Period"?Not learned 773. Which of the following describes the function of a sea anchor when utilized as a tool for beaching a lifeboat through surf?Not learned 774. Which of the following describes the inspection and testing requirements of a SART?Not learned 775. Which of the following describes the requirement for the testing of an EPIRB?Not learned 776. Which of the following describes a SART?Not learned 777. Which of the following formulas is an acceptable method to calculate the vertical shift of the vessel's center of gravity?Not learned 778. Which of the following grounding scenarios would have the least damaging effect on vessel stability?Not learned 779. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 780. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 781. Which of the following is one of the most important safety procedures that should be adhered to prior to starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat?Not learned 782. Which of the following organizations operate the AMVER system?Not learned 783. Which of the following is part of the annual SOLAS required test on an EPIRB?Not learned 784. Which of the following is part of a required monthly EPIRB inspection?Not learned 785. Which of the following is the proper operating sequence of a SART?Not learned 786. Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control Plans?Not learned 787. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel's Fire Control Plan?Not learned 788. Which of the following is a requirement of the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat?Not learned 789. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 790. Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?Not learned 791. Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?Not learned 792. Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?Not learned 793. Once the liferaft has cleared the vessel, which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency situation?Not learned 794. Which of the following is a symptom of mild hypothermia?Not learned 795. Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?Not learned 796. If you are forced to abandon ship in a liferaft, what would be your course of action?Not learned 797. The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.Not learned 798. Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?Not learned 799. Four-cycle diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or which other means?Not learned 800. The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with the increase of which item?Not learned 801. Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.Not learned 802. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks accomplish which task?Not learned 803. Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?Not learned 804. A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. What should be your FIRST action?Not learned 805. Which fuel is used in a survival craft's engine?Not learned 806. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining which minimal speed if it is not towing other survival craft?Not learned 807. What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?Not learned 808. What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vesselsNot learned 809. What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?Not learned 810. A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using _______.Not learned 811. A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?Not learned 812. The garboard strake is the __________.Not learned 813. If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.Not learned 814. For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.Not learned 815. Why can the vessel's GM not be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination?Not learned 816. Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?Not learned 817. For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave portNot learned 818. Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board shipNot learned 819. Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?Not learned 820. What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?Not learned 821. If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?Not learned 822. When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.Not learned 823. Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?Not learned 824. For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?Not learned 825. The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.Not learned 826. Where are the grab rails of a metal lifeboat normally located?Not learned 827. Great Lakes cargo vessels, having a liferaft stowed more than 100 meters from the bow or stern, must have at least how many liferafts?Not learned 828. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.Not learned 829. What does the gross tonnage of a vessel indicate?Not learned 830. The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?Not learned 831. The half-breadth plan is __________.Not learned 832. Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture. Floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months?Not learned 833. You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?Not learned 834. What happens when the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pushed into the forward position?Not learned 835. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will __________.Not learned 836. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all- purpose nozzle will __________.Not learned 837. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?Not learned 838. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. What does this signal mean?Not learned 839. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. What does this indicate?Not learned 840. When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells, which action should you take?Not learned 841. Heave is motion along which axis?Not learned 842. In heavy seas how should the helmsman steer the motor lifeboat?Not learned 843. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?Not learned 844. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.Not learned 845. When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is referred to by which term?Not learned 846. Why is the height of a VHF radio antenna more important than the power output wattage of the radio?Not learned 847. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 848. Which is TRUE of High-velocity fog?Not learned 849. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in firefighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the firefighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when which condition exists?Not learned 850. The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.Not learned 851. Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 852. A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.Not learned 853. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?Not learned 854. If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.Not learned 855. If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?Not learned 856. In illustration D001SA below, which item represents the righting arm?Not learned 857. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the center of gravity?Not learned 858. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the metacentric height?Not learned 859. In illustration D008SA below, what type of davits are displayed?Not learned 860. In illustration D011SA below, what does the item labeled number (1) operate?Not learned 861. In illustration D012SA below, what is the mechanism that will release the tricing pendant?Not learned 862. In illustration D012SA below, what will be released when pulling on line number 5?Not learned 863. In illustration D014SA below, what does item number (8) identify?Not learned 864. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags?Not learned 865. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external lifelines?Not learned 866. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external recognition light, which can be seem up to two miles?Not learned 867. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the floating sheath knife?Not learned 868. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the sea anchor?Not learned 869. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the towing connection?Not learned 870. In illustration D014SA below, which item is the righting strap?Not learned 871. In illustration D014SA below, what number is the sea painter?Not learned 872. In illustration D014SA below, where would you find the knife?Not learned 873. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the hydrostatic release?Not learned 874. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the weak link?Not learned 875. In the illustration, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to which of the followingNot learned 876. In illustration D016SA below, what number indicates the frapping line?Not learned 877. In illustration D033DG below, what is the area indicated by the letter G is known as?Not learned 878. In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D?Not learned 879. In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate?Not learned 880. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt?Not learned 881. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard strake?Not learned 882. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal?Not learned 883. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a seam?Not learned 884. In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done?Not learned 885. In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the letter N known as?Not learned 886. In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known as?Not learned 887. In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter J known as?Not learned 888. In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating indicated by letter H known as?Not learned 889. In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which letter?Not learned 890. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter F?Not learned 891. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter K?Not learned 892. In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor?Not learned 893. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter L?Not learned 894. In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N known as?Not learned 895. In illustration D035SA below, viewing the bridge level of your vessel's fire control plan, what do the two symbols within the machinery casing represent?Not learned 896. In illustration D036SA below, what does the solid arrow in the Crew Mess represent on the Fire Control Plans?Not learned 897. In illustration D039SA below, a complete recharge for a self-contained breathing apparatus can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 898. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol does NOT contain personal protective equipment?Not learned 899. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol designates a space or compartment protected by Halon 1301?Not learned 900. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol is not part of the ship's foam system?Not learned 901. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol(s) represent part of the vessel's ventilation system?Not learned 902. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (16)?Not learned 903. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (30)?Not learned 904. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (37)?Not learned 905. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (39)?Not learned 906. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (56)?Not learned 907. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (64)?Not learned 908. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (67)?Not learned 909. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (7)?Not learned 910. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol(s) represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "B" fire?Not learned 911. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "C" fire?Not learned 912. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a Class Alpha fire?Not learned 913. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a LARGE Class Bravo fire on deck?Not learned 914. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a bilge pump?Not learned 915. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the direction of primary means of escape?Not learned 916. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency fire pump?Not learned 917. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency generator?Not learned 918. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment NOT to be found immediately outside the engine room?Not learned 919. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment that is MOST likely to be found in the ship's galley?Not learned 920. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire alarm panel?Not learned 921. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire main with fire valves?Not learned 922. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire pump?Not learned 923. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire station?Not learned 924. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a heat detector?Not learned 925. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an international shore connection?Not learned 926. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a NON-portable extinguisher?Not learned 927. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a push button for a fire alarm?Not learned 928. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a space protected by foam?Not learned 929. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol signifies equipment you would use if your fire pump(s) failed?Not learned 930. In illustration D039SA below, the halon room with the main battery of Halon 1301 bottles is designated by which symbol on the fire control plans?Not learned 931. In illustration D039SA below the location of a spare set of fire control plans on board the vessel is designated by what approved symbol?Not learned 932. In illustration D039SA below, what two fire control plan symbols designate the directional means of escape?Not learned 933. In the illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 2 represent?Not learned 934. An immersion suit must be equipped with a/an __________.Not learned 935. An immersion suit must be equipped with which item(s)?Not learned 936. What is MOST important when administering artificial respiration?Not learned 937. What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?Not learned 938. What is the most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns?Not learned 939. What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?Not learned 940. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?Not learned 941. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 942. What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?Not learned 943. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.Not learned 944. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to take which action?Not learned 945. What is the most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?Not learned 946. The improper stowage of cargo has caused vessels to have a negative GM. How will a ship in this condition handle in the seaway?Not learned 947. Which will improve stability?Not learned 948. When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is __________.Not learned 949. Which indicates the volatility of a flammable liquid?Not learned 950. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by taking which action?Not learned 951. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by which action?Not learned 952. If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?Not learned 953. An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What should occur after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?Not learned 954. When must an inflatable liferaft that has been repacked be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility?Not learned 955. Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.Not learned 956. Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry a minimum capacity of how many persons?Not learned 957. The initial action of a Williamson turn is to put the rudder over full until which of the following?Not learned 958. After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.Not learned 959. When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.Not learned 960. Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.Not learned 961. The "inner bottom" is the __________.Not learned 962. Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?Not learned 963. What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?Not learned 964. The International Maritime Organization has specific stability requirements and recommendations for multiple vessel types. Which of the following are subject to these requirements?Not learned 965. On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more, are required to have facilities to enable a connection on each side of the ship for which piece of equipment represented in illustration D039SA below?Not learned 966. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.Not learned 967. Who issues a ship's radiotelephone station license?Not learned 968. Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?Not learned 969. Which item is a safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts?Not learned 970. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?Not learned 971. Jettisoning weight from topside __________.Not learned 972. When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.Not learned 973. The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.Not learned 974. Which term is given to the joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side?Not learned 975. Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.Not learned 976. The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the __________.Not learned 977. Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET?Not learned 978. If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?Not learned 979. Landing a lifeboat through surf should only be done if absolutely necessary. What should be done with the lifeboat rudder if this type of landing is unavoidable?Not learned 980. You are landing an oar propelled lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward). Which is the recommended procedure to follow?Not learned 981. You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances which is TRUE?Not learned 982. A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, which action should you take?Not learned 983. Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the __________.Not learned 984. How should latitude 51° 48.7' S be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 985. How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 986. To launch a liferaft by hand, you should take which actions?Not learned 987. In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?Not learned 988. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.Not learned 989. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?Not learned 990. When launching a lifeboat, how should the tricing pennants be released?Not learned 991. When launching an open lifeboat by falls, which is TRUE concerning the boathooks?Not learned 992. The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into which of the following?Not learned 993. Which is TRUE concerning the length of the steering oar in a lifeboat?Not learned 994. How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 995. Your lifeboat has been adrift for several days when land is sighted. Which procedure should you use to survey a potential site to beach your lifeboat?Not learned 996. You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?Not learned 997. On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, what does turning the releasing lever release?Not learned 998. Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept?Not learned 999. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?Not learned 1000. How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?Not learned 1001. If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?Not learned 1002. The lifeboats on your vessel are stowed on cradles on deck and are handled by sheath-screw boom davits. Which of the following statements about launching a boat is TRUE?Not learned 1003. When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.Not learned 1004. How are lifelines attached to a life float?Not learned 1005. Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include which of the following?Not learned 1006. Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place to land"?Not learned 1007. What does the lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a white light or white flare mean?Not learned 1008. What is the lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?Not learned 1009. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?Not learned 1010. What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance will be given as soon as possible"?Not learned 1011. How do the lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate?Not learned 1012. Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.Not learned 1013. "Limber" is a term associated with which item?Not learned 1014. What is the function of the lifeboat davit limit switches?Not learned 1015. Limit switches are used on which davits?Not learned 1016. Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.Not learned 1017. Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.Not learned 1018. Loading cargo above the vessel's center of gravity will increase the vessel's vertical center of gravity. How will this affect the vessel?Not learned 1019. In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located?Not learned 1020. If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.Not learned 1021. How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee?Not learned 1022. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they relate to a distress situation or disaster?Not learned 1023. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?Not learned 1024. A long ton is __________.Not learned 1025. How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 1026. When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.Not learned 1027. What should you look for evidence of if a victim is unconscious?Not learned 1028. When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be initially pulled into the embarkation deck by which item?Not learned 1029. When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 1030. To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, which should be used?Not learned 1031. When should the lubricating oil be changed on a heavy-duty diesel engine?Not learned 1032. Before any machinery is put in operation, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 1033. The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.Not learned 1034. When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be __________.Not learned 1035. Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.Not learned 1036. Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?Not learned 1037. Which is a major advantage of the round turn maneuver in a man overboard situation?Not learned 1038. What is the major cause of shock in burn victims?Not learned 1039. Which is TRUE when making a Scharnow turn?Not learned 1040. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.Not learned 1041. You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.Not learned 1042. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.Not learned 1043. When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?Not learned 1044. Which maneuver will return your vessel to a person who has fallen overboard in the shortest time?Not learned 1045. How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?Not learned 1046. How many ring life buoys should a 700-foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?Not learned 1047. Many sheath-screw davits have markings to indicate the maximum angle to which they should be cranked out. If the angle is exceeded, the davit __________.Not learned 1048. How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?Not learned 1049. All marine low-speed diesels are of what design?Not learned 1050. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.Not learned 1051. Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?Not learned 1052. Which term is given to the maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel?Not learned 1053. What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?Not learned 1054. What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?Not learned 1055. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.Not learned 1056. What may the firing of a red star signal mean?Not learned 1057. What is the meaning of the signal DX RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?Not learned 1058. What is the meaning of the signal QU RQ when sent by the International Code of Signals?Not learned 1059. What is the meaning of the signal SA T1035 RQ when sent by the International code of Signals?Not learned 1060. What is the meaning of the signal VJ 8 when sent by the International Code of Signals?Not learned 1061. What is meant by "CES"Not learned 1062. What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?Not learned 1063. What is meant by the term "radio silence"Not learned 1064. Which is TRUE of the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engines?Not learned 1065. Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium?Not learned 1066. During a medivac one of the crew members requires assistance to be hoisted to the aircraft. Which of the following would be used to accomplish this task?Not learned 1067. Which meets the requirement of an independent backup system on an electric start survival craft?Not learned 1068. Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?Not learned 1069. Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.Not learned 1070. A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?Not learned 1071. How should a message warning of a tropical storm be sent?Not learned 1072. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.Not learned 1073. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.Not learned 1074. If the metacentric height is small, which is TRUE of the vessel?Not learned 1075. If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?Not learned 1076. What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio OperatorNot learned 1077. What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?Not learned 1078. What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2-inch fire hose?Not learned 1079. What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?Not learned 1080. What is the minimum operating capacity required for VHF Survival Craft Transceiver batteries?Not learned 1081. What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?Not learned 1082. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?Not learned 1083. You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?Not learned 1084. According to the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds which percentage?Not learned 1085. An aluminum powder fire is classified as class __________.Not learned 1086. What is the approximate length of the painter of the inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1087. How are automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems operated?Not learned 1088. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, where does the air flow?Not learned 1089. Which class of fire is an oil fire classified?Not learned 1090. Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with which item?Not learned 1091. Which describes a Kort nozzle as used on a vessel?Not learned 1092. In an emergency, which can directly control the electro-hydraulic steering units on the vessel?Not learned 1093. Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?Not learned 1094. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.Not learned 1095. Which is the flammable range of Bunker C mixed with air?Not learned 1096. Which of the following pieces of equipment is most commonly used by SAR helicopters when evacuating personnel from survival craft?Not learned 1097. Which of the following when removed will extinguish a fire?Not learned 1098. How are fusible link fire dampers operated?Not learned 1099. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, what will be the upright equilibrium?Not learned 1100. When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up to which position?Not learned 1101. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter I?Not learned 1102. Which item(s) is/are a 2,000 GT tankship required to carry?Not learned 1103. Which item are the terms "pintle" and "gudgeon" associated with?Not learned 1104. When launching an inflatable liferaft, which is TRUE concerning the operating cord?Not learned 1105. All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at which time interval?Not learned 1106. A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry which items?Not learned 1107. What is the lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here is highly dangerous"?Not learned 1108. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain which items?Not learned 1109. The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered. Which time interval is this action required?Not learned 1110. A mechanical davit is designed to automatically accomplish which task?Not learned 1111. You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1112. When must the Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, be sent?Not learned 1113. You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a rectangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores be located on the bulkhead?Not learned 1114. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead be located?Not learned 1115. What is the name given to the bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat?Not learned 1116. What is the name given to the canvas covering of fire hose?Not learned 1117. Which name is given to the frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a vessel?Not learned 1118. What is the name given to the lines that are passed around the falls to hold the boat and prevent it from swinging violently?Not learned 1119. What name is given to the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains?Not learned 1120. How often are CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system required to be pressure tested?Not learned 1121. How often are each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats required to be tested on the vessel?Not learned 1122. What is one of the main purposes of the inclining experiment on a vessel?Not learned 1123. One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is __________.Not learned 1124. The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing in which direction(s)?Not learned 1125. What can an oxygen indicator be used to determine?Not learned 1126. Where are panting frames located in the vessel?Not learned 1127. On a passenger vessel, the vessel's name must appear on which item(s)?Not learned 1128. If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can ________.Not learned 1129. When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable life raft, the personnel on the raft should __________.Not learned 1130. You are picking up a conscious person that has fallen overboard in one of the vessels motor boats. Recovery is easier in a light breeze if you approach from which direction?Not learned 1131. You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons how should a small craft approach?Not learned 1132. The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.Not learned 1133. When positive stability exists, what does GZ represent?Not learned 1134. If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, which is the most effective extinguishing agent to use?Not learned 1135. What is the preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire?Not learned 1136. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent what from happening?Not learned 1137. Which is the primary element to successfully rescuing a man overboard?Not learned 1138. What is the primary equipment for receiving Marine Safety Information (MSI) messages?Not learned 1139. Which is the primary type of welding employed in shipyards in the construction of cargo vessels?Not learned 1140. What is the primary use of antiseptics?Not learned 1141. Which is the prime function of the bilge keel?Not learned 1142. Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, which device prevents water from entering the hull?Not learned 1143. What is the proper name given to a deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two horizontally protruding horns?Not learned 1144. What is the purpose of a bilge well?Not learned 1145. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment?Not learned 1146. What is the purpose of limber holes in a lifeboat?Not learned 1147. On the all-purpose nozzle, what is the position of the nozzle valve when the handle is all the way forward?Not learned 1148. The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you take which action?Not learned 1149. What is the purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat?Not learned 1150. What is the radiotelephone urgency signal?Not learned 1151. If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, which action should you take?Not learned 1152. When is it recommended that seawater be used for drinking?Not learned 1153. To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. What is the name of this plate?Not learned 1154. Which reference should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?Not learned 1155. You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. In which situation will the CO2 be most effective?Not learned 1156. When rendering assistance to personnel in the water a SAR helicopter utilizes a rescue sling for most extractions. In which case would the use of a litter be preferred?Not learned 1157. A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least which diameter?Not learned 1158. In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, which is TRUE when launching a lifeboat?Not learned 1159. The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at which temperature?Not learned 1160. During a SAR helicopter evacuation which of the following describes the proper donning of a rescue sling?Not learned 1161. During a SAR helicopter evolution the rescue sling is the most widely used method of extraction. Which of the following describes the alternate Double Lift Method used to pick up incapacitated persons?Not learned 1162. A SAR helicopter has landed a litter on deck to medivac a patient from your vessel. After ensuring that it has been grounded, what precautionary action should you take prior to loading the patient into the litter?Not learned 1163. The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in which cycles?Not learned 1164. You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft then flies over your position on a straight course and level altitude. What should you do?Not learned 1165. The shearing stresses on a ship's structure are usually greatest at which area?Not learned 1166. In ship construction, where should the keel scantlings be the greatest thickness?Not learned 1167. The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if which condition exists?Not learned 1168. A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?Not learned 1169. A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel passes the towing line to you, where should you secure the line?Not learned 1170. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. Which action should be taken?Not learned 1171. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1172. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?Not learned 1173. If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", which action should you take?Not learned 1174. Why should storage batteries be charged in a well-ventilated area?Not learned 1175. What do stretchers that are fitted in lifeboats provide?Not learned 1176. What does subtracting GM from KM yield?Not learned 1177. You have taken another vessel in tow. Which is an indicator that the towing speed is too fast?Not learned 1178. Which term defines the horizontal fore-and-aft movement of a vessel?Not learned 1179. Which term defines the minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form a mixture that ignites and burns?Not learned 1180. Which term describes the holes in the bulwark that allow deck water to drain into the sea?Not learned 1181. The term displacement refers to which of the following?Not learned 1182. Which term is given to the brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler?Not learned 1183. Which term is given to the fittings used to secure a watertight door?Not learned 1184. Which is the term given to the stability which remains after a compartment is flooded?Not learned 1185. Which term indicates how many tons of cargo a vessel can carry?Not learned 1186. Which term is used to describe the geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel?Not learned 1187. Which term is used to describe the horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel?Not learned 1188. Which term is used to describe the point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vessel construction?Not learned 1189. A thirty-pound plate would be which thickness?Not learned 1190. The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and which other condition?Not learned 1191. A thrust bearing is designed to accomplish which action?Not learned 1192. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?Not learned 1193. Transverse stability calculations require the use of which information?Not learned 1194. Which is TRUE concerning drinking salt water?Not learned 1195. Which is TRUE concerning fire hose couplings?Not learned 1196. Which is TRUE concerning a fuel-air mixture below the lower flammable limit?Not learned 1197. Which is TRUE concerning the most serious effect trapped air has on a diesel engine jacket water cooling system?Not learned 1198. Which is TRUE of a distress signal?Not learned 1199. Which is TRUE of the lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus?Not learned 1200. Which is TRUE if passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out?Not learned 1201. Which is TRUE of the spray of water in low-velocity fog?Not learned 1202. Which is TRUE of the vessel's Sheer Plan?Not learned 1203. The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.Not learned 1204. What type of messages should the "urgent" priority be used for?Not learned 1205. Which type of weld is used to attach stiffeners to a plate?Not learned 1206. Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and which other testing?Not learned 1207. An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is in which location?Not learned 1208. Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to perform which task?Not learned 1209. Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. Which is the FIRST thing to do in the lifeboat?Not learned 1210. When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, how should you activate the signal?Not learned 1211. When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by which signal?Not learned 1212. Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by which method?Not learned 1213. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known by which term?Not learned 1214. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as which boat number?Not learned 1215. A vessel's bottom will be subjected to tension when weight is concentrated in which location(s)?Not learned 1216. Your vessel has grounded and a report must be made to the United States Coast Guard. Which is the required form for this report?Not learned 1217. For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives which information?Not learned 1218. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?Not learned 1219. Your vessel is listing because of a negative GM. To lower G below M, which action should you take?Not learned 1220. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?Not learned 1221. Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. Which is a requirement of the auxiliary line?Not learned 1222. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. What does this indicate about the vessel?Not learned 1223. A vessel can be termed as either tender or stiff in relation to its rolling period. Which of the following would cause a vessel to be tender?Not learned 1224. If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will accomplish which of the following?Not learned 1225. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds which amount?Not learned 1226. You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. Which action should you take next?Not learned 1227. What is a wobbling tail shaft an indication of?Not learned 1228. Where is the molded depth measured from on a vessel?Not learned 1229. A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?Not learned 1230. The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.Not learned 1231. What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?Not learned 1232. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?Not learned 1233. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?Not learned 1234. Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 1235. If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, which is the best action to take?Not learned 1236. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. In illustration D039SA below what fire control plan symbol designates the primary means of escape?Not learned 1237. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. The primary means of escape is blocked by the fire. What fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, designates the secondary means of escape?Not learned 1238. If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.Not learned 1239. You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1240. You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.Not learned 1241. If you must swim through an oil fire, which action should be avoided?Not learned 1242. What is the name given to the strake on each side of the keel?Not learned 1243. Which is the national distress, safety, and calling frequency channel?Not learned 1244. In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.Not learned 1245. Why is it necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire?Not learned 1246. A negative metacentric height __________.Not learned 1247. A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.Not learned 1248. A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.Not learned 1249. When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.Not learned 1250. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of which item?Not learned 1251. How does the rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiate oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams?Not learned 1252. What would light gray smoke from a diesel engine probably indicate?Not learned 1253. The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is approximately __________.Not learned 1254. What is normal mouth temperature?Not learned 1255. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.Not learned 1256. The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.Not learned 1257. Where would the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker be located?Not learned 1258. Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.Not learned 1259. How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 1260. The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.Not learned 1261. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, what must the boat be supplied with?Not learned 1262. If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, how often are free-fall lifeboats required to be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew?Not learned 1263. You are the officer in charge of a navigational watch, what signal would indicate your 3 cm radar has interrogated a SART unit?Not learned 1264. How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?Not learned 1265. How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?Not learned 1266. How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?Not learned 1267. Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.Not learned 1268. One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________.Not learned 1269. One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.Not learned 1270. What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?Not learned 1271. What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?Not learned 1272. Which one of the following signals is made at night by a lifesaving station to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?Not learned 1273. One function of a bulwark is to __________.Not learned 1274. One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________.Not learned 1275. One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about __________.Not learned 1276. One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without distorting the meaning of your words is by using __________.Not learned 1277. Which is one of the signals, other than a distress signal, that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention?Not learned 1278. Each open lifeboat carried on a vessel on an international voyage must have __________.Not learned 1279. In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.Not learned 1280. To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________.Not learned 1281. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?Not learned 1282. When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.Not learned 1283. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as which item?Not learned 1284. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.Not learned 1285. You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.Not learned 1286. When operating gravity davits, the __________.Not learned 1287. In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by which of the following?Not learned 1288. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST take which action?Not learned 1289. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.Not learned 1290. In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?Not learned 1291. Which organization reviews and approves a vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 1292. The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.Not learned 1293. The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.Not learned 1294. Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.Not learned 1295. Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. What is the name given to these strakes?Not learned 1296. The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.Not learned 1297. In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red?Not learned 1298. "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?Not learned 1299. You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire pump(s)?Not learned 1300. You are part of a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in the crew lounge. Where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furnitureNot learned 1301. A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.Not learned 1302. Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. How many life buoys are required for the vessel?Not learned 1303. If a passenger vessel navigating the Great Lakes is required to carry 8 life buoys, what is the allowable minimum number of these buoys that must have self-igniting lights attached?Not learned 1304. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?Not learned 1305. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage defines which term?Not learned 1306. What is the period of validity of a De-Rat certificate?Not learned 1307. What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections?Not learned 1308. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 1309. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat when land is sighted. Due to a medical emergency, you have made the decision to beach the lifeboat through the surf. Which of the following is of greatest consideration in making this decision?Not learned 1310. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat and have made the decision to beach your craft through a heavy surf. Which of the following is the recommended procedure for a boat under oars?Not learned 1311. A person is exhibiting signs of hypothermia and starts to shiver, what does this indicate?Not learned 1312. A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with what liquid?Not learned 1313. A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.Not learned 1314. What should a person do after being revived by artificial respiration?Not learned 1315. When a person is in shock, how will their skin appear?Not learned 1316. How should a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries be treated?Not learned 1317. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water?Not learned 1318. When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, where should the sea painter be secured?Not learned 1319. Which piece(s) of equipment represented by the Fire Control Plan symbols in illustration D039SA below, can be found on the exterior of the vessel?Not learned 1320. Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?Not learned 1321. The pivot pin at the base of a sheath-screw boom davit must be __________.Not learned 1322. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.Not learned 1323. A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.Not learned 1324. Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on which class of fires?Not learned 1325. A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.Not learned 1326. When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?Not learned 1327. What power source actuates a solenoid valve?Not learned 1328. You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?Not learned 1329. In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with which item?Not learned 1330. What prevents an inflated life raft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?Not learned 1331. What is the primary action when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis?Not learned 1332. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient?Not learned 1333. What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 1334. The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________.Not learned 1335. What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?Not learned 1336. What is the primary reason for placing covers over the top of storage batteries?Not learned 1337. What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass?Not learned 1338. What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?Not learned 1339. You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1340. While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?Not learned 1341. You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in making your vessel more visible to the survivors?Not learned 1342. You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will make your ship more visible to the survivors?Not learned 1343. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?Not learned 1344. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?Not learned 1345. You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1346. In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________.Not learned 1347. Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________.Not learned 1348. Which term is used to describe the projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder?Not learned 1349. What does proper GMDSS watchkeeping include?Not learned 1350. What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?Not learned 1351. What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?Not learned 1352. A pump room is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pump room atmosphere for combustible gases?Not learned 1353. Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using which item(s)?Not learned 1354. What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?Not learned 1355. What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships?Not learned 1356. What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?Not learned 1357. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1358. What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?Not learned 1359. What is the purpose of sheer in the construction of the vessel?Not learned 1360. What is the purpose of a striker plate?Not learned 1361. For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable, how frequently should rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew?Not learned 1362. What is the purpose of the tricing pendants?Not learned 1363. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor?Not learned 1364. After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?Not learned 1365. What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine?Not learned 1366. What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?Not learned 1367. Which quantity of fuel is required to be carried in a motor lifeboat?Not learned 1368. A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.Not learned 1369. Which is the quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open?Not learned 1370. In a racetrack turn, to recover a man overboard, the vessel is steadied for the SECOND time after a turn of how many degrees from the original heading?Not learned 1371. When would a racetrack turn be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a man overboard?Not learned 1372. How is "radio silence" imposed?Not learned 1373. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.Not learned 1374. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by which word?Not learned 1375. What is the radiotelephone safety signal?Not learned 1376. Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?Not learned 1377. Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?Not learned 1378. The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.Not learned 1379. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________.Not learned 1380. You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan- Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?Not learned 1381. After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. may ask you to switch to which SSB frequency?Not learned 1382. The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control?Not learned 1383. How can you recognize the necessity for administering artificial respiration?Not learned 1384. Regardless of the method it is sent, what does he signal K4 mean?Not learned 1385. Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?Not learned 1386. Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations)Not learned 1387. The regulations require that inspected vessels on an international voyage, other than small passenger vessels, must carry which of the following distress signals on or near the navigating bridge?Not learned 1388. Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.Not learned 1389. The releasing lever of a lifeboat shall be red in color with a placard stating which of the following?Not learned 1390. To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and __________.Not learned 1391. What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?Not learned 1392. What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?Not learned 1393. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?Not learned 1394. What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?Not learned 1395. What is required during an annual FCC inspectionNot learned 1396. What is required to launch a boat stowed in a crescent davit?Not learned 1397. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 1398. What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?Not learned 1399. What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing appliance on a vessel?Not learned 1400. How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?Not learned 1401. Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress communications have ceased?Not learned 1402. If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.Not learned 1403. Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?Not learned 1404. The result of two forces acting in opposite directions and along parallel lines, is an example of what type of stress?Not learned 1405. What is the result of a vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity?Not learned 1406. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.Not learned 1407. The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.Not learned 1408. To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.Not learned 1409. Your Ro Ro vessel has just completed discharging the lower decks and is commencing discharging the upper levels. What would it indicate if the vessel were to suddenly develop a list?Not learned 1410. When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposedNot learned 1411. Routine radio communications should be no more than which duration?Not learned 1412. You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take First to correct the situation?Not learned 1413. A safe fuel system must __________.Not learned 1414. SART units are designed to be manually carried to the survival craft. Which of the following is another characteristic of a SART?Not learned 1415. A SART unit is used for which of the following?Not learned 1416. How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?Not learned 1417. How can a SART's effective range be maximized?Not learned 1418. Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?Not learned 1419. The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when __________.Not learned 1420. When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.Not learned 1421. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.Not learned 1422. In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?Not learned 1423. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, which presents the greatest danger?Not learned 1424. At sea, how must all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) be proven operationalNot learned 1425. Where should the sea painter of a lifeboat be secured?Not learned 1426. How is the sea painter secured in an open lifeboat?Not learned 1427. You are at sea and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter Eight. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1428. A seaman is reported missing in the morning and was last seen after coming off the mid-watch. Which type of turn would you use to return to the track-line steamed during the night?Not learned 1429. Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in what body part?Not learned 1430. You are on the second deck of the engine room between frames 92 thru105 and the space is filling up with smoke. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, where is the primary means of escape from that area is via a ladderwell?Not learned 1431. You are on the second deck in the main machinery space. Utilizing illustration D037SA below what emergency equipment, if any, is located at frame 107?Not learned 1432. You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?Not learned 1433. As seen in illustration D035SA below, when the remote push button located in the wheelhouse, starboard side, frame 122, is actuated, what is the result?Not learned 1434. As seen in illustration D039SA below a complete set of spare batteries for a fireman's outfit can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 1435. As seen in illustration D039SA below, a locker with additional breathing apparatuses can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 1436. As seen in illustration D039SA below a locker with additional protective clothing can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 1437. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.Not learned 1438. The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation?Not learned 1439. When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.Not learned 1440. When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the __________.Not learned 1441. Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?Not learned 1442. Which is the most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system?Not learned 1443. The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.Not learned 1444. Which is the most serious type of fracture?Not learned 1445. The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to which period of time?Not learned 1446. A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is known as __________.Not learned 1447. What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?Not learned 1448. Shell plating is _________.Not learned 1449. Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.Not learned 1450. Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. What would be the virtual rise in the center of gravity?Not learned 1451. You are on a ship that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1452. In ship construction, which is TRUE concerning frame spacing?Not learned 1453. When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?Not learned 1454. A ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for which of the following terms?Not learned 1455. Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?Not learned 1456. A short ton is a unit of weight consisting of __________.Not learned 1457. Where do signs of racking stresses generally appear on the vessel?Not learned 1458. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?Not learned 1459. The signal has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following describes the action to be taken with the EPIRB?Not learned 1460. What is the signal to guide vessels in distress, indicating, "This is the best place to land"?Not learned 1461. Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast hauling"?Not learned 1462. What is the signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate, "Affirmative"?Not learned 1463. Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?Not learned 1464. If the situation arose where it became necessary to tow a disabled vessel, which statement is TRUE concerning the towing line?Not learned 1465. Which situation may require you to administer artificial respiration?Not learned 1466. What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?Not learned 1467. A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.Not learned 1468. In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.Not learned 1469. In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.Not learned 1470. In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through which point?Not learned 1471. Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.Not learned 1472. SOLAS requires which of the following with regard to watertight doors in cargo spaces?Not learned 1473. SOLAS requires a logbook entry for the operation of watertight door drills. Which of the following lists the frequency that these drills are required to be conducted for passenger vessels?Not learned 1474. SOLAS requires that passenger vessels make an entry in the log book for all drills and inspections of watertight doors. What other information relevant to the watertight doors is required to be entered?Not learned 1475. Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?Not learned 1476. The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.Not learned 1477. What is the space above the engine room called?Not learned 1478. Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.Not learned 1479. A spanner is a __________.Not learned 1480. Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?Not learned 1481. Specific radio frequencies are designated as International Maritime frequencies used for voice distress, safety and hailing. Which of the following is an International Maritime VHF-FM frequency as described previously?Not learned 1482. What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?Not learned 1483. What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?Not learned 1484. Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard?Not learned 1485. Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.Not learned 1486. The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have __________.Not learned 1487. The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.Not learned 1488. Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and which other force?Not learned 1489. When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM __________.Not learned 1490. Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is at which location?Not learned 1491. Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.Not learned 1492. Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?Not learned 1493. Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?Not learned 1494. Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?Not learned 1495. Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?Not learned 1496. Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?Not learned 1497. Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUENot learned 1498. Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE?Not learned 1499. Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE?Not learned 1500. Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?Not learned 1501. Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?Not learned 1502. Which statement concerning immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1503. Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?Not learned 1504. Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?Not learned 1505. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?Not learned 1506. Which statement about damage control is TRUE?Not learned 1507. Which statement describes a compound fracture?Not learned 1508. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?Not learned 1509. Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?Not learned 1510. Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?Not learned 1511. Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?Not learned 1512. What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1513. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1514. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1515. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1516. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?Not learned 1517. Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE?Not learned 1518. Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?Not learned 1519. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1520. Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?Not learned 1521. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?Not learned 1522. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?Not learned 1523. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a survival craft?Not learned 1524. Which statement is TRUE concerning a fire in a machinery space?Not learned 1525. Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel?Not learned 1526. Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?Not learned 1527. Which statement is TRUE concerning the life buoy on your small passenger vessel? (Length 28 feet)Not learned 1528. Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?Not learned 1529. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?Not learned 1530. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat installations on Great Lakes vessels?Not learned 1531. Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?Not learned 1532. Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?Not learned 1533. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?Not learned 1534. Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels?Not learned 1535. Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?Not learned 1536. Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the line-throwing appliance?Not learned 1537. Which statement is TRUE about firefighting foam?Not learned 1538. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?Not learned 1539. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?Not learned 1540. Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE?Not learned 1541. The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34°. For this ship, what would be the danger angle for a permanent list?Not learned 1542. With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?Not learned 1543. While steering by autopilot you notice that the vessel is deviating from the given course and there is no follow up with corrective rudder action to return to the proper heading. The emergency operating procedure should require you to immediately change operation from __________.Not learned 1544. Which is TRUE of the steering oar in a lifeboat?Not learned 1545. The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.Not learned 1546. Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?Not learned 1547. Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?Not learned 1548. A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against which class of fires?Not learned 1549. The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to accomplish which task?Not learned 1550. When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.Not learned 1551. The strength of a deck will be increased by adding which item?Not learned 1552. A "strongback" refers to a __________.Not learned 1553. The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.Not learned 1554. Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause which to occur?Not learned 1555. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0015 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1556. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0003 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1557. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST- 0004 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1558. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0015 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? I. Two reels of hoisting wire. Each reel is 8 feet in circumference and 4 feet wide and has 3000 feet of wire. Both reels are stowed on the flat. Wire weighs 1.55 pounds per linear foot. The tare weight of each reel is 500 pounds. II. Eight pallets of case goods stowed singly. Each pallet is 8' L X 4' W X 4' H and weighs 1 long ton. III. 12 steel containers of cement. Each container weighs 1 1/2 tons. Each container is 8' L X 4' W X 4' H. The containers are stowed singly fore and aft. IV. 10 crates of stewards stores. Each crate measures 4' L X 4' W 3' H and weighs 420 pounds. Each crate is stowed on deck.Not learned 1559. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0018 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1560. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0019 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1561. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0027 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1562. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0030 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1563. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0036 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1564. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. You are carrying the load show in table ST-0039 below. What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?Not learned 1565. A survivor has been pulled from the water off the coast of Greenland. The patient is in a state of confusion and has ceased shivering. Which of the following best describes the patient's condition?Not learned 1566. You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances?Not learned 1567. A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.Not learned 1568. The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization?Not learned 1569. Symbol number (51) in illustration D039SA below is found all throughout the ship. What fire control equipment does this symbol represent?Not learned 1570. What are the symptoms of a fractured back?Not learned 1571. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?Not learned 1572. Which is a symptom of traumatic shock?Not learned 1573. Which system has the least effective radius of operation?Not learned 1574. Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?Not learned 1575. Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?Not learned 1576. Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?Not learned 1577. Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?Not learned 1578. Which system provides maximum communications range?Not learned 1579. A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?Not learned 1580. Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?Not learned 1581. You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"?Not learned 1582. A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone five days after departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?Not learned 1583. A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone six days after departing the loading port. She will burn off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?Not learned 1584. A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.Not learned 1585. Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?Not learned 1586. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?Not learned 1587. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a compartment using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate the man should back out?Not learned 1588. You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out immediately?Not learned 1589. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?Not learned 1590. Tensile stress is a result of two forces acting in __________.Not learned 1591. Which term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship?Not learned 1592. The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with which part of the vessel?Not learned 1593. The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with which areas of the vessel?Not learned 1594. Which term defines the vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors?Not learned 1595. Which is the term given to the joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end?Not learned 1596. Which term is given to the upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge?Not learned 1597. Which term is given to the wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading?Not learned 1598. What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction?Not learned 1599. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body?Not learned 1600. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body?Not learned 1601. What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?Not learned 1602. What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the aft side of the rudder post?Not learned 1603. What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel?Not learned 1604. What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section?Not learned 1605. What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?Not learned 1606. Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?Not learned 1607. Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?Not learned 1608. The term "scantlings" refers to the __________.Not learned 1609. The term "strake" is used in reference to which item(s)?Not learned 1610. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?Not learned 1611. "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?Not learned 1612. What are the three basic types of engine starters?Not learned 1613. What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?Not learned 1614. Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________.Not learned 1615. Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers _________.Not learned 1616. The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and their effects, that a ship can carry, is known as which term?Not learned 1617. On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, which action should you take?Not learned 1618. Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?Not learned 1619. What is the traditional signal for fire aboard ship?Not learned 1620. During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. What color will the smoke be?Not learned 1621. What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?Not learned 1622. Which is TRUE if you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone?Not learned 1623. Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.Not learned 1624. In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 1625. How should you treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion?Not learned 1626. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?Not learned 1627. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 1628. The tricing pendants should be released __________.Not learned 1629. You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?Not learned 1630. What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?Not learned 1631. Which is TRUE concerning the painter of an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1632. Which is TRUE concerning the production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner?Not learned 1633. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?Not learned 1634. Which is TRUE of the term negative slip on a vessel?Not learned 1635. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. How should you make your approach?Not learned 1636. When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?Not learned 1637. Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.Not learned 1638. Which type of davit is not considered to be a mechanical davit?Not learned 1639. On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?Not learned 1640. Which type of davit requires you to turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side?Not learned 1641. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?Not learned 1642. Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?Not learned 1643. Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel's fire fighting arrangement within the fire control plan?Not learned 1644. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?Not learned 1645. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?Not learned 1646. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?Not learned 1647. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?Not learned 1648. What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction?Not learned 1649. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?Not learned 1650. When do U.S. regulations require your vessel's EPIRB to be tested?Not learned 1651. If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, which action can you take?Not learned 1652. You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?Not learned 1653. You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?Not learned 1654. You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?Not learned 1655. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on which of the following channels?Not learned 1656. While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?Not learned 1657. Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when __________.Not learned 1658. An upright vessel has negative GM. GM becomes positive at the angle of loll because the __________.Not learned 1659. When do you use your FCC call sign when transmitting on channel 16?Not learned 1660. When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.Not learned 1661. What is used as an indicator of initial stability?Not learned 1662. What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?Not learned 1663. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?Not learned 1664. What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?Not learned 1665. What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?Not learned 1666. What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?Not learned 1667. What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel?Not learned 1668. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?Not learned 1669. When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.Not learned 1670. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.Not learned 1671. When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when __________.Not learned 1672. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 27'-11", AFT 28'-07".Not learned 1673. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 19'-05", AFT 20'-01".Not learned 1674. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 21.8 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-05", AFT 24'- 04".Not learned 1675. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.2 feet and the drafts are: FWD 23'-06", AFT 24'- 03".Not learned 1676. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-03", AFT 15'-09".Not learned 1677. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 22.4 feet, and the drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-00".Not learned 1678. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 23.7 feet and the drafts are: FWD 28'-00", AFT 28'-06".Not learned 1679. Using the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book, determine the danger angle for permanent list if the KG is 25.0 feet and the drafts are: FWD 15'-04", AFT 15'-08".Not learned 1680. When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.Not learned 1681. You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter?Not learned 1682. When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument?Not learned 1683. You are using a racetrack turn to recover a man overboard. The vessel is first steadied when how many degrees away from the original heading?Not learned 1684. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.Not learned 1685. On the illustrated fire control plan, what emergency equipment is located in the sculleryNot learned 1686. You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger, which signal signifies urgency?Not learned 1687. What is the usual depth of a beam bracket?Not learned 1688. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?Not learned 1689. What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?Not learned 1690. Utilizing illustration D035SA below, the Master has ordered you to pull the remote ventilation shut down, where is it found?Not learned 1691. Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represent?Not learned 1692. Utilizing illustration D038SA below a view of a vessel fire control plan, how many spaces are protected by a fixed CO2 extinguishing system?Not learned 1693. The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and which other item?Not learned 1694. The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is __________.Not learned 1695. The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1696. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.Not learned 1697. Vertical moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.Not learned 1698. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.Not learned 1699. If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from which area(s) of the vessel?Not learned 1700. A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.Not learned 1701. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?Not learned 1702. Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what?Not learned 1703. Your vessel is conducting helicopter evacuation operations for an injured crew member. Which of the following statements is true concerning the hoisting line?Not learned 1704. Your vessel is conducting a "Vessel Grounded Drill". Where is the plan indicating the vessel's watertight boundaries required to be located?Not learned 1705. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1706. In vessel construction, which is TRUE of the garboard strake?Not learned 1707. A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1708. Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability?Not learned 1709. Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?Not learned 1710. Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00" (1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST?Not learned 1711. Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?Not learned 1712. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1713. Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?Not learned 1714. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________.Not learned 1715. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1716. A vessel has been damaged and is taking on water. Where can you find the data that will indicate how much water the vessel can retain and still possess reserve buoyancy?Not learned 1717. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. How would you preface a message advising other vessels of your situation?Not learned 1718. Your vessel is discharging containers from the main deck with the ship's cranes. Which of the following must be taken into account when calculating the center of gravity as the containers are discharged?Not learned 1719. Your vessel displaces 560 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 4.5 feet above the deck and weighs 34 tons. If you load 10 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.8 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1720. Your vessel displaces 479 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 3.0 feet above the deck and weighs 16 tons. If you load 23 tons of anchor and anchor chain with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG above the deck?Not learned 1721. Your vessel displaces 497 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck and weighs 24 tons. If you load 18 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 18 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1722. Your vessel displaces 528 tons. The existing cargo has a center of gravity of 2.9 feet above the deck and weighs 28 tons. If you load 14 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 9 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1723. Your vessel displaces 564 tons. The existing deck cargo has a center of gravity of 1.5 feet above the deck and weighs 41 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 2.5 feet above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1724. Your vessel displaces 640 tons. The existing deck cargo has center of gravity of 2.3 feet above the deck and weighs 18 tons. If you load 12 tons of ground tackle with an estimated center of gravity of 21 inches above the deck, what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?Not learned 1725. Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that __________.Not learned 1726. A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal. What follows the signal?Not learned 1727. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1728. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 16'-05". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1729. A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1730. A vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1731. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 1732. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested at which time interval?Not learned 1733. What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?Not learned 1734. Your vessel is equipped with mechanical davits. When stowing the lifeboat after a drill while underway, you should __________.Not learned 1735. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?Not learned 1736. Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.Not learned 1737. The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan?Not learned 1738. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT?Not learned 1739. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT?Not learned 1740. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol helps to control the spread of fire?Not learned 1741. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol represents a fire damper?Not learned 1742. A vessel's fire control plan shall be __________.Not learned 1743. A vessel's fire control plan shall do which of the following?Not learned 1744. A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard halyard. What does this signal mean?Not learned 1745. Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06" if the TPI is 69?Not learned 1746. On which vessels is GMDSS required?Not learned 1747. Your vessel has run aground in waters where the tide is falling. Which of the following is the best action you can take?Not learned 1748. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.Not learned 1749. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?Not learned 1750. When a vessel has grounded which of the following could result from the forces acting upward on the bottom?Not learned 1751. Your vessel has just grounded on the rocks and is flooding. What should be the initial action in this situation?Not learned 1752. When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.Not learned 1753. Your vessel has an injured crew member onboard that will require evacuation. Which of the following publications should you review for the procedures in conducting rescue/medivac helicopter operations?Not learned 1754. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 1755. A vessel's KG is determined by __________.Not learned 1756. A vessel with a large GM will __________.Not learned 1757. A vessel with a large GM will __________.Not learned 1758. Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Where is Lifeboat No. 2 located?Not learned 1759. A vessel's light displacement is 12,000 tons. Its heavy displacement is 28,000 tons. When fully loaded it carries 200 tons of fuel and 100 tons of water and stores. What is the cargo carrying capacity in tons?Not learned 1760. If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by which condition?Not learned 1761. If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will __________.Not learned 1762. If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.Not learned 1763. A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.Not learned 1764. Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1765. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.Not learned 1766. A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be __________.Not learned 1767. Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________.Not learned 1768. As a vessel officer part of your duties is to inspect the lifesaving equipment. What should be done to facilitate a test of the vessel's EPIRB?Not learned 1769. Your vessel participates in AMVER. Which of the following is an AMVER reporting requirement?Not learned 1770. When a vessel has positive stability, which term is used to describe the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G?Not learned 1771. A vessel that does not possess any reserve buoyancy will sink. Which of the following is considered a direct measure of reserve buoyancy?Not learned 1772. Your vessel is preparing to enter port. What is the SOLAS requirement for opening of the vessel's cargo hold watertight doors in this situationNot learned 1773. A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________.Not learned 1774. Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?Not learned 1775. Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure?Not learned 1776. Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be taken next?Not learned 1777. Your vessel is securely moored and commencing to load cargo. What effect does loading cargo have on the vessel's vertical center of gravity?Not learned 1778. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?Not learned 1779. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. Both vessels are making the same amount of leeway. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?Not learned 1780. A vessel with a small GM will __________.Not learned 1781. A vessel with a small GM will __________.Not learned 1782. Vessels subject to SOLAS are required to keep watertight doors closed while the vessel is navigating. Which of the following is an exception to this requirement?Not learned 1783. Your vessel has suffered a casualty and is in danger of sinking. The Master orders abandon ship but a crew member is missing. You have located the crew member but she is trapped in the Steward's Office. Using the Fire Control Plans in illustration D036SA below, where is the nearest fire axe to gain entry?Not learned 1784. Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The __________.Not learned 1785. Your vessel has been taking on water but now the breached hole has been repaired. Which effects can the flooding have on your vessel's GM?Not learned 1786. A vessel is taking on water but is not in immediate danger of sinking. What would be the best action to take to increase the vessel's stability?Not learned 1787. Your vessel is taking on water and the order has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following is an effective method of combating hypothermia if you must enter the water?Not learned 1788. A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.Not learned 1789. A vessel's tropical load line is 6 in. above her summer load line. Her TPI is 127 tons. She will arrive in the summer zone 8 days after departure. She will burn off about 47 tons/day fuel and water consumption is 12 tons/day. How many tons may she load above her summer load line if she loads in the tropical zone?Not learned 1790. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.Not learned 1791. VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?Not learned 1792. Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?Not learned 1793. All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode. Which is an example of the operation of a radio in simplex mode?Not learned 1794. In the view of the bridge deck on the fire control plan shown in illustration D035SA below, what is represented by the symbol on the aft bulkhead, port side of the wheelhouse?Not learned 1795. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 049°16.3' W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?Not learned 1796. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149° 16.3' E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?Not learned 1797. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?Not learned 1798. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?Not learned 1799. How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time?Not learned 1800. While you are on watch, you learn that a crewman has not been seen on board for the past three hours. Which type of turn is best in this man-overboard situation?Not learned 1801. You are on watch and receive word that a person has fallen overboard from the starboard side. What should your first action be?Not learned 1802. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?Not learned 1803. You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which man overboard turn should NOT be used in this situation?Not learned 1804. Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to __________.Not learned 1805. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.Not learned 1806. Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for _________.Not learned 1807. When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, how long will a 5-gallon can of liquid foam last?Not learned 1808. In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion?Not learned 1809. In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?Not learned 1810. When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?Not learned 1811. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help?Not learned 1812. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that you are all right?Not learned 1813. A weight of 1,000 short tons is equivalent to __________.Not learned 1814. Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?Not learned 1815. Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of which extinguisher(s)?Not learned 1816. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?Not learned 1817. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?Not learned 1818. The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.Not learned 1819. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.Not learned 1820. What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?Not learned 1821. A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________.Not learned 1822. Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor __________.Not learned 1823. When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, what does one short blast mean?Not learned 1824. Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.Not learned 1825. You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal __________.Not learned 1826. If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.Not learned 1827. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?Not learned 1828. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. Which action should you take?Not learned 1829. What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?Not learned 1830. How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?Not learned 1831. What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength?Not learned 1832. What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?Not learned 1833. What would be a major consequence of allowing the refrigeration system of a low-pressure fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain inoperable?Not learned 1834. What would be the result of physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water?Not learned 1835. What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?Not learned 1836. What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean?Not learned 1837. What would a yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water indicate about a submarine?Not learned 1838. Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 1839. A yellow signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about 300 feet above the water, indicates what about a submarine?Not learned 1840. A yellow signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about 300 feet above the water, indicates that a submarine __________.Not learned 1841. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of which duration?Not learned 1842. All inflatable liferafts have which item?Not learned 1843. Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.Not learned 1844. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 1845. In any major injury, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and what secondary condition?Not learned 1846. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, which is the most important item to check?Not learned 1847. The lever shown in illustration D013SA below is operated when a lifeboat is in which of the following positions?Not learned 1848. What is the preferred method of controlling external bleeding?Not learned 1849. What is the purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat?Not learned 1850. Which is the required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage?Not learned 1851. Which of the following choices best defines EPIRB, ELT, PLBS?Not learned 1852. Which of the following describes the condition of Hypothermia?Not learned 1853. Which of the following is a treatment of frostbite?Not learned 1854. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by which means?Not learned 1855. Great Lakes vessels, using liferafts, must have sufficient liferaft capacity on each side of the vessel to accommodate how many persons onboard?Not learned 1856. Longitudinal moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and which other component?Not learned 1857. The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill during which time frame?Not learned 1858. What is the thickness of a 30.6-pound plate?Not learned 1859. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to which system?Not learned 1860. Which is required to be marked on the vessel's life preservers?Not learned 1861. Which is TRUE concerning a certified lifeboat operator assigned to command a lifeboat?Not learned 1862. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. What is the designation number for the middle boat on the starboard side?Not learned 1863. Generally speaking, how is the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber ignited?Not learned 1864. How does bleeding from a vein appear?Not learned 1865. What does the boat command "Oars" mean?Not learned 1866. What should you do in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim?Not learned 1867. Which of the following is the best action to take prior to attempting to land a survival craft through heavy surf?Not learned 1868. Your vessel is in distress and the order has been given to abandon ship. If you must enter the water which of the following would aid in preventing hypothermia?Not learned 1869. As seen in illustration D004SA below, what action must be taken before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle?Not learned 1870. Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are which classification?Not learned 1871. How can the accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries be prevented?Not learned 1872. What is the FIRST thing the rescuer must do if the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation?Not learned 1873. What is the main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire?Not learned 1874. What is the normal percentage of oxygen in air?Not learned 1875. What is the principle treatment of sunstroke?Not learned 1876. What should be the FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns?Not learned 1877. Which is an advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher?Not learned 1878. Which is an advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher?Not learned 1879. Which is the most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen?Not learned 1880. Which is the principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel?Not learned 1881. You are attending to survivors after abandoning ship. Several of the personnel have a slow pulse and slow breathing rates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these conditions?Not learned 1882. Your stability calculations indicate your vessel has a marginal GM. Which of the following is the most effective way to increase the stability of the vessel?Not learned 1883. Your vessel has just run aground. Which of the following would be one of the first actions you should take in this situation?Not learned 1884. How should the letter "W" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 1885. How should the number "3" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 1886. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. She is making more leeway than you. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?Not learned 1887. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam. You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?Not learned