Q806 - Fireman & Watertender, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?Not learned 2. Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?Not learned 3. Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.Not learned 4. The designation 'schedule 80' refers to __________.Not learned 5. Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints or __________.Not learned 6. When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.Not learned 7. Which of the following measurements would be an example of total flow?Not learned 8. Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length for pipe nipples?Not learned 9. Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called "pipe _____________".Not learned 10. A pipe coupling is a fitting having __________.Not learned 11. Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.Not learned 12. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 13. Tubing is sized by __________.Not learned 14. Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?Not learned 15. Copper coil tubing is best cut with a _________.Not learned 16. The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a __________.Not learned 17. Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed __________.Not learned 18. After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should ______.Not learned 19. Some heavy-duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _________.Not learned 20. An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.Not learned 21. Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?Not learned 22. Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross-sectional tip?Not learned 23. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil wire or tightly coiled steel?Not learned 24. Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.Not learned 25. Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?Not learned 26. Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.Not learned 27. Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?Not learned 28. Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become __________.Not learned 29. A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of __________.Not learned 30. Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangular-shaped holes and slots?Not learned 31. The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.Not learned 32. Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called __________.Not learned 33. It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is __________.Not learned 34. When using a chisel, you should __________.Not learned 35. The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the _________.Not learned 36. A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.Not learned 37. The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you _________.Not learned 38. What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed head?Not learned 39. Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?Not learned 40. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.Not learned 41. A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the ________.Not learned 42. For the power hacksaw shown in the illustration, how should the teeth point for the blade being installedNot learned 43. To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.Not learned 44. Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the __________.Not learned 45. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more accurately if you __________.Not learned 46. When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.Not learned 47. A hacksaw blade will break if __________.Not learned 48. The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.Not learned 49. If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will __________.Not learned 50. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for __________.Not learned 51. If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.Not learned 52. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?Not learned 53. The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.Not learned 54. When internal threading for bolts, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.Not learned 55. Taps and dies used for threading pipe, under U.S. standards, are __________.Not learned 56. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.Not learned 57. A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly __________.Not learned 58. A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.Not learned 59. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, "pitch" is the __________.Not learned 60. The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.Not learned 61. Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?Not learned 62. The open-end wrench size for a standard 3/4 inch American National hex head bolt is __________.Not learned 63. A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.Not learned 64. A metal scribe commonly found on a combination square measuring tool should only be used to __________.Not learned 65. A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file __________.Not learned 66. Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.Not learned 67. Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of it slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt?Not learned 68. Open end wrenches are __________.Not learned 69. In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.Not learned 70. A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.Not learned 71. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.Not learned 72. Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?Not learned 73. An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.Not learned 74. Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.Not learned 75. To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________.Not learned 76. A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding the contact surfaces together of a valve, is called __________.Not learned 77. Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?Not learned 78. The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _________.Not learned 79. To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.Not learned 80. The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.Not learned 81. A dial indicator is used to measure __________.Not learned 82. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.Not learned 83. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you should use a __________.Not learned 84. A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.Not learned 85. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.Not learned 86. Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to __________.Not learned 87. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________Not learned 88. A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to __________.Not learned 89. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure __________.Not learned 90. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.Not learned 91. Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?Not learned 92. The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as __________Not learned 93. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________.Not learned 94. A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.Not learned 95. For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a __________.Not learned 96. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a __________.Not learned 97. A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.Not learned 98. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the __________.Not learned 99. The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the __________.Not learned 100. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?Not learned 101. If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should __________.Not learned 102. Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the __________.Not learned 103. To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.Not learned 104. Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.Not learned 105. The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.Not learned 106. Tinning a soldering iron will __________.Not learned 107. Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.Not learned 108. Solder is an alloy of __________.Not learned 109. When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.Not learned 110. With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________.Not learned 111. When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, __________.Not learned 112. Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxy-acetylene regulators and torches?Not learned 113. Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxy-acetylene torch?Not learned 114. The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is __________.Not learned 115. The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a _______.Not learned 116. To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.Not learned 117. Small leaks in gaskets of a flanged pipe joint should be stopped immediately after installation for what reason?Not learned 118. When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts be tightened?Not learned 119. If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 120. Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 121. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.Not learned 122. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________.Not learned 123. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?Not learned 124. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by __________.Not learned 125. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?Not learned 126. Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?Not learned 127. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.Not learned 128. The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring __________.Not learned 129. The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.Not learned 130. An eroded globe valve disk can be repaired by __________.Not learned 131. What is the primary purpose of a reach rod as used as a valve remote operator?Not learned 132. What type of valve would be fitted with a quarter-turn power actuator, such as a rack-and-pinion?Not learned 133. If water hammer develops while opening the valve in a steam line, which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 134. Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?Not learned 135. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.Not learned 136. A pump is defined as a device that __________.Not learned 137. The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.Not learned 138. The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to __________.Not learned 139. Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by __________.Not learned 140. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?Not learned 141. Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required?Not learned 142. Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.Not learned 143. One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a __________.Not learned 144. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that __________.Not learned 145. Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low pressures?Not learned 146. The leakage of air into the pump casing by way of the packing gland of a condensate pump, is prevented by __________.Not learned 147. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?Not learned 148. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.Not learned 149. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.Not learned 150. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?Not learned 151. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _______.Not learned 152. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 153. To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?Not learned 154. A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?Not learned 155. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.Not learned 156. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to ________.Not learned 157. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.Not learned 158. Which of the conditions listed could prevent a centrifugal condensate pump from developing its rated capacity?Not learned 159. Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 160. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?Not learned 161. The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.Not learned 162. Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?Not learned 163. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by __________.Not learned 164. When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be _________.Not learned 165. When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?Not learned 166. Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?Not learned 167. The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to __________.Not learned 168. To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should __________.Not learned 169. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by_______.Not learned 170. Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?Not learned 171. A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by __________.Not learned 172. Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the __________.Not learned 173. When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be ______.Not learned 174. Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?Not learned 175. Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by __________.Not learned 176. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.Not learned 177. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump __________.Not learned 178. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.Not learned 179. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?Not learned 180. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?Not learned 181. An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.Not learned 182. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the __________.Not learned 183. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________.Not learned 184. Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?Not learned 185. For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multi-stage air compressor, interstage cooling will __________.Not learned 186. The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.Not learned 187. One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to __________.Not learned 188. When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an aftercooler, what must be done with the reservoir?Not learned 189. If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system and other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the __________.Not learned 190. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler to __________.Not learned 191. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.Not learned 192. If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?Not learned 193. If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?Not learned 194. What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?Not learned 195. If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end waterboxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?Not learned 196. With regard to the number of passes through the tubes of shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true?Not learned 197. The auxiliary exhaust system shown in the illustration can be supplied by steam from the __________Not learned 198. The primary objective of the auxiliary exhaust system is to supply steam to the __________.Not learned 199. The primary source of steam to the auxiliary exhaust system is typically supplied directly from __________.Not learned 200. What is the purpose of the main steam stop bypass valve?Not learned 201. High pressure and low pressure drain systems are part of the __________.Not learned 202. Clean low-pressure steam drains are collected in the __________.Not learned 203. The atmospheric drain tank (ADT) normally drains to the _______.Not learned 204. High-pressure steam drains are normally discharged to the __________.Not learned 205. Condensate return lines from tank heating coils are led to the __________.Not learned 206. Which statement is true concerning drain inspection tanks?Not learned 207. If live steam is supplied directly to the tank heating coils, the collected drains in the "clean" section of the contaminated drain inspection tank are removed directly to the __________.Not learned 208. Item 4 shown in the illustration represents a __________Not learned 209. How is the emergency bilge suction valve typically used?Not learned 210. What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density approaching that of water?Not learned 211. What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?Not learned 212. By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?Not learned 213. Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?Not learned 214. Which of the pumps listed operates at constant speed and delivers water to the deaerating feed tank at a nearly constant pressure?Not learned 215. Condensate pumps have distinctly noticeable characteristics and can usually be recognized by their ______.Not learned 216. Zincs are installed in the main and auxiliary condenser waterboxes to __________.Not learned 217. Which statement listed represents a vital function of the main condenser?Not learned 218. Which of the condensers listed is cooled by sea water?Not learned 219. While underway, vacuum in the main condenser is primarily caused by the __________.Not learned 220. A main condenser utilizing a scoop for the circulation of sea water must be constructed as a __________.Not learned 221. Waterboxes on condensers are vented to __________.Not learned 222. In a main propulsion steam turbine installation, the condensate pump initially discharges to the __________.Not learned 223. Air trapped within the main condenser shell is detrimental because it will __________.Not learned 224. The automatic recirculating valve in the main condensate recirculating line is controlled by a temperature sensor which is located at the __________.Not learned 225. Salt water contamination of condensate could occur at which component?Not learned 226. Excessive recirculation of condensate should be avoided, as it can cause __________.Not learned 227. Steam condensed in the air ejector intercondenser, drains to the __________.Not learned 228. Air accumulated in the intercondenser of the air ejector assembly is discharged directly to the __________.Not learned 229. The cooling water flow from an air ejector intercondenser and aftercondenser is discharged directly into the _______.Not learned 230. Which statement is true concerning two-stage air ejector assemblies?Not learned 231. In the condensate system, the automatic recirculating valve can be actuated by the __________.Not learned 232. Serious tube leaks in the air ejector aftercondenser assembly may cause __________.Not learned 233. While vacuum is being raised on the main unit and the turbine is being warmed, condensate is recirculated to the main condenser to __________.Not learned 234. If the condensate level in the loop seal of the air ejector intercondenser is lost, __________.Not learned 235. Under normal conditions, the rate of heat transfer in a feedwater heater is most greatly affected by the __________.Not learned 236. Which of the components listed prevents water from flowing back into the auxiliary exhaust line if the deaerating feed tank becomes flooded?Not learned 237. The DC heater functions to __________.Not learned 238. The DC heater automatic level dump valve is used to __________.Not learned 239. Cooling water to the vent condenser in a DC heater is supplied by the _______.Not learned 240. If the boiler water and condenser hot well levels are normal, but the DC heater level is only 30% of full, you should __________.Not learned 241. The purpose of the steam control valves installed in the auxiliary exhaust line is to __________.Not learned 242. When starting a turbine driven boiler feed pump, care should be taken to ensure that the recirculating valve is open. Which of the following valves should be closed when starting?Not learned 243. An excess pressure governor would normally be used on a __________.Not learned 244. The constant pressure governor of a turbine-driven feed pump maintains which of the following pressures at a constant value for all capacities?Not learned 245. Which system should be used when required to raise the water level in an idle boiler?Not learned 246. Under EMERGENCY operating conditions with the main feed valve malfunctioning, what should be the proper valve positions for controlling feedwater to the boiler?Not learned 247. The main feed check valve functions to __________.Not learned 248. Which of the listed order of valves represents the proper installation of the main feedwater supply line to a marine propulsion boiler?Not learned 249. The pressure in the feedwater system must exceed boiler steam drum pressure in order to __________.Not learned 250. To prevent pulsations from developing in the boiler feedwater lines, the discharge side of a reciprocating feed pump is equipped with a/an __________.Not learned 251. Makeup feedwater is brought into an operating closed feed system via the __________.Not learned 252. Which of the listed components would be considered the dividing line separating the condensate system from the feedwater system?Not learned 253. Excessive water loss from the main feed system can be caused by __________.Not learned 254. Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.Not learned 255. In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs. (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64Not learned 256. Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to __________.Not learned 257. The component, which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.Not learned 258. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _______.Not learned 259. Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the __________.Not learned 260. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by __________.Not learned 261. When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.Not learned 262. To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?Not learned 263. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity?Not learned 264. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally __________.Not learned 265. If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.Not learned 266. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.Not learned 267. The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate __________.Not learned 268. Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an __________.Not learned 269. The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is this temperature normally controlled?Not learned 270. How is solid trash and garbage generally admitted to a solid-waste incinerator on most ships?Not learned 271. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.Not learned 272. A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.Not learned 273. All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________.Not learned 274. All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________.Not learned 275. Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?Not learned 276. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is that the __________Not learned 277. What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?Not learned 278. The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when ______.Not learned 279. Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.Not learned 280. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 281. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?Not learned 282. An example of an antifriction bearing is a __________.Not learned 283. Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?Not learned 284. Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?Not learned 285. Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.Not learned 286. The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to __________.Not learned 287. When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.Not learned 288. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 289. As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.Not learned 290. A ball bearing will overheat if ______.Not learned 291. A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.Not learned 292. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.Not learned 293. What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?Not learned 294. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.Not learned 295. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.Not learned 296. Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?Not learned 297. What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?Not learned 298. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?Not learned 299. The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the __________.Not learned 300. What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?Not learned 301. If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, __________.Not learned 302. "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the __________.Not learned 303. When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________.Not learned 304. Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________.Not learned 305. Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as __________.Not learned 306. Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel?Not learned 307. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be _________.Not learned 308. To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should __________.Not learned 309. During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should __________.Not learned 310. After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and _________.Not learned 311. Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold temperatures?Not learned 312. The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the __________.Not learned 313. During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the __________.Not learned 314. During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?Not learned 315. The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.Not learned 316. How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?Not learned 317. The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to _________.Not learned 318. When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be _________.Not learned 319. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________.Not learned 320. Which of the conditions listed should be immediately reported to the engineering officer on watch?Not learned 321. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 322. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, with a three-person watch rotation, what is the watch and rest period rotation?Not learned 323. In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm response would be the most immediately critical?Not learned 324. You are making a round of the engine room and approaching the motor driven cargo pumps and discover a person laying at the foot of the ladder. What action should be taken?Not learned 325. By which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one body to another?Not learned 326. Which of the following statements is correct concerning heat transfer?Not learned 327. Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding machine?Not learned 328. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?Not learned 329. Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object?Not learned 330. What is the best protection against hand injuries from pinch points associated with being required to perform maintenance or repairs on rotating machinery?Not learned 331. Steel-toed safety shoes are recommended for many types of work. What type of work activity would be an exception to the rule and where steel-toed shoes would NOT be recommended?Not learned 332. What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use?Not learned 333. When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned 334. Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?Not learned 335. Under what conditions is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 336. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 337. A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire?Not learned 338. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 339. Fires are grouped into what categories?Not learned 340. Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class "B" fire?Not learned 341. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 342. A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________.Not learned 343. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________.Not learned 344. A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class __________.Not learned 345. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.Not learned 346. A fire can be extinguished by removing __________.Not learned 347. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 348. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.Not learned 349. The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is _________.Not learned 350. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________.Not learned 351. Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced by __________.Not learned 352. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as "light water", is especially suitable for fighting __________.Not learned 353. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?Not learned 354. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?Not learned 355. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.Not learned 356. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 357. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 358. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?Not learned 359. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.Not learned 360. Which of the following extinguishing effects for dry chemical extinguishing agents is considered the most prevalent?Not learned 361. To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________.Not learned 362. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire?Not learned 363. "Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire?Not learned 364. The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is _________.Not learned 365. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.Not learned 366. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________.Not learned 367. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 368. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 369. A fire is considered "under control" when __________.Not learned 370. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 371. While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single "wye" gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________.Not learned 372. Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be directed __________.Not learned 373. If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers?Not learned 374. When re-entering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should initially __________.Not learned 375. When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you should always __________.Not learned 376. Which of the listed methods, is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?Not learned 377. Class C fires may be combated using a __________.Not learned 378. Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 379. A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________.Not learned 380. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.Not learned 381. To properly maintain fire hoses, you should __________.Not learned 382. When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and _______.Not learned 383. A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the handle position is changed from __________.Not learned 384. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.Not learned 385. There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure?Not learned 386. Which of the following components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system?Not learned 387. The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over pressurization is called a __________.Not learned 388. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.Not learned 389. When fighting a machinery space fire, you should operate a fixed CO₂ system by opening the control valve to the space protected and __________.Not learned 390. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 391. When a ship's low-pressure CO₂ fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO₂ that will be released into the selected compartment?Not learned 392. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet?Not learned 393. Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________.Not learned 394. What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?Not learned 395. (1.7.4.1.1-2) Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life?Not learned 396. Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment to fight a fire?Not learned 397. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.Not learned 398. The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by __________.Not learned 399. Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type self- contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?Not learned 400. Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in __________.Not learned 401. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?Not learned 402. What term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazards?Not learned 403. Which health hazard term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact?Not learned 404. Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?Not learned 405. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.Not learned 406. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.Not learned 407. As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________.Not learned 408. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.Not learned 409. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.Not learned 410. When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space __________.Not learned 411. Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________.Not learned 412. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 413. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?Not learned 414. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.Not learned 415. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?Not learned 416. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.Not learned 417. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a _____.Not learned 418. You are about to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If you're not wearing a self- contained breathing apparatus, you should test the compartment's atmosphere to determine if there is/are __________.Not learned 419. Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________.Not learned 420. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?Not learned 421. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.Not learned 422. If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be _______.Not learned 423. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is __________.Not learned 424. What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken?Not learned 425. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.Not learned 426. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 427. Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark?Not learned 428. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.Not learned 429. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.Not learned 430. While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?Not learned 431. Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 432. When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________.Not learned 433. The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of __________.Not learned 434. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?Not learned 435. Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea?Not learned 436. The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________.Not learned 437. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.Not learned 438. What will be the FIRST thing to occur if both the main and standby lube oil pumps failed to operate on a geared main propulsion steam turbine operating at full sea speed?Not learned 439. Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________.Not learned 440. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.Not learned 441. While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing. Your FIRST response should be to __________.Not learned 442. You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do?Not learned 443. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 444. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.Not learned 445. In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.Not learned 446. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 447. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 448. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 449. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 450. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 451. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.Not learned 452. When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 453. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.Not learned 454. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 455. Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?Not learned 456. If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should ________.Not learned 457. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.Not learned 458. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 459. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 460. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 461. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 462. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.Not learned 463. What does the air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft provide protection against?Not learned 464. When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.Not learned 465. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 466. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.Not learned 467. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________.Not learned 468. An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.Not learned 469. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.Not learned 470. To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________.Not learned 471. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 472. With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from __________.Not learned 473. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?Not learned 474. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.Not learned 475. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 476. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 477. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoringNot learned 478. Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to __________.Not learned 479. After an emergency shoring installation has been completed, the __________.Not learned 480. In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the waterline, not over three inches in diameter, can be temporarily sealed by __________.Not learned 481. It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________.Not learned 482. The lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may be prevented by __________.Not learned 483. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.Not learned 484. The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.Not learned 485. Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.Not learned 486. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 487. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?Not learned 488. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 489. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 490. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?Not learned 491. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in shock?Not learned 492. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?Not learned 493. If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient in shock should be placed in which of the positions listed?Not learned 494. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?Not learned 495. What can be caused by severe airway burns?Not learned 496. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.Not learned 497. If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with __________.Not learned 498. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 499. If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and _______.Not learned 500. Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock?Not learned 501. What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?Not learned 502. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?Not learned 503. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 504. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?Not learned 505. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?Not learned 506. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.Not learned 507. Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?Not learned 508. Antiseptics are used principally to __________.Not learned 509. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 510. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 511. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 512. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 513. What should you do before CPR is started?Not learned 514. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 515. Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of __________.Not learned 516. If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is __________.Not learned 517. When administering mouth to mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?Not learned 518. Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require any physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?Not learned 519. In which of the listed components is chemical energy converted to thermal energy with regards to boiler operation?Not learned 520. Which of the following is the purpose of the steam drum in a D-Type marine boiler?Not learned 521. In a single furnace boiler, where is the steam typically cooled for use as auxiliary steam?Not learned 522. After a boiler has been taken off the line and is cooling, the air cock is opened to __________.Not learned 523. After which of the following is the air cock to be closed when raising steam on a cold boiler?Not learned 524. To properly clean a burner tip, you should use __________.Not learned 525. To properly remove the burner tip nut from the burner barrel, the barrel should be __________.Not learned 526. Carbon deposits on the diffuser and register throat ring of a burner __________.Not learned 527. Which of the valves listed should be closed before lighting off a boiler?Not learned 528. The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.Not learned 529. Which combustible element in fuel oil is considered a significant and major source of air pollution?Not learned 530. When heated, fuel oil will __________.Not learned 531. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to determine the highest temperature to which the oil may be heated __________.Not learned 532. Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?Not learned 533. When you are transferring fuel oil to the settling tanks, precautions to be observed should include __________.Not learned 534. Fuel oil settling tanks are used to __________.Not learned 535. Why are two fuel oil heaters "E" provided in the fuel oil system shown in the illustrationNot learned 536. Which of the conditions listed would indicate a dirty fuel oil strainer?Not learned 537. If you noted a large difference in the pressures indicated by a duplex pressure gage to the fuel oil system strainer, you should __________.Not learned 538. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST when the boiler fires begin to sputter due to water in the fuel oil?Not learned 539. Which of the actions listed should be carried out immediately after securing the fires in one boiler of a two- boiler ship?Not learned 540. Which of the following statements about boilers is correct?Not learned 541. When a boiler has been secured and is being initially cooled, the water level showing in the steam drum gauge glass should be __________.Not learned 542. What is the danger if a boiler is brought on the line with its steam pressure much higher than that of the boiler already on the line?Not learned 543. When raising steam on an idle boiler and the steam pressure has risen to about 5 pounds more than the pressure of the boiler already on the line, you can __________.Not learned 544. Which of the following precautions should be taken prior to lighting off a boiler?Not learned 545. If the water level in a steaming boiler is dropping rapidly and cannot be kept at the normal level by standard practices, you should __________.Not learned 546. If an oil fire occurs in the double casing of a steaming boiler, you should __________.Not learned 547. Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?Not learned 548. The maximum temperature rise of oil passing through any reduction gear set, or bearing, should not exceed __________.Not learned 549. The best indication that a bearing is being properly lubricated is by the __________.Not learned 550. An overheated bearing in the main propulsion unit is indicated by __________.Not learned 551. Babbitt is a metal alloy commonly used for lining __________.Not learned 552. As found in a reduction gear drive system, thrust bearings serve to __________.Not learned 553. After the steam leaves the low-pressure turbine, it enters the _________.Not learned 554. In a cross-compounded turbine propulsion plant, steam enters the __________.Not learned 555. Steam supplied to the main propulsion turbines is ________.Not learned 556. Concerning the classification of steam turbines, a cross compound designed unit __________.Not learned 557. Most auxiliary turbine feed pumps do not require an external source of gland sealing steam because they __________.Not learned 558. The safety device provided on a turbo generator which closes the throttle automatically when the cooling water to the condenser is insufficient is called a/an __________.Not learned 559. A back pressure trip on a ship's service turbo-generator functions to trip the turbine under what circumstance?Not learned 560. An efficient seal is normally obtained between the upper and lower halves of a turbine casing by __________.Not learned 561. Which of the devices listed is found on an LP main propulsion steam turbine casing?Not learned 562. Which of the listed conditions aids in directing gland leakoff steam from the low-pressure propulsion turbine to pass through the gland exhaust condenser?Not learned 563. Gland sealing steam is used during steam turbine operation to prevent the loss of __________.Not learned 564. What is the main turbine gland sealing steam system designed to do?Not learned 565. While a vessel is underway, one of the FIRST indications of the failure of the gland leak off exhaust fan motor is __________.Not learned 566. The jacking gear on main propulsion turbines can be used to __________.Not learned 567. Which of the following methods is used to lubricate main propulsion turbine reduction gears?Not learned 568. The purpose of the main reduction gears is to __________.Not learned 569. Which of the devices listed is commonly used to compensate for the expansion and minor misalignments occurring between the main turbine rotor and the reduction gear?Not learned 570. The overspeed tripping device installed on an auxiliary turbine is automatically actuated by __________.Not learned 571. A lube oil sample is taken from the main engine lube oil system and visually inspected. Which of the following would indicate water contamination?Not learned 572. Excessive water in an operating lube oil system can be detected by __________.Not learned 573. During high-speed operation of the main turbine propulsion unit, the heat absorbed by the lubricating oil is removed by the __________.Not learned 574. The lube oil coolers installed in a gravity lubricating oil system are located between the __________.Not learned 575. The gravity tank in a gravity lube oil system serves to __________.Not learned 576. In a pressure type main propulsion turbine lubrication system, the lube oil service pumps normally take suction from the main sump and discharge directly to the __________.Not learned 577. On a ship equipped with a gravity type lube oil system, which of the conditions listed will occur FIRST if the main lube oil pump discharge pressure is lost?Not learned 578. While a vessel is underway, which of the conditions listed would indicate a tube leak associated with the sea water-cooled lube oil cooler on service?Not learned 579. When a sudden increase in pressure occurs in a forced lubrication system, you should check for a __________.Not learned 580. Magnets are installed in the main propulsion turbine lube oil strainers to attract metal particles released through wearing of the __________.Not learned 581. The source of metal particles adhering to the magnets in a lube oil strainer is probably from the __________.Not learned 582. Lube oil is preheated before centrifuging in order to __________.Not learned 583. In a disk type centrifugal purifier, the bowl is mounted on the upper end of the __________.Not learned 584. The dirty oil inlet on centrifugal lube oil purifiers is located at the __________.Not learned 585. In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be __________.Not learned 586. A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?Not learned 587. When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water removed will __________.Not learned 588. A poorly cleaned lube oil purifier bowl may result in __________.Not learned 589. During the routine inspection of an operating centrifugal lube oil purifier, you notice oil discharging through the water discharge port. Which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 590. Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?Not learned 591. The astern guarding valve on main propulsion steam turbine units must be open when a vessel is __________.Not learned 592. The jacking gear must be engaged as quickly as possible when securing the main turbines in order to __________.Not learned 593. While making your rounds, you notice the main lube oil temperature to be higher than normal. To remedy this situation, you should __________.Not learned 594. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fireroom status by verifying the boiler steam drum level and _________.Not learned 595. In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is necessary for __________.Not learned 596. Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile; however, contamination can occur as fuels are __________.Not learned 597. The microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be transported from one location to another by __________.Not learned 598. Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to __________.Not learned 599. Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned at regular intervals in order to remove __________.Not learned 600. In what application is an emergency shutdown most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the pump itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 601. For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?Not learned 602. What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?Not learned 603. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?Not learned 604. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line?Not learned 605. A centrifugal oil purifier should be shut down if the __________.Not learned 606. Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?Not learned 607. Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?Not learned 608. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.Not learned 609. The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by _________.Not learned 610. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to ________.Not learned 611. Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on a boiler, are __________.Not learned 612. The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent what condition?Not learned 613. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?Not learned 614. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would be unable to let go of the energized electrical conductor due to involuntary muscular contraction?Not learned 615. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would experience respiratory paralysis and be unable to breathe while still in contact with the energized conductor?Not learned 616. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would suffer ventricular fibrillation and could only be resuscitated with a ventricular defibrillator?Not learned 617. Before electrical work can be safely undertaken, the equipment must be de-energized, locked and tagged out, and verification must be made that the circuit is actually dead. What testing device is most certain to reliably verify that a circuit is actually dead?Not learned 618. Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of electrical isolation?Not learned 619. Which of the following voltage testers would be associated with high quality, be safe to use, and minimize the electric shock hazard?Not learned 620. What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?Not learned 621. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both positive and negative pressures?Not learned 622. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying two pressures simultaneously?Not learned 623. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two?Not learned 624. Which of the following direct-reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump suction pressure gauge?Not learned 625. If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?Not learned 626. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of thermal volumetric expansion of a liquid as the temperature rises and features a linear scale?Not learned 627. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?Not learned 628. If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct this situation?Not learned 629. What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?Not learned 630. What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?Not learned 631. When determining the level of a potable water hydro pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?Not learned 632. Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station?Not learned 633. In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be which of the following?Not learned 634. Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________.Not learned 635. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 636. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.Not learned 637. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 638. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 639. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 640. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.Not learned 641. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 642. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?Not learned 643. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 644. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?Not learned 645. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.Not learned 646. If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can ________.Not learned 647. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. Which action should be taken?Not learned 648. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?Not learned 649. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water?Not learned 650. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.Not learned 651. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?Not learned 652. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 653. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.Not learned 654. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.Not learned 655. After prior isolation and lock-out/tag-out procedures are performed, which electrical device requires discharging any stored electrical energy before any work may safely begin?Not learned 656. The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________Not learned 657. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.Not learned 658. The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as __________Not learned 659. When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize bimetallic corrosion?Not learned 660. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 661. What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station, where the valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?Not learned 662. In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 663. In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?Not learned 664. An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________Not learned 665. If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential order of treatment chambers within the plant?Not learned 666. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by__________.Not learned 667. To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?Not learned 668. The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________Not learned 669. Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustrationNot learned 670. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________Not learned 671. Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurementsNot learned 672. Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gageNot learned 673. The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is _______Not learned 674. If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessivelyincreased, the tool will __________Not learned 675. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________.Not learned 676. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?Not learned 677. In what remote temperature indicating system is a voltage generated by the magnitude of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions?Not learned 678. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils?Not learned 679. To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.Not learned 680. Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screwNot learned 681. Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screwNot learned 682. Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jawindependent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?Not learned 683. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?Not learned 684. Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 685. Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail) to prevent gauge damage?Not learned 686. Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device?Not learned 687. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 688. The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an __________Not learned 689. For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a Vernier scale making it possible to read in increments of __________.Not learned 690. When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?Not learned 691. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________Not learned 692. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable cause is the __________Not learned 693. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided by __________Not learned 694. In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by __________Not learned 695. Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure __________Not learned 696. Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing toolNot learned 697. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 698. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure INot learned 699. The illustrated valve is known as a __________Not learned 700. Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weldNot learned 701. Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dopeNot learned 702. In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.Illustration GS-0078Not learned 703. Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________Not learned 704. Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________Not learned 705. The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 706. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch producedis determined by the speed relationship between the __________.Not learned 707. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 708. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 709. Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the stem and is associated with an endless chain for operation?Not learned 710. The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devicesNot learned 711. (1.2.15-9) On US flag steam propulsion vessels, the main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to accomplish which of the following?Not learned 712. What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?Not learned 713. To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18-inch workpiece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over _________.Not learned 714. Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?Not learned 715. One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 716. What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating liquid tank level?Not learned 717. For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.Not learned 718. In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be openNot learned 719. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.Not learned 720. In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?Not learned 721. What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustrationNot learned 722. Prior to initial light off of an idle boiler, what must first be done to prevent boiler flareback?Not learned 723. To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________Not learned 724. To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________Not learned 725. The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if __________Not learned 726. The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________Not learned 727. When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct-reading pressure gauge, what should be done?Not learned 728. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is __________Not learned 729. What is the reading of the Vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustrationNot learned 730. Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unitNot learned 731. Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a handwheel for local operation if the motor fails. If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?Not learned 732. Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quartersor flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?Not learned 733. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of smallparts?Not learned 734. Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridgesresembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?Not learned 735. When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you shouldclose the __________.Not learned 736. Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is thenegative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.Not learned 737. The shaft sleeve for the pump shown in the illustration is identified by which item numberNot learned 738. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?Not learned 739. Spring reinforced oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the seal facing __________Not learned 740. What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-waterseparator?Not learned 741. What statement is true concerning portable power tools?Not learned 742. What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate threaded fasteners?Not learned 743. The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the __________.Not learned 744. If a thermometer reads 80°C, what is the equivalent temperature in °F?Not learned 745. If a thermometer reads 850 °F, what is the equivalent temperature in °C?Not learned 746. What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne impact hazards?Not learned 747. What type of pump is shown in the illustrationNot learned 748. What type of valve is shown in the illustrationNot learned 749. When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cuttingshould be __________.Not learned 750. Which of the valves listed for the device shown in the illustration will be open while the unit is operating in the backflush modeNot learned 751. A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by __________.Not learned 752. On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of machinery and the manning of the engine room?Not learned 753. A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles toeach other, and is called a __________.Not learned 754. The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V" indicates __________Not learned 755. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "I", is the __________Not learned 756. Which factor determines the size of the ring dam for a fuel oil centrifugal purifier?Not learned 757. A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________.Not learned 758. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 759. In addition to moving the victim to a shaded area, placing the victim in a prone position and loosening any tight clothing, what treatment should be administered?Not learned 760. What is the alarm signal for a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant ship?Not learned 761. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________.Not learned 762. In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________.Not learned 763. What is the characteristic of the blood flow associated with arterial bleeding?Not learned 764. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systemsNot learned 765. When conversing over a sound-powered telephone circuit, the words "yes" and "no" should be avoided. What are appropriate substitutes?Not learned 766. A crude oil wash (COW) system is considered as __________.Not learned 767. The equipment shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 768. Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?Not learned 769. In the event of a grounding, which tanks should be sounded to determine any evidence of holing?Not learned 770. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by__________Not learned 771. The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit shown in the illustration is produced by __________Not learned 772. Following a grounding, what action should be performed prior to the use of the main engines?Not learned 773. Following a grounding, what would happen to the level of a slack double bottom tank if the tank was holed?Not learned 774. In which of the following heat related illnesses has the body lost its ability to regulate the body core temperature?Not learned 775. In which of the following heat related illnesses has the individual lost the ability to lose heat through the mechanism of sweating?Not learned 776. In which of the following heat related illnesses is the individual most at risk for losing consciousness?Not learned 777. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?Not learned 778. Which of the following shoring materials is a long bar or beam used to distribute the pressure of a shore?Not learned 779. Which of the following shoring materials is a portable beam designed to support a damaged structure?Not learned 780. Which of the following shoring materials is a short flat block that is placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure?Not learned 781. Which of the following shoring materials is used to tightly make up the difference in length of a shore cut slightly shorter than the measured distance for required length and must be frequently checked for tightness?Not learned 782. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?Not learned 783. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.Not learned 784. If you hear a CO2 activated alarm warning you to evacuate the engine room, how much time do you have to evacuate before the CO2 gas is released into the engine room?Not learned 785. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____Not learned 786. If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________Not learned 787. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?Not learned 788. What is meant by the phrase "partial flooding with boundaries intact"?Not learned 789. What is meant by the term "counter-flooding"?Not learned 790. What method of controlling severe bleeding is preferred and normally attempted first?Not learned 791. One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________.Not learned 792. To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would _________Not learned 793. In order for a compartment to completely fill up due to flooding, what condition must exist?Not learned 794. Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred method of rewarming?Not learned 795. Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred temperature of rewarming when using the wet rapid rewarming method?Not learned 796. The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by the high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to __________.Not learned 797. You are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure?Not learned 798. What is the purpose of depressing the button on the handle of a sound-powered telephone handset?Not learned 799. The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________.Not learned 800. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.Not learned 801. The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by __________.Not learned 802. What strategy for avoiding heat exhaustion is most likely to result in more severe pain as associated with heat cramps?Not learned 803. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?Not learned 804. What type of wound is generally associated with a scraping away of the skin and may be very painful?Not learned 805. What type of wound is most susceptible to a tetanus (lockjaw) infection?Not learned 806. An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________.Not learned 807. Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat?Not learned 808. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?Not learned 809. Water applied as a "fog" can be more effective than water applied as a "solid stream", because __________.Not learned 810. If you wish to initiate a station-to-station call over a sound-powered telephone circuit, what is the correct procedure?Not learned 811. While working in a hot engine room, what is your best protection against heat exhaustion?Not learned 812. While working in a hot engine room, what is the cause of heat exhaustion?Not learned 813. According to the illustrated auxiliary steam and HP bleed steam system diagram, what are the characteristics of the steam supplied to the main feed pump drive turbinesNot learned 814. According to the illustrated auxiliary steam and HP bleed system diagram, what steam loads are supplied by the same steam pressure reducing stationNot learned 815. According to the illustrated cross-compounded main propulsion turbine set, where are the astern elements locatedNot learned 816. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the correct sequential order of heat exchangers that the main condensate pump pumps condensate throughNot learned 817. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the normal source of heat for the boiler air heaters when the vessel is underway under full powerNot learned 818. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the normal source of heat for the first stage feed heater and the distilling plants when the vessel is underway under full powerNot learned 819. According to the illustrated diagram, what statement is true concerning the operation of the main condenser hotwell level control deviceNot learned 820. According to the illustrated diagram, what statement is true concerning the operation of the "make-up valve"Not learned 821. According to the illustrated lubricating oil system diagram, which of the labeled items would be used to manually strip out the sludge from the bottom of the main lube oil sump prior to entry for cleaningNot learned 822. According to the illustrated lubricating oil system diagram, which of the labeled items would be used to verify that the gravity lube oil tank is full and overflowingNot learned 823. According to the illustrated steam and HP bleed system diagram, which steam pressure reducing station has the lowest set pointNot learned 824. According to the illustration, what actuates the bellows "I" in the gland seal regulatorNot learned 825. In addition to sensing steam drum water level, what additional sensing input does a two-element feedwater regulator control system utilize?Not learned 826. The adjustable spherically seated self-aligning bearing housings used in turbines are provided with oil deflector rings. The function of these rings is to __________.Not learned 827. How is an auxiliary turbine boiler feed pump normally stopped?Not learned 828. When blowing tubes, what is the determining factor in deciding how many revolutions of rotation of a sootblower element are required?Not learned 829. When blowing tubes on an integral superheat boiler fitted with an economizer, the operating sequence to be followed is recommended by the manufacturer. What section of the boiler is generally blown first and last?Not learned 830. Under what circumstances would a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear most likely be used?Not learned 831. When cleaning boiler fuel oil atomizer parts, what type of cleaning tool should NEVER be used?Not learned 832. In a coil-type forced circulation water-tube boiler, __________.Not learned 833. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "IV", is the ________Not learned 834. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________Not learned 835. Which of the following conditions is indicated by oil flowing through a lube oil gravity tank overflow sight glass?Not learned 836. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated air register and burner assembly represents the means by which the flame may be visually checked for color and conditionNot learned 837. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated air register and burner assembly represents the mechanism for operating the register air doorsNot learned 838. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated air register and burner assembly represents the poke hole cover and would be temporarily removed to poke through a clinkerNot learned 839. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated section of boiler refractory represents the insulating blockNot learned 840. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of the level or drain regulator associated with the feed water heater shown in the illustration is correctNot learned 841. Which of the following statements about gravity type lube oil systems is correct?Not learned 842. Where do fuel oil vapors tend to accumulate in an engine room?Not learned 843. Fuel piping should be regularly inspected for leaks. What leak location would be particularly troublesome in terms of presenting a fire hazard?Not learned 844. For the gland seal regulator shown in the illustration, an increase in gland seal pressure will result in ________Not learned 845. In a gravity type lube oil service system, if no lube oil appears in the sight glass of the return drop line while underway, this is a positive indication that __________.Not learned 846. In the illustrated exploded view of a pivoted shoe thrust bearing, identify the base ringNot learned 847. The intermediate pressure bleed steam system, shown in the illustration, is used to supply steam at approximately __________Not learned 848. The item shown in the illustration is commonly identified as a _________Not learned 849. Which of the labeled items attached to the top of the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which saturated steam is delivered to the superheaterNot learned 850. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum helps prevent surging of water within the drum as a vessel pitchesNot learned 851. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the last line of defense in helping to prevent moisture carryover into the saturated steam leaving the steam drumNot learned 852. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which feed water is introduced into the steam drumNot learned 853. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which floating impurities are removed from the steam drumNot learned 854. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which water treatment chemicals are introduced into the steam drumNot learned 855. Which line in the illustration shown provides live steam to the gland seal regulatorNot learned 856. On a main propulsion turbine set of a merchant ship, where is the astern staging generally located?Not learned 857. What method of burner light-off presents the greatest danger to boiler flareback?Not learned 858. What is the name of the device pictured in the illustrationNot learned 859. What is the name of the nozzle which is associated with the steam drum and is shown in the illustrationNot learned 860. Why is it necessary to have a relief valve protect the deaerating feed tank from internal pressure?Not learned 861. What is the normal destination of steam exiting a main feed pump drive turbine?Not learned 862. During normal operation of a main propulsion turbine, the lube oil supply temperature to the bearings should be maintained at approximately __________.Not learned 863. When operating with the auxiliary feed line, feed water flow is controlled __________.Not learned 864. In what part of a main boiler fuel oil service system is it permissible to raise the temperature of the fuel above the flash point?Not learned 865. When performing a bottom blow on a boiler, what valve is spun open quickly?Not learned 866. When performing a periodic gauge glass blow down to insure that the glass is free and operating correctly, what action is performed first?Not learned 867. When placing a cleaned and properly made up atomizer in the spare atomizer rack, how should the atomizer be stored?Not learned 868. The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy, is known as its __________.Not learned 869. What is the purpose of the items labeled "moving blades" located on the illustrated steam turbineNot learned 870. What is the purpose of the item labeled "nozzle" located on the illustrated steam turbineNot learned 871. As shown on the illustrated boiler steam drum gauge glass, what do items "D" and "M" representNot learned 872. As shown on the illustrated huddling chamber type safety valve drawing, what item is associated with setting the blow down adjustmentNot learned 873. As shown on the illustrated soot blower diagram, what item is responsible for opening and closing the steam admission poppet valve at the appropriate times during element rotationNot learned 874. As shown on the illustrated sootblower diagram, how is the sootblower element rotatedNot learned 875. What size drill is used to drill the orifice of the sprayer plate of the illustrated atomizerNot learned 876. A slight vacuum is maintained in the shell of the first stage heater shown in the illustration. The primary reason for the vacuum is to __________Not learned 877. What is the source of heat for a third stage feed heater (if fitted) while a vessel is underway under full load?Not learned 878. What statement concerning the operation of a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear is true?Not learned 879. What statement is true concerning the illustrated boiler saddle, support and footNot learned 880. What statement is true concerning the illustrated steam turbine bearing lubricating oil flow and temperature indicating deviceNot learned 881. Which statement is true concerning the operation of item 12 on the illustrated air register and burner assemblyNot learned 882. What statement is true concerning a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear?Not learned 883. In terms of the completeness of combustion, in viewing the condition of the stack, what would be the indication of the MOST complete combustion and HIGHEST boiler efficiency?Not learned 884. In terms of the completeness of combustion, in viewing the flame through the peephole, what would be the indication of the MOST complete combustion?Not learned 885. In terms of the diluting effect of excessive excess air, when viewing the flame through a peephole, what would be the indication of the greatest diluting effect with far too much excess air?Not learned 886. When transferring fuel from a fuel storage tank to a fuel oil settling tank, what is the best protection against an oil spill?Not learned 887. What type of bearing is shown in the illustrationNot learned 888. What type of thrust is the bearing shown in the illustrated steam turbine shaft bearing designed to absorbNot learned 889. The unit shown in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 890. The upper section of the feedwater heater indicated by "G" in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 891. When used for the purpose of controlling the temperature of main steam, what is the source of water and steam for the illustrated deviceNot learned 892. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 893. What should you do in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim?Not learned 894. "Arc eye" can be the result of gazing into an electric arc produced by an electric arc welder where the eyes are inadequately protected. What is the characteristic of the onset of symptoms such as pain, watering of the eyes, and gritty sensation like sand in the eyes?Not learned 895. According to the illustrated steam tables, what would be the superheater outlet temperature if saturated steam at 400 psia was elevated 192Not learned 896. According to the temperature/enthalpy diagram for water at atmospheric pressure, if the substance is undergoing a heat loss, what heat transfer process is represented by the region associated with "4"Not learned 897. Besides extreme exertion in a hot environment such as an engine room, what causes heat cramps which is pain and spasms associated with the abdomen, leg, and arm muscles?Not learned 898. By what criteria are hard hats (protective helmets) rated?Not learned 899. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?Not learned 900. If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, what does this indicate?Not learned 901. If you hear the general alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle, what does this indicate?Not learned 902. In the diagram illustrated, the direction of flow through item 3 is __________Not learned 903. The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the _____Not learned 904. The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 905. The illustrated valve, figure "A", needs to be repaired due to a leak across the valve disk. To disassemble the valve you should __________Not learned 906. The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 907. To operate a portable foam fire extinguisher, you should __________.Not learned 908. To prevent blowback when attempting to light off an idle boiler, what statement is true?Not learned 909. What communications system would be operational despite a loss of ship's electrical power?Not learned 910. What is meant by the phrase "solid flooding"?Not learned 911. What is the alarm signal for manning boat stations or boat drills onboard a merchant ship?Not learned 912. What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated rising stem gate valve?Not learned 913. What is the whistle signal for stop lowering boats?Not learned 914. Which of the following maintenance procedures would require a tag-out/lock-out to be performed?Not learned 915. Which of the tanks, shown in the illustration, supplies fuel to the emergency generatorNot learned 916. While fires are lit in a boiler, in terms of uptake dampers and air register doors, what conditions must be met?Not learned 917. With regard to the relative flow patterns through the tubes and the shell of single pass shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true?Not learned 918. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action is for the space to be __________.Not learned 919. If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room, you should ________.Not learned 920. The valve depicted in the illustration shown is a __________Not learned 921. There are three pieces of information that should be included in delivering a message via a sound-powered telephone. Which of the following represents the proper sequence of information delivery?Not learned 922. What is the primary function of the device illustratedNot learned 923. What statement is true regarding the reading of a liquid filled manometer?Not learned 924. What type of wound is generally associated with no bleeding and is very susceptible to infection?Not learned 925. Which of the listed devices would be installed in the air compressor discharge line between the compressor and receiver of a control air system?Not learned 926. If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gauge indicating zero psig and the water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________Not learned 927. In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal burns it is important to prevent or reduce __________.Not learned 928. What is a quick and effective way of determining whether or not a boiler water gauge glass is operating properly?Not learned 929. According to the illustrated lubricating oil system diagram, which of the labeled items is the lube oil storage tankNot learned 930. As shown in the illustrated D type single furnace boiler, what does item "E" representNot learned 931. As shown in the illustrated D type single furnace boiler, what does item "F" representNot learned 932. If a steam propulsion plant is provided with two main propulsion boilers, two fuel oil service heaters, two fuel oil service pumps, and two fuel oil settling tanks, what is the capacity of each fuel oil service heater?Not learned 933. In terms of the completeness of combustion, in performing a stack gas analysis on an operating boiler, what would be the indication of the LEAST complete combustion?Not learned 934. In the system illustrated, what type of valves are downstream of point "A"Not learned 935. The purpose of a "peep" hole in the boiler casing is to _________.Not learned 936. What is the source of heat for a second stage feed heater (deaerating feed tank) while a vessel is underway under full load?Not learned 937. Which of the following automatically actuates the overspeed tripping device installed on an auxiliary turbine?Not learned 938. Which of the following types of bearings are used as line shaft bearings?Not learned 939. While underway on a steamship, the main condenser is operating under a 28.09 "Hg vacuum gauge. According to the illustrated properties of saturated steam table, how much condensate depression would there be if the condensate temperature leaving the main condenser hot well is 96Not learned 940. As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause ______.Not learned 941. In which of the following heat related illnesses is it appropriate to reduce the individual's core temperature by immersion in a tub of cold water or repeatedly sponging with cold water?Not learned 942. Assuming that the turbine in question is a condensing turbine, what system connections are represented by areas labeled "E" and "F" on the illustrated turbine glandNot learned 943. How is lube oil pressure provided to a turbogenerator when starting the unit in an automated plant?Not learned 944. In addition to sensing steam drum water level and boiler steam flow, what additional sensing input does a three-element feedwater regulator control system utilize?Not learned 945. What system is represented by the simplified illustrationNot learned 946. As shown in the illustrated D type single furnace boiler, what does item "H" representNot learned 947. Which of the following methods is preferred by regulatory agencies, to reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark when taking bunkers?Not learned 948. Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 949. According to the temperature/enthalpy diagram for water at atmospheric pressure, if the substance is undergoing a heat gain, what heat transfer process is represented by the region associated with "4"Not learned 950. When installing CAUTION tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned