Q801 - Junior Engineer, Part II, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?Not learned 2. Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?Not learned 3. Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.Not learned 4. The designation 'schedule 80' refers to __________.Not learned 5. Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints or __________.Not learned 6. When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.Not learned 7. Which of the following measurements would be an example of total flow?Not learned 8. Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length for pipe nipples?Not learned 9. Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called "pipe _____________".Not learned 10. A pipe coupling is a fitting having __________.Not learned 11. Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.Not learned 12. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 13. Tubing is sized by __________.Not learned 14. Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?Not learned 15. Copper coil tubing is best cut with a _________.Not learned 16. The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a __________.Not learned 17. Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed __________.Not learned 18. After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should ______.Not learned 19. Some heavy-duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _________.Not learned 20. An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.Not learned 21. Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?Not learned 22. Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross-sectional tip?Not learned 23. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil wire or tightly coiled steel?Not learned 24. Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.Not learned 25. Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?Not learned 26. Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.Not learned 27. Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?Not learned 28. Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become __________.Not learned 29. A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of __________.Not learned 30. Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangular-shaped holes and slots?Not learned 31. The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.Not learned 32. Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called __________.Not learned 33. It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is __________.Not learned 34. When using a chisel, you should __________.Not learned 35. The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the _________.Not learned 36. A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.Not learned 37. The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you _________.Not learned 38. What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed head?Not learned 39. Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?Not learned 40. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.Not learned 41. A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the ________.Not learned 42. For the power hacksaw shown in the illustration, how should the teeth point for the blade being installedNot learned 43. To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.Not learned 44. Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the __________.Not learned 45. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more accurately if you __________.Not learned 46. When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.Not learned 47. A hacksaw blade will break if __________.Not learned 48. The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.Not learned 49. If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will __________.Not learned 50. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for __________.Not learned 51. If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.Not learned 52. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?Not learned 53. The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.Not learned 54. When internal threading for bolts, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.Not learned 55. Taps and dies used for threading pipe, under U.S. standards, are __________.Not learned 56. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.Not learned 57. A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly __________.Not learned 58. A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.Not learned 59. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, "pitch" is the __________.Not learned 60. The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.Not learned 61. Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?Not learned 62. The open-end wrench size for a standard 3/4 inch American National hex head bolt is __________.Not learned 63. A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.Not learned 64. A metal scribe commonly found on a combination square measuring tool should only be used to __________.Not learned 65. A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file __________.Not learned 66. Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.Not learned 67. Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of it slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt?Not learned 68. Open end wrenches are __________.Not learned 69. In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.Not learned 70. A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.Not learned 71. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.Not learned 72. Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?Not learned 73. An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.Not learned 74. Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.Not learned 75. To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________.Not learned 76. A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding the contact surfaces together of a valve, is called __________.Not learned 77. Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?Not learned 78. The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _________.Not learned 79. To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.Not learned 80. The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.Not learned 81. A dial indicator is used to measure __________.Not learned 82. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.Not learned 83. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you should use a __________.Not learned 84. A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.Not learned 85. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.Not learned 86. Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to __________.Not learned 87. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________Not learned 88. A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to __________.Not learned 89. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure __________.Not learned 90. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.Not learned 91. Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?Not learned 92. The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as __________Not learned 93. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________.Not learned 94. A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.Not learned 95. For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a __________.Not learned 96. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a __________.Not learned 97. A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.Not learned 98. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the __________.Not learned 99. The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the __________.Not learned 100. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?Not learned 101. If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should __________.Not learned 102. Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the __________.Not learned 103. To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.Not learned 104. Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.Not learned 105. The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.Not learned 106. Tinning a soldering iron will __________.Not learned 107. Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.Not learned 108. Solder is an alloy of __________.Not learned 109. You should never watch the arc generated during electric arc welder with the naked eye because __________.Not learned 110. When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.Not learned 111. Which of the factors listed governs the intensity of heat required for any given welding job?Not learned 112. With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________.Not learned 113. When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, __________.Not learned 114. In an oxy-acetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and two pressure gages. One pressure gage indicates cylinder pressure and the other gage is used to indicate __________.Not learned 115. Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxy-acetylene regulators and torches?Not learned 116. Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxy-acetylene torch?Not learned 117. The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is __________.Not learned 118. The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a _______.Not learned 119. To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.Not learned 120. When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts be tightened?Not learned 121. If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 122. Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 123. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.Not learned 124. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________.Not learned 125. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?Not learned 126. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by __________.Not learned 127. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?Not learned 128. Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?Not learned 129. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.Not learned 130. The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring __________.Not learned 131. The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.Not learned 132. What is the primary purpose of a reach rod as used as a valve remote operator?Not learned 133. Suppose a remote valve operator is fitted with a gearbox. What is the purpose of the gearbox?Not learned 134. What could be the cause of water hammer in a steam heating system?Not learned 135. Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?Not learned 136. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.Not learned 137. A pump is defined as a device that __________.Not learned 138. The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.Not learned 139. The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to __________.Not learned 140. Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by __________.Not learned 141. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?Not learned 142. Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required?Not learned 143. Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.Not learned 144. One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a __________.Not learned 145. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that __________.Not learned 146. Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low pressures?Not learned 147. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?Not learned 148. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.Not learned 149. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.Not learned 150. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?Not learned 151. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 152. To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?Not learned 153. A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?Not learned 154. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.Not learned 155. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to ________.Not learned 156. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.Not learned 157. Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 158. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?Not learned 159. The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.Not learned 160. Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?Not learned 161. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by __________.Not learned 162. When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be _________.Not learned 163. When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?Not learned 164. Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?Not learned 165. The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to __________.Not learned 166. To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should __________.Not learned 167. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by_______.Not learned 168. Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?Not learned 169. A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by __________.Not learned 170. Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the __________.Not learned 171. When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be ______.Not learned 172. Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?Not learned 173. Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by __________.Not learned 174. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.Not learned 175. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump __________.Not learned 176. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.Not learned 177. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?Not learned 178. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?Not learned 179. An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.Not learned 180. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the __________.Not learned 181. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________.Not learned 182. Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?Not learned 183. The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.Not learned 184. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.Not learned 185. If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?Not learned 186. If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?Not learned 187. What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?Not learned 188. If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end waterboxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?Not learned 189. With regard to the number of passes through the tubes of shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true?Not learned 190. What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?Not learned 191. What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density approaching that of water?Not learned 192. What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?Not learned 193. By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?Not learned 194. Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?Not learned 195. Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.Not learned 196. In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs. (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64Not learned 197. Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to __________.Not learned 198. The component, which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.Not learned 199. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _______.Not learned 200. Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the __________.Not learned 201. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by __________.Not learned 202. When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.Not learned 203. To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?Not learned 204. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity?Not learned 205. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally __________.Not learned 206. If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.Not learned 207. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.Not learned 208. (1.2.5.1.2-12) A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during long periods of inactivity should be carried out to __________.Not learned 209. The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate __________.Not learned 210. Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an __________.Not learned 211. The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is this temperature normally controlled?Not learned 212. How is solid trash and garbage generally admitted to a solid-waste incinerator on most ships?Not learned 213. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.Not learned 214. A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.Not learned 215. All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________.Not learned 216. All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________.Not learned 217. Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before being operated because __________.Not learned 218. Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?Not learned 219. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is that the __________Not learned 220. What damage may occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes deteriorated?Not learned 221. When the control handle is in the "off" position, what is the status of the solenoid actuated brake of an electric winch?Not learned 222. In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the movement of an electric powered cargo winch will be stopped by what means?Not learned 223. What is the function of the electric brake on a deck cargo winch?Not learned 224. As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery motor controllers, what should be done?Not learned 225. If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of time, what should be done?Not learned 226. Which of the following conditions will occur if the brake solenoid coil burns out on a cargo winch with an electrical brake?Not learned 227. What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?Not learned 228. The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when ______.Not learned 229. Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.Not learned 230. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 231. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?Not learned 232. An example of an antifriction bearing is a __________.Not learned 233. Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?Not learned 234. Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?Not learned 235. Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.Not learned 236. The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to __________.Not learned 237. When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.Not learned 238. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 239. A ball bearing will overheat if ______.Not learned 240. A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.Not learned 241. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.Not learned 242. What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?Not learned 243. For more complete vessel protection when using an impressed current cathodic system, what other features are built into the system?Not learned 244. Impressed current cathodic hull protection systems are commonly used on modern vessels. What are these systems designed to replace or reduce?Not learned 245. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.Not learned 246. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.Not learned 247. Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?Not learned 248. What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?Not learned 249. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?Not learned 250. What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?Not learned 251. If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, __________.Not learned 252. "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the __________.Not learned 253. When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________.Not learned 254. Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________.Not learned 255. Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as __________.Not learned 256. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be _________.Not learned 257. To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should __________.Not learned 258. During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should __________.Not learned 259. The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the __________.Not learned 260. During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the __________.Not learned 261. During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?Not learned 262. The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.Not learned 263. How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?Not learned 264. The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to _________.Not learned 265. When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be _________.Not learned 266. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________.Not learned 267. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 268. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, with a three-person watch rotation, what is the watch and rest period rotation?Not learned 269. In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm response would be the most immediately critical?Not learned 270. You are making a round of the engine room and approaching the motor driven cargo pumps and discover a person laying at the foot of the ladder. What action should be taken?Not learned 271. Regarding heat transfer principles, which of the following is true?Not learned 272. Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system should be in which of the following conditions?Not learned 273. What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air-conditioned cargo space?Not learned 274. A reheater in an air conditioning system performs what function?Not learned 275. In an air conditioning system, what is the name of the chamber where the duct-work originates?Not learned 276. In a two-stage centrifugal air conditioning system such as the one illustrated, the liquid refrigerant passes from the condenser directly to what componentNot learned 277. In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by what means?Not learned 278. Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for shipboard steam heating systems?Not learned 279. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature range of the water?Not learned 280. At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure, what is the status of R-134a?Not learned 281. Traditionally, which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor?Not learned 282. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?Not learned 283. Which of the fluids listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant?Not learned 284. The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by what means?Not learned 285. Some chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a toxic irritating gas under what conditions?Not learned 286. In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants decompose and form what chemical substance?Not learned 287. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of an R-22 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment with a halide torch?Not learned 288. To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from an R-22 refrigeration system in an enclosed area, how should this be done?Not learned 289. What is the physical state and pressure condition of refrigerant as it leaves a receiver in a typical refrigeration system?Not learned 290. R-134a is often the replacement for which older type of refrigerant?Not learned 291. The "tare weight" of a refrigerant storage cylinder refers to what weight?Not learned 292. Which of the following substances is normally classified as a low-pressure refrigerant?Not learned 293. If there is a "large" release of R-134a refrigerant gas in a confined area, which of the following statements would be true?Not learned 294. Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a confined space or in limited surroundings cause suffocation?Not learned 295. Under the definitions under the EPA Clean Air Act rules, how can refrigerant recovery equipment that is considered as being system-dependent best be described?Not learned 296. The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a protective shield that helps to protect the environment from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation is called what?Not learned 297. Which of the following refrigerants is chlorine free and safe regarding atmospheric ozone depletion?Not learned 298. A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?Not learned 299. To prevent motor overload during start-up of a centrifugal refrigeration system, what is true concerning the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes?Not learned 300. The carbon seal ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft mechanical seal is held in position against the stationary ring face by using what device?Not learned 301. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?Not learned 302. In a refrigeration plant, what is one vital purpose of the receiver?Not learned 303. The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what essential function?Not learned 304. Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of produce in chill boxes. Which of the following will minimize this dehydration?Not learned 305. In a dry-type direct expansion refrigeration evaporator, what is true concerning the evaporator coils?Not learned 306. If an abnormally large difference is maintained between the evaporator refrigerant temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated compartment, what will be the result?Not learned 307. During the initial cooling down of a box temperature in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction for the purpose of prevention of overloading of the compressor driver?Not learned 308. For most multi-box refrigeration systems, the refrigerant sight glass would be located where in the system?Not learned 309. The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration system is to prevent dirt and scale from entering what system component(s)?Not learned 310. On a modern refrigerated container unit employing suction modulation for the purposes of capacity control and capacity limitation, what happens when the applied voltage and current draw associated with the normally open (NO) suction modulation valve located in the suction line both increase?Not learned 311. An arrow stamped on the valve body of a water regulating valve indicates which of the following?Not learned 312. When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor discharge line, it discharges high-pressure refrigerant vapor to what location?Not learned 313. In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system is usually charged with what substance?Not learned 314. Rather than design an infinite variety of thermostatic expansion valve sizes to accommodate different capacities for heat removal, some manufacturers use a few standard valve body sizes in conjunction with what other feature?Not learned 315. Besides the evaporator pressure, the thermal expansion valve reacts directly to changes in what parameter?Not learned 316. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with an 8 psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a replaceable power element are both desiredNot learned 317. What is one function of the thermal expansion valve used in a refrigeration system?Not learned 318. In a refrigeration system, the pressure within the power element of a thermostatic expansion valve depends directly upon what factor?Not learned 319. In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located where?Not learned 320. When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, what name of the charge is associated with the power element?Not learned 321. In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of refrigerant to each refrigerated space evaporator is accomplished by what device?Not learned 322. In a refrigeration system, what component is installed directly downstream of the thermal expansion valve?Not learned 323. A thermal expansion valve installed in a refrigeration system is controlled by the action of what device?Not learned 324. When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve power element, what is true concerning the thermal bulb?Not learned 325. If the evaporator coil horizontal return line of a container refrigeration system is less than 0.875" (2.21 cm) in diameter (considered small), the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb should be attached where on the return line?Not learned 326. Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 327. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the system has a single evaporator?Not learned 328. If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?Not learned 329. A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 330. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at 1/2 tons, what would be the result if the replacement valve cage was oversized at 5 tonsNot learned 331. Why are dehydrators usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems?Not learned 332. Which of the devices listed will indicate whether or not a refrigeration system's dehydrator continues to be capable of removing moisture from the circulating refrigerant?Not learned 333. In a refrigeration system, silica gel is found in what component?Not learned 334. Standard filter/driers used in many commercial type refrigeration units may contain what type of substance?Not learned 335. Moisture is removed from recovered refrigerant using a recycling machine by what means?Not learned 336. If the combination moisture indicator and sight glass indicates an accumulation of moisture within the system, which of the listed procedures would be the most practical to follow?Not learned 337. What is the most important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 338. The lubrication oil in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor that is shut down is heated. For what purpose is this done?Not learned 339. Unless the system is designed for such operation, two compressors should not be operated in parallel in a refrigeration system for what reason?Not learned 340. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 341. The color and/or condition of the oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refrigeration compressor experiencing bearing wear or piston scoring would be which of the following?Not learned 342. A "hygroscopic" lubricant used in refrigeration compressors would have what characteristic?Not learned 343. What is the purpose of the low pressure cut-out switch as used as a primary controller for a refrigeration system or unit?Not learned 344. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart if the system features a pump-down cycle?Not learned 345. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?Not learned 346. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when only one of the evporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what valueNot learned 347. A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system, is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?Not learned 348. A box solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed in what manner?Not learned 349. In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line prior to what device?Not learned 350. The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator senses what temperature?Not learned 351. How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve?Not learned 352. What is the purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short intermittent spurts or throttling the suction isolation valve when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown?Not learned 353. When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, under what conditions would the most accurate reading be obtained?Not learned 354. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a perishable chilled cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what should be the operational status of the unit if the actual box temperature is 6Not learned 355. In addition to the drive belt itself, a V-belt that is tensioned too tight will cause excessive wear to what other drive component?Not learned 356. Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause what condition?Not learned 357. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid-line solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, what would this cause?Not learned 358. To add small amounts of non-blended refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the refrigerant should be introduced through a particular valve and in a particular state. What valve and state combination is correct?Not learned 359. If a condenser coil of an air-cooled container refrigeration system becomes dirty and requires cleaning, what would be an acceptable method of cleaning?Not learned 360. When opening or closing compressor service and line isolation valves on a typical refrigeration system that is fitted with packed valves, what must you do?Not learned 361. What is true concerning frost build-up on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion refrigeration system?Not learned 362. Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any part of a refrigeration system for the purpose of accomplishing non-major repairs?Not learned 363. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?Not learned 364. Before charging a refrigeration unit, unless quick disconnect fittings are used, the refrigerant charging hoses should be prepared in what way?Not learned 365. In a refrigeration system, once the gage manifold hoses are attached to the compressor service valve connections and properly purged, what should be the status of the manifold valves and the service valves when the purpose for attachment is to read system pressures?Not learned 366. When purging a refrigeration gauge manifold using system pressure as the source of refrigerant for purging, which of the fittings listed is normally tightened LAST?Not learned 367. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?Not learned 368. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent what from happening?Not learned 369. In a low pressure refrigeration system, excessive running of the purge recovery unit generally indicates which probable condition?Not learned 370. In a low-pressure centrifugal chiller, what is meant by the term "high efficiency purge unit"?Not learned 371. Excessive moisture being collected in the purge unit of a low-pressure refrigeration system could indicate which probable condition?Not learned 372. During normal operation, traditionally, how is most of the refrigerant released to the atmosphere from low-pressure systems?Not learned 373. Release of refrigerant to the atmosphere during the process of purging of air and non-condensable gases can be kept to a permissible minimum by what action?Not learned 374. Concerning the charging of refrigerant into a vapor compression refrigerating system, which of the following is true?Not learned 375. When a refrigeration system is being topped off with a small amount of refrigerant through the low side with the compressor running, what should be done?Not learned 376. Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?Not learned 377. Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through the system?Not learned 378. Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of the high-pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the result of what?Not learned 379. What must be done, at a minimum, before a system can legally be opened up for repairs while adhering to the prohibition against the venting of halogenated fluorocarbon refrigerants to the atmosphere?Not learned 380. Minor repairs may be performed on low-pressure refrigerant systems without recovering the refrigerant charge if the pressure in the system is raised to atmospheric. How may this be accomplished?Not learned 381. What is the correct color-coding of refrigerant recovery cylinders regardless of the refrigerant contained within?Not learned 382. In reclaiming recovered refrigerant, which type of contamination will the reclamation process be unable to separate?Not learned 383. In a refrigeration system, the push-pull technique can be used for the recovery of the refrigerant in what state?Not learned 384. When removing the primary refrigerant from a system using water as a secondary refrigerant, it is important to follow which procedure(s) to safeguard the equipment?Not learned 385. What differentiates "system-dependent" and "self-contained" recovery devices in refrigeration systems?Not learned 386. If passive recovery is used on a small appliance fitted with a capillary tube as a metering device with a non-operating compressor, the recovery should be made through what means?Not learned 387. Technicians servicing small refrigeration appliances can employ what type of recovery equipment?Not learned 388. What is the color coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant?Not learned 389. What is the color of the flame produced by a halide torch when there is no halogenated refrigerant present at the location of the exploring tube?Not learned 390. What is a quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for the presence of a refrigerant leak without actually pinpointing the actual location?Not learned 391. If you find a refrigerant leak while using a halide torch, what will happen to the flame as the exploring tube approaches the leak?Not learned 392. What must be done to use standard leak detection methods on a low-pressure refrigeration system charged with refrigerant?Not learned 393. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, what would be the normal range of expected discharge pressures if the ambient air temperature is 90°FNot learned 394. One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can be which of the following?Not learned 395. An increasing head pressure in a refrigeration system, without any corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temperature, would probably be caused by which of the following?Not learned 396. An excessive charge of refrigerant in a thermostatically controlled, air-cooled, refrigeration system using a TXV as an expansion device can cause which of the following?Not learned 397. A refrigeration system is equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit. If the system is overcharged, the resulting high head pressure will be caused by what condition?Not learned 398. If increasing the cooling water flow to a refrigeration condenser fails to lower the condenser pressure, the probable cause may be due to what condition?Not learned 399. Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of what condition?Not learned 400. A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined and gas bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. What does this mean?Not learned 401. If the running suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor of a TXV controlled air-cooled refrigeration system is below normal, which of the following can be a cause?Not learned 402. A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. Where is it generally located in the system?Not learned 403. When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, what should be done to compensate for or to correct this situation?Not learned 404. Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by which of the following?Not learned 405. Unusual noise coming from a refrigeration compressor can be caused by which of the following conditions?Not learned 406. If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is exhibiting an unusual degree of sweating or frosting and is operating noisily, what should be done?Not learned 407. When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST thing that should be checked for is what?Not learned 408. If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low side for repairs, but otherwise the compressor sounds normal, this is a possible indication of what condition?Not learned 409. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating or frosting and is operating with an unusual noise, what is most likely the cause?Not learned 410. Excessive, prolonged oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor can result in what condition?Not learned 411. If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, besides an elevated box temperature, what would be an observable symptom?Not learned 412. During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running continuously, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature is slightly above normal without ever reaching the desired minimum temperature. Suction and discharge pressures are normal for the corresponding box temperature. In this situation, what should you suspect?Not learned 413. An evaporator coil of a single evaporator, air-cooled refrigerator is accumulating excessive frost due to a failure of the defrost mechanism. If the refrigerator features a thermostatically controlled box solenoid and a low-pressure cut-out controlled compressor, as well as a high-pressure cut-out, in terms of the compressor, what would be the most likely operating symptom?Not learned 414. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?Not learned 415. Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause which of the following conditons?Not learned 416. Which of the following conditions would indicate that the liquid line strainer in a refrigeration system has become excessively restricted and requires cleaning or replacement?Not learned 417. Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding machine?Not learned 418. Which of the following statements represents the FIRST precaution to be taken prior to working on any installed electrical component?Not learned 419. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?Not learned 420. Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object?Not learned 421. Steel-toed safety shoes are recommended for many types of work. What type of work activity would be an exception to the rule and where steel-toed shoes would NOT be recommended?Not learned 422. What type of eye protection affords the best protection from dust and airborne abrasives?Not learned 423. What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use?Not learned 424. When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned 425. Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?Not learned 426. Under what conditions is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 427. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 428. A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire?Not learned 429. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 430. Fires are grouped into what categories?Not learned 431. Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class "B" fire?Not learned 432. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 433. A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________.Not learned 434. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________.Not learned 435. A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class __________.Not learned 436. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.Not learned 437. A fire can be extinguished by removing __________.Not learned 438. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 439. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.Not learned 440. The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is _________.Not learned 441. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________.Not learned 442. Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced by __________.Not learned 443. Which of the listed firefighting agents produces a buoyant blanket to separate the burning vapors from air?Not learned 444. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as "light water", is especially suitable for fighting __________.Not learned 445. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?Not learned 446. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?Not learned 447. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.Not learned 448. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 449. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 450. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?Not learned 451. Which of the following extinguishing effects for dry chemical extinguishing agents is considered the most prevalent?Not learned 452. To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________.Not learned 453. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire?Not learned 454. "Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire?Not learned 455. The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is _________.Not learned 456. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.Not learned 457. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________.Not learned 458. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 459. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 460. A fire is considered "under control" when __________.Not learned 461. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 462. While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single "wye" gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________.Not learned 463. Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be directed __________.Not learned 464. You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the engine room with a 15 pound CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should you now be preparing to handle?Not learned 465. If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers?Not learned 466. When re-entering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should initially __________.Not learned 467. When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you should always __________.Not learned 468. Which of the listed methods, is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?Not learned 469. Class C fires may be combated using a __________.Not learned 470. Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 471. A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________.Not learned 472. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.Not learned 473. To properly maintain fire hoses, you should __________.Not learned 474. What will happen if a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off?Not learned 475. When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and _______.Not learned 476. A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the handle position is changed from __________.Not learned 477. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.Not learned 478. There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure?Not learned 479. Which of the following components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system?Not learned 480. The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over pressurization is called a __________.Not learned 481. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.Not learned 482. When fighting a machinery space fire, you should operate a fixed CO₂ system by opening the control valve to the space protected and __________.Not learned 483. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 484. When a ship's low-pressure CO₂ fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO₂ that will be released into the selected compartment?Not learned 485. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet?Not learned 486. What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?Not learned 487. (1.7.4.1.1-2) Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life?Not learned 488. Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment to fight a fire?Not learned 489. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.Not learned 490. The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by __________.Not learned 491. Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in __________.Not learned 492. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?Not learned 493. What term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazards?Not learned 494. Which health hazard term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact?Not learned 495. Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?Not learned 496. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.Not learned 497. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.Not learned 498. As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________.Not learned 499. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.Not learned 500. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.Not learned 501. When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space __________.Not learned 502. Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________.Not learned 503. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 504. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?Not learned 505. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.Not learned 506. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?Not learned 507. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.Not learned 508. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a _____.Not learned 509. Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________.Not learned 510. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?Not learned 511. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.Not learned 512. If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be _______.Not learned 513. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is __________.Not learned 514. What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken?Not learned 515. Which of the following devices allows the user to remain in an oxygen deficient space for the longest period of time without interruption?Not learned 516. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.Not learned 517. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 518. Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark?Not learned 519. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.Not learned 520. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.Not learned 521. While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?Not learned 522. Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 523. When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________.Not learned 524. The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of __________.Not learned 525. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?Not learned 526. The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________.Not learned 527. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.Not learned 528. Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________.Not learned 529. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.Not learned 530. While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing. Your FIRST response should be to __________.Not learned 531. You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do?Not learned 532. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 533. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.Not learned 534. In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.Not learned 535. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 536. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 537. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 538. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 539. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 540. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.Not learned 541. When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 542. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.Not learned 543. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 544. Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?Not learned 545. If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should ________.Not learned 546. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.Not learned 547. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 548. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 549. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 550. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 551. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.Not learned 552. What does the air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft provide protection against?Not learned 553. When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.Not learned 554. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 555. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.Not learned 556. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________.Not learned 557. An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.Not learned 558. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.Not learned 559. To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________.Not learned 560. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 561. With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from __________.Not learned 562. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?Not learned 563. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.Not learned 564. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 565. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 566. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoringNot learned 567. Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to __________.Not learned 568. In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the waterline, not over three inches in diameter, can be temporarily sealed by __________.Not learned 569. It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________.Not learned 570. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.Not learned 571. The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.Not learned 572. Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.Not learned 573. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 574. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?Not learned 575. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 576. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 577. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?Not learned 578. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in shock?Not learned 579. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?Not learned 580. If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient in shock should be placed in which of the positions listed?Not learned 581. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?Not learned 582. What can be caused by severe airway burns?Not learned 583. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.Not learned 584. If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with __________.Not learned 585. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 586. Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock?Not learned 587. What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?Not learned 588. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?Not learned 589. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 590. When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary surveys, what should you be familiar with?Not learned 591. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?Not learned 592. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?Not learned 593. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.Not learned 594. Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?Not learned 595. Antiseptics are used principally to __________.Not learned 596. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 597. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 598. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 599. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 600. What should you do before CPR is started?Not learned 601. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 602. Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of __________.Not learned 603. If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is __________.Not learned 604. When administering mouth to mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?Not learned 605. The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.Not learned 606. When heated, fuel oil will __________.Not learned 607. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to determine the highest temperature to which the oil may be heated __________.Not learned 608. Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?Not learned 609. Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?Not learned 610. In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be __________.Not learned 611. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a lube oil purifier is correct?Not learned 612. A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?Not learned 613. When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water removed will __________.Not learned 614. Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?Not learned 615. In what application is an emergency shutdown most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the pump itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 616. For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?Not learned 617. What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?Not learned 618. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?Not learned 619. Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?Not learned 620. Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?Not learned 621. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.Not learned 622. The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by _________.Not learned 623. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to ________.Not learned 624. Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on a boiler, are __________.Not learned 625. The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.Not learned 626. The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent what condition?Not learned 627. In terms of units, how is the inductance of a coil measured?Not learned 628. Electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor. How is the rate of this flow measured?Not learned 629. What is the unit of measure for electrical resistance?Not learned 630. When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed has the highest permeability?Not learned 631. What is the correct name for current that flows in only one direction?Not learned 632. What is the name of the force that causes free electrons to flow in a conductor producing electric current?Not learned 633. What is the opposition to alternating current flow through a coil due to inductance called?Not learned 634. What is the combined effect of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and resistance in an alternating current circuit known as?Not learned 635. The term "volt" describes:Not learned 636. In a 60 Hz AC system, what is the duration in seconds for one complete cycle?Not learned 637. As a DC armature revolves within a stationary magnetic field, the reversals of magnetization of the armature core lags the current reversals which produces heat. What is the correct name for this action which is minimized by the use of soft silicon steel?Not learned 638. With respect to motors, how is ambient temperature defined?Not learned 639. The multiplier prefix "giga" (G) such as used in "gigabytes" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 640. The number of cycles per second occurring in AC voltage is known as what characteristic?Not learned 641. In a three-phase circuit, how far apart are the phase voltages?Not learned 642. AC circuits can possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and capacitance. In terms of units of measure, how is the capacitive reactance of the circuit expressed?Not learned 643. Alternating current circuits may develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. What is the unit of measure for expressing capacitance?Not learned 644. Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or controller, what should be done?Not learned 645. In order to safely carry out repairs to a generator circuit breaker, it must be isolated from the bus. How is this accomplished?Not learned 646. (1.1.10.2.2-2) When replacing fuses, what practice should be observed?Not learned 647. When working on a high voltage circuit, you should always have another person present with you. This person should have a good working knowledge of the hazards associated with working on high voltage electrical circuits as well as the first aid techniques for treating electrical shock. What other knowledge is essential?Not learned 648. When working on electrical circuits containing large capacitors, in addition to de-energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions should also be taken?Not learned 649. When maintenance personnel are working on electrical equipment, all supply switches should be secured in the open position and tagged. Who specifically should perform the lock-out/tag-out procedure?Not learned 650. Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de-energized circuit, or even one that is completely disconnected, you should do what FIRST?Not learned 651. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?Not learned 652. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would be unable to let go of the energized electrical conductor due to involuntary muscular contraction?Not learned 653. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would experience respiratory paralysis and be unable to breathe while still in contact with the energized conductor?Not learned 654. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would suffer ventricular fibrillation and could only be resuscitated with a ventricular defibrillator?Not learned 655. Contact with any energized electrical system conductor is potentially hazardous and precautions should be taken to prevent exposure. With all other factors considered equal (such as voltage, conducting path through the body and the duration of contact), contact with an energized electrical system conductor of which system type would produce the most damaging effect?Not learned 656. Before electrical work can be safely undertaken, the equipment must be de-energized, locked and tagged out, and verification must be made that the circuit is actually dead. What testing device is most certain to reliably verify that a circuit is actually dead?Not learned 657. Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of electrical isolation?Not learned 658. Which of the following voltage testers would be associated with high quality, be safe to use, and minimize the electric shock hazard?Not learned 659. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core is known as what?Not learned 660. What will happen to an electrical coil when the direct current flowing through the coil is increasing?Not learned 661. What is the correct name for the device used in an electrical circuit to change alternating current to direct current?Not learned 662. What will happen to a carbon resistor operating in electrical equipment that is NOT properly cooled?Not learned 663. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to the failure of a resistor due to overheating?Not learned 664. How does the resistance of a conductor vary?Not learned 665. The resistance of most conducting materials will change as a result of temperature change. What will happen to the resistance of copper wire when the temperature increases?Not learned 666. The existing resistance of a conductor is dependent upon its length, cross-sectional area, and what other factors?Not learned 667. How is electrical conductor insulation classed? Example: insulation class HNot learned 668. Why is copper often used as an electrical conductor?Not learned 669. What is the reason that some electric cables are formed of stranded wire?Not learned 670. Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining the wire gauge size of the cable to be used in a particular circuit?Not learned 671. To minimize magnetic field interaction between electrical conductors in physical proximity, what is the best practice?Not learned 672. What happens to the power loss when the current flow in a power transmission line is halved?Not learned 673. Hysteresis is one cause of electrical power loss associated with electricity generation equipment. What phenomenon results in hysteresis?Not learned 674. How are the line losses in a distribution circuit kept to a minimum?Not learned 675. In a simple DC circuit, the resistance is held constant while the applied voltage is halved. What will be the effect on the current flow as compared to the original current?Not learned 676. What is true concerning all of the connecting conductors of a DC series circuit?Not learned 677. What happens to the current in a series circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance increases?Not learned 678. (1.1.2.2-2) Consider a series circuit employing two resistors. What is true about the resistance value of the second resistor compared to the first when the voltage drop across the first resistor is one-half the source voltage?Not learned 679. Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same across each component in a parallel circuit?Not learned 680. Which of the following statements concerning a circuit with parallel connected resistors is correct?Not learned 681. Which of the following statements is true concerning circuits with parallel connected resistances?Not learned 682. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the applied voltage is 12 VDC, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, and R2 is 10 ohms what is the current flowing through R2 with the switch closedNot learned 683. What is the total effective resistance of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit if the resistance of R is 3 1 ohms, R is 4 ohms, and R is 5 ohmsNot learned 684. A battery is connected to a circuit containing three resistors in parallel. The values of the three resistors are 2 ohms, 3 ohms, and 6 ohms. What is the voltage of the battery if the total circuit current is 12 amps?Not learned 685. Which statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a parallel circuit?Not learned 686. Which of the formulas listed is correct for determining power?Not learned 687. How is the power dissipated as heat in a direct current circuit calculated?Not learned 688. How many watts of power is equal to one horsepower?Not learned 689. If the voltage supplied to the lighting circuit is 110 volts, how much current is drawn by a 100 watt light bulb?Not learned 690. What is the wattage of a heating element drawing a current of 30 amperes, at 120 volts?Not learned 691. A 125 volt DC motor is rated at 10 kW. What is the current rating of the motor?Not learned 692. Two 100 watt light bulbs rated at 100 volts are connected in parallel across a 100 volt power supply. What will be the total power consumed by the two bulbs?Not learned 693. What is a useful instrument for checking 3-phase AC motor performance by measuring possible unbalanced currents?Not learned 694. An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement of which of the following instruments?Not learned 695. Which of the listed meters uses a shunt connected in series with the load, but parallel with the meter movement?Not learned 696. Why are external shunts sometimes used with ammeters?Not learned 697. What is an ammeter used to measure?Not learned 698. If a digital multimeter set up to measure AC volts reads slightly above 'zero' when its leads are disconnected, what is this a result of?Not learned 699. When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with a meter movement coil, what capability does this provide?Not learned 700. What is the instrument called a galvanometer used to measure?Not learned 701. Which of the following would best describe a standard electric meter movement that uses the principles of electromagnetism to measure current?Not learned 702. To limit the current flow through a DC voltmeter to as low a value as possible, what is the moving coil circuit provided with?Not learned 703. Whether analog or digital, what are most AC voltmeters calibrated to measure?Not learned 704. A digital multimeter is set up as an ohmmeter. What does a display reading of "OL" ohms as read across the ends of a wire conductor indicate?Not learned 705. Which of the listed statements is correct when using a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter?Not learned 706. In troubleshooting a circuit in a console, you find that a resistor may be faulty. Which of the precautions listed must be observed when using an analog or digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter to carry out this test?Not learned 707. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an analog multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what should you do?Not learned 708. What is an ohmmeter used to measure?Not learned 709. Which of the meters listed should only be used after a circuit has been electrically de-energized?Not learned 710. Circuit resistance is usually measured off-line (de-energized) with an ohmmeter. In the absence of an ohmmeter, however, resistance may be INDIRECTLY measured on-line (energized) using what meter (or meters)?Not learned 711. What practice could potentially damage a multimeter?Not learned 712. If the approximate voltage to be measured in an electric circuit is not known, what should be done?Not learned 713. Under what circumstance would a hand-held portable phase sequence indicator be used should the main switchboard mounted fixed phase sequence indicator be inoperative?Not learned 714. The clamp-on AC ammeter consists essentially of a split-core and a rectifier-type instrument connected to the secondary winding of a particular type of transformer. Which type is used?Not learned 715. In order to take a current reading with a "clamp-on" ammeter, what should be the status of the jaws of the instrument?Not learned 716. Which of the following precautions should be taken when troubleshooting various power circuits using a digital multimeter?Not learned 717. Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC power systems indicate which of the following values of the waveforms measured?Not learned 718. What is a wattmeter used to measure and indicate?Not learned 719. A switchboard ammeter indicates a reading slightly above 'zero' when the leads are disconnected. What is this caused by?Not learned 720. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, why should you use a high impedance multimeter?Not learned 721. How many cells are within in a 24 volt lead-acid battery?Not learned 722. The electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery is distilled water and what other substance?Not learned 723. In general, how are nickel-cadmium storage batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?Not learned 724. What is the approximate voltage per cell produced by the nickel-iron (Edison) battery?Not learned 725. What should be the primary consideration when choosing a battery for a particular application?Not learned 726. The individual 6-volt lead-acid batteries, when connected as shown in the illustration, as a battery bank would produce how many voltsNot learned 727. What is the proper way to mix the electrolyte for a lead-acid battery?Not learned 728. Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium batteries is true?Not learned 729. Which statement is true concerning the charging of a wet cell nickel-cadmium battery?Not learned 730. When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperatures, what is the best procedure to keep it from freezing?Not learned 731. What could cause a very slow, but continual loss of electrolyte level from the cells of a storage battery?Not learned 732. When charging, which of the following represents the recommended maximum allowable temperature for electrolyte in a lead-acid battery?Not learned 733. What will the charging of lead-acid storage batteries always result in?Not learned 734. When charging lead-acid batteries, why is the charging rate reduced as the battery nears its full charge capacity?Not learned 735. When charging a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery, what statement is true?Not learned 736. When a nickel-cadmium battery begins gassing while connected to the battery charging circuit, what should be done?Not learned 737. Why should battery rooms be well ventilated during the charging process?Not learned 738. Under normal conditions, storage batteries used for starting the emergency diesel generator are maintained in a charged state by which of the following methods?Not learned 739. When a hydrometer indicates specific gravity what is being compared?Not learned 740. What is the nominal open-circuit cell voltage of one lead-acid storage battery cell?Not learned 741. What should be done when correcting specific gravity readings of a lead-acid battery for existing temperature conditions?Not learned 742. What is the most reliable indication of the state of charge of a lead-acid battery?Not learned 743. What statement is true concerning the specific gravity of the electrolyte solution in a lead-acid battery?Not learned 744. What would you use to determine the state of charge of a sealed nickel-cadmium battery?Not learned 745. Which of the following statements concerning the specific gravity of a battery electrolyte is true?Not learned 746. Why should a breakable, mercury-filled thermometer NOT be used in a lead-acid battery to measure electrolyte temperature?Not learned 747. When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, what is the best method for detecting a weak or dead cell?Not learned 748. In terms of the battery electrolyte, when performing maintenance of alkaline batteries what should be done?Not learned 749. When troubleshooting an alkaline storage battery, what is the best way to locate a weak or dead cell?Not learned 750. In a shunt-wound DC generator, with what generator component are the shunt field windings connected in parallel with?Not learned 751. A variable shunt, connected across the series field coils of a DC compound wound generator, permits adjustment of the degree of compounding. What is this variable shunt called?Not learned 752. What is the primary purpose of the brushes of DC generators?Not learned 753. By what means is DC generator output voltage decreased?Not learned 754. Which of the terms listed best describes a compound-wound DC generator having a higher voltage at no load than at full load?Not learned 755. Brushes in a DC generator must be positioned in the neutral plane to avoid excessive sparking associated with the brushes. What device is used to prevent the shifting of the neutral plane due to armature reaction for varying generator loads.Not learned 756. How can the loss of residual magnetism in an alternator with a brushless excitation system be corrected?Not learned 757. One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC motor is by connecting the coil to a low voltage source, and testing for polarity. How is this done?Not learned 758. What is the function of the interpoles installed in DC motors?Not learned 759. In DC motor construction, where are the commutating windings wound?Not learned 760. In D.C. motor construction, with regard to the individual armature coils' ends, which statement is true?Not learned 761. Why are the armature cores of the D.C. motors constructed with laminated steel sheets?Not learned 762. In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field windings also passes through what component?Not learned 763. What type of DC motor is never connected to a belt driven load?Not learned 764. If an unloaded DC compound motor's shunt field were weakened by excessive rheostat resistance or by an open circuit, how would the motor respond?Not learned 765. As load is added to a DC shunt motor, how will the motor respond?Not learned 766. In a short-shunt cumulatively compound-wound DC motor, how is the shunt field connected?Not learned 767. The counter EMF of a DC motor is maximum when the __________.Not learned 768. In terms of voltage potential and current sources, how are shunt wound, series wound, and compound wound DC motors designed to operate?Not learned 769. What is an advantage of DC motors over AC motors?Not learned 770. Which of the listed conditions will occur if the polarity of the field poles and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor were both reversed?Not learned 771. What will happen if you reverse both the field and the armature connections of a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 772. The torque produced by a DC motor armature is the multiplication product of two factors, one being the density of the magnetic flux which is dependent upon the field current. What is the other multiplication factor?Not learned 773. What can insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor cause?Not learned 774. If a short circuit in the armature of a DC motor occurs what would be the result?Not learned 775. If a DC motor runs hot, what would most likely be the cause?Not learned 776. If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all other conditions being normal, what could be the possible cause?Not learned 777. Which of the following components are used to convert alternating current produced in the DC generator armature windings to direct current?Not learned 778. To effectively clean a commutator in good physical condition, what should be used?Not learned 779. How may propulsion DC motor brush pressures be calculated?Not learned 780. What can cause uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current generator?Not learned 781. In addition to improper brush pressure or seating, what can result in excessive sparking at the brushes of a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 782. What may cause brush sparking in a DC generator during commutation?Not learned 783. What is the item referred to as a pigtail on a DC motor brush rigging?Not learned 784. What is the function of the commutator associated with a DC motor?Not learned 785. What is the characteristic of the mica used in the commutators of DC machinery?Not learned 786. What is an important factor in minimizing D.C. motor commutator wear?Not learned 787. In general, what can cause D.C. propulsion motor brush sparking to be excessive?Not learned 788. What should be included in performing proper maintenance of a D.C. motor's commutator?Not learned 789. Which of the listed colors properly describes a DC motor commutator when correct commutation is taking place?Not learned 790. What would excessive sparking at the brushes of a running DC motor be an indication of?Not learned 791. What is the most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a D.C. motor?Not learned 792. What property does capacitance have in an AC circuit?Not learned 793. Which of the following statements concerning AC circuits is correct?Not learned 794. A three-phase alternator operates at 450 volts with a 0.8 power factor. If the ammeter indicates 250 amperes, what should be the kW meter reading?Not learned 795. Capacitors can be used in electric distribution systems to improve power factor. This is accomplished by seesawing energy between the capacitor and what device or devices?Not learned 796. A load is connected across the secondary of the step-up transformer shown in figure "B" of the illustration and the current drawn by the load is 10 amps. If the turns ratio is 1 to 10 and The input voltage is 110 VAC, what will be the current drawn by the primaryNot learned 797. What is the maximum allowable primary current of a 2 kVA step-down transformer with a four to one turns ratio if the primary is connected across a 440 volt line?Not learned 798. In figure "4" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three phase step down power transformer has a turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected to terminals 'A1-B1-C1', what voltage should develop across terminals 'A2-B2-C2'Not learned 799. When a low input voltage is delivered to a transformer which then produces a high output voltage, what is the proper name for the transformer type?Not learned 800. Which of the following statements is true concerning a step-down transformer in an operating AC power circuit?Not learned 801. What will happen to the primary winding when the load increases on the secondary windings of a transformer?Not learned 802. When a transformer is used to step down voltage, what statement is true?Not learned 803. What is the primary purpose associated with the use of transformers onboard ships with AC generators?Not learned 804. Which of the listed transformers uses a single winding to produce voltage transformation?Not learned 805. What is the basic operating principle of a transformer in terms of producing a voltage?Not learned 806. If the primary winding of a particular voltage transformer rated for a given AC input voltage is mistakenly connected to a comparable steady DC input voltage with similar source impedance, selfinductance and mutual inductance are not possible. As a result, what part of the transformer will result in current overload?Not learned 807. What is the purpose of a potential transformer in an electric circuit?Not learned 808. When replacing a defective transformer in a paralleled transformer configuration, which of the following actions must be carried out to ensure proper operation of the equipment it serves?Not learned 809. An AC generator produces 60 Hz at 1800 RPM. If the generator speed is increased to 1830 RPM, what will happen to the frequency in Hz?Not learned 810. In a conventional AC generator utilizing brushes, direct current from the exciter output is passed through the windings of the main field rotor by what means?Not learned 811. Compared to conventional alternators, brushless alternators are designed to operate without the use of what?Not learned 812. Of the listed factors that influence the magnitude of the voltage induced in the stator windings of an AC generator operating at a constant 60 Hz frequency, some are fixed due to the alternator design and one is variable due to alternator operating conditions. Which of the following listed factors is subject to be variable during generator operation?Not learned 813. Which of the following statements is true concerning all rotating-field three-phase alternators?Not learned 814. Why are space heaters provided on larger generators?Not learned 815. What is the most practical way to control the voltage output of an AC generator?Not learned 816. How is the frequency of an alternator at a given RPM determined?Not learned 817. How are the number of cycles per second developed by the alternator aboard your vessel determined?Not learned 818. How will the value of the output frequency change if the load is removed from a turbogenerator having a governor speed droop setting of 3%?Not learned 819. The governor control switch of an alternator is moved to the 'raise' position. What will be the effect of this action?Not learned 820. When securing an AC generator, what should be your FIRST action in accomplishing the procedural steps?Not learned 821. How is the power factor of an AC generator operating singularly determined?Not learned 822. Regarding an AC generator connected to the main electrical bus; as the electric load and power factor vary, a corresponding change is reflected in the generator armature reaction. How are these changes in armature reaction compensated for?Not learned 823. Why is motorization of an AC generator undesirable?Not learned 824. How are AC and DC generators similar?Not learned 825. What is the main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large AC generator?Not learned 826. A DC generator which is used to supply direct current in order to provide magnetizing current to an AC generator field is commonly known as what?Not learned 827. Which of the methods listed below is used to provide the rotational torque to cause an AC generator to turn?Not learned 828. How may chattering of the collector/slip ring brushes on a generator be remedied?Not learned 829. If a shipboard AC generator experiences a failure to produce a voltage, what may be the cause?Not learned 830. What may be the cause of an AC generator to fail to produce a voltage?Not learned 831. What will be the impact of reduced voltage applied to an AC induction motor during the starting period?Not learned 832. An alternator is being paralleled with one already on the line. At the INSTANT the incoming generator circuit breaker is closed, what will happen to the frequency of the incoming alternator?Not learned 833. What should be the frequency of the incoming machine when paralleling two AC generators immediately prior to closing its breaker?Not learned 834. What governor setting is directly related to the load sharing characteristics of two diesel alternators operating in parallel?Not learned 835. What device is used so that the kilowatt load sharing can be adjusted on paralleled generators?Not learned 836. If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel is decreased below normal and the other above normal, what will be the result on the alternator with the excitation decreased below normal?Not learned 837. Attempting to parallel an AC generator which is out of phase with the bus will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 838. After closing the circuit breaker to place two alternators with identical ratings in parallel, in terms of achieving a balance between the two alternators, what is the NEXT step?Not learned 839. If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel with another alternator, what will happen to the alternator that has experienced a loss of field excitation?Not learned 840. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving in the slow direction. What is the oncoming generator frequency relative to that of the bus frequency?Not learned 841. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0°. What would happen if you close the circuit breaker at this position?Not learned 842. You are paralleling two alternators. The synchronizing lamps grow dim and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0° position. What does this indicate?Not learned 843. An alternator switchboard has a synchroscope and synchronizing lamps. If the synchroscope is broken, which of the steps listed is the most essential before an alternator can be paralleled with the bus?Not learned 844. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of two alternators in parallel?Not learned 845. To remove an alternator operating in parallel with another unit from the main electrical bus, what must be done FIRST?Not learned 846. A main switchboard synchronizing panel is fitted with two synchronizing lamps and a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one synchronizing light is bright while the other remains dark, what does this indicate?Not learned 847. When paralleling two AC generators, the synchroscope selector switch and frequency meter switch should be set up to sense the frequency of which of the following?Not learned 848. When paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps, the flickering of all three lamps becomes progressively slower and slower. What does this mean?Not learned 849. What will happen when a loss of field excitation to an AC generator occurs while operating in parallel?Not learned 850. When two generators are on the line and are both connected across a shared load, how are they said to be operating?Not learned 851. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0°. What would this indicate?Not learned 852. What is the rotor speed of a six pole, 60 cycle, induction motor operating at full load with 3% slip?Not learned 853. What determines the direction of rotation of an AC induction motor?Not learned 854. In a basic AC induction motor, by what means is current induced in the rotor?Not learned 855. If an induction motor were to be operated at 90% rated voltage and at rated load, what would be the result?Not learned 856. In a three-phase, squirrel-cage type, induction motor, how is the primary rotating magnetic field established?Not learned 857. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operating characteristics of a basic squirrel-cage induction motor?Not learned 858. In a 15 HP induction-type motor with a squirrel-cage rotor, compared to the full load current at rated speed, how much starting current is required at standstill to produce successful starting torque?Not learned 859. What is the characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance inserted in series with the rotor winding at startup?Not learned 860. By periodically checking the stator-to-rotor air gap clearance in an induction motor with a feeler gauge, what is prevented?Not learned 861. If a three-phase induction motor is operated under a light load and it develops an open in one of its supply lines, what will be the result?Not learned 862. If a single-phase capacitor start induction motor fails to start, but instead hums without starting, what is most likely to be the problem?Not learned 863. Low horsepower, polyphase, induction motors can be started with full voltage by means of which kind of starter?Not learned 864. How is the reversal of an AC, three-phase, induction motor accomplished?Not learned 865. What is the purpose of the squirrel-cage windings included as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 866. Why is a damper winding designed as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 867. What causes the rotor of a synchronous motor to operate in synchronism with the rotating field?Not learned 868. What is the most common source of excitation for the rotor of a synchronous motor utilizing slip rings and brushes?Not learned 869. An increase in which of the listed conditions will increase the speed of a synchronous electric motor?Not learned 870. Of the following listed single-phase induction motors, which has the highest starting torque?Not learned 871. Which statement is true concerning a split-phase induction motor?Not learned 872. What is the main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase, single phase motor?Not learned 873. What type of rotor is most commonly used in the split-phase family of single-phase induction motors?Not learned 874. What is the main function in the use of a capacitor for starting a single phase motor?Not learned 875. If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to open once the motor is in operation, what will be the result?Not learned 876. A single-phase capacitor-start induction motor starts, comes up to about 75% rated speed, slows down to a lower speed, and accelerates again. Where is the problem most likely to be?Not learned 877. Universal motors will operate on AC or DC current. In what application is this type of motor generally?Not learned 878. One item listed on the name plate of a cargo pump motor is 'degrees centigrade rise.' What does the number stamped for this item represent?Not learned 879. With respect to electrical enclosure types, how may an electric motor be designed and constructed?Not learned 880. What operational information data appears on the name plates of shipboard AC motors?Not learned 881. As shown in figure "1" of the illustration, a correctly connected synchronous transmission causes the receiver to be in correspondence with the transmitter. If the receiver is out of correspondence, properly zeroed, but the torque direction is reversed as shown in figure "2", what figure shows the incorrect connections responsible for this conditionNot learned 882. If coil 'R1-R2 -R3' on the transmitter in figure "C" shown in the illustration is turned 30°C lockwise, how will the corresponding coils 'R1-R2-R3' on the receivers (indicators) respondNot learned 883. By what means is the burning of controller contacts due to arcing, when opening, prevented?Not learned 884. If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out when the coil voltage is removed from the relay, what is the probable cause?Not learned 885. The setpoint current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be increased by turning the dashpot in the "lower" direction. What effect will this action have?Not learned 886. How are fuses rated?Not learned 887. How would a circuit with a blown fuse be described?Not learned 888. For what purpose are time delayed or delayed action-type fuses used?Not learned 889. Which of the following precautions should be taken when a blown fuse, rated at 10 amperes, is replaced?Not learned 890. In a single element cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for lighting and general power applications?Not learned 891. In a dual element time-delay cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for motor applications?Not learned 892. When changing fuses, what safety precaution should be taken after ensuring that the circuit is dead?Not learned 893. In order to definitively determine whether or not fuse "3", shown in the illustration is blown using an on-line testing technique, across what points would you connect the voltmeter leadsNot learned 894. To test fuses in an energized circuit, what testing apparatus or meter should be used?Not learned 895. What would cause a fuse to blow?Not learned 896. When replacing a fuse with one of a ampere higher rating than the original, which of the following is true?Not learned 897. By what means does a molded-case circuit breaker provide protection against short circuits?Not learned 898. By what means is protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case circuit breakers provided?Not learned 899. How does a circuit breaker differ from a fuse?Not learned 900. How will a molded-case circuit breaker with a thermal trip unit react immediately after it has tripped, as a result of an overloaded motor circuit?Not learned 901. When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-position, what is the indication for the position of the circuit breaker?Not learned 902. What device can be used to check the calibration of a circuit breaker?Not learned 903. What should be done when performing maintenance of circuit breaker contacts?Not learned 904. What statement is true in reference to reading electrical motor controller elementary diagrams?Not learned 905. In general, what type of starter would be used to connect a three-phase induction motor to full line voltage at the instant of start-up?Not learned 906. Autotransformer starters, sometimes called starting compensators, are sometimes used with larger polyphase induction motors. What function do they perform?Not learned 907. A three-phase, induction-type motor experiences an open in one phase. Which of the listed automatic protective devices will prevent the motor from being damaged?Not learned 908. When a motor is started by the controller shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what circuit components are in the holding current flow path through the control circuit while the motor is in operationNot learned 909. What is the primary functional purpose of the KM3 contactor as shown in the illustrationNot learned 910. An across-the-line starter is typically used for which of the following applications?Not learned 911. What is the functional name of an electrical device which prevents simultaneous energization of loads thereby preventing damage or injury?Not learned 912. Why are motor controllers seldom troubled with grounds?Not learned 913. A motor controller contains three selector push buttons labeled 'start', 'jog', and 'stop'. What will happen to the motor when the 'jog' button is depressed?Not learned 914. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between an electromagnetic relay and an electromagnetic contactor as used in motor control and power circuits?Not learned 915. What functionality does a low-voltage protection circuit as used in electric motor starting equipment provide?Not learned 916. Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in voltage and automatically restart it when the voltage is restored to normal?Not learned 917. What is the name of the type of motor control circuit that will not permit automatic restarting after power is restored, following a power failure?Not learned 918. Moisture damage, as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch master switches, can be reduced by the use of what installed equipment?Not learned 919. Why are motor controllers seldom troubled by grounds?Not learned 920. How can a motor be protected from overheating due to sustained motor overload?Not learned 921. What is the function of the autotransformers used with autotransformer starters used on some large AC motors?Not learned 922. What statement is true concerning a ground in a 450 VAC electrical circuit outside the engine room?Not learned 923. Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded electrical distribution system?Not learned 924. If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal brilliance, whether the test button is depressed or released, what does this indicate?Not learned 925. In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are provided. One lamp goes dark and the others increase in brightness when the "ground test" button is pushed. What is indicated?Not learned 926. A three-phase electrical system is equipped with ground detecting lamps. If one of the lamps is dark, and remains dark when the test switch is operated, what does this indicate?Not learned 927. Multiple grounds have developed and were initially indicated by the ground-detecting system as one ground. What is the FIRST step in locating the grounds?Not learned 928. Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator?Not learned 929. If the pointer fails to return to zero when a hand-cranked megger is disconnected, what does this indicate?Not learned 930. In an ungrounded distribution system, as compared to a normal indication, what is the indication on a switchboard of a current carrying conductor making an accidental electrical contact with a wiring metal conduit?Not learned 931. The push button on the handset of a ship's sound-powered telephone must be depressed in order to do what?Not learned 932. Besides the fluorescent lamp itself and possibly a starter, which of the following components is included in a fluorescent lighting fixture?Not learned 933. Incandescent lamps are classified according to the shape of the bulb and the type of service, as well as the size and style of the base. How are incandescent lamps rated?Not learned 934. When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be replaced immediately. If not, what condition could the resultant flashing cause?Not learned 935. When a fluorescent lamp fails to light and both ends of the tube are severely darkened, what must usually be replaced?Not learned 936. As shown in the wiring diagram of the semi-automatic navigation lighting panel circuit, what would cause the buzzer to sound and for the indicator light to illuminate in the line section for a particular navigation running lightNot learned 937. With what device is the RPM of an AC generator indirectly measured on a switchboard when operating singly (no other generator connected to the bus)?Not learned 938. When would be the safest time to close the ship's main switchboard "shore power" circuit breaker?Not learned 939. What is a bus disconnect link used to isolate?Not learned 940. What is meant by a 'dead front' switchboard?Not learned 941. In comparison to a main switchboard for a DC electrical distribution system, a main switchboard for an AC electrical distribution system requires the use of which of the following devices, whereas a DC main switchboard does not?Not learned 942. By what means is an AC generator prevented from becoming motorized?Not learned 943. The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized unless what condition is met?Not learned 944. What is the name of the part of the shipboard electrical system used to control the distribution of power to the branch circuits?Not learned 945. Under voltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard circuit breakers for what reason?Not learned 946. Upon failure of the ships normal electrical power supply, by means of what device does the emergency generator supply power to the emergency switchboard, but not the main switchboard?Not learned 947. By what means is a diesel driven emergency generator prevented from being paralleled with the ship's service generators?Not learned 948. The 24 volt DC bus on the emergency switchboard is used to supply power to what system or equipment?Not learned 949. When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days, what should be ensured or manually accomplished?Not learned 950. Which of the following statements, concerning the cleaning maintenance of a brushless generator, is correct?Not learned 951. Which of the following materials is recommended for burnishing the slip rings of an alternator after grinding or turning?Not learned 952. In performing routine maintenance of a ship's service alternator, what should be included?Not learned 953. Rotor-to-stator air gap readings should be periodically taken for electrical generation equipment. What is the best tool to use to take these measurements?Not learned 954. With regard to the maintenance of electrical generating machines with insulated pedestal bearings, what practice should be avoided?Not learned 955. Which of the following statements represents the FIRST step in seating new brushes on slip rings?Not learned 956. When performing routine AC motor maintenance what should be included?Not learned 957. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cleaning of electrical contacts?Not learned 958. Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of silver-plated contacts?Not learned 959. Grease coatings on electrical contact surfaces increase contact resistance. How should grease accumulations be removed?Not learned 960. Which of the following represents the accepted method of cleaning dust and foreign particles from electrical equipment while limiting damage to electric components?Not learned 961. What should be included in the performance of routine maintenance of dry-type transformers?Not learned 962. What is the proper way to apply plastic electrical tape to an electric cable splice?Not learned 963. Which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire connections for electronic components on printed circuit boards?Not learned 964. Two contributors of electronic console failures are heat and vibration. To combat some of their effects, what should be included in performing preventive maintenance procedures?Not learned 965. What should be done with a capacitor that is obviously discolored due to excessive heat?Not learned 966. What can cause the pitting or welding of controller contacts?Not learned 967. If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become short circuited, what will happen to the coil?Not learned 968. If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up when the operating coil is energized, what could be one possible cause?Not learned 969. When troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the contacts are welded together. What is the most probable cause?Not learned 970. A loud buzzing noise coming from the contacts in a magnetic controller can be caused by what condition?Not learned 971. When troubleshooting a motor controller, all indications are that a relay coil should be energized. If there was no magnetic pull, with rated voltage measured across the coil, what would be the most probable cause?Not learned 972. What can be the cause of excessive heat or burning contacts in an operating motor controller?Not learned 973. If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a magnetic motor controller, what should you do?Not learned 974. As shown in figure "A" and "B" of the illustration, the potable water pump is short-cycling by the action of the pressure switch as a result of an unusually high level in the potable water hydro- pneumatic header tank. What is most likely the causeNot learned 975. An open occurring within the field rheostat of an AC generator can be detected by short circuiting its terminals and making specific observations. What should be checked for?Not learned 976. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short circuits, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor coils through the collector rings. What would be the indication of a short-circuited coil?Not learned 977. Which of the following methods should be used to test for an 'open' stator winding coil in a wye-connected AC squirrel cage induction motor?Not learned 978. When troubleshooting AC motors, what can a portable growler be used to locate?Not learned 979. In testing a three-phase delta-connected winding for an open circuit using an ohmmeter, what must be done?Not learned 980. The leads from an ohmmeter are attached to the leads of the opposite ends of an AC induction motor stator coil. If a reading of infinity (OL) is obtained, what does this indicate?Not learned 981. How can a shorted armature coil in a DC motor be detected?Not learned 982. An open in the armature of a DC motor is suspected, but is not found by visual inspection of the commutator. What would be the next step in troubleshooting this problem?Not learned 983. How is a short in the shunt field of a DC motor best located?Not learned 984. Which of the listed conditions might contribute to very rapid wearing of a DC machine's commutator bars?Not learned 985. Besides for checking for circuit continuity, what can an ohmmeter be used for in diagnosing a DC motor?Not learned 986. A capacitor is to be tested with a digital multimeter set up to measure ohms. If the meter is connected to a shorted capacitor, how would the meter display respond?Not learned 987. An open primary coil in a voltage transformer (VT) will be indicated by which of the listed conditions?Not learned 988. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test a capacitor, what would the display read if the capacitor is shortedNot learned 989. Which of the following statements concerning electrical cables is correct?Not learned 990. A four pole turbo generator is used in conjunction with a 160 pole propulsion motor. If the generator is turning at 3,200 RPM, what is the current speed of the propeller?Not learned 991. What is the shape of the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier used in an analog circuit?Not learned 992. How may temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil be made, allowing continued operation until permanent repairs can be made?Not learned 993. Besides a condition of overload, what could be a cause of an open armature connection in a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 994. Which of the electronic schematic symbols represents the capacitor illustrated in figure 4 of the illustrationNot learned 995. What is the name of the semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature?Not learned 996. (1.1.11.1.3-12) A triac thyristor functions as a control device and can be thought of to function similarly as which of the following circuits?Not learned 997. Which section of the circuit shown in the illustration smooth's out highest degree of pulsationsNot learned 998. When a solid-state component of an electronic circuit is mounted to a metallic mass, what is the general purpose of that mass?Not learned 999. Capacitors are commonly used on DC power supply circuits for engine room automation consoles. For what functional purpose are they primarily used in this application?Not learned 1000. In electronic circuitry, what does the abbreviation "PCB" commonly represent?Not learned 1001. If a delicate component must be soldered into a circuit, how can the component be protected from the heat of the soldering process?Not learned 1002. What would be the indication of a burned-out LED?Not learned 1003. Although saturable reactors are extremely useful in some applications, why is their gain low?Not learned 1004. Basically, a magnetic amplifier is a saturable-core reactor with the addition of what additional feature?Not learned 1005. Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled rectifier?Not learned 1006. Which of the referenced wave shapes would appear at test point 5 (TP5) with respect to ground referring to the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1007. What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?Not learned 1008. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both positive and negative pressures?Not learned 1009. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying two pressures simultaneously?Not learned 1010. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two?Not learned 1011. Which of the following direct-reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump suction pressure gauge?Not learned 1012. If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?Not learned 1013. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of thermal volumetric expansion of a liquid as the temperature rises and features a linear scale?Not learned 1014. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?Not learned 1015. If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct this situation?Not learned 1016. What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?Not learned 1017. What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?Not learned 1018. When determining the level of a potable water hydro pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?Not learned 1019. In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be which of the following?Not learned 1020. Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________.Not learned 1021. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 1022. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.Not learned 1023. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 1024. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 1025. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.Not learned 1026. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 1027. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?Not learned 1028. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 1029. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?Not learned 1030. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.Not learned 1031. If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can ________.Not learned 1032. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. Which action should be taken?Not learned 1033. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?Not learned 1034. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water?Not learned 1035. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.Not learned 1036. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?Not learned 1037. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 1038. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.Not learned 1039. According to the sample sheet of a typical "List of Motors and Controls" as shown in the illustration, which of the following motor applications features a means of keeping the motor windings warm and dry when the motor is idleNot learned 1040. (1.1.4.1.1-4) In actual applications, electrical connections associated with "R1, R2 and R3" of the transmitter to "R1, R2, and R3" of the indicators shown in figure "C" of the illustration are made by what meansNot learned 1041. The amount of voltage induced in the stator windings of a modern AC generator is primarily dependent upon which of the following?Not learned 1042. Assuming a standard 60 Hz input to the circuit shown in the illustration, what would be the ripple frequencyNot learned 1043. What is the characteristic that is associated with an "instantaneous-trip" single-element type fuse?Not learned 1044. The characteristics of the device shown in figure "8" of the illustration includes a stable voltage and low current while operating. Because of this, it can be suitably used in what type of circuitNot learned 1045. In the circuit 'B' of the illustration, what would be the result of the upper heating element being burned out and open circuitedNot learned 1046. (1.1.10.1.1-2) What is a common type of protective covering used on electrical conductors?Not learned 1047. What does the component labeled "B" shown in the illustration representNot learned 1048. The component labeled "CR1" in the circuit shown in the illustration serves what functional purposeNot learned 1049. Concerning the illustrated fire detection and alarm system, what statement is true concerning the wiring between zonesNot learned 1050. What controls rudder movement when the Operation Selector Switch shown in figure "A" of the illustration is in the "Controller" positionNot learned 1051. What is the current flow through R1 of the circuit in figure "B" of the illustration with the switch closed if the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 3 ohms and R3 is 6 ohms and the battery voltage is 12 VDCNot learned 1052. Which device will stop the motor shown in the illustration in case of a short-circuit (high current) motor faultNot learned 1053. Which of the diagrams shown in the illustration depicts the proper method of aligning brushes on a commutator for a DC machineNot learned 1054. Diesel-generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel with each machine operating at half-capacity. Diesel-generator #1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low lube oil pressure. The reverse power relay functions properly and trips generator #1 electrically off the board. In the absence of an automated power management system, which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?Not learned 1055. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what is the status of the silicon diode if the display reads 4.7 ohms when configured as in figure "A" and reads 490 ohms when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 1056. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test an AC contactor coil, what would the display read if the coil is open-circuitedNot learned 1057. A digital multimeter is set up as shown in the illustration to evaluate the single-circuit stator windings of a squirrel cage induction three-phase motor. The following readings are taken: From T1 to T2 reads "OL" ohms. From T2 to T3 reads "OL" ohms. From T3 to T1 as shown reads "1.6" ohms. What condition is indicatedNot learned 1058. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" to test a silicon diode, what is the status of the diode if the screen displays 0.70 V when configured as in figure "A" and displays OL V when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 1059. What is the direction of electron current through the load resistor in the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1060. What does the drawing in the illustrated circuit representNot learned 1061. The electrical diagram shown in figure "B" of the illustration represents what type of DC motorNot learned 1062. Which electrical schematic symbol represents a normally open thermostatNot learned 1063. An electromagnetic relay is most commonly used for what purpose?Not learned 1064. In figure "2" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three-phase power transformer has a step- down turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected to terminals "A1-B1- C1", what voltage should develop across terminals "A2-B2-C2"Not learned 1065. In figure "A" of the illustrated circuit, what is the main purpose of the bias resistor RbNot learned 1066. Which figure represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "2"Not learned 1067. In which figure shown in the illustration will the highest voltage be inducedNot learned 1068. In the flow of one cycle of single phase alternating current past any given point in a circuit, how many times will the current peak to a maximum or minimum?Not learned 1069. Which of the following illustrated manual motor starters represents the wiring diagram illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1070. Which of the following motors has a frame configuration for solid base mounting onlyNot learned 1071. Which of the following is a pictured three phase power transformer, usually used to step-down line voltage for supplying reduced voltage lighting circuitsNot learned 1072. Which of the following statements is true concerning the motor controller circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1073. Which of the following statements is true concerning step-down transformer operation?Not learned 1074. Four incandescent lamps are connected in series in a single circuit. If one of the lamp filaments burns out, what will happen to the other lamps?Not learned 1075. What is the function of section "D" of the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1076. What is the functional purpose of component "5" as shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1077. What functionality do the 'MS 1' contacts of the master switch shown in the illustration provideNot learned 1078. What will happen to the total effective circuit resistance when additional parallel circuits are added to a circuit?Not learned 1079. If the illustrated device in figure "B" has a step-up ratio of 10 to 1 what voltage would be measured at the secondary shortly after the primary of the device is connected to 110 volts DC and the primary current stabilized with a current of 12 ampsNot learned 1080. In the illustrated motor controller, what do the contacts across terminals "3" and "4" of the control circuit representNot learned 1081. In the illustrated motor controller, the motor fails to start. A voltmeter reading between 1 and 5 reads line voltage, while the voltmeter reading between 2 and 5 reads 0 VAC. What is most likely the problemNot learned 1082. The illustrated motor fails to start and gives a loud hum when the start button is depressed, what should then be your first actionNot learned 1083. Which of the illustrated motors has a totally enclosed motor enclosureNot learned 1084. Which of the illustrated resistors represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "C"Not learned 1085. Which of the illustrated safety disconnect switches represents a double-throw switchNot learned 1086. Which of the illustrated schematic symbols represents the type of switch pictured in figure "F" of the illustrationNot learned 1087. In the illustrated views of a lead-acid battery as shown in figures "A" and "B", what battery component has the sole function of preventing the individual plates in the negative plate group from coming into direct contact with the individual plates in the positive plate groupNot learned 1088. In the illustration, 1, 2, 3 and 4 are 12-volt batteries. What will be the nominal voltage as read by a voltmeter across the output of the battery bankNot learned 1089. In the illustration shown, what type of protection is provided to the potable pump drive motorNot learned 1090. In the illustration shown, what would be the functional name for the coil represented as '1S'Not learned 1091. What is indicated by gradual blackening at the ends of component "4" shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustrationNot learned 1092. Which line in figure "B" shown in the illustration represents the trailing edge of the waveNot learned 1093. If the line voltage to the controller shown in the illustration is 440 volts, what is applied across the control circuit assuming the control transformer has a 4:1 turns ratioNot learned 1094. Which of the listed conditions occur when '4th point lower' is selected on the winch hoist controller shown in the illustrationNot learned 1095. Which of the listed figures in the illustration represents a transformer configured for single voltage primary and a tapped secondaryNot learned 1096. Which of the listed figures shown in the illustration represents a three-phase transformer connected in a wye- wye configurationNot learned 1097. Which of the listed types of lighting fixtures does the diagram shown in figure "A" of the illustration representNot learned 1098. The motor fails to start on an attempted startup. With the start button depressed, a voltmeter reading between 1 and 5, as illustrated in figure "A", indicates line voltage available to the control circuit, what should be your next step in the troubleshooting processNot learned 1099. If the motor shown in the illustration will not start when the "off-run" switch is placed in the run position, which of the listed components should be checked FIRSTNot learned 1100. The motor starts when the start button in the illustration is pushed, but stops when the button is released. What is most likely the troubleNot learned 1101. Why must accidental grounds in a shipboard electrical system be repaired as soon as possible?Not learned 1102. What is the name of the component labeled Q1 as shown in section "D" of the regulated DC power supply illustratedNot learned 1103. What is the name of the DC motor speed control method utilized as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1104. What operational characteristic is associated with the illustrated manual starter circuit for a motor shown in figure "A"Not learned 1105. If overloading an electric motor becomes necessary in an emergency situation, what should be done to prevent damage to the motor while allowing sustained operation?Not learned 1106. Which of the pictured motors is a square core shaded pole motor used to drive very small electrical loads and is non-reversibleNot learned 1107. Which of the pictured motors within the split phase family of single phase induction motors represents a split phase, resistive start, induction run motorNot learned 1108. Which of the pictured solid-state semiconductor devices in the illustration is a rectifier bridgeNot learned 1109. Where is the power necessary to energize the howler "relay" coil at the engine room station as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1110. What power would be consumed by the series resistor in the circuit shown in the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 1111. After prior isolation and lock-out/tag-out procedures are performed, which electrical device requires discharging any stored electrical energy before any work may safely begin?Not learned 1112. The progressive operation of the contactors marked "1A" through "4A" provide the winch hoist controller shown in the illustration with what functionalityNot learned 1113. What is a purpose of the automatic bus transfer device shown in the illustrationNot learned 1114. What is the purpose of the capacitor within component "5" of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1115. What is the purpose for the device shown in figure "B" of the illustration in terms of its relationship with the loadNot learned 1116. For what reason should engine room watchstanders make periodic checks on the loads carried by electric motors?Not learned 1117. What is the recommended method used to resurface an eccentric DC motor commutator?Not learned 1118. Referring to figure "B" of the illustrated control circuit schematic diagram, which of the following statements is true when the motor is running in the forward directionNot learned 1119. In the regulated DC power supply illustrated, what is the function of section "B"Not learned 1120. If it is required that the coils 'R1-R2-R3' in the indicator of figure "A", turn opposite to those in the transmitter, as shown in the illustration, what action should be takenNot learned 1121. What is the resistance reading at "2" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1122. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 110 VDC is applied to a resistance of 32 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closedNot learned 1123. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 115 VDC is applied to a resistance of 12 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closedNot learned 1124. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 442.7 VDC is applied to a resistance of 1.25 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closedNot learned 1125. Which of the schematic symbols shown in the illustration represents a normally closed float level switchNot learned 1126. When shore power is being connected to a ship in drydock, what must be ensured, assuming that the ship's generators are rated at 450 VAC, 60 Hz with a total capacity of 5000 kW?Not learned 1127. As shown in figure "6" of the illustration, what does the symbol represent as used in electrical drawingsNot learned 1128. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to measure DC currents anticipated as high as 200 milliampsNot learned 1129. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", and "D" of the illustration, what is the usual means by which the rotation direction of the motor is reversedNot learned 1130. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, when the DC motor in figure "A" is operating at minimum speed what are the armature and field characteristicsNot learned 1131. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which of the operations listed will happen when the 'jog button' is pushedNot learned 1132. As shown in figure "C" of the illustrated typical ground fault sensor, what statement concerning its installation is trueNot learned 1133. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the significance of the symbol indicated by "2" being illuminatedNot learned 1134. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated motor nameplate, what is the service factor at sea levelNot learned 1135. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, with a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what set of readings would be consistent with an open in phase "B" of the single circuit, wye-connected stator windings as shownNot learned 1136. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, fine adjustments such as "rate of turn signal" have no effect on steering stand operation when the 'operation selector switch' is in what positionNot learned 1137. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what is the purpose of the interpolesNot learned 1138. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what type of machine is illustrated in terms of the configuration of the windingsNot learned 1139. As shown in the illustrated electrically operated watertight door controller, how is the rotation direction of the door motor reversedNot learned 1140. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay circuit, what is the functional purpose of potentiometer "R2"Not learned 1141. As shown in the illustrated one-line diagram of a two-tiered emergency power system for a passenger ship, what statement is trueNot learned 1142. As shown in the illustrated plots of uncorrected and temperature corrected insulation resistance readings for a particular piece of equipment, at what point in time should the equipment have been refurbished or replacedNot learned 1143. As shown in the illustrated wiring diagram for an engine order telegraph system, what statement concerning the constant ringing and trouble alarm is trueNot learned 1144. As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, how is the direction of rotation of the motor reversedNot learned 1145. As shown in the illustration, assuming power is available at the control circuit, which listed action will occur FIRST when the "off-run" switch is placed in the "run" positionNot learned 1146. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder is of the reaction typeNot learned 1147. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder would be appropriate to use in a bidirectional motorNot learned 1148. As shown in the illustration, the change-over switch is what type of deviceNot learned 1149. As shown in the illustration, what are the characteristics of the trouble relay contactsNot learned 1150. As shown in the illustration of the elementary diagram of a three speed anchor windlass controller, which of the following contactor, relay, or timer coils operates with DC voltageNot learned 1151. As shown in the illustration, what event would give the same indication that would occur when a stern light circuit fuse blows openNot learned 1152. As shown in the illustration, which of the following conditions will occur as a result of a momentary loss of powerNot learned 1153. As shown in the illustration, which of the following pieces of equipment is provided with a remote push button stationNot learned 1154. As shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is correct concerning the circuits in a sound- powered telephone systemNot learned 1155. As shown in the illustration, what is the functional purpose of the normally closed and normally open auxiliary contacts of the hoist and lower contactors respectivelyNot learned 1156. As shown in the illustration, which of the lighting fixtures represents an incandescent bulbNot learned 1157. As shown in the illustration, if the line voltage is 450 VAC, what would be the applied voltage to the motor at the instant of startup and through the acceleration periodNot learned 1158. As shown in the illustration, what maintenance would be required of the circuit componentsNot learned 1159. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor "2S"Not learned 1160. As shown in the illustration, what type of starter is illustratedNot learned 1161. What statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a series circuit?Not learned 1162. If the supply voltage is 220 volts 60 Hz, what is the operating voltage of the motor controller control circuit illustrated in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1163. What does the symbol labeled "OL" represent as shown in the power circuit on lines T1 and T3 to the motor as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1164. In the system shown in the illustration, the engine room station is unable to signal any other station, nor is any other station able to signal the engine room station. The engine room station can, however, ring itself by proper positioning of its selector switch. What is the most probable cause of this problemNot learned 1165. A thermal-magnetic molded case circuit breaker for a 300 kW alternator is rated at 500 amperes at full continuous load. Which of the following conditions will MOST likely trip the breaker?Not learned 1166. The torque-speed and current-speed curves for a three-phase induction motor with a squirrel-cage rotor are shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration. Which of the following statements is true concerning the depicted curvesNot learned 1167. You are troubleshooting the control circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration utilizing on-line techniques. With the start button depressed, the following readings are obtained with a voltmeter: (Refer to Illustration EL-0123) "X1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC. "1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC. "2" to "X2" reads 0 VAC. "3" to "X2" reads 0 VAC. Which of the following indicates what the fault is?Not learned 1168. The turns ratio of the step-down transformer with dual voltage secondary as shown in figure "B" of the illustration is two to one (total). If 440 volts were applied to terminals 'H1' and 'H2', what would be measured across 'X1-X3' and 'X2-X4' assuming that the secondary windings are connected in parallelNot learned 1169. What type of circuit is represented by the diagram shown in the illustrationNot learned 1170. What type of control circuit logic is featured in the electrical schematic diagram for the motor starting circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1171. What type of electrical diagram is shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1172. What type of feedback is featured in the transistor amplifier shown in figure "B" of the illustration assuming that the phase relationship between input and output is identical to the transistor amplifier shown in figure "A"Not learned 1173. What type of motor enclosure is utilized for the motor labeled "A" in the illustrationNot learned 1174. What type of motor is illustrated by the schematic of figure "B" of the illustration and what type of starting relay is usedNot learned 1175. What type of starter is represented in the electrical schematic shown in the illustrationNot learned 1176. Using the catalog selection chart shown in Illustration EL-0180, determine the correct catalog number for a motor starter that meets the selection criteria detailed as follows: NEMA, Open enclosure, 3-pole Rated, at 90 continuous amperes, Vertically mounted, Electronic overload relay-standard feature set, Non-reversing starter, Operating coil rated at 120 VAC/60 HzNot learned 1177. In using a portable growler for the purpose of locating a shorted stator coil in an AC motor as shown in the illustration, what statement is true as the feeler is moved from slot to slot around the statorNot learned 1178. Which of the wave shapes shown in the illustration is termed a ramp or sawtooth waveNot learned 1179. The wet cell storage batteries shown in the illustration are connected in what configurationNot learned 1180. The winch shown in the illustration will operate normally in all speeds in both directions, with the exception that it will not accelerate into 'fifth point' hoist or 'fifth point' lower. What would be a possible causeNot learned 1181. Within the split phase family of single phase motors, what are the operational characteristics of the motor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1182. What would be the source current and transformer current as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, with the secondary tap connected as shown, if the supply voltage at the branch circuit breaker is 440 VAC and the unity power factor load current draw is 50 ampsNot learned 1183. What would be the total current flowing in the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 1184. What would be the voltage drop across the series string of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the source voltage is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, the resistance for R2 is 10 ohms and the resistance for R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 1185. The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________Not learned 1186. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.Not learned 1187. In addition to the indicated gauge pressure, what other information is presented on the compound gauge for the hypothetical refrigerant illustratedNot learned 1188. The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as __________Not learned 1189. When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize bimetallic corrosion?Not learned 1190. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 1191. What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station, where the valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?Not learned 1192. In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 1193. In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?Not learned 1194. An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________Not learned 1195. If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential order of treatment chambers within the plant?Not learned 1196. You are checking the supply chilled water temperature thermistor probe on a highpressure hermetic centrifugal chiller. Using the illustrated chart, what statement is true if the supply water temperature is verified 45°F with a digital thermometerNot learned 1197. The coil temperature measured at the expansion valve sensing bulb of an operating system is 10°F. The low side pressure with the compressor running as shown on the gauge illustrated indicates 15 psig. What adjustments or changes, if any, should be made to the systemNot learned 1198. Through which of the components shown in the illustration is flash gas formation a normal occurrenceNot learned 1199. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by__________.Not learned 1200. The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller with more than 500 lbs. of refrigerant and to meet EPA requirements is to recover the refrigerant using what protocol?Not learned 1201. To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?Not learned 1202. As demand on the device shown in the illustration fluctuates in the pressure range of 100 to 110 psi, the output of the unit is controlled by __________Not learned 1203. The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________Not learned 1204. Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustrationNot learned 1205. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________Not learned 1206. Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurementsNot learned 1207. Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gageNot learned 1208. The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is _______Not learned 1209. If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessivelyincreased, the tool will __________Not learned 1210. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________.Not learned 1211. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?Not learned 1212. What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1213. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils?Not learned 1214. To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.Not learned 1215. Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screwNot learned 1216. Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screwNot learned 1217. The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the underside of the unloader power element piston of the refrigeration compressor capacity control mechanism illustrated is obtained from whereNot learned 1218. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a 2-position diverting hot gas bypass solenoid valveNot learned 1219. Which of the following illustrated expansion valves is designed to maintain a constant evaporator pressure rather than a constant evaporator superheatNot learned 1220. Which of the following leak detectors would be appropriate for use in leak detecting on a system currently pressurized with nitrogenNot learned 1221. Which of the following statements is correct for the illustrated circuit in figure "B"Not learned 1222. Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jawindependent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?Not learned 1223. Which of the following statements is trueNot learned 1224. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?Not learned 1225. Which of the following statements is true concerning the gauge labeled "A" of the illustrated gauge manifold setNot learned 1226. Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 1227. Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail) to prevent gauge damage?Not learned 1228. Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device?Not learned 1229. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 1230. The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an __________Not learned 1231. For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a Vernier scale making it possible to read in increments of __________.Not learned 1232. Which of the hand valve configurations for the gauge manifold set is the correct set up for monitoring both the low and high system pressuresNot learned 1233. When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?Not learned 1234. Heat is removed from the refrigerant circulating through the refrigeration system, shown in the illustration, by which componentNot learned 1235. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________Not learned 1236. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable cause is the __________Not learned 1237. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided by __________Not learned 1238. In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by __________Not learned 1239. Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure __________Not learned 1240. Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing toolNot learned 1241. Which of the illustrated gauges is capable of measuring vacuums at the micron level for the purpose of proving system dehydration during system evacuation with a vacuum pump, but displays the achieved vacuums at incremental threshold intervals rather than continuouslyNot learned 1242. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 1243. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure INot learned 1244. The illustrated valve is known as a __________Not learned 1245. Which of the illustrated valves is used to gain access to a hermetic system and features a Schrader core valve which is unseated by the core depressor of hose fitting when attachedNot learned 1246. Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weldNot learned 1247. Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dopeNot learned 1248. In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.Illustration GS-0078Not learned 1249. Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________Not learned 1250. Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________Not learned 1251. The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 1252. Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best be used on a workpiece to perform a right-hand facing operationNot learned 1253. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch producedis determined by the speed relationship between the __________.Not learned 1254. The letters "NPT" used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as shown in the illustration, indicates the __________Not learned 1255. Which of the lettered components shown in the illustration indicates the high-pressure cut-outNot learned 1256. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1257. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1258. Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the stem and is associated with an endless chain for operation?Not learned 1259. The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devicesNot learned 1260. (1.2.15-9) On US flag steam propulsion vessels, the main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to accomplish which of the following?Not learned 1261. What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?Not learned 1262. In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve labeled "29"Not learned 1263. If it is necessary to increase the operating head pressure of the refrigeration system using the device shown in the illustration, what should be doneNot learned 1264. To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18-inch workpiece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over _________.Not learned 1265. Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?Not learned 1266. One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 1267. What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating liquid tank level?Not learned 1268. For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.Not learned 1269. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.Not learned 1270. In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?Not learned 1271. What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustrationNot learned 1272. To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________Not learned 1273. To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________Not learned 1274. The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if __________Not learned 1275. When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?Not learned 1276. The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________Not learned 1277. What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1278. When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct-reading pressure gauge, what should be done?Not learned 1279. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is __________Not learned 1280. What is the reading of the Vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustrationNot learned 1281. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way?Not learned 1282. Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unitNot learned 1283. After the refrigerant has been recovered, leaks repaired if necessary, the system ideally should undergo a dehydration evacuation prior to recharging with refrigerant. As shown in the illustration, besides the vacuum pump suction manifold isolation valve being opened, what would be the proper valve positions to accomplish and prove the evacuationNot learned 1284. In a refrigeration system featuring low-side pumpdown prior to the automatic shutdown of the compressor, the temperature of the refrigerated space is controlled by the action of a thermostat wired to what device?Not learned 1285. In a refrigeration system, from what location would air and non-condensable gases be removed?Not learned 1286. Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a handwheel for local operation if the motor fails. If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?Not learned 1287. Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quartersor flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?Not learned 1288. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of smallparts?Not learned 1289. Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridgesresembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?Not learned 1290. When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you shouldclose the __________.Not learned 1291. With a service gauge manifold set connected to a refrigerant compressor as shown in the illustration, which arrangement of the gauge manifold set valves and compressor service valves would allow for simultaneous reading of the compressor suction and discharge pressuresNot learned 1292. (1.5.5.4-4) The setpoint adjustment of the device shown in the illustration is made by rotating what componentNot learned 1293. Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is thenegative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.Not learned 1294. The shaft sleeve for the pump shown in the illustration is identified by which item numberNot learned 1295. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?Not learned 1296. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated self-contained recovery unit connection diagrams, what is the recovery method supported by the connection schemeNot learned 1297. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 1298. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller pressure maintenance system, what is its functional purposeNot learned 1299. As shown in the illustrated refrigeration system piping schematic diagram with the various accessories and controls and equipped with an air-cooled condenser with high side pressure controls, what statement is true concerning the fan cycling control pressure switchNot learned 1300. Spring reinforced oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the seal facing __________Not learned 1301. When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shut down for a period of time, you should manually throttle which valve?Not learned 1302. Which of the statements listed is applicable to the thermostatic expansion valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 1303. What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-waterseparator?Not learned 1304. What statement is true concerning portable power tools?Not learned 1305. What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate threaded fasteners?Not learned 1306. The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event?Not learned 1307. The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the __________.Not learned 1308. If a thermometer reads 80°C, what is the equivalent temperature in °F?Not learned 1309. If a thermometer reads 850 °F, what is the equivalent temperature in °C?Not learned 1310. What is true concerning highly contaminated refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances?Not learned 1311. What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne impact hazards?Not learned 1312. What type of pump is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1313. What type of valve is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1314. When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cuttingshould be __________.Not learned 1315. Which of the valves listed for the device shown in the illustration will be open while the unit is operating in the backflush modeNot learned 1316. A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by __________.Not learned 1317. On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of machinery and the manning of the engine room?Not learned 1318. A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles toeach other, and is called a __________.Not learned 1319. The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V" indicates __________Not learned 1320. A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________.Not learned 1321. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 1322. In addition to moving the victim to a shaded area, placing the victim in a prone position and loosening any tight clothing, what treatment should be administered?Not learned 1323. What is the alarm signal for a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant ship?Not learned 1324. In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________.Not learned 1325. What is the characteristic of the blood flow associated with arterial bleeding?Not learned 1326. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systemsNot learned 1327. When conversing over a sound-powered telephone circuit, the words "yes" and "no" should be avoided. What are appropriate substitutes?Not learned 1328. A crude oil wash (COW) system is considered as __________.Not learned 1329. The equipment shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 1330. Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?Not learned 1331. In the event of a grounding, which tanks should be sounded to determine any evidence of holing?Not learned 1332. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by__________Not learned 1333. The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit shown in the illustration is produced by __________Not learned 1334. Following a grounding, what action should be performed prior to the use of the main engines?Not learned 1335. Following a grounding, what would happen to the level of a slack double bottom tank if the tank was holed?Not learned 1336. In which of the following heat related illnesses has the body lost its ability to regulate the body core temperature?Not learned 1337. In which of the following heat related illnesses has the individual lost the ability to lose heat through the mechanism of sweating?Not learned 1338. In which of the following heat related illnesses is the individual most at risk for losing consciousness?Not learned 1339. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?Not learned 1340. Which of the following shoring materials is a long bar or beam used to distribute the pressure of a shore?Not learned 1341. Which of the following shoring materials is a portable beam designed to support a damaged structure?Not learned 1342. Which of the following shoring materials is a short flat block that is placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure?Not learned 1343. Which of the following shoring materials is used to tightly make up the difference in length of a shore cut slightly shorter than the measured distance for required length and must be frequently checked for tightness?Not learned 1344. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?Not learned 1345. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.Not learned 1346. If you hear a CO2 activated alarm warning you to evacuate the engine room, how much time do you have to evacuate before the CO2 gas is released into the engine room?Not learned 1347. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____Not learned 1348. If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________Not learned 1349. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?Not learned 1350. What is meant by the phrase "partial flooding with boundaries intact"?Not learned 1351. What is meant by the term "counter-flooding"?Not learned 1352. What method of controlling severe bleeding is preferred and normally attempted first?Not learned 1353. One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________.Not learned 1354. To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would _________Not learned 1355. In order for a compartment to completely fill up due to flooding, what condition must exist?Not learned 1356. Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred method of rewarming?Not learned 1357. Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred temperature of rewarming when using the wet rapid rewarming method?Not learned 1358. You are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure?Not learned 1359. What is the purpose of depressing the button on the handle of a sound-powered telephone handset?Not learned 1360. The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________.Not learned 1361. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.Not learned 1362. The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by __________.Not learned 1363. What strategy for avoiding heat exhaustion is most likely to result in more severe pain as associated with heat cramps?Not learned 1364. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?Not learned 1365. What type of wound is generally associated with a scraping away of the skin and may be very painful?Not learned 1366. What type of wound is most susceptible to a tetanus (lockjaw) infection?Not learned 1367. An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________.Not learned 1368. Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat?Not learned 1369. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?Not learned 1370. Water applied as a "fog" can be more effective than water applied as a "solid stream", because __________.Not learned 1371. If you wish to initiate a station-to-station call over a sound-powered telephone circuit, what is the correct procedure?Not learned 1372. While working in a hot engine room, what is your best protection against heat exhaustion?Not learned 1373. While working in a hot engine room, what is the cause of heat exhaustion?Not learned 1374. In a coil-type forced circulation water-tube boiler, __________.Not learned 1375. The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy, is known as its __________.Not learned 1376. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 1377. What should you do in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim?Not learned 1378. A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that all tanks and pumprooms are potentially dangerous. You should immediately leave an area whenever __________.Not learned 1379. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?Not learned 1380. If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, what does this indicate?Not learned 1381. If you hear the general alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle, what does this indicate?Not learned 1382. The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the _____Not learned 1383. The illustrated drawing shows a correct front "F" and top "T" view of an object. Of the views labeled "1","2","3", and "4", the one that correctly represents the right side view for a third angle projection is_______Not learned 1384. The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 1385. The illustrated valve, figure "A", needs to be repaired due to a leak across the valve disk. To disassemble the valve you should __________Not learned 1386. The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 1387. The output volume of a variable displacement rotary piston pump can be changed only by __________.Not learned 1388. To operate a portable foam fire extinguisher, you should __________.Not learned 1389. What does "G" represent in the illustrationNot learned 1390. What is the alarm signal for manning boat stations or boat drills onboard a merchant ship?Not learned 1391. What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated rising stem gate valve?Not learned 1392. What is the whistle signal for stop lowering boats?Not learned 1393. What statement below summarizes an engine lubricating oil's viscosity given as 20W-50?Not learned 1394. Which of the following maintenance procedures would require a tag-out/lock-out to be performed?Not learned 1395. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action is for the space to be __________.Not learned 1396. An undervoltage release mechanism (UVR) is fitted to all generator breakers and some main feeder circuit breakers for what primary reason?Not learned 1397. For what purpose is the variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor induction motor provided?Not learned 1398. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?Not learned 1399. If a shipboard AC generator experiences a failure to produce a voltage, what may be the cause?Not learned 1400. If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room, you should ________.Not learned 1401. In a refrigeration system that is not protected by a water failure switch, if the cooling water to the condenser fails, what will be the result for protective purposes?Not learned 1402. In terms of consistency (or "stiffness"), what is the most common grade of grease for most marine applications as set forth by the National Lubricating Grease Institute (NLGI)?Not learned 1403. The minimum length of dimension "C" shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 1404. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in place by what means?Not learned 1405. The sensing line for the low-pressure cut-out switch for a refrigeration system is typically connected at what location?Not learned 1406. The valve depicted in the illustration shown is a __________Not learned 1407. There are three pieces of information that should be included in delivering a message via a sound-powered telephone. Which of the following represents the proper sequence of information delivery?Not learned 1408. To find the relative humidity of an accommodation space, you would use a __________.Not learned 1409. Upon close examination of a tank level gauge scale marked in volume measurements, you notice that the distance between the lines is not evenly spaced throughout the length of the scale. What tank shape corresponds to this uneven spacing?Not learned 1410. What device is best used to test for a short circuit between windings of a three-phase motor that is not running?Not learned 1411. What is the primary function of the device illustratedNot learned 1412. What is the purpose of a ship's service generator circuit breaker's reverse power trip?Not learned 1413. What is the voltage across "R1" of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closed if the applied voltage is 24 volts and resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 1414. What type of wound is generally associated with no bleeding and is very susceptible to infection?Not learned 1415. Which of the following direct reading gauge types is the most popular type used for local display of pressures in the engine room?Not learned 1416. Which of the following statements describes the difference between the primary windings and the secondary windings of an ideal 2:1 stepdown voltage transformer?Not learned 1417. Which of the following statements represents the important factor that must be considered when replacing a faulty diode in a generators excitation field rectifier assembly?Not learned 1418. Which pair of the illustrated service gauge manifold sets would require switching hoses when transitioning from a dehydration evacuation to refrigerant chargingNot learned 1419. Why are external shunts sometimes used with ammeters?Not learned 1420. If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gauge indicating zero psig and the water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________Not learned 1421. In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal burns it is important to prevent or reduce __________.Not learned 1422. As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause ______.Not learned 1423. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity-controlled compressor, when all of the evaporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston shown in the illustration will be at what valueNot learned 1424. What would be the voltage drop across the parallel branches of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration if the source voltage is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, the resistance for R2 is 10 ohms and the resistance for R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 1425. The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event?Not learned 1426. Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 1427. Which of the illustrated motors has a totally enclosed, fan-cooled (TEFC) motor enclosureNot learned 1428. When installing CAUTION tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned