Q807 - Machinist, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?Not learned 2. Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?Not learned 3. Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.Not learned 4. The designation 'schedule 80' refers to __________.Not learned 5. Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints or __________.Not learned 6. When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.Not learned 7. Which of the following measurements would be an example of total flow?Not learned 8. Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length for pipe nipples?Not learned 9. Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called "pipe _____________".Not learned 10. To connect two lengths of pipe previously set in place, you should use a pipe __________.Not learned 11. A pipe coupling is a fitting having __________.Not learned 12. Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.Not learned 13. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 14. Tubing is sized by __________.Not learned 15. Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?Not learned 16. Copper coil tubing is best cut with a _________.Not learned 17. The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a __________.Not learned 18. Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed __________.Not learned 19. After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should ______.Not learned 20. Some heavy-duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _________.Not learned 21. An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.Not learned 22. Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?Not learned 23. Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross-sectional tip?Not learned 24. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil wire or tightly coiled steel?Not learned 25. Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.Not learned 26. Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?Not learned 27. Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.Not learned 28. Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?Not learned 29. Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become __________.Not learned 30. A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of __________.Not learned 31. Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangular-shaped holes and slots?Not learned 32. The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.Not learned 33. File lengths are determined by the __________.Not learned 34. A file coated with oil and stowed away will __________.Not learned 35. Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called __________.Not learned 36. It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is __________.Not learned 37. When using a chisel, you should __________.Not learned 38. The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the _________.Not learned 39. A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.Not learned 40. The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you _________.Not learned 41. What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed head?Not learned 42. Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?Not learned 43. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.Not learned 44. A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the ________.Not learned 45. For the power hacksaw shown in the illustration, how should the teeth point for the blade being installedNot learned 46. To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.Not learned 47. Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the __________.Not learned 48. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more accurately if you __________.Not learned 49. When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.Not learned 50. When cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your hand while using a hand held hacksaw, the sheet metal should be placed between two __________.Not learned 51. A hacksaw blade will break if __________.Not learned 52. Which of the listed numeric values represents the smallest size drill?Not learned 53. Which of the drill sets listed would commonly be referred to as a “Jobbers Set”?Not learned 54. No two drills from differing drill sets are of the exact same size, with the exception of the drills measured as 0.25 inch. These two drills are the 1/4 inch and the __________.Not learned 55. If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will __________.Not learned 56. Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to __________.Not learned 57. To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock should be mounted in a __________.Not learned 58. When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper method of stopping the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________.Not learned 59. One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to _________.Not learned 60. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be __________.Not learned 61. If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at different angles, the __________.Not learned 62. For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the correct included angle of a drill point is __________.Not learned 63. Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?Not learned 64. A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a __________.Not learned 65. Which material can be drilled at the highest speed?Not learned 66. If you have to completely grind a new point on a high-speed drill, which of the following could happen if it is cooled in cold water immediately after grinding?Not learned 67. The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.Not learned 68. If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will __________.Not learned 69. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for __________.Not learned 70. If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.Not learned 71. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?Not learned 72. The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.Not learned 73. When internal threading for bolts, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.Not learned 74. Taps and dies used for threading pipe, under U.S. standards, are __________.Not learned 75. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.Not learned 76. A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly __________.Not learned 77. A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.Not learned 78. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, "pitch" is the __________.Not learned 79. The designation '1/4-20' describes __________.Not learned 80. The number of screw threads per inch for a Standard National Coarse 1/2 inch bolt is __________.Not learned 81. The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.Not learned 82. Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?Not learned 83. The open-end wrench size for a standard 3/4 inch American National hex head bolt is __________.Not learned 84. A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.Not learned 85. A metal scribe commonly found on a combination square measuring tool should only be used to __________.Not learned 86. A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file __________.Not learned 87. Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.Not learned 88. Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of it slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt?Not learned 89. Open end wrenches are __________.Not learned 90. In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.Not learned 91. A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.Not learned 92. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.Not learned 93. Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?Not learned 94. An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.Not learned 95. Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.Not learned 96. To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________.Not learned 97. Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?Not learned 98. The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _________.Not learned 99. To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.Not learned 100. The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.Not learned 101. A dial indicator is used to measure __________.Not learned 102. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.Not learned 103. When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should measure across the drill __________.Not learned 104. To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock, you should use a __________.Not learned 105. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you should use a __________.Not learned 106. If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the reading is __________.Not learned 107. A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.Not learned 108. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.Not learned 109. Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to __________.Not learned 110. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________Not learned 111. A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to __________.Not learned 112. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure __________.Not learned 113. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.Not learned 114. Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?Not learned 115. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for checking the angle of __________.Not learned 116. The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as __________Not learned 117. The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 118. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________.Not learned 119. A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.Not learned 120. If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first __________.Not learned 121. For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a __________.Not learned 122. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a __________.Not learned 123. The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the __________.Not learned 124. A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.Not learned 125. When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe, you should mount the drill chuck in the __________.Not learned 126. Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure __________.Not learned 127. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the __________.Not learned 128. The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the __________.Not learned 129. To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first _________.Not learned 130. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?Not learned 131. If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should __________.Not learned 132. A roughened checkered surface is machined by a lathe on round stock using a __________.Not learned 133. Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the __________.Not learned 134. To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.Not learned 135. Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.Not learned 136. The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.Not learned 137. Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a __________.Not learned 138. Tinning a soldering iron will __________.Not learned 139. Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.Not learned 140. Solder is an alloy of __________.Not learned 141. When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.Not learned 142. In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each pass to __________.Not learned 143. Which of the factors listed governs the intensity of heat required for any given welding job?Not learned 144. With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________.Not learned 145. In an oxyacetylene welding outfit, the torch tip orifice size __________.Not learned 146. When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, __________.Not learned 147. Acetylene should never be used at pressures in excess of 15 psig because the __________.Not learned 148. Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxy-acetylene regulators and torches?Not learned 149. Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxy-acetylene torch?Not learned 150. The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is __________.Not learned 151. The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a _______.Not learned 152. To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.Not learned 153. When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts be tightened?Not learned 154. If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 155. Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 156. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.Not learned 157. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________.Not learned 158. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?Not learned 159. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by __________.Not learned 160. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?Not learned 161. Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?Not learned 162. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.Not learned 163. A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used __________.Not learned 164. The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring __________.Not learned 165. "Prussian Blue" is commonly used __________.Not learned 166. The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.Not learned 167. An eroded globe valve disk can be repaired by __________.Not learned 168. Suppose a remote valve operator is fitted with a gearbox. What is the purpose of the gearbox?Not learned 169. If water hammer develops while opening the valve in a steam line, which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 170. Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?Not learned 171. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.Not learned 172. A pump is defined as a device that __________.Not learned 173. The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.Not learned 174. The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to __________.Not learned 175. Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by __________.Not learned 176. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?Not learned 177. Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required?Not learned 178. Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.Not learned 179. One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a __________.Not learned 180. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that __________.Not learned 181. Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low pressures?Not learned 182. The leakage of air into the pump casing by way of the packing gland of a condensate pump, is prevented by __________.Not learned 183. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?Not learned 184. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.Not learned 185. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.Not learned 186. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?Not learned 187. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _______.Not learned 188. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 189. To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?Not learned 190. A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?Not learned 191. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.Not learned 192. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to ________.Not learned 193. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.Not learned 194. Which of the conditions listed could prevent a centrifugal condensate pump from developing its rated capacity?Not learned 195. Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 196. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?Not learned 197. The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.Not learned 198. Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?Not learned 199. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by __________.Not learned 200. When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be _________.Not learned 201. When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?Not learned 202. Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?Not learned 203. The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to __________.Not learned 204. To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should __________.Not learned 205. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by_______.Not learned 206. Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?Not learned 207. A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by __________.Not learned 208. Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the __________.Not learned 209. When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be ______.Not learned 210. Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?Not learned 211. Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by __________.Not learned 212. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.Not learned 213. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump __________.Not learned 214. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.Not learned 215. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?Not learned 216. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?Not learned 217. An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.Not learned 218. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the __________.Not learned 219. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________.Not learned 220. Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?Not learned 221. The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.Not learned 222. When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an aftercooler, what must be done with the reservoir?Not learned 223. If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system and other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the __________.Not learned 224. Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat exchangers to __________.Not learned 225. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.Not learned 226. If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?Not learned 227. If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?Not learned 228. What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?Not learned 229. If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end waterboxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?Not learned 230. The auxiliary exhaust system shown in the illustration can be supplied by steam from the __________Not learned 231. High pressure and low pressure drain systems are part of the __________.Not learned 232. Clean low-pressure steam drains are collected in the __________.Not learned 233. The atmospheric drain tank (ADT) normally drains to the _______.Not learned 234. High-pressure steam drains are normally discharged to the __________.Not learned 235. Condensate return lines from tank heating coils are led to the __________.Not learned 236. Which statement is true concerning drain inspection tanks?Not learned 237. If live steam is supplied directly to the tank heating coils, the collected drains in the "clean" section of the contaminated drain inspection tank are removed directly to the __________.Not learned 238. Item 4 shown in the illustration represents a __________Not learned 239. How is the emergency bilge suction valve typically used?Not learned 240. What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?Not learned 241. What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density approaching that of water?Not learned 242. What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?Not learned 243. By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?Not learned 244. Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?Not learned 245. Which of the pumps listed operates at constant speed and delivers water to the deaerating feed tank at a nearly constant pressure?Not learned 246. Zincs are installed in the main and auxiliary condenser waterboxes to __________.Not learned 247. Which statement listed represents a vital function of the main condenser?Not learned 248. Which of the condensers listed is cooled by sea water?Not learned 249. While underway, vacuum in the main condenser is primarily caused by the __________.Not learned 250. A main condenser utilizing a scoop for the circulation of sea water must be constructed as a __________.Not learned 251. Waterboxes on condensers are vented to __________.Not learned 252. In a main propulsion steam turbine installation, the condensate pump initially discharges to the __________.Not learned 253. Air trapped within the main condenser shell is detrimental because it will __________.Not learned 254. The automatic recirculating valve in the main condensate recirculating line is controlled by a temperature sensor which is located at the __________.Not learned 255. Salt water contamination of condensate could occur at which component?Not learned 256. Excessive recirculation of condensate should be avoided, as it can cause __________.Not learned 257. Air accumulated in the intercondenser of the air ejector assembly is discharged directly to the __________.Not learned 258. The cooling water flow from an air ejector intercondenser and aftercondenser is discharged directly into the _______.Not learned 259. Which statement is true concerning two-stage air ejector assemblies?Not learned 260. In the condensate system, the automatic recirculating valve can be actuated by the __________.Not learned 261. Serious tube leaks in the air ejector aftercondenser assembly may cause __________.Not learned 262. While vacuum is being raised on the main unit and the turbine is being warmed, condensate is recirculated to the main condenser to __________.Not learned 263. If the condensate level in the loop seal of the air ejector intercondenser is lost, __________.Not learned 264. Under normal conditions, the rate of heat transfer in a feedwater heater is most greatly affected by the __________.Not learned 265. The DC heater functions to __________.Not learned 266. The DC heater automatic level dump valve is used to __________.Not learned 267. Cooling water to the vent condenser in a DC heater is supplied by the _______.Not learned 268. If the boiler water and condenser hot well levels are normal, but the DC heater level is only 30% of full, you should __________.Not learned 269. The purpose of the steam control valves installed in the auxiliary exhaust line is to __________.Not learned 270. An excess pressure governor would normally be used on a __________.Not learned 271. The constant pressure governor of a turbine-driven feed pump maintains which of the following pressures at a constant value for all capacities?Not learned 272. Which system should be used when required to raise the water level in an idle boiler?Not learned 273. Under EMERGENCY operating conditions with the main feed valve malfunctioning, what should be the proper valve positions for controlling feedwater to the boiler?Not learned 274. The main feed check valve functions to __________.Not learned 275. The pressure in the feedwater system must exceed boiler steam drum pressure in order to __________.Not learned 276. To prevent pulsations from developing in the boiler feedwater lines, the discharge side of a reciprocating feed pump is equipped with a/an __________.Not learned 277. Makeup feedwater is brought into an operating closed feed system via the __________.Not learned 278. Which of the listed components would be considered the dividing line separating the condensate system from the feedwater system?Not learned 279. Excessive water loss from the main feed system can be caused by __________.Not learned 280. Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.Not learned 281. In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs. (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64Not learned 282. Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to __________.Not learned 283. The component, which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.Not learned 284. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _______.Not learned 285. Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the __________.Not learned 286. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by __________.Not learned 287. When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.Not learned 288. To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?Not learned 289. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity?Not learned 290. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally __________.Not learned 291. If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.Not learned 292. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.Not learned 293. (1.2.5.1.2-12) A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during long periods of inactivity should be carried out to __________.Not learned 294. The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate __________.Not learned 295. Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an __________.Not learned 296. The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is this temperature normally controlled?Not learned 297. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.Not learned 298. A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.Not learned 299. All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________.Not learned 300. All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________.Not learned 301. Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before being operated because __________.Not learned 302. Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?Not learned 303. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is that the __________Not learned 304. What damage may occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes deteriorated?Not learned 305. When the control handle is in the "off" position, what is the status of the solenoid actuated brake of an electric winch?Not learned 306. In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the movement of an electric powered cargo winch will be stopped by what means?Not learned 307. What is the function of the electric brake on a deck cargo winch?Not learned 308. As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery motor controllers, what should be done?Not learned 309. If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of time, what should be done?Not learned 310. Which of the following conditions will occur if the brake solenoid coil burns out on a cargo winch with an electrical brake?Not learned 311. What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?Not learned 312. The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when ______.Not learned 313. Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.Not learned 314. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 315. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?Not learned 316. An example of an antifriction bearing is a __________.Not learned 317. Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?Not learned 318. Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?Not learned 319. Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.Not learned 320. The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to __________.Not learned 321. When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.Not learned 322. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 323. As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.Not learned 324. A ball bearing will overheat if ______.Not learned 325. A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.Not learned 326. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.Not learned 327. What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?Not learned 328. For more complete vessel protection when using an impressed current cathodic system, what other features are built into the system?Not learned 329. Impressed current cathodic hull protection systems are commonly used on modern vessels. What are these systems designed to replace or reduce?Not learned 330. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.Not learned 331. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.Not learned 332. Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?Not learned 333. What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?Not learned 334. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?Not learned 335. What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?Not learned 336. If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, __________.Not learned 337. "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the __________.Not learned 338. When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________.Not learned 339. Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________.Not learned 340. Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as __________.Not learned 341. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be _________.Not learned 342. To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should __________.Not learned 343. During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should __________.Not learned 344. The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the __________.Not learned 345. During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the __________.Not learned 346. During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?Not learned 347. The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.Not learned 348. How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?Not learned 349. The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to _________.Not learned 350. When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be _________.Not learned 351. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________.Not learned 352. Which of the conditions listed should be immediately reported to the engineering officer on watch?Not learned 353. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 354. In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm response would be the most immediately critical?Not learned 355. You are making a round of the engine room and approaching the motor driven cargo pumps and discover a person laying at the foot of the ladder. What action should be taken?Not learned 356. By which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one body to another?Not learned 357. Which of the following statements is correct concerning heat transfer?Not learned 358. Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding machine?Not learned 359. Which of the following statements represents the FIRST precaution to be taken prior to working on any installed electrical component?Not learned 360. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?Not learned 361. Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object?Not learned 362. What is the best protection against hand injuries from pinch points associated with being required to perform maintenance or repairs on rotating machinery?Not learned 363. Steel-toed safety shoes are recommended for many types of work. What type of work activity would be an exception to the rule and where steel-toed shoes would NOT be recommended?Not learned 364. What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use?Not learned 365. When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned 366. Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?Not learned 367. Under what conditions is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 368. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 369. A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire?Not learned 370. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 371. A fire in the paint locker would probably be __________.Not learned 372. Fires are grouped into what categories?Not learned 373. Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class "B" fire?Not learned 374. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 375. A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________.Not learned 376. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________.Not learned 377. A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class __________.Not learned 378. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.Not learned 379. A fire can be extinguished by removing __________.Not learned 380. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 381. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.Not learned 382. The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is _________.Not learned 383. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________.Not learned 384. Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced by __________.Not learned 385. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as "light water", is especially suitable for fighting __________.Not learned 386. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?Not learned 387. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?Not learned 388. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.Not learned 389. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 390. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 391. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?Not learned 392. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.Not learned 393. Which of the following extinguishing effects for dry chemical extinguishing agents is considered the most prevalent?Not learned 394. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire, which of the listed fire extinguishing agents should NEVER be sprayed directly into the fire?Not learned 395. To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________.Not learned 396. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire?Not learned 397. "Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire?Not learned 398. The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is _________.Not learned 399. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.Not learned 400. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________.Not learned 401. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 402. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 403. A fire is considered "under control" when __________.Not learned 404. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 405. While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single "wye" gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________.Not learned 406. Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be directed __________.Not learned 407. If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers?Not learned 408. When re-entering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should initially __________.Not learned 409. When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you should always __________.Not learned 410. Which of the listed methods, is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?Not learned 411. Class C fires may be combated using a __________.Not learned 412. Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 413. A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________.Not learned 414. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.Not learned 415. To properly maintain fire hoses, you should __________.Not learned 416. What will happen if a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off?Not learned 417. When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and _______.Not learned 418. A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the handle position is changed from __________.Not learned 419. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.Not learned 420. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the fog applicators used in conjunction with the combination nozzle?Not learned 421. There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure?Not learned 422. Which of the following components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system?Not learned 423. The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over pressurization is called a __________.Not learned 424. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.Not learned 425. When fighting a machinery space fire, you should operate a fixed CO₂ system by opening the control valve to the space protected and __________.Not learned 426. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 427. When a ship's low-pressure CO₂ fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO₂ that will be released into the selected compartment?Not learned 428. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet?Not learned 429. Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________.Not learned 430. What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?Not learned 431. (1.7.4.1.1-2) Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life?Not learned 432. Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment to fight a fire?Not learned 433. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.Not learned 434. The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by __________.Not learned 435. Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type self- contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?Not learned 436. Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in __________.Not learned 437. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?Not learned 438. What term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazards?Not learned 439. Which health hazard term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact?Not learned 440. Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?Not learned 441. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.Not learned 442. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.Not learned 443. As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________.Not learned 444. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.Not learned 445. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.Not learned 446. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.Not learned 447. When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space __________.Not learned 448. Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________.Not learned 449. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 450. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?Not learned 451. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.Not learned 452. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?Not learned 453. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.Not learned 454. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a _____.Not learned 455. Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________.Not learned 456. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?Not learned 457. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.Not learned 458. If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be _______.Not learned 459. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is __________.Not learned 460. What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken?Not learned 461. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.Not learned 462. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 463. Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark?Not learned 464. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.Not learned 465. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.Not learned 466. While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?Not learned 467. Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 468. When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________.Not learned 469. The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of __________.Not learned 470. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?Not learned 471. Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea?Not learned 472. The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________.Not learned 473. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.Not learned 474. Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________.Not learned 475. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.Not learned 476. While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing. Your FIRST response should be to __________.Not learned 477. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.Not learned 478. You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do?Not learned 479. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 480. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.Not learned 481. In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.Not learned 482. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 483. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 484. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 485. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 486. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 487. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.Not learned 488. When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 489. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.Not learned 490. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 491. Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?Not learned 492. If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should ________.Not learned 493. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.Not learned 494. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 495. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 496. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 497. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.Not learned 498. What does the air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft provide protection against?Not learned 499. When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.Not learned 500. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 501. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.Not learned 502. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________.Not learned 503. An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.Not learned 504. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.Not learned 505. To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________.Not learned 506. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 507. With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from __________.Not learned 508. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?Not learned 509. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.Not learned 510. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 511. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 512. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoringNot learned 513. Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to __________.Not learned 514. In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the waterline, not over three inches in diameter, can be temporarily sealed by __________.Not learned 515. It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________.Not learned 516. The lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may be prevented by __________.Not learned 517. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.Not learned 518. The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.Not learned 519. Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.Not learned 520. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 521. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?Not learned 522. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 523. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 524. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?Not learned 525. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in shock?Not learned 526. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?Not learned 527. If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient in shock should be placed in which of the positions listed?Not learned 528. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?Not learned 529. What can be caused by severe airway burns?Not learned 530. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.Not learned 531. If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with __________.Not learned 532. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 533. If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and _______.Not learned 534. Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock?Not learned 535. What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?Not learned 536. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?Not learned 537. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 538. When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary surveys, what should you be familiar with?Not learned 539. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?Not learned 540. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?Not learned 541. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.Not learned 542. Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?Not learned 543. Antiseptics are used principally to __________.Not learned 544. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 545. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 546. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 547. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 548. What should you do before CPR is started?Not learned 549. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 550. Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of __________.Not learned 551. If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is __________.Not learned 552. When administering mouth to mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?Not learned 553. Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require any physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?Not learned 554. In which of the listed components is chemical energy converted to thermal energy with regards to boiler operation?Not learned 555. Which of the following is the purpose of the steam drum in a D-Type marine boiler?Not learned 556. In a single furnace boiler, where is the steam typically cooled for use as auxiliary steam?Not learned 557. After a boiler has been taken off the line and is cooling, the air cock is opened to __________.Not learned 558. After which of the following is the air cock to be closed when raising steam on a cold boiler?Not learned 559. A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to __________.Not learned 560. To properly remove the burner tip nut from the burner barrel, the barrel should be __________.Not learned 561. Which of the valves listed should be closed before lighting off a boiler?Not learned 562. The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.Not learned 563. When heated, fuel oil will __________.Not learned 564. Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?Not learned 565. Fuel oil settling tanks are used to __________.Not learned 566. Why are two fuel oil heaters "E" provided in the fuel oil system shown in the illustrationNot learned 567. Which of the conditions listed would indicate a dirty fuel oil strainer?Not learned 568. If you noted a large difference in the pressures indicated by a duplex pressure gage to the fuel oil system strainer, you should __________.Not learned 569. Which of the actions listed should be carried out immediately after securing the fires in one boiler of a two- boiler ship?Not learned 570. Which of the following statements about boilers is correct?Not learned 571. When raising steam on an idle boiler and the steam pressure has risen to about 5 pounds more than the pressure of the boiler already on the line, you can __________.Not learned 572. Which of the following precautions should be taken prior to lighting off a boiler?Not learned 573. If the water level in a steaming boiler is dropping rapidly and cannot be kept at the normal level by standard practices, you should __________.Not learned 574. Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?Not learned 575. The maximum temperature rise of oil passing through any reduction gear set, or bearing, should not exceed __________.Not learned 576. The best indication that a bearing is being properly lubricated is by the __________.Not learned 577. An overheated bearing in the main propulsion unit is indicated by __________.Not learned 578. Babbitt is a metal alloy commonly used for lining __________.Not learned 579. As found in a reduction gear drive system, thrust bearings serve to __________.Not learned 580. After the steam leaves the low-pressure turbine, it enters the _________.Not learned 581. In a cross-compounded turbine propulsion plant, steam enters the __________.Not learned 582. Steam supplied to the main propulsion turbines is ________.Not learned 583. Concerning the classification of steam turbines, a cross compound designed unit __________.Not learned 584. Most auxiliary turbine feed pumps do not require an external source of gland sealing steam because they __________.Not learned 585. The safety device provided on a turbo generator which closes the throttle automatically when the cooling water to the condenser is insufficient is called a/an __________.Not learned 586. A back pressure trip on a ship's service turbo-generator functions to trip the turbine under what circumstance?Not learned 587. An efficient seal is normally obtained between the upper and lower halves of a turbine casing by __________.Not learned 588. Which of the devices listed is found on an LP main propulsion steam turbine casing?Not learned 589. Which of the listed conditions aids in directing gland leakoff steam from the low-pressure propulsion turbine to pass through the gland exhaust condenser?Not learned 590. Gland sealing steam is used during steam turbine operation to prevent the loss of __________.Not learned 591. What is the main turbine gland sealing steam system designed to do?Not learned 592. While a vessel is underway, one of the FIRST indications of the failure of the gland leak off exhaust fan motor is __________.Not learned 593. The jacking gear on main propulsion turbines can be used to __________.Not learned 594. Which of the following methods is used to lubricate main propulsion turbine reduction gears?Not learned 595. The purpose of the main reduction gears is to __________.Not learned 596. One of the most common causes of reduction gear failure is gear wear caused by scoring as a result of __________.Not learned 597. Which of the devices listed is commonly used to compensate for the expansion and minor misalignments occurring between the main turbine rotor and the reduction gear?Not learned 598. A lube oil sample is taken from the main engine lube oil system and visually inspected. Which of the following would indicate water contamination?Not learned 599. Excessive water in an operating lube oil system can be detected by __________.Not learned 600. During high-speed operation of the main turbine propulsion unit, the heat absorbed by the lubricating oil is removed by the __________.Not learned 601. The lube oil coolers installed in a gravity lubricating oil system are located between the __________.Not learned 602. The gravity tank in a gravity lube oil system serves to __________.Not learned 603. In a pressure type main propulsion turbine lubrication system, the lube oil service pumps normally take suction from the main sump and discharge directly to the __________.Not learned 604. On a ship equipped with a gravity type lube oil system, which of the conditions listed will occur FIRST if the main lube oil pump discharge pressure is lost?Not learned 605. While a vessel is underway, which of the conditions listed would indicate a tube leak associated with the sea water-cooled lube oil cooler on service?Not learned 606. When a sudden increase in pressure occurs in a forced lubrication system, you should check for a __________.Not learned 607. Magnets are installed in the main propulsion turbine lube oil strainers to attract metal particles released through wearing of the __________.Not learned 608. The source of metal particles adhering to the magnets in a lube oil strainer is probably from the __________.Not learned 609. Lube oil is preheated before centrifuging in order to __________.Not learned 610. In a disk type centrifugal purifier, the bowl is mounted on the upper end of the __________.Not learned 611. The dirty oil inlet on centrifugal lube oil purifiers is located at the __________.Not learned 612. In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be __________.Not learned 613. A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?Not learned 614. When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water removed will __________.Not learned 615. A poorly cleaned lube oil purifier bowl may result in __________.Not learned 616. During the routine inspection of an operating centrifugal lube oil purifier, you notice oil discharging through the water discharge port. Which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 617. Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?Not learned 618. If fuel oil were being discharged from the waste water outlet of a fuel oil disk type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should __________.Not learned 619. The astern guarding valve on main propulsion steam turbine units must be open when a vessel is __________.Not learned 620. The jacking gear must be engaged as quickly as possible when securing the main turbines in order to __________.Not learned 621. While making your rounds, you notice the main lube oil temperature to be higher than normal. To remedy this situation, you should __________.Not learned 622. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fireroom status by verifying the boiler steam drum level and _________.Not learned 623. Which of the following relationships exist between the temperature developed in the combustion space, and the compression ratio of the engine?Not learned 624. Which of the following reasons represents why the designed compression ratio of a gasoline engine is lower than that of a diesel engine?Not learned 625. The most important factor in engine performance is the actual power output at the end of the crankshaft available for doing work. This is known as __________.Not learned 626. Diesel engines are classified as reciprocating internal combustion engines because they __________.Not learned 627. A naturally aspirated diesel engine at full throttle will have an intake manifold pressure __________.Not learned 628. The highest pressure in a diesel engine cylinder normally occurs __________.Not learned 629. The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel engine is to warn of __________.Not learned 630. Which of the following problems could develop due to the accumulation of oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel engine?Not learned 631. The possibility of a diesel engine crankcase explosion will be increased by operating an engine __________.Not learned 632. Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing?Not learned 633. Connecting rods in a diesel engine are used to connect the ________.Not learned 634. The linear motion of a diesel engine piston is converted into the rotary motion required to drive gears, propeller shafts, and generators by the __________.Not learned 635. Which of the terms listed below represents the operational speed at which excessive engine vibration is created?Not learned 636. The proper location for journal bearing oil grooves is __________.Not learned 637. A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?Not learned 638. On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?Not learned 639. Which of the statements represents a characteristic of the thrust collar in a Kingsbury thrust bearingNot learned 640. What is the function of the main thrust bearing?Not learned 641. In a diesel engine, a leaking exhaust valve can cause _________.Not learned 642. A main propulsion diesel engine is normally shutdown by __________.Not learned 643. To minimize corrosion, what are fuel oil strainer disks, spacers and scraper blades made of?Not learned 644. In what application is an emergency shutdown most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the pump itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 645. Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by __________.Not learned 646. The main advantage of unit injectors over other fuel injection systems is __________.Not learned 647. Fuel oil discharged into the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the __________.Not learned 648. Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles can be prevented by avoiding __________.Not learned 649. Fuel injection pumps using the port and helix metering principle requires the use of a __________.Not learned 650. Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system using individual plunger-type pumps __________.Not learned 651. The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection pump is controlled by __________.Not learned 652. In a normally operating diesel engine, the main source of lubricating oil contamination in the crankcase is a result of the __________.Not learned 653. Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube oil cooler will be indicated by a gradual increase in the lube oil __________.Not learned 654. For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?Not learned 655. What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?Not learned 656. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?Not learned 657. Which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate bearings in a small high-speed diesel engine?Not learned 658. In an auxiliary diesel engine "bypass type" lubricating oil system, the main lube oil pump forces __________.Not learned 659. Lube oil pumps taking suction from the sump of most small marine engines are usually __________.Not learned 660. The lube oil cooler is located after the lube oil filter in order for __________.Not learned 661. Before starting a diesel engine that has an engine driven lube oil pump, the engineer should __________.Not learned 662. Lube oil cannot be efficiently filtered if it’s __________.Not learned 663. Where would a coarse screen wire mesh strainer normally be found on a diesel engine lubrication system?Not learned 664. A dirty diesel engine oil filter element can best be detected by _________.Not learned 665. A dirty lube oil strainer can result in __________.Not learned 666. Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and filtration will be the most effective when the oil is at a __________.Not learned 667. For a continuous operation diesel engine, a duplex filter unit would be the best arrangement because __________.Not learned 668. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line?Not learned 669. A centrifugal oil purifier should be shut down if the __________.Not learned 670. Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?Not learned 671. Cooling water pumps driven by direct-reversing diesel engines are usually __________.Not learned 672. The highest pressure in any closed diesel engine freshwater cooling system is at the __________.Not learned 673. What would be considered a normal temperature increase between the inlet and outlet jacket cooling water of a medium or high-speed diesel engine operating at normal load?Not learned 674. A closed freshwater cooling system is commonly used with marine diesel engines because the __________.Not learned 675. In a diesel engine jacket water cooler, with sea water cooling the fresh water, the __________.Not learned 676. In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system employing a radiator, proper water temperature can be obtained by __________.Not learned 677. If the cooling water temperature and the lube oil temperature in a diesel engine are too high, the cause can be __________.Not learned 678. If the raw water supply pressure for a diesel engine cooling system is below normal, you should check for a __________.Not learned 679. In a closed cooling water system, which of the following problems can cause the water pressure to fluctuate?Not learned 680. A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water to directly cool the __________.Not learned 681. Corrosion inhibitors and/or soluble oils are added to diesel engine cooling systems to __________.Not learned 682. Antifreeze solutions containing ethylene glycol should not be mixed with corrosion protection oils, as the resultant mixture __________.Not learned 683. Which of the following statements is true concerning a main diesel engine oil cooler?Not learned 684. The temperature at which an adjustable bellows type thermostatic valve operates is determined by __________.Not learned 685. In an operating diesel engine, preignition can be caused by __________.Not learned 686. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is directly associated with engine __________.Not learned 687. An increase in the air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will result in a/an __________.Not learned 688. The process of supplying a diesel engine cylinder with air at a pressure greater than atmospheric is called _________.Not learned 689. Cooling the intake air supplied to a diesel engine will __________.Not learned 690. The power consumed during the scavenging process of a diesel engine is known as the _______.Not learned 691. The relative air pressure in the inlet manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine is usually __________.Not learned 692. Which of the following conditions is indicated by the presence of water in the scavenging air receiver?Not learned 693. The process of scavenging a two-stroke cycle diesel engine serves to __________.Not learned 694. Forcing the exhaust gases from the cylinder of an operating two cycle diesel engine with the aid of a blower is known as __________.Not learned 695. Maintaining the lowest possible scavenging air temperature at all times is not recommended due to the possibility of the __________.Not learned 696. Why will a turbocharged diesel engine produce black smoke if excessive additional load is applied too quickly?Not learned 697. During the valve overlap period, the exhaust pressure of a turbo-charged, four-stroke cycle diesel engine must be less than the intake manifold pressure to ensure __________.Not learned 698. Which of the listed types of superchargers will NOT have a volumetric capacity proportional to engine speed?Not learned 699. An operating diesel engine that suddenly loses power, is due to a/an __________.Not learned 700. A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine is an indication of a/an __________.Not learned 701. What statement is true concerning the charge air system of a modern turbocharged slow-speed two- stroke cycle diesel engine?Not learned 702. What is the function of the after coolers installed in the diesel engine air intake system?Not learned 703. Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in _________.Not learned 704. The power output of a turbo-charged diesel engine will drop if the cooling water flow through the after cooler is interrupted because the __________.Not learned 705. In a diesel engine exhaust system, the cooling of the exhaust gases below their dew point, will result in __________.Not learned 706. One of the factors limiting the amount of load which can be put on a modern marine diesel engine is the __________.Not learned 707. Exhaust pipes for separate main propulsion diesel engines can be combined only when __________.Not learned 708. The exhaust system for a turbocharged diesel engine functions to ________.Not learned 709. A dry-type exhaust silencer clogged with soot, will cause __________.Not learned 710. Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine is an indication of poor combustion which may be caused by __________.Not learned 711. Casing drains may be required on a waste heat boiler gas passage side to __________.Not learned 712. An exhaust gas bypass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order to __________.Not learned 713. The maximum pressure developed by a waste heat boiler is determined by the main engine exhaust __________.Not learned 714. Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?Not learned 715. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.Not learned 716. The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by _________.Not learned 717. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to ________.Not learned 718. Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on a boiler, are __________.Not learned 719. The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.Not learned 720. The solenoid valves in the fuel oil supply line to an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, are automatically closed by __________.Not learned 721. The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent what condition?Not learned 722. The pressuretrol which is installed on an auxiliary boiler senses steam pressure changes and __________.Not learned 723. What type of reduction gear would most commonly be used with twin medium-speed propulsion diesel engines driving a single shaft?Not learned 724. Reduction gear casings are vented in order to __________.Not learned 725. One advantage of electromagnetic slip couplings is __________.Not learned 726. Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be detected by using a dial indicator or __________.Not learned 727. When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine which is using an inadequately inflated air bladder clutch unit, you can expect __________.Not learned 728. Which of the listed diesel engine operating conditions should be checked immediately after any diesel engine is started?Not learned 729. When attempting to restart a warm high-speed engine, which of the following reactions can you expect?Not learned 730. In the starting process of a diesel engine, the main object is to attain the compression conditions sufficient to _________.Not learned 731. Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for starting air receivers?Not learned 732. Starting systems for large, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines are usually __________.Not learned 733. When an air started, four-stroke cycle diesel engine is being cranked over, the starting air is admitted to each cylinder during the beginning of its ________.Not learned 734. In a medium-speed marine propulsion engine equipped with direct admission air starting valves, the cylinders without air starting valves fire first because the __________.Not learned 735. Air motors used for starting some auxiliary diesel engines are generally the type known as __________.Not learned 736. Where is the air charge for an air starting system stored?Not learned 737. A two-stroke cycle diesel engine requires less starting air than a four-stroke cycle diesel engine, of equal displacement, because the two-stroke cycle diesel engine ______.Not learned 738. Which of the following problems can occur if you continually fail to drain off condensate from a starting air receiver?Not learned 739. An accumulator used in a hydraulic starting system is generally located between the __________.Not learned 740. Hydraulic starters are installed on many lifeboat diesel engines instead of comparable air start systems, because __________.Not learned 741. When an engine fitted with a hydraulic starting system starts up, the starter is protected from the higher speed of the engine by ________.Not learned 742. The purpose of the engine-driven hydraulic pump in an auxiliary diesel engine hydraulic starting system is to __________.Not learned 743. The pinion of an auxiliary diesel-electric starting motor normally engages the flywheel ring gear by means of a/an __________.Not learned 744. Auxiliary diesel engine electric starting motors use __________.Not learned 745. Diesel engine electric starting motors generally require heavier duty motors and operate at higher voltages than comparable starting motors for gasoline engines due to __________.Not learned 746. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if the electric starter motor pinion gear fails to disengage from the flywheel of a diesel engine after the engine has started?Not learned 747. An electric heater built into some smaller diesel engines is used to __________.Not learned 748. When starting air is admitted, a diesel engine turns over very slowly without firing. The cause may be __________.Not learned 749. One cause of diesel engine surging can be a result of __________.Not learned 750. Irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by __________.Not learned 751. Before starting a diesel engine, you should always __________.Not learned 752. In terms of units, how is the inductance of a coil measured?Not learned 753. What is the unit of measure for electrical resistance?Not learned 754. When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed has the highest permeability?Not learned 755. What is the correct name for current that flows in only one direction?Not learned 756. What is the name of the force that causes free electrons to flow in a conductor producing electric current?Not learned 757. What is the opposition to alternating current flow through a coil due to inductance called?Not learned 758. What is the combined effect of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and resistance in an alternating current circuit known as?Not learned 759. The term "volt" describes:Not learned 760. In a 60 Hz AC system, what is the duration in seconds for one complete cycle?Not learned 761. As a DC armature revolves within a stationary magnetic field, the reversals of magnetization of the armature core lags the current reversals which produces heat. What is the correct name for this action which is minimized by the use of soft silicon steel?Not learned 762. With respect to motors, how is ambient temperature defined?Not learned 763. The multiplier prefix "giga" (G) such as used in "gigabytes" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 764. The number of cycles per second occurring in AC voltage is known as what characteristic?Not learned 765. In a three-phase circuit, how far apart are the phase voltages?Not learned 766. AC circuits can possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and capacitance. In terms of units of measure, how is the capacitive reactance of the circuit expressed?Not learned 767. Alternating current circuits may develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. What is the unit of measure for expressing capacitance?Not learned 768. Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or controller, what should be done?Not learned 769. In order to safely carry out repairs to a generator circuit breaker, it must be isolated from the bus. How is this accomplished?Not learned 770. (1.1.10.2.2-2) When replacing fuses, what practice should be observed?Not learned 771. When working on a high voltage circuit, you should always have another person present with you. This person should have a good working knowledge of the hazards associated with working on high voltage electrical circuits as well as the first aid techniques for treating electrical shock. What other knowledge is essential?Not learned 772. When working on electrical circuits containing large capacitors, in addition to de-energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions should also be taken?Not learned 773. When maintenance personnel are working on electrical equipment, all supply switches should be secured in the open position and tagged. Who specifically should perform the lock-out/tag-out procedure?Not learned 774. Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de-energized circuit, or even one that is completely disconnected, you should do what FIRST?Not learned 775. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?Not learned 776. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would be unable to let go of the energized electrical conductor due to involuntary muscular contraction?Not learned 777. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would experience respiratory paralysis and be unable to breathe while still in contact with the energized conductor?Not learned 778. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would suffer ventricular fibrillation and could only be resuscitated with a ventricular defibrillator?Not learned 779. Contact with any energized electrical system conductor is potentially hazardous and precautions should be taken to prevent exposure. With all other factors considered equal (such as voltage, conducting path through the body and the duration of contact), contact with an energized electrical system conductor of which system type would produce the most damaging effect?Not learned 780. Before electrical work can be safely undertaken, the equipment must be de-energized, locked and tagged out, and verification must be made that the circuit is actually dead. What testing device is most certain to reliably verify that a circuit is actually dead?Not learned 781. Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of electrical isolation?Not learned 782. Which of the following voltage testers would be associated with high quality, be safe to use, and minimize the electric shock hazard?Not learned 783. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core is known as what?Not learned 784. What will happen to an electrical coil when the direct current flowing through the coil is increasing?Not learned 785. What is the correct name for the device used in an electrical circuit to change alternating current to direct current?Not learned 786. What will happen to a carbon resistor operating in electrical equipment that is NOT properly cooled?Not learned 787. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to the failure of a resistor due to overheating?Not learned 788. How does the resistance of a conductor vary?Not learned 789. The resistance of most conducting materials will change as a result of temperature change. What will happen to the resistance of copper wire when the temperature increases?Not learned 790. The existing resistance of a conductor is dependent upon its length, cross-sectional area, and what other factors?Not learned 791. How is electrical conductor insulation classed? Example: insulation class HNot learned 792. Why is copper often used as an electrical conductor?Not learned 793. What is the reason that some electric cables are formed of stranded wire?Not learned 794. Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining the wire gauge size of the cable to be used in a particular circuit?Not learned 795. To minimize magnetic field interaction between electrical conductors in physical proximity, what is the best practice?Not learned 796. What happens to the power loss when the current flow in a power transmission line is halved?Not learned 797. Hysteresis is one cause of electrical power loss associated with electricity generation equipment. What phenomenon results in hysteresis?Not learned 798. How are the line losses in a distribution circuit kept to a minimum?Not learned 799. In a simple DC circuit, the resistance is held constant while the applied voltage is halved. What will be the effect on the current flow as compared to the original current?Not learned 800. What is true concerning all of the connecting conductors of a DC series circuit?Not learned 801. What happens to the current in a series circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance increases?Not learned 802. Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same across each component in a parallel circuit?Not learned 803. Which of the following statements concerning a circuit with parallel connected resistors is correct?Not learned 804. Which of the following statements is true concerning circuits with parallel connected resistances?Not learned 805. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the applied voltage is 12 VDC, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, and R2 is 10 ohms what is the current flowing through R2 with the switch closedNot learned 806. What is the total effective resistance of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit if the resistance of R is 3 1 ohms, R is 4 ohms, and R is 5 ohmsNot learned 807. A battery is connected to a circuit containing three resistors in parallel. The values of the three resistors are 2 ohms, 3 ohms, and 6 ohms. What is the voltage of the battery if the total circuit current is 12 amps?Not learned 808. Which statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a parallel circuit?Not learned 809. Which of the formulas listed is correct for determining power?Not learned 810. How is the power dissipated as heat in a direct current circuit calculated?Not learned 811. How many watts of power is equal to one horsepower?Not learned 812. If the voltage supplied to the lighting circuit is 110 volts, how much current is drawn by a 100 watt light bulb?Not learned 813. What is the wattage of a heating element drawing a current of 30 amperes, at 120 volts?Not learned 814. A 125 volt DC motor is rated at 10 kW. What is the current rating of the motor?Not learned 815. Two 100 watt light bulbs rated at 100 volts are connected in parallel across a 100 volt power supply. What will be the total power consumed by the two bulbs?Not learned 816. What is a useful instrument for checking 3-phase AC motor performance by measuring possible unbalanced currents?Not learned 817. An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement of which of the following instruments?Not learned 818. Which of the listed meters uses a shunt connected in series with the load, but parallel with the meter movement?Not learned 819. Why are external shunts sometimes used with ammeters?Not learned 820. What is an ammeter used to measure?Not learned 821. If a digital multimeter set up to measure AC volts reads slightly above 'zero' when its leads are disconnected, what is this a result of?Not learned 822. When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with a meter movement coil, what capability does this provide?Not learned 823. What is the instrument called a galvanometer used to measure?Not learned 824. Which of the following would best describe a standard electric meter movement that uses the principles of electromagnetism to measure current?Not learned 825. To limit the current flow through a DC voltmeter to as low a value as possible, what is the moving coil circuit provided with?Not learned 826. Whether analog or digital, what are most AC voltmeters calibrated to measure?Not learned 827. A digital multimeter is set up as an ohmmeter. What does a display reading of "OL" ohms as read across the ends of a wire conductor indicate?Not learned 828. Which of the listed statements is correct when using a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter?Not learned 829. In troubleshooting a circuit in a console, you find that a resistor may be faulty. Which of the precautions listed must be observed when using an analog or digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter to carry out this test?Not learned 830. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an analog multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what should you do?Not learned 831. What is an ohmmeter used to measure?Not learned 832. Which of the meters listed should only be used after a circuit has been electrically de-energized?Not learned 833. Circuit resistance is usually measured off-line (de-energized) with an ohmmeter. In the absence of an ohmmeter, however, resistance may be INDIRECTLY measured on-line (energized) using what meter (or meters)?Not learned 834. What practice could potentially damage a multimeter?Not learned 835. If the approximate voltage to be measured in an electric circuit is not known, what should be done?Not learned 836. Under what circumstance would a hand-held portable phase sequence indicator be used should the main switchboard mounted fixed phase sequence indicator be inoperative?Not learned 837. The clamp-on AC ammeter consists essentially of a split-core and a rectifier-type instrument connected to the secondary winding of a particular type of transformer. Which type is used?Not learned 838. In order to take a current reading with a "clamp-on" ammeter, what should be the status of the jaws of the instrument?Not learned 839. Which of the following precautions should be taken when troubleshooting various power circuits using a digital multimeter?Not learned 840. Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC power systems indicate which of the following values of the waveforms measured?Not learned 841. What is a wattmeter used to measure and indicate?Not learned 842. A switchboard ammeter indicates a reading slightly above 'zero' when the leads are disconnected. What is this caused by?Not learned 843. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, why should you use a high impedance multimeter?Not learned 844. How many cells are within in a 24 volt lead-acid battery?Not learned 845. The electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery is distilled water and what other substance?Not learned 846. In general, how are nickel-cadmium storage batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?Not learned 847. What is the approximate voltage per cell produced by the nickel-iron (Edison) battery?Not learned 848. What should be the primary consideration when choosing a battery for a particular application?Not learned 849. The individual 6-volt lead-acid batteries, when connected as shown in the illustration, as a battery bank would produce how many voltsNot learned 850. What is the proper way to mix the electrolyte for a lead-acid battery?Not learned 851. Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium batteries is true?Not learned 852. Which statement is true concerning the charging of a wet cell nickel-cadmium battery?Not learned 853. When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperatures, what is the best procedure to keep it from freezing?Not learned 854. What could cause a very slow, but continual loss of electrolyte level from the cells of a storage battery?Not learned 855. When charging, which of the following represents the recommended maximum allowable temperature for electrolyte in a lead-acid battery?Not learned 856. What will the charging of lead-acid storage batteries always result in?Not learned 857. When charging lead-acid batteries, why is the charging rate reduced as the battery nears its full charge capacity?Not learned 858. When charging a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery, what statement is true?Not learned 859. When a nickel-cadmium battery begins gassing while connected to the battery charging circuit, what should be done?Not learned 860. Why should battery rooms be well ventilated during the charging process?Not learned 861. Under normal conditions, storage batteries used for starting the emergency diesel generator are maintained in a charged state by which of the following methods?Not learned 862. When a hydrometer indicates specific gravity what is being compared?Not learned 863. What is the nominal open-circuit cell voltage of one lead-acid storage battery cell?Not learned 864. What should be done when correcting specific gravity readings of a lead-acid battery for existing temperature conditions?Not learned 865. What is the most reliable indication of the state of charge of a lead-acid battery?Not learned 866. What would you use to determine the state of charge of a sealed nickel-cadmium battery?Not learned 867. Which of the following statements concerning the specific gravity of a battery electrolyte is true?Not learned 868. Why should a breakable, mercury-filled thermometer NOT be used in a lead-acid battery to measure electrolyte temperature?Not learned 869. When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, what is the best method for detecting a weak or dead cell?Not learned 870. In terms of the battery electrolyte, when performing maintenance of alkaline batteries what should be done?Not learned 871. When troubleshooting an alkaline storage battery, what is the best way to locate a weak or dead cell?Not learned 872. In a shunt-wound DC generator, with what generator component are the shunt field windings connected in parallel with?Not learned 873. A variable shunt, connected across the series field coils of a DC compound wound generator, permits adjustment of the degree of compounding. What is this variable shunt called?Not learned 874. What is the primary purpose of the brushes of DC generators?Not learned 875. By what means is DC generator output voltage decreased?Not learned 876. Which of the terms listed best describes a compound-wound DC generator having a higher voltage at no load than at full load?Not learned 877. Brushes in a DC generator must be positioned in the neutral plane to avoid excessive sparking associated with the brushes. What device is used to prevent the shifting of the neutral plane due to armature reaction for varying generator loads.Not learned 878. How can the loss of residual magnetism in an alternator with a brushless excitation system be corrected?Not learned 879. One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC motor is by connecting the coil to a low voltage source, and testing for polarity. How is this done?Not learned 880. What is the function of the interpoles installed in DC motors?Not learned 881. In DC motor construction, where are the commutating windings wound?Not learned 882. In D.C. motor construction, with regard to the individual armature coils' ends, which statement is true?Not learned 883. Why are the armature cores of the D.C. motors constructed with laminated steel sheets?Not learned 884. In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field windings also passes through what component?Not learned 885. What type of DC motor is never connected to a belt driven load?Not learned 886. If an unloaded DC compound motor's shunt field were weakened by excessive rheostat resistance or by an open circuit, how would the motor respond?Not learned 887. As load is added to a DC shunt motor, how will the motor respond?Not learned 888. In a short-shunt cumulatively compound-wound DC motor, how is the shunt field connected?Not learned 889. The counter EMF of a DC motor is maximum when the __________.Not learned 890. In terms of voltage potential and current sources, how are shunt wound, series wound, and compound wound DC motors designed to operate?Not learned 891. What is an advantage of DC motors over AC motors?Not learned 892. Which of the listed conditions will occur if the polarity of the field poles and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor were both reversed?Not learned 893. What will happen if you reverse both the field and the armature connections of a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 894. The torque produced by a DC motor armature is the multiplication product of two factors, one being the density of the magnetic flux which is dependent upon the field current. What is the other multiplication factor?Not learned 895. What can insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor cause?Not learned 896. If a short circuit in the armature of a DC motor occurs what would be the result?Not learned 897. If a DC motor runs hot, what would most likely be the cause?Not learned 898. If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all other conditions being normal, what could be the possible cause?Not learned 899. Which of the following components are used to convert alternating current produced in the DC generator armature windings to direct current?Not learned 900. To effectively clean a commutator in good physical condition, what should be used?Not learned 901. How may propulsion DC motor brush pressures be calculated?Not learned 902. What can cause uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current generator?Not learned 903. In addition to improper brush pressure or seating, what can result in excessive sparking at the brushes of a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 904. What may cause brush sparking in a DC generator during commutation?Not learned 905. What is the item referred to as a pigtail on a DC motor brush rigging?Not learned 906. What is the function of the commutator associated with a DC motor?Not learned 907. What is the characteristic of the mica used in the commutators of DC machinery?Not learned 908. What is an important factor in minimizing D.C. motor commutator wear?Not learned 909. In general, what can cause D.C. propulsion motor brush sparking to be excessive?Not learned 910. What should be included in performing proper maintenance of a D.C. motor's commutator?Not learned 911. Which of the listed colors properly describes a DC motor commutator when correct commutation is taking place?Not learned 912. What would excessive sparking at the brushes of a running DC motor be an indication of?Not learned 913. What is the most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a D.C. motor?Not learned 914. What property does capacitance have in an AC circuit?Not learned 915. Which of the following statements concerning AC circuits is correct?Not learned 916. A three-phase alternator operates at 450 volts with a 0.8 power factor. If the ammeter indicates 250 amperes, what should be the kW meter reading?Not learned 917. Capacitors can be used in electric distribution systems to improve power factor. This is accomplished by seesawing energy between the capacitor and what device or devices?Not learned 918. A load is connected across the secondary of the step-up transformer shown in figure "B" of the illustration and the current drawn by the load is 10 amps. If the turns ratio is 1 to 10 and The input voltage is 110 VAC, what will be the current drawn by the primaryNot learned 919. What is the maximum allowable primary current of a 2 kVA step-down transformer with a four to one turns ratio if the primary is connected across a 440 volt line?Not learned 920. In figure "4" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three phase step down power transformer has a turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected to terminals 'A1-B1-C1', what voltage should develop across terminals 'A2-B2-C2'Not learned 921. When a low input voltage is delivered to a transformer which then produces a high output voltage, what is the proper name for the transformer type?Not learned 922. Which of the following statements is true concerning a step-down transformer in an operating AC power circuit?Not learned 923. What will happen to the primary winding when the load increases on the secondary windings of a transformer?Not learned 924. When a transformer is used to step down voltage, what statement is true?Not learned 925. What is the primary purpose associated with the use of transformers onboard ships with AC generators?Not learned 926. Which of the listed transformers uses a single winding to produce voltage transformation?Not learned 927. What is the basic operating principle of a transformer in terms of producing a voltage?Not learned 928. If the primary winding of a particular voltage transformer rated for a given AC input voltage is mistakenly connected to a comparable steady DC input voltage with similar source impedance, selfinductance and mutual inductance are not possible. As a result, what part of the transformer will result in current overload?Not learned 929. What is the purpose of a potential transformer in an electric circuit?Not learned 930. When replacing a defective transformer in a paralleled transformer configuration, which of the following actions must be carried out to ensure proper operation of the equipment it serves?Not learned 931. An AC generator produces 60 Hz at 1800 RPM. If the generator speed is increased to 1830 RPM, what will happen to the frequency in Hz?Not learned 932. In a conventional AC generator utilizing brushes, direct current from the exciter output is passed through the windings of the main field rotor by what means?Not learned 933. Compared to conventional alternators, brushless alternators are designed to operate without the use of what?Not learned 934. Of the listed factors that influence the magnitude of the voltage induced in the stator windings of an AC generator operating at a constant 60 Hz frequency, some are fixed due to the alternator design and one is variable due to alternator operating conditions. Which of the following listed factors is subject to be variable during generator operation?Not learned 935. Which of the following statements is true concerning all rotating-field three-phase alternators?Not learned 936. Why are space heaters provided on larger generators?Not learned 937. What is the most practical way to control the voltage output of an AC generator?Not learned 938. How is the frequency of an alternator at a given RPM determined?Not learned 939. How are the number of cycles per second developed by the alternator aboard your vessel determined?Not learned 940. How will the value of the output frequency change if the load is removed from a turbogenerator having a governor speed droop setting of 3%?Not learned 941. The governor control switch of an alternator is moved to the 'raise' position. What will be the effect of this action?Not learned 942. When securing an AC generator, what should be your FIRST action in accomplishing the procedural steps?Not learned 943. How is the power factor of an AC generator operating singularly determined?Not learned 944. Regarding an AC generator connected to the main electrical bus; as the electric load and power factor vary, a corresponding change is reflected in the generator armature reaction. How are these changes in armature reaction compensated for?Not learned 945. Why is motorization of an AC generator undesirable?Not learned 946. How are AC and DC generators similar?Not learned 947. What is the main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large AC generator?Not learned 948. A DC generator which is used to supply direct current in order to provide magnetizing current to an AC generator field is commonly known as what?Not learned 949. Which of the methods listed below is used to provide the rotational torque to cause an AC generator to turn?Not learned 950. How may chattering of the collector/slip ring brushes on a generator be remedied?Not learned 951. If a shipboard AC generator experiences a failure to produce a voltage, what may be the cause?Not learned 952. What may be the cause of an AC generator to fail to produce a voltage?Not learned 953. What will be the impact of reduced voltage applied to an AC induction motor during the starting period?Not learned 954. An alternator is being paralleled with one already on the line. At the INSTANT the incoming generator circuit breaker is closed, what will happen to the frequency of the incoming alternator?Not learned 955. What should be the frequency of the incoming machine when paralleling two AC generators immediately prior to closing its breaker?Not learned 956. What governor setting is directly related to the load sharing characteristics of two diesel alternators operating in parallel?Not learned 957. What device is used so that the kilowatt load sharing can be adjusted on paralleled generators?Not learned 958. If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel is decreased below normal and the other above normal, what will be the result on the alternator with the excitation decreased below normal?Not learned 959. Attempting to parallel an AC generator which is out of phase with the bus will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 960. After closing the circuit breaker to place two alternators with identical ratings in parallel, in terms of achieving a balance between the two alternators, what is the NEXT step?Not learned 961. If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel with another alternator, what will happen to the alternator that has experienced a loss of field excitation?Not learned 962. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving in the slow direction. What is the oncoming generator frequency relative to that of the bus frequency?Not learned 963. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0°. What would happen if you close the circuit breaker at this position?Not learned 964. You are paralleling two alternators. The synchronizing lamps grow dim and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0° position. What does this indicate?Not learned 965. An alternator switchboard has a synchroscope and synchronizing lamps. If the synchroscope is broken, which of the steps listed is the most essential before an alternator can be paralleled with the bus?Not learned 966. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of two alternators in parallel?Not learned 967. To remove an alternator operating in parallel with another unit from the main electrical bus, what must be done FIRST?Not learned 968. A main switchboard synchronizing panel is fitted with two synchronizing lamps and a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one synchronizing light is bright while the other remains dark, what does this indicate?Not learned 969. When paralleling two AC generators, the synchroscope selector switch and frequency meter switch should be set up to sense the frequency of which of the following?Not learned 970. When paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps, the flickering of all three lamps becomes progressively slower and slower. What does this mean?Not learned 971. What will happen when a loss of field excitation to an AC generator occurs while operating in parallel?Not learned 972. When two generators are on the line and are both connected across a shared load, how are they said to be operating?Not learned 973. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0°. What would this indicate?Not learned 974. What is the rotor speed of a six pole, 60 cycle, induction motor operating at full load with 3% slip?Not learned 975. What determines the direction of rotation of an AC induction motor?Not learned 976. In a basic AC induction motor, by what means is current induced in the rotor?Not learned 977. If an induction motor were to be operated at 90% rated voltage and at rated load, what would be the result?Not learned 978. In a three-phase, squirrel-cage type, induction motor, how is the primary rotating magnetic field established?Not learned 979. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operating characteristics of a basic squirrel-cage induction motor?Not learned 980. In a 15 HP induction-type motor with a squirrel-cage rotor, compared to the full load current at rated speed, how much starting current is required at standstill to produce successful starting torque?Not learned 981. What is the characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance inserted in series with the rotor winding at startup?Not learned 982. By periodically checking the stator-to-rotor air gap clearance in an induction motor with a feeler gauge, what is prevented?Not learned 983. If a three-phase induction motor is operated under a light load and it develops an open in one of its supply lines, what will be the result?Not learned 984. If a single-phase capacitor start induction motor fails to start, but instead hums without starting, what is most likely to be the problem?Not learned 985. Low horsepower, polyphase, induction motors can be started with full voltage by means of which kind of starter?Not learned 986. How is the reversal of an AC, three-phase, induction motor accomplished?Not learned 987. Why is a damper winding designed as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 988. What causes the rotor of a synchronous motor to operate in synchronism with the rotating field?Not learned 989. What is the most common source of excitation for the rotor of a synchronous motor utilizing slip rings and brushes?Not learned 990. An increase in which of the listed conditions will increase the speed of a synchronous electric motor?Not learned 991. Of the following listed single-phase induction motors, which has the highest starting torque?Not learned 992. Which statement is true concerning a split-phase induction motor?Not learned 993. What is the main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase, single phase motor?Not learned 994. What type of rotor is most commonly used in the split-phase family of single-phase induction motors?Not learned 995. What is the main function in the use of a capacitor for starting a single phase motor?Not learned 996. If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to open once the motor is in operation, what will be the result?Not learned 997. A single-phase capacitor-start induction motor starts, comes up to about 75% rated speed, slows down to a lower speed, and accelerates again. Where is the problem most likely to be?Not learned 998. Universal motors will operate on AC or DC current. In what application is this type of motor generally?Not learned 999. One item listed on the name plate of a cargo pump motor is 'degrees centigrade rise.' What does the number stamped for this item represent?Not learned 1000. With respect to electrical enclosure types, how may an electric motor be designed and constructed?Not learned 1001. What operational information data appears on the name plates of shipboard AC motors?Not learned 1002. As shown in figure "1" of the illustration, a correctly connected synchronous transmission causes the receiver to be in correspondence with the transmitter. If the receiver is out of correspondence, properly zeroed, but the torque direction is reversed as shown in figure "2", what figure shows the incorrect connections responsible for this conditionNot learned 1003. If coil 'R1-R2 -R3' on the transmitter in figure "C" shown in the illustration is turned 30°C lockwise, how will the corresponding coils 'R1-R2-R3' on the receivers (indicators) respondNot learned 1004. By what means is the burning of controller contacts due to arcing, when opening, prevented?Not learned 1005. If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out when the coil voltage is removed from the relay, what is the probable cause?Not learned 1006. The setpoint current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be increased by turning the dashpot in the "lower" direction. What effect will this action have?Not learned 1007. How are fuses rated?Not learned 1008. How would a circuit with a blown fuse be described?Not learned 1009. For what purpose are time delayed or delayed action-type fuses used?Not learned 1010. Which of the following precautions should be taken when a blown fuse, rated at 10 amperes, is replaced?Not learned 1011. In a single element cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for lighting and general power applications?Not learned 1012. In a dual element time-delay cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for motor applications?Not learned 1013. When changing fuses, what safety precaution should be taken after ensuring that the circuit is dead?Not learned 1014. In order to definitively determine whether or not fuse "3", shown in the illustration is blown using an on-line testing technique, across what points would you connect the voltmeter leadsNot learned 1015. To test fuses in an energized circuit, what testing apparatus or meter should be used?Not learned 1016. What would cause a fuse to blow?Not learned 1017. When replacing a fuse with one of a ampere higher rating than the original, which of the following is true?Not learned 1018. By what means does a molded-case circuit breaker provide protection against short circuits?Not learned 1019. By what means is protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case circuit breakers provided?Not learned 1020. How does a circuit breaker differ from a fuse?Not learned 1021. How will a molded-case circuit breaker with a thermal trip unit react immediately after it has tripped, as a result of an overloaded motor circuit?Not learned 1022. When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-position, what is the indication for the position of the circuit breaker?Not learned 1023. What device can be used to check the calibration of a circuit breaker?Not learned 1024. What should be done when performing maintenance of circuit breaker contacts?Not learned 1025. What statement is true in reference to reading electrical motor controller elementary diagrams?Not learned 1026. In general, what type of starter would be used to connect a three-phase induction motor to full line voltage at the instant of start-up?Not learned 1027. Autotransformer starters, sometimes called starting compensators, are sometimes used with larger polyphase induction motors. What function do they perform?Not learned 1028. A three-phase, induction-type motor experiences an open in one phase. Which of the listed automatic protective devices will prevent the motor from being damaged?Not learned 1029. When a motor is started by the controller shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what circuit components are in the holding current flow path through the control circuit while the motor is in operationNot learned 1030. What is the primary functional purpose of the KM3 contactor as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1031. What is the functional name of an electrical device which prevents simultaneous energization of loads thereby preventing damage or injury?Not learned 1032. Why are motor controllers seldom troubled with grounds?Not learned 1033. A motor controller contains three selector push buttons labeled 'start', 'jog', and 'stop'. What will happen to the motor when the 'jog' button is depressed?Not learned 1034. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between an electromagnetic relay and an electromagnetic contactor as used in motor control and power circuits?Not learned 1035. What functionality does a low-voltage protection circuit as used in electric motor starting equipment provide?Not learned 1036. Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in voltage and automatically restart it when the voltage is restored to normal?Not learned 1037. What is the name of the type of motor control circuit that will not permit automatic restarting after power is restored, following a power failure?Not learned 1038. Moisture damage, as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch master switches, can be reduced by the use of what installed equipment?Not learned 1039. Why are motor controllers seldom troubled by grounds?Not learned 1040. How can a motor be protected from overheating due to sustained motor overload?Not learned 1041. What is the function of the autotransformers used with autotransformer starters used on some large AC motors?Not learned 1042. What statement is true concerning a ground in a 450 VAC electrical circuit outside the engine room?Not learned 1043. Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded electrical distribution system?Not learned 1044. If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal brilliance, whether the test button is depressed or released, what does this indicate?Not learned 1045. In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are provided. One lamp goes dark and the others increase in brightness when the "ground test" button is pushed. What is indicated?Not learned 1046. A three-phase electrical system is equipped with ground detecting lamps. If one of the lamps is dark, and remains dark when the test switch is operated, what does this indicate?Not learned 1047. Multiple grounds have developed and were initially indicated by the ground-detecting system as one ground. What is the FIRST step in locating the grounds?Not learned 1048. Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator?Not learned 1049. If the pointer fails to return to zero when a hand-cranked megger is disconnected, what does this indicate?Not learned 1050. In an ungrounded distribution system, as compared to a normal indication, what is the indication on a switchboard of a current carrying conductor making an accidental electrical contact with a wiring metal conduit?Not learned 1051. The push button on the handset of a ship's sound-powered telephone must be depressed in order to do what?Not learned 1052. Besides the fluorescent lamp itself and possibly a starter, which of the following components is included in a fluorescent lighting fixture?Not learned 1053. Incandescent lamps are classified according to the shape of the bulb and the type of service, as well as the size and style of the base. How are incandescent lamps rated?Not learned 1054. When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be replaced immediately. If not, what condition could the resultant flashing cause?Not learned 1055. When a fluorescent lamp fails to light and both ends of the tube are severely darkened, what must usually be replaced?Not learned 1056. As shown in the wiring diagram of the semi-automatic navigation lighting panel circuit, what would cause the buzzer to sound and for the indicator light to illuminate in the line section for a particular navigation running lightNot learned 1057. With what device is the RPM of an AC generator indirectly measured on a switchboard when operating singly (no other generator connected to the bus)?Not learned 1058. When would be the safest time to close the ship's main switchboard "shore power" circuit breaker?Not learned 1059. What is a bus disconnect link used to isolate?Not learned 1060. What is meant by a 'dead front' switchboard?Not learned 1061. In comparison to a main switchboard for a DC electrical distribution system, a main switchboard for an AC electrical distribution system requires the use of which of the following devices, whereas a DC main switchboard does not?Not learned 1062. By what means is an AC generator prevented from becoming motorized?Not learned 1063. The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized unless what condition is met?Not learned 1064. What is the name of the part of the shipboard electrical system used to control the distribution of power to the branch circuits?Not learned 1065. Under voltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard circuit breakers for what reason?Not learned 1066. Upon failure of the ships normal electrical power supply, by means of what device does the emergency generator supply power to the emergency switchboard, but not the main switchboard?Not learned 1067. By what means is a diesel driven emergency generator prevented from being paralleled with the ship's service generators?Not learned 1068. The 24 volt DC bus on the emergency switchboard is used to supply power to what system or equipment?Not learned 1069. When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days, what should be ensured or manually accomplished?Not learned 1070. Which of the following statements, concerning the cleaning maintenance of a brushless generator, is correct?Not learned 1071. Which of the following materials is recommended for burnishing the slip rings of an alternator after grinding or turning?Not learned 1072. In performing routine maintenance of a ship's service alternator, what should be included?Not learned 1073. Rotor-to-stator air gap readings should be periodically taken for electrical generation equipment. What is the best tool to use to take these measurements?Not learned 1074. With regard to the maintenance of electrical generating machines with insulated pedestal bearings, what practice should be avoided?Not learned 1075. Which of the following statements represents the FIRST step in seating new brushes on slip rings?Not learned 1076. When performing routine AC motor maintenance what should be included?Not learned 1077. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cleaning of electrical contacts?Not learned 1078. Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of silver-plated contacts?Not learned 1079. Grease coatings on electrical contact surfaces increase contact resistance. How should grease accumulations be removed?Not learned 1080. Which of the following represents the accepted method of cleaning dust and foreign particles from electrical equipment while limiting damage to electric components?Not learned 1081. What should be included in the performance of routine maintenance of dry-type transformers?Not learned 1082. What is the proper way to apply plastic electrical tape to an electric cable splice?Not learned 1083. Which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire connections for electronic components on printed circuit boards?Not learned 1084. Two contributors of electronic console failures are heat and vibration. To combat some of their effects, what should be included in performing preventive maintenance procedures?Not learned 1085. What should be done with a capacitor that is obviously discolored due to excessive heat?Not learned 1086. What can cause the pitting or welding of controller contacts?Not learned 1087. If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become short circuited, what will happen to the coil?Not learned 1088. If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up when the operating coil is energized, what could be one possible cause?Not learned 1089. When troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the contacts are welded together. What is the most probable cause?Not learned 1090. A loud buzzing noise coming from the contacts in a magnetic controller can be caused by what condition?Not learned 1091. When troubleshooting a motor controller, all indications are that a relay coil should be energized. If there was no magnetic pull, with rated voltage measured across the coil, what would be the most probable cause?Not learned 1092. What can be the cause of excessive heat or burning contacts in an operating motor controller?Not learned 1093. If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a magnetic motor controller, what should you do?Not learned 1094. As shown in figure "A" and "B" of the illustration, the potable water pump is short-cycling by the action of the pressure switch as a result of an unusually high level in the potable water hydro- pneumatic header tank. What is most likely the causeNot learned 1095. An open occurring within the field rheostat of an AC generator can be detected by short circuiting its terminals and making specific observations. What should be checked for?Not learned 1096. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short circuits, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor coils through the collector rings. What would be the indication of a short-circuited coil?Not learned 1097. Which of the following methods should be used to test for an 'open' stator winding coil in a wye-connected AC squirrel cage induction motor?Not learned 1098. When troubleshooting AC motors, what can a portable growler be used to locate?Not learned 1099. In testing a three-phase delta-connected winding for an open circuit using an ohmmeter, what must be done?Not learned 1100. How can a shorted armature coil in a DC motor be detected?Not learned 1101. An open in the armature of a DC motor is suspected, but is not found by visual inspection of the commutator. What would be the next step in troubleshooting this problem?Not learned 1102. How is a short in the shunt field of a DC motor best located?Not learned 1103. Which of the listed conditions might contribute to very rapid wearing of a DC machine's commutator bars?Not learned 1104. Besides for checking for circuit continuity, what can an ohmmeter be used for in diagnosing a DC motor?Not learned 1105. A capacitor is to be tested with a digital multimeter set up to measure ohms. If the meter is connected to a shorted capacitor, how would the meter display respond?Not learned 1106. An open primary coil in a voltage transformer (VT) will be indicated by which of the listed conditions?Not learned 1107. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test a capacitor, what would the display read if the capacitor is shortedNot learned 1108. Which of the following statements concerning electrical cables is correct?Not learned 1109. A four pole turbo generator is used in conjunction with a 160 pole propulsion motor. If the generator is turning at 3,200 RPM, what is the current speed of the propeller?Not learned 1110. What is the shape of the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier used in an analog circuit?Not learned 1111. How may temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil be made, allowing continued operation until permanent repairs can be made?Not learned 1112. Besides a condition of overload, what could be a cause of an open armature connection in a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 1113. Which of the electronic schematic symbols represents the capacitor illustrated in figure 4 of the illustrationNot learned 1114. What is the name of the semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature?Not learned 1115. (1.1.11.1.3-12) A triac thyristor functions as a control device and can be thought of to function similarly as which of the following circuits?Not learned 1116. Which section of the circuit shown in the illustration smooth's out highest degree of pulsationsNot learned 1117. When a solid-state component of an electronic circuit is mounted to a metallic mass, what is the general purpose of that mass?Not learned 1118. Capacitors are commonly used on DC power supply circuits for engine room automation consoles. For what functional purpose are they primarily used in this application?Not learned 1119. In electronic circuitry, what does the abbreviation "PCB" commonly represent?Not learned 1120. If a delicate component must be soldered into a circuit, how can the component be protected from the heat of the soldering process?Not learned 1121. What would be the indication of a burned-out LED?Not learned 1122. Although saturable reactors are extremely useful in some applications, why is their gain low?Not learned 1123. Basically, a magnetic amplifier is a saturable-core reactor with the addition of what additional feature?Not learned 1124. Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled rectifier?Not learned 1125. Which of the referenced wave shapes would appear at test point 5 (TP5) with respect to ground referring to the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1126. What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?Not learned 1127. The most common instrument used to measure diesel engine exhaust pressure is the __________.Not learned 1128. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both positive and negative pressures?Not learned 1129. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying two pressures simultaneously?Not learned 1130. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two?Not learned 1131. Which of the following direct-reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump suction pressure gauge?Not learned 1132. If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?Not learned 1133. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of thermal volumetric expansion of a liquid as the temperature rises and features a linear scale?Not learned 1134. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?Not learned 1135. If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct this situation?Not learned 1136. What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?Not learned 1137. What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?Not learned 1138. When determining the level of a potable water hydro pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?Not learned 1139. In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be which of the following?Not learned 1140. Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________.Not learned 1141. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 1142. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.Not learned 1143. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 1144. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 1145. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 1146. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.Not learned 1147. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 1148. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?Not learned 1149. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 1150. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?Not learned 1151. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.Not learned 1152. If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can ________.Not learned 1153. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. Which action should be taken?Not learned 1154. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?Not learned 1155. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water?Not learned 1156. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.Not learned 1157. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?Not learned 1158. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 1159. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.Not learned 1160. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.Not learned 1161. According to the sample sheet of a typical "List of Motors and Controls" as shown in the illustration, which of the following motor applications features a means of keeping the motor windings warm and dry when the motor is idleNot learned 1162. (1.1.4.1.1-4) In actual applications, electrical connections associated with "R1, R2 and R3" of the transmitter to "R1, R2, and R3" of the indicators shown in figure "C" of the illustration are made by what meansNot learned 1163. The amount of voltage induced in the stator windings of a modern AC generator is primarily dependent upon which of the following?Not learned 1164. Assuming a standard 60 Hz input to the circuit shown in the illustration, what would be the ripple frequencyNot learned 1165. What is the characteristic that is associated with an "instantaneous-trip" single-element type fuse?Not learned 1166. The characteristics of the device shown in figure "8" of the illustration includes a stable voltage and low current while operating. Because of this, it can be suitably used in what type of circuitNot learned 1167. In the circuit 'B' of the illustration, what would be the result of the upper heating element being burned out and open circuitedNot learned 1168. (1.1.10.1.1-2) What is a common type of protective covering used on electrical conductors?Not learned 1169. What does the component labeled "B" shown in the illustration representNot learned 1170. The component labeled "CR1" in the circuit shown in the illustration serves what functional purposeNot learned 1171. Concerning the illustrated fire detection and alarm system, what statement is true concerning the wiring between zonesNot learned 1172. What controls rudder movement when the Operation Selector Switch shown in figure "A" of the illustration is in the "Controller" positionNot learned 1173. What is the current flow through R1 of the circuit in figure "B" of the illustration with the switch closed if the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 3 ohms and R3 is 6 ohms and the battery voltage is 12 VDCNot learned 1174. Which device will stop the motor shown in the illustration in case of a short-circuit (high current) motor faultNot learned 1175. Which of the diagrams shown in the illustration depicts the proper method of aligning brushes on a commutator for a DC machineNot learned 1176. Diesel-generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel with each machine operating at half-capacity. Diesel-generator #1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low lube oil pressure. The reverse power relay functions properly and trips generator #1 electrically off the board. In the absence of an automated power management system, which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?Not learned 1177. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what is the status of the silicon diode if the display reads 4.7 ohms when configured as in figure "A" and reads 490 ohms when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 1178. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test an AC contactor coil, what would the display read if the coil is open-circuitedNot learned 1179. A digital multimeter is set up as shown in the illustration to evaluate the single-circuit stator windings of a squirrel cage induction three-phase motor. The following readings are taken: From T1 to T2 reads "OL" ohms. From T2 to T3 reads "OL" ohms. From T3 to T1 as shown reads "1.6" ohms. What condition is indicatedNot learned 1180. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" to test a silicon diode, what is the status of the diode if the screen displays 0.70 V when configured as in figure "A" and displays OL V when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 1181. What is the direction of electron current through the load resistor in the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1182. What does the drawing in the illustrated circuit representNot learned 1183. The electrical diagram shown in figure "B" of the illustration represents what type of DC motorNot learned 1184. Which electrical schematic symbol represents a normally open thermostatNot learned 1185. An electromagnetic relay is most commonly used for what purpose?Not learned 1186. In figure "A" of the illustrated circuit, what is the main purpose of the bias resistor RbNot learned 1187. Which figure represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "2"Not learned 1188. In which figure shown in the illustration will the highest voltage be inducedNot learned 1189. In the flow of one cycle of single phase alternating current past any given point in a circuit, how many times will the current peak to a maximum or minimum?Not learned 1190. Which of the following illustrated manual motor starters represents the wiring diagram illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1191. Which of the following motors has a frame configuration for solid base mounting onlyNot learned 1192. Which of the following is a pictured three phase power transformer, usually used to step-down line voltage for supplying reduced voltage lighting circuitsNot learned 1193. Which of the following statements is true concerning the motor controller circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1194. Which of the following statements is true concerning step-down transformer operation?Not learned 1195. Four incandescent lamps are connected in series in a single circuit. If one of the lamp filaments burns out, what will happen to the other lamps?Not learned 1196. What is the function of section "D" of the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1197. What is the functional purpose of component "5" as shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1198. What functionality do the 'MS 1' contacts of the master switch shown in the illustration provideNot learned 1199. What will happen to the total effective circuit resistance when additional parallel circuits are added to a circuit?Not learned 1200. If the illustrated device in figure "B" has a step-up ratio of 10 to 1 what voltage would be measured at the secondary shortly after the primary of the device is connected to 110 volts DC and the primary current stabilized with a current of 12 ampsNot learned 1201. In the illustrated motor controller, what do the contacts across terminals "3" and "4" of the control circuit representNot learned 1202. In the illustrated motor controller, the motor fails to start. A voltmeter reading between 1 and 5 reads line voltage, while the voltmeter reading between 2 and 5 reads 0 VAC. What is most likely the problemNot learned 1203. The illustrated motor fails to start and gives a loud hum when the start button is depressed, what should then be your first actionNot learned 1204. Which of the illustrated motors has a totally enclosed motor enclosureNot learned 1205. Which of the illustrated resistors represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "C"Not learned 1206. Which of the illustrated safety disconnect switches represents a double-throw switchNot learned 1207. Which of the illustrated schematic symbols represents the type of switch pictured in figure "F" of the illustrationNot learned 1208. In the illustrated views of a lead-acid battery as shown in figures "A" and "B", what battery component has the sole function of preventing the individual plates in the negative plate group from coming into direct contact with the individual plates in the positive plate groupNot learned 1209. In the illustration, 1, 2, 3 and 4 are 12-volt batteries. What will be the nominal voltage as read by a voltmeter across the output of the battery bankNot learned 1210. In the illustration shown, what type of protection is provided to the potable pump drive motorNot learned 1211. In the illustration shown, what would be the functional name for the coil represented as '1S'Not learned 1212. What is indicated by gradual blackening at the ends of component "4" shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustrationNot learned 1213. Which line in figure "B" shown in the illustration represents the trailing edge of the waveNot learned 1214. If the line voltage to the controller shown in the illustration is 440 volts, what is applied across the control circuit assuming the control transformer has a 4:1 turns ratioNot learned 1215. Which of the listed conditions occur when '4th point lower' is selected on the winch hoist controller shown in the illustrationNot learned 1216. Which of the listed figures in the illustration represents a transformer configured for single voltage primary and a tapped secondaryNot learned 1217. Which of the listed figures shown in the illustration represents a three-phase transformer connected in a wye- wye configurationNot learned 1218. Which of the listed types of lighting fixtures does the diagram shown in figure "A" of the illustration representNot learned 1219. The motor fails to start on an attempted startup. With the start button depressed, a voltmeter reading between 1 and 5, as illustrated in figure "A", indicates line voltage available to the control circuit, what should be your next step in the troubleshooting processNot learned 1220. If the motor shown in the illustration will not start when the "off-run" switch is placed in the run position, which of the listed components should be checked FIRSTNot learned 1221. The motor starts when the start button in the illustration is pushed, but stops when the button is released. What is most likely the troubleNot learned 1222. Why must accidental grounds in a shipboard electrical system be repaired as soon as possible?Not learned 1223. What is the name of the component labeled Q1 as shown in section "D" of the regulated DC power supply illustratedNot learned 1224. What is the name of the DC motor speed control method utilized as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1225. What operational characteristic is associated with the illustrated manual starter circuit for a motor shown in figure "A"Not learned 1226. If overloading an electric motor becomes necessary in an emergency situation, what should be done to prevent damage to the motor while allowing sustained operation?Not learned 1227. Which of the pictured motors is a square core shaded pole motor used to drive very small electrical loads and is non-reversibleNot learned 1228. Which of the pictured motors within the split phase family of single phase induction motors represents a split phase, resistive start, induction run motorNot learned 1229. Which of the pictured solid-state semiconductor devices in the illustration is a rectifier bridgeNot learned 1230. Where is the power necessary to energize the howler "relay" coil at the engine room station as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1231. What power would be consumed by the series resistor in the circuit shown in the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 1232. After prior isolation and lock-out/tag-out procedures are performed, which electrical device requires discharging any stored electrical energy before any work may safely begin?Not learned 1233. The progressive operation of the contactors marked "1A" through "4A" provide the winch hoist controller shown in the illustration with what functionalityNot learned 1234. What is a purpose of the automatic bus transfer device shown in the illustrationNot learned 1235. What is the purpose of the capacitor within component "5" of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1236. What is the purpose for the device shown in figure "B" of the illustration in terms of its relationship with the loadNot learned 1237. For what reason should engine room watchstanders make periodic checks on the loads carried by electric motors?Not learned 1238. What is the recommended method used to resurface an eccentric DC motor commutator?Not learned 1239. Referring to figure "B" of the illustrated control circuit schematic diagram, which of the following statements is true when the motor is running in the forward directionNot learned 1240. In the regulated DC power supply illustrated, what is the function of section "B"Not learned 1241. If it is required that the coils 'R1-R2-R3' in the indicator of figure "A", turn opposite to those in the transmitter, as shown in the illustration, what action should be takenNot learned 1242. What is the resistance reading at "2" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1243. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 110 VDC is applied to a resistance of 32 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closedNot learned 1244. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 115 VDC is applied to a resistance of 12 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closedNot learned 1245. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 442.7 VDC is applied to a resistance of 1.25 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closedNot learned 1246. Which of the schematic symbols shown in the illustration represents a normally closed float level switchNot learned 1247. When shore power is being connected to a ship in drydock, what must be ensured, assuming that the ship's generators are rated at 450 VAC, 60 Hz with a total capacity of 5000 kW?Not learned 1248. As shown in figure "6" of the illustration, what does the symbol represent as used in electrical drawingsNot learned 1249. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", and "D" of the illustration, what is the usual means by which the rotation direction of the motor is reversedNot learned 1250. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, when the DC motor in figure "A" is operating at minimum speed what are the armature and field characteristicsNot learned 1251. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which of the operations listed will happen when the 'jog button' is pushedNot learned 1252. As shown in figure "C" of the illustrated typical ground fault sensor, what statement concerning its installation is trueNot learned 1253. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the significance of the symbol indicated by "2" being illuminatedNot learned 1254. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated motor nameplate, what is the service factor at sea levelNot learned 1255. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, with a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what set of readings would be consistent with an open in phase "B" of the single circuit, wye-connected stator windings as shownNot learned 1256. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, fine adjustments such as "rate of turn signal" have no effect on steering stand operation when the 'operation selector switch' is in what positionNot learned 1257. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what is the purpose of the interpolesNot learned 1258. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what type of machine is illustrated in terms of the configuration of the windingsNot learned 1259. As shown in the illustrated electrically operated watertight door controller, how is the rotation direction of the door motor reversedNot learned 1260. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay circuit, what is the functional purpose of potentiometer "R2"Not learned 1261. As shown in the illustrated one-line diagram of a two-tiered emergency power system for a passenger ship, what statement is trueNot learned 1262. As shown in the illustrated plots of uncorrected and temperature corrected insulation resistance readings for a particular piece of equipment, at what point in time should the equipment have been refurbished or replacedNot learned 1263. As shown in the illustrated wiring diagram for an engine order telegraph system, what statement concerning the constant ringing and trouble alarm is trueNot learned 1264. As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, how is the direction of rotation of the motor reversedNot learned 1265. As shown in the illustration, assuming power is available at the control circuit, which listed action will occur FIRST when the "off-run" switch is placed in the "run" positionNot learned 1266. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder is of the reaction typeNot learned 1267. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder would be appropriate to use in a bidirectional motorNot learned 1268. As shown in the illustration, the change-over switch is what type of deviceNot learned 1269. As shown in the illustration, what are the characteristics of the trouble relay contactsNot learned 1270. As shown in the illustration of the elementary diagram of a three speed anchor windlass controller, which of the following contactor, relay, or timer coils operates with DC voltageNot learned 1271. As shown in the illustration, what event would give the same indication that would occur when a stern light circuit fuse blows openNot learned 1272. As shown in the illustration, which of the following conditions will occur as a result of a momentary loss of powerNot learned 1273. As shown in the illustration, which of the following pieces of equipment is provided with a remote push button stationNot learned 1274. As shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is correct concerning the circuits in a sound- powered telephone systemNot learned 1275. As shown in the illustration, what is the functional purpose of the normally closed and normally open auxiliary contacts of the hoist and lower contactors respectivelyNot learned 1276. As shown in the illustration, which of the lighting fixtures represents an incandescent bulbNot learned 1277. As shown in the illustration, if the line voltage is 450 VAC, what would be the applied voltage to the motor at the instant of startup and through the acceleration periodNot learned 1278. As shown in the illustration, what maintenance would be required of the circuit componentsNot learned 1279. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor "2S"Not learned 1280. As shown in the illustration, what type of starter is illustratedNot learned 1281. What statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a series circuit?Not learned 1282. If the supply voltage is 220 volts 60 Hz, what is the operating voltage of the motor controller control circuit illustrated in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1283. What does the symbol labeled "OL" represent as shown in the power circuit on lines T1 and T3 to the motor as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1284. In the system shown in the illustration, the engine room station is unable to signal any other station, nor is any other station able to signal the engine room station. The engine room station can, however, ring itself by proper positioning of its selector switch. What is the most probable cause of this problemNot learned 1285. A thermal-magnetic molded case circuit breaker for a 300 kW alternator is rated at 500 amperes at full continuous load. Which of the following conditions will MOST likely trip the breaker?Not learned 1286. The torque-speed and current-speed curves for a three-phase induction motor with a squirrel-cage rotor are shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration. Which of the following statements is true concerning the depicted curvesNot learned 1287. You are troubleshooting the control circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration utilizing on-line techniques. With the start button depressed, the following readings are obtained with a voltmeter: (Refer to Illustration EL-0123) "X1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC. "1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC. "2" to "X2" reads 0 VAC. "3" to "X2" reads 0 VAC. Which of the following indicates what the fault is?Not learned 1288. The turns ratio of the step-down transformer with dual voltage secondary as shown in figure "B" of the illustration is two to one (total). If 440 volts were applied to terminals 'H1' and 'H2', what would be measured across 'X1-X3' and 'X2-X4' assuming that the secondary windings are connected in parallelNot learned 1289. What type of circuit is represented by the diagram shown in the illustrationNot learned 1290. What type of control circuit logic is featured in the electrical schematic diagram for the motor starting circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1291. What type of electrical diagram is shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1292. What type of feedback is featured in the transistor amplifier shown in figure "B" of the illustration assuming that the phase relationship between input and output is identical to the transistor amplifier shown in figure "A"Not learned 1293. What type of motor enclosure is utilized for the motor labeled "A" in the illustrationNot learned 1294. What type of motor is illustrated by the schematic of figure "B" of the illustration and what type of starting relay is usedNot learned 1295. What type of starter is represented in the electrical schematic shown in the illustrationNot learned 1296. Using the catalog selection chart shown in Illustration EL-0180, determine the correct catalog number for a motor starter that meets the selection criteria detailed as follows: NEMA, Open enclosure, 3-pole Rated, at 90 continuous amperes, Vertically mounted, Electronic overload relay-standard feature set, Non-reversing starter, Operating coil rated at 120 VAC/60 HzNot learned 1297. In using a portable growler for the purpose of locating a shorted stator coil in an AC motor as shown in the illustration, what statement is true as the feeler is moved from slot to slot around the statorNot learned 1298. Which of the wave shapes shown in the illustration is termed a ramp or sawtooth waveNot learned 1299. The wet cell storage batteries shown in the illustration are connected in what configurationNot learned 1300. The winch shown in the illustration will operate normally in all speeds in both directions, with the exception that it will not accelerate into 'fifth point' hoist or 'fifth point' lower. What would be a possible causeNot learned 1301. Within the split phase family of single phase motors, what are the operational characteristics of the motor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1302. What would be the source current and transformer current as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, with the secondary tap connected as shown, if the supply voltage at the branch circuit breaker is 440 VAC and the unity power factor load current draw is 50 ampsNot learned 1303. What would be the total current flowing in the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 1304. What would be the voltage drop across the series string of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the source voltage is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, the resistance for R2 is 10 ohms and the resistance for R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 1305. The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________Not learned 1306. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.Not learned 1307. The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as __________Not learned 1308. When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize bimetallic corrosion?Not learned 1309. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 1310. What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station, where the valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?Not learned 1311. In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 1312. In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?Not learned 1313. An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________Not learned 1314. If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential order of treatment chambers within the plant?Not learned 1315. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by__________.Not learned 1316. The crosshatch design on the end of piece "3" in the illustration shown indicates that _______Not learned 1317. To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?Not learned 1318. The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________Not learned 1319. Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustrationNot learned 1320. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________Not learned 1321. Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurementsNot learned 1322. Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gageNot learned 1323. The dimension of the sensing gap in the left hand limit sensor assembly shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 1324. The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is _______Not learned 1325. If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessivelyincreased, the tool will __________Not learned 1326. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________.Not learned 1327. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?Not learned 1328. In what remote temperature indicating system is a voltage generated by the magnitude of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions?Not learned 1329. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils?Not learned 1330. To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.Not learned 1331. Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screwNot learned 1332. Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screwNot learned 1333. Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "C" in illustration GS-0015Not learned 1334. Which figure shown in the illustration, is the nut lock improperly usedNot learned 1335. Which of the following statements is correct for the illustrated circuit in figure "B"Not learned 1336. Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jawindependent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?Not learned 1337. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?Not learned 1338. Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 1339. Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail) to prevent gauge damage?Not learned 1340. Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device?Not learned 1341. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time?Not learned 1342. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 1343. The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an __________Not learned 1344. Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal, the harder the metal, the greater the drill's required __________.Not learned 1345. For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a Vernier scale making it possible to read in increments of __________.Not learned 1346. When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?Not learned 1347. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________Not learned 1348. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable cause is the __________Not learned 1349. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided by __________Not learned 1350. In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by __________Not learned 1351. Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure __________Not learned 1352. Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing toolNot learned 1353. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 1354. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure INot learned 1355. The illustrated valve is known as a __________Not learned 1356. Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weldNot learned 1357. Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dopeNot learned 1358. In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.Illustration GS-0078Not learned 1359. Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________Not learned 1360. Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________Not learned 1361. The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 1362. Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best be used on a workpiece to perform a right-hand facing operationNot learned 1363. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch producedis determined by the speed relationship between the __________.Not learned 1364. The letters "NPT" used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as shown in the illustration, indicates the __________Not learned 1365. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1366. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1367. Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the stem and is associated with an endless chain for operation?Not learned 1368. The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devicesNot learned 1369. (1.2.15-9) On US flag steam propulsion vessels, the main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to accomplish which of the following?Not learned 1370. What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?Not learned 1371. To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18-inch workpiece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over _________.Not learned 1372. Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?Not learned 1373. One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 1374. What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating liquid tank level?Not learned 1375. For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.Not learned 1376. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.Not learned 1377. In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?Not learned 1378. What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustrationNot learned 1379. Prior to initial light off of an idle boiler, what must first be done to prevent boiler flareback?Not learned 1380. To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________Not learned 1381. To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________Not learned 1382. The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if __________Not learned 1383. The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________Not learned 1384. When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct-reading pressure gauge, what should be done?Not learned 1385. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is __________Not learned 1386. What is the reading of the Vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustrationNot learned 1387. Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unitNot learned 1388. Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a handwheel for local operation if the motor fails. If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?Not learned 1389. The root opening dimension shown in the illustration is used to indicate the __________Not learned 1390. Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quartersor flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?Not learned 1391. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of smallparts?Not learned 1392. Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridgesresembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?Not learned 1393. When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you shouldclose the __________.Not learned 1394. Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is thenegative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.Not learned 1395. The shaft sleeve for the pump shown in the illustration is identified by which item numberNot learned 1396. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?Not learned 1397. Which single illustrated lathe tool could be used to turn down the stock in figure IINot learned 1398. Spring reinforced oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the seal facing __________Not learned 1399. What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-waterseparator?Not learned 1400. What statement is true concerning portable power tools?Not learned 1401. What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate threaded fasteners?Not learned 1402. The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the __________.Not learned 1403. If a thermometer reads 80°C, what is the equivalent temperature in °F?Not learned 1404. If a thermometer reads 850 °F, what is the equivalent temperature in °C?Not learned 1405. What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne impact hazards?Not learned 1406. What type of pump is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1407. What type of valve is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1408. When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cuttingshould be __________.Not learned 1409. Which of the valves listed for the device shown in the illustration will be open while the unit is operating in the backflush modeNot learned 1410. A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by __________.Not learned 1411. On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of machinery and the manning of the engine room?Not learned 1412. A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles toeach other, and is called a __________.Not learned 1413. The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V" indicates __________Not learned 1414. According to the illustrated diesel engine cooling water systems diagram, what fluid is the low temperature central freshwater thermostat designed to maintainNot learned 1415. According to the illustrated diesel engine cooling water systems diagram, what is the functional description of the low temperature central fresh water thermostatNot learned 1416. According to the illustrated diesel engine fuel treatment and fuel service systems schematic, what is the purpose of the valve labeled "1"Not learned 1417. According to the illustrated diesel engine fuel treatment and fuel service systems schematic, what statement is true concerning the valves labeled "4" and "5"Not learned 1418. According to the illustrated diesel propulsion plant fresh water cooling systems diagram, in which subsystem is the deaerator locatedNot learned 1419. According to the illustrated main and auxiliary diesel engine cooling water systems diagram, which of the following heat exchangers are connected directly in series with one anotherNot learned 1420. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems diagram, which of the following heat exchangers would be isolated and bypassed while maneuvering in or out of portNot learned 1421. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems diagram, which of the following labeled heat exchangers represents the main lube oil coolerNot learned 1422. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems drawing, which of the labeled heat exchangers represents the charge air coolersNot learned 1423. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems drawing, which labeled heat exchangers use sea water as a cooling mediumNot learned 1424. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems drawing, which labeled pump is the main engine sea water cooling water pumpNot learned 1425. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems drawing, which labeled sea water-cooled heat exchanger would have the highest sea water inlet temperatureNot learned 1426. In addition to achieving a speed reduction for efficient propeller operation, what statement represents other possible functional purposes for reduction gears?Not learned 1427. In addition to checking the lube oil sump level and temperature of a line shaft steady bearing, what else must be checked for?Not learned 1428. As it applies to the combustion process associated with diesel engines, what is meant by the term "scavenging"?Not learned 1429. You are asked by the watch or duty engineer to check for any evidence for turbocharger surging. What should you check for?Not learned 1430. When checking a water-lubricated stern tube bearing while underway, what should be checked for?Not learned 1431. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "I", is the __________Not learned 1432. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________Not learned 1433. The diesel engine component labeled "3", shown in the illustration is called the __________Not learned 1434. In a diesel engine jacket water cooler, with sea water cooling the engine jacket cooling water, what statement is true?Not learned 1435. In a diesel engine lube oil cooler, with sea water cooling the lubricating oil, what statement is true?Not learned 1436. Diesel engines powering large vessels that drive fixed-pitch propellers through a nonreversing reduction gear are of what type?Not learned 1437. If a diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due to severe overheating, the crankcase __________.Not learned 1438. The diesel engine wrist pin in the illustration is indicated by the component labeled __________Not learned 1439. With a direct drive main propulsion arrangement, what statement is true?Not learned 1440. Ethylene glycol, when used as a coolant in a closed cooling system for a diesel engine, is more advantageous than untreated raw water because it __________.Not learned 1441. The expansion tank for a diesel engine closed cooling system is designed to maintain a constant head on the system and __________.Not learned 1442. Which of the following methods is used to lubricate main propulsion medium-speed diesel engine reduction gears?Not learned 1443. Which of the following methods is used to securely fasten the Babbitt lining of a reduction gear bearing to its shell?Not learned 1444. What is the function of the intake system for a diesel engine?Not learned 1445. In an HFO service system, what is the immediate destination of the fuel unconsumed by the main propulsion diesel engine?Not learned 1446. The illustrated device is operated directly by __________Not learned 1447. In the illustrated diesel engine, which label points to the pistonNot learned 1448. How is the illustrated strainer element cleaned during engine operationNot learned 1449. In what location is heavy fuel oil kept below the flash point?Not learned 1450. In what location is heavy fuel oil kept above the flash point, but below the boiling point of water?Not learned 1451. The lube oil strainer shown in the illustration is used on the reduction gear of a mid-size diesel engine. The strainer elements consist of __________Not learned 1452. A magnetic strainer is primarily used in diesel engine reduction gear oil systems to remove small particles of __________.Not learned 1453. By what means are two sections of propulsion line shafting typically joined together?Not learned 1454. A modern centrifuge, similar to the device shown in the illustration, is opened for periodic cleaning. The most common cause of operating failure after reassembling is due to __________Not learned 1455. When monitoring a heavy fuel oil treatment plant, what would be an indication that the treatment plant throughput volume is less than the main engine consumption?Not learned 1456. If oil discharges are detected when the scavenging air receiver drains are blown on a slow-speed, two-stroke, turbocharged, aftercooled engine, what is the most likely oil source?Not learned 1457. A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________.Not learned 1458. The pinion gear shown in the illustration, is located __________Not learned 1459. What is the primary purpose of self-aligning spherically-seated line shaft bearings?Not learned 1460. When a slow-speed diesel engine is used to directly drive a fixed-pitch propeller, how is a stop order met?Not learned 1461. If a slow-speed two-stroke cycle diesel engine is fitted with exhaust valves located in the cylinder heads, what scavenging flow-pattern is utilized?Not learned 1462. If a slow-speed two-stroke cycle diesel engine is fitted with scavenging air ports and exhaust ports located on opposite sides of the cylinder wall, what scavenging flow-pattern is utilized?Not learned 1463. During the starting of a diesel engine, compression gases are prevented from backing into the air starting system, shown in the illustration, by the __________Not learned 1464. What statement is true concerning oil-lubricated stern tube bearings?Not learned 1465. A three-way thermostatic control valve regulates the diesel engine cooling water temperature by passing a portion of the water __________.Not learned 1466. What type of clutch is pictured in the illustrationNot learned 1467. What type of clutch is used in the illustrated medium-speed diesel engine reduction gearNot learned 1468. What type of propeller thrust reversing method (or methods) is or are used with a main propulsion slow-speed crosshead type diesel engine installation?Not learned 1469. Upon conducting a machinery space round on a main propulsion diesel, you detect a significant amount of water discharge when blowing down the charge air cooler or scavenging air receiver drains. What should you do?Not learned 1470. Upon conducting a machinery space round on a slow-speed main propulsion diesel, you detect a significant amount of oil discharge when blowing down the scavenging air receiver drains. What should you do?Not learned 1471. Valve '1', as shown in the illustration, should be operated when __________Not learned 1472. What would be the most accurate description of the illustrated cutaway drawing of a reduction gear as used for medium-speed diesel propulsionNot learned 1473. What would be the primary indication that a fuel oil service system booster pump duplex suction strainer needed to be shifted over and cleaned?Not learned 1474. What would be the primary indication that a heavy fuel oil purifier supply pump suction strainer needed cleaning?Not learned 1475. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 1476. In addition to moving the victim to a shaded area, placing the victim in a prone position and loosening any tight clothing, what treatment should be administered?Not learned 1477. What is the alarm signal for a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant ship?Not learned 1478. In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________.Not learned 1479. What is the characteristic of the blood flow associated with arterial bleeding?Not learned 1480. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systemsNot learned 1481. When conversing over a sound-powered telephone circuit, the words "yes" and "no" should be avoided. What are appropriate substitutes?Not learned 1482. A crude oil wash (COW) system is considered as __________.Not learned 1483. The equipment shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 1484. Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?Not learned 1485. In the event of a grounding, which tanks should be sounded to determine any evidence of holing?Not learned 1486. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by__________Not learned 1487. The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit shown in the illustration is produced by __________Not learned 1488. The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________Not learned 1489. Following a grounding, what action should be performed prior to the use of the main engines?Not learned 1490. Following a grounding, what would happen to the level of a slack double bottom tank if the tank was holed?Not learned 1491. In which of the following heat related illnesses has the body lost its ability to regulate the body core temperature?Not learned 1492. In which of the following heat related illnesses has the individual lost the ability to lose heat through the mechanism of sweating?Not learned 1493. In which of the following heat related illnesses is the individual most at risk for losing consciousness?Not learned 1494. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?Not learned 1495. Which of the following shoring materials is a long bar or beam used to distribute the pressure of a shore?Not learned 1496. Which of the following shoring materials is a portable beam designed to support a damaged structure?Not learned 1497. Which of the following shoring materials is a short flat block that is placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure?Not learned 1498. Which of the following shoring materials is used to tightly make up the difference in length of a shore cut slightly shorter than the measured distance for required length and must be frequently checked for tightness?Not learned 1499. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?Not learned 1500. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.Not learned 1501. If you hear a CO2 activated alarm warning you to evacuate the engine room, how much time do you have to evacuate before the CO2 gas is released into the engine room?Not learned 1502. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____Not learned 1503. If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________Not learned 1504. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?Not learned 1505. What is meant by the phrase "partial flooding with boundaries intact"?Not learned 1506. What is meant by the term "counter-flooding"?Not learned 1507. What method of controlling severe bleeding is preferred and normally attempted first?Not learned 1508. One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________.Not learned 1509. To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would _________Not learned 1510. In order for a compartment to completely fill up due to flooding, what condition must exist?Not learned 1511. Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred method of rewarming?Not learned 1512. Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred temperature of rewarming when using the wet rapid rewarming method?Not learned 1513. You are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure?Not learned 1514. What is the purpose of depressing the button on the handle of a sound-powered telephone handset?Not learned 1515. The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________.Not learned 1516. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.Not learned 1517. The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by __________.Not learned 1518. What strategy for avoiding heat exhaustion is most likely to result in more severe pain as associated with heat cramps?Not learned 1519. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?Not learned 1520. What type of wound is generally associated with a scraping away of the skin and may be very painful?Not learned 1521. What type of wound is most susceptible to a tetanus (lockjaw) infection?Not learned 1522. An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________.Not learned 1523. Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat?Not learned 1524. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?Not learned 1525. Water applied as a "fog" can be more effective than water applied as a "solid stream", because __________.Not learned 1526. If you wish to initiate a station-to-station call over a sound-powered telephone circuit, what is the correct procedure?Not learned 1527. While working in a hot engine room, what is your best protection against heat exhaustion?Not learned 1528. While working in a hot engine room, what is the cause of heat exhaustion?Not learned 1529. According to the illustrated auxiliary steam and HP bleed steam system diagram, what are the characteristics of the steam supplied to the main feed pump drive turbinesNot learned 1530. According to the illustrated auxiliary steam and HP bleed system diagram, what steam loads are supplied by the same steam pressure reducing stationNot learned 1531. According to the illustrated cross-compounded main propulsion turbine set, where are the astern elements locatedNot learned 1532. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the correct sequential order of heat exchangers that the main condensate pump pumps condensate throughNot learned 1533. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the normal source of heat for the boiler air heaters when the vessel is underway under full powerNot learned 1534. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the normal source of heat for the first stage feed heater and the distilling plants when the vessel is underway under full powerNot learned 1535. According to the illustrated diagram, what statement is true concerning the operation of the main condenser hotwell level control deviceNot learned 1536. According to the illustrated diagram, what statement is true concerning the operation of the "make-up valve"Not learned 1537. According to the illustrated lubricating oil system diagram, which of the labeled items would be used to manually strip out the sludge from the bottom of the main lube oil sump prior to entry for cleaningNot learned 1538. According to the illustrated lubricating oil system diagram, which of the labeled items would be used to verify that the gravity lube oil tank is full and overflowingNot learned 1539. According to the illustrated steam and HP bleed system diagram, which steam pressure reducing station has the lowest set pointNot learned 1540. In addition to sensing steam drum water level, what additional sensing input does a two-element feedwater regulator control system utilize?Not learned 1541. The adjustable spherically seated self-aligning bearing housings used in turbines are provided with oil deflector rings. The function of these rings is to __________.Not learned 1542. When blowing tubes, what is the determining factor in deciding how many revolutions of rotation of a sootblower element are required?Not learned 1543. When blowing tubes on an integral superheat boiler fitted with an economizer, the operating sequence to be followed is recommended by the manufacturer. What section of the boiler is generally blown first and last?Not learned 1544. Under what circumstances would a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear most likely be used?Not learned 1545. When cleaning boiler fuel oil atomizer parts, what type of cleaning tool should NEVER be used?Not learned 1546. In a coil-type forced circulation water-tube boiler, __________.Not learned 1547. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "IV", is the ________Not learned 1548. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________Not learned 1549. Control of the fuel oil metering valve in an automatically fired boiler is accomplished by a __________.Not learned 1550. Which of the following conditions is indicated by oil flowing through a lube oil gravity tank overflow sight glass?Not learned 1551. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated air register and burner assembly represents the means by which the flame may be visually checked for color and conditionNot learned 1552. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated air register and burner assembly represents the mechanism for operating the register air doorsNot learned 1553. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated air register and burner assembly represents the poke hole cover and would be temporarily removed to poke through a clinkerNot learned 1554. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated section of boiler refractory represents the insulating blockNot learned 1555. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of the level or drain regulator associated with the feed water heater shown in the illustration is correctNot learned 1556. Which of the following statements about gravity type lube oil systems is correct?Not learned 1557. Where do fuel oil vapors tend to accumulate in an engine room?Not learned 1558. Fuel piping should be regularly inspected for leaks. What leak location would be particularly troublesome in terms of presenting a fire hazard?Not learned 1559. For the gland seal regulator shown in the illustration, an increase in gland seal pressure will result in ________Not learned 1560. In a gravity type lube oil service system, if no lube oil appears in the sight glass of the return drop line while underway, this is a positive indication that __________.Not learned 1561. In the illustrated exploded view of a pivoted shoe thrust bearing, identify the base ringNot learned 1562. The intermediate pressure bleed steam system, shown in the illustration, is used to supply steam at approximately __________Not learned 1563. The item shown in the illustration is commonly identified as a _________Not learned 1564. Which of the labeled items attached to the top of the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which saturated steam is delivered to the superheaterNot learned 1565. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum helps prevent surging of water within the drum as a vessel pitchesNot learned 1566. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the last line of defense in helping to prevent moisture carryover into the saturated steam leaving the steam drumNot learned 1567. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which feed water is introduced into the steam drumNot learned 1568. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which floating impurities are removed from the steam drumNot learned 1569. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which water treatment chemicals are introduced into the steam drumNot learned 1570. Which line in the illustration shown provides live steam to the gland seal regulatorNot learned 1571. On a main propulsion turbine set of a merchant ship, where is the astern staging generally located?Not learned 1572. What method of burner light-off presents the greatest danger to boiler flareback?Not learned 1573. What is the name of the device pictured in the illustrationNot learned 1574. What is the name of the nozzle which is associated with the steam drum and is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1575. What is the normal destination of steam exiting a main feed pump drive turbine?Not learned 1576. During normal operation of a main propulsion turbine, the lube oil supply temperature to the bearings should be maintained at approximately __________.Not learned 1577. When operating with the auxiliary feed line, feed water flow is controlled __________.Not learned 1578. In what part of a main boiler fuel oil service system is it permissible to raise the temperature of the fuel above the flash point?Not learned 1579. When performing a bottom blow on a boiler, what valve is spun open quickly?Not learned 1580. When performing a periodic gauge glass blow down to insure that the glass is free and operating correctly, what action is performed first?Not learned 1581. When placing a cleaned and properly made up atomizer in the spare atomizer rack, how should the atomizer be stored?Not learned 1582. What is the purpose of the items labeled "moving blades" located on the illustrated steam turbineNot learned 1583. What is the purpose of the item labeled "nozzle" located on the illustrated steam turbineNot learned 1584. As shown on the illustrated huddling chamber type safety valve drawing, what item is associated with setting the blow down adjustmentNot learned 1585. As shown on the illustrated soot blower diagram, what item is responsible for opening and closing the steam admission poppet valve at the appropriate times during element rotationNot learned 1586. As shown on the illustrated sootblower diagram, how is the sootblower element rotatedNot learned 1587. What size drill is used to drill the orifice of the sprayer plate of the illustrated atomizerNot learned 1588. A slight vacuum is maintained in the shell of the first stage heater shown in the illustration. The primary reason for the vacuum is to __________Not learned 1589. What is the source of heat for a third stage feed heater (if fitted) while a vessel is underway under full load?Not learned 1590. What statement concerning the operation of a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear is true?Not learned 1591. What statement is true concerning the illustrated boiler saddle, support and footNot learned 1592. What statement is true concerning the illustrated steam turbine bearing lubricating oil flow and temperature indicating deviceNot learned 1593. Which statement is true concerning the operation of item 12 on the illustrated air register and burner assemblyNot learned 1594. What statement is true concerning a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear?Not learned 1595. In terms of the completeness of combustion, in viewing the condition of the stack, what would be the indication of the MOST complete combustion and HIGHEST boiler efficiency?Not learned 1596. In terms of the diluting effect of excessive excess air, when viewing the flame through a peephole, what would be the indication of the greatest diluting effect with far too much excess air?Not learned 1597. When transferring fuel from a fuel storage tank to a fuel oil settling tank, what is the best protection against an oil spill?Not learned 1598. What type of bearing is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1599. What type of thrust is the bearing shown in the illustrated steam turbine shaft bearing designed to absorbNot learned 1600. The unit shown in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 1601. The upper section of the feedwater heater indicated by "G" in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 1602. When used for the purpose of controlling the temperature of main steam, what is the source of water and steam for the illustrated deviceNot learned 1603. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 1604. What should you do in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim?Not learned 1605. "Arc eye" can be the result of gazing into an electric arc produced by an electric arc welder where the eyes are inadequately protected. What is the characteristic of the onset of symptoms such as pain, watering of the eyes, and gritty sensation like sand in the eyes?Not learned 1606. According to the illustrated steam tables, what would be the superheater outlet temperature if saturated steam at 400 psia was elevated 192Not learned 1607. According to the temperature/enthalpy diagram for water at atmospheric pressure, if the substance is undergoing a heat loss, what heat transfer process is represented by the region associated with "4"Not learned 1608. Besides extreme exertion in a hot environment such as an engine room, what causes heat cramps which is pain and spasms associated with the abdomen, leg, and arm muscles?Not learned 1609. Dimension "X" indicated on the architects scale, shown in the illustration, will be equal to __________Not learned 1610. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?Not learned 1611. Greases used for most marine applications would use what thickening base?Not learned 1612. If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, what does this indicate?Not learned 1613. If you hear the general alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle, what does this indicate?Not learned 1614. In the diagram illustrated, the direction of flow through item 3 is __________Not learned 1615. In which lubrication application is a lubricating oil with demulsibility properties most likely to be used?Not learned 1616. The illustrated drawing shows a correct front "F" and top "T" view of an object. Of the views labeled "1","2","3", and "4", the one that correctly represents the right side view for a third angle projection is_______Not learned 1617. The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 1618. The illustrated valve, figure "A", needs to be repaired due to a leak across the valve disk. To disassemble the valve you should __________Not learned 1619. The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 1620. To operate a portable foam fire extinguisher, you should __________.Not learned 1621. To prevent blowback when attempting to light off an idle boiler, what statement is true?Not learned 1622. What communications system would be operational despite a loss of ship's electrical power?Not learned 1623. What does "G" represent in the illustrationNot learned 1624. What is a possible utilization of device "F" shown in the illustrationNot learned 1625. What is meant by the phrase "solid flooding"?Not learned 1626. What is the alarm signal for manning boat stations or boat drills onboard a merchant ship?Not learned 1627. What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated rising stem gate valve?Not learned 1628. What is the whistle signal for stop lowering boats?Not learned 1629. What statement below summarizes an engine lubricating oil's viscosity given as 20W-50?Not learned 1630. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, the packing gland nuts should be _______.Not learned 1631. Which of the following maintenance procedures would require a tag-out/lock-out to be performed?Not learned 1632. Which of the projections represents the left side view of the object "X" in the illustrationNot learned 1633. While fires are lit in a boiler, in terms of uptake dampers and air register doors, what conditions must be met?Not learned 1634. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a bottoming tap is correctly used for __________.Not learned 1635. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action is for the space to be __________.Not learned 1636. For what purpose is the variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor induction motor provided?Not learned 1637. In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is a must for cleaning inside corners?Not learned 1638. In terms of consistency (or "stiffness"), what is the most common grade of grease for most marine applications as set forth by the National Lubricating Grease Institute (NLGI)?Not learned 1639. The minimum length of dimension "C" shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 1640. The valve depicted in the illustration shown is a __________Not learned 1641. There are three pieces of information that should be included in delivering a message via a sound-powered telephone. Which of the following represents the proper sequence of information delivery?Not learned 1642. What is the primary function of the device illustratedNot learned 1643. What is the primary reason that idle burners on a boiler be regularly checked to ensure that they do not drip?Not learned 1644. What is the purpose of a ship's service generator circuit breaker's reverse power trip?Not learned 1645. What is the voltage across "R1" of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closed if the applied voltage is 24 volts and resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 1646. Which of the following direct reading gauge types is the most popular type used for local display of pressures in the engine room?Not learned 1647. Which of the following statements describes the difference between the primary windings and the secondary windings of an ideal 2:1 stepdown voltage transformer?Not learned 1648. Which of the following statements represents the important factor that must be considered when replacing a faulty diode in a generators excitation field rectifier assembly?Not learned 1649. In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal burns it is important to prevent or reduce __________.Not learned 1650. According to the illustrated diesel engine fuel treatment and fuel service systems schematic, what would be the appropriate valve configuration for operating the two heavy fuel oil purifiers in seriesNot learned 1651. According to the illustrated lubricating oil system diagram, which of the labeled items is the lube oil storage tankNot learned 1652. Greases used for most marine applications would have what National Lubricating Grease Institute (NLGI) grade?Not learned 1653. Which of the following types of bearings are used as line shaft bearings?Not learned 1654. As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause ______.Not learned 1655. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting EXCEPT?Not learned 1656. Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 1657. According to the temperature/enthalpy diagram for water at atmospheric pressure, if the substance is undergoing a heat gain, what heat transfer process is represented by the region associated with "4"Not learned 1658. When installing CAUTION tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned