Q804 - Oiler, Part I, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?Not learned 2. Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?Not learned 3. Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.Not learned 4. The designation 'schedule 80' refers to __________.Not learned 5. Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints or __________.Not learned 6. When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.Not learned 7. Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length for pipe nipples?Not learned 8. Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called "pipe _____________".Not learned 9. A pipe coupling is a fitting having __________.Not learned 10. Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.Not learned 11. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 12. Tubing is sized by __________.Not learned 13. Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?Not learned 14. Copper coil tubing is best cut with a _________.Not learned 15. The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a __________.Not learned 16. Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed __________.Not learned 17. After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should ______.Not learned 18. Some heavy-duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _________.Not learned 19. An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.Not learned 20. Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?Not learned 21. Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross-sectional tip?Not learned 22. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil wire or tightly coiled steel?Not learned 23. Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.Not learned 24. Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?Not learned 25. Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.Not learned 26. Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?Not learned 27. Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become __________.Not learned 28. A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of __________.Not learned 29. Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangular-shaped holes and slots?Not learned 30. The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.Not learned 31. Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called __________.Not learned 32. It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is __________.Not learned 33. When using a chisel, you should __________.Not learned 34. The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the _________.Not learned 35. A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.Not learned 36. The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you _________.Not learned 37. What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed head?Not learned 38. Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?Not learned 39. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.Not learned 40. A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the ________.Not learned 41. For the power hacksaw shown in the illustration, how should the teeth point for the blade being installedNot learned 42. To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.Not learned 43. Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the __________.Not learned 44. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more accurately if you __________.Not learned 45. When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.Not learned 46. A hacksaw blade will break if __________.Not learned 47. The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.Not learned 48. If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will __________.Not learned 49. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for __________.Not learned 50. If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.Not learned 51. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?Not learned 52. The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.Not learned 53. When internal threading for bolts, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.Not learned 54. Taps and dies used for threading pipe, under U.S. standards, are __________.Not learned 55. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.Not learned 56. A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly __________.Not learned 57. A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.Not learned 58. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, "pitch" is the __________.Not learned 59. The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.Not learned 60. Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?Not learned 61. The open-end wrench size for a standard 3/4 inch American National hex head bolt is __________.Not learned 62. A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.Not learned 63. A metal scribe commonly found on a combination square measuring tool should only be used to __________.Not learned 64. A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file __________.Not learned 65. Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.Not learned 66. Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of it slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt?Not learned 67. Open end wrenches are __________.Not learned 68. In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.Not learned 69. A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.Not learned 70. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.Not learned 71. Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?Not learned 72. An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.Not learned 73. Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.Not learned 74. To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________.Not learned 75. Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?Not learned 76. The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _________.Not learned 77. To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.Not learned 78. The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.Not learned 79. A dial indicator is used to measure __________.Not learned 80. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.Not learned 81. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you should use a __________.Not learned 82. A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.Not learned 83. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.Not learned 84. Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to __________.Not learned 85. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________Not learned 86. A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to __________.Not learned 87. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure __________.Not learned 88. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.Not learned 89. Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?Not learned 90. The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as __________Not learned 91. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________.Not learned 92. A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.Not learned 93. For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a __________.Not learned 94. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a __________.Not learned 95. A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.Not learned 96. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the __________.Not learned 97. The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the __________.Not learned 98. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?Not learned 99. If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should __________.Not learned 100. Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the __________.Not learned 101. To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.Not learned 102. Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.Not learned 103. The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.Not learned 104. Tinning a soldering iron will __________.Not learned 105. Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.Not learned 106. Solder is an alloy of __________.Not learned 107. When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.Not learned 108. With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________.Not learned 109. When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, __________.Not learned 110. Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxy-acetylene regulators and torches?Not learned 111. Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxy-acetylene torch?Not learned 112. The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is __________.Not learned 113. The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a _______.Not learned 114. To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.Not learned 115. When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts be tightened?Not learned 116. If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 117. Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 118. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.Not learned 119. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________.Not learned 120. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?Not learned 121. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by __________.Not learned 122. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?Not learned 123. Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?Not learned 124. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.Not learned 125. The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring __________.Not learned 126. The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.Not learned 127. The device shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 128. What is the reason that P-type or S-type traps are fitted on the sinks in a head?Not learned 129. If water hammer develops while opening the valve in a steam line, which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 130. Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?Not learned 131. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.Not learned 132. A pump is defined as a device that __________.Not learned 133. The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.Not learned 134. The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to __________.Not learned 135. Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by __________.Not learned 136. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?Not learned 137. Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required?Not learned 138. Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.Not learned 139. One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a __________.Not learned 140. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that __________.Not learned 141. Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low pressures?Not learned 142. The leakage of air into the pump casing by way of the packing gland of a condensate pump, is prevented by __________.Not learned 143. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?Not learned 144. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.Not learned 145. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.Not learned 146. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?Not learned 147. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _______.Not learned 148. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 149. To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?Not learned 150. A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?Not learned 151. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.Not learned 152. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to ________.Not learned 153. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.Not learned 154. Which of the conditions listed could prevent a centrifugal condensate pump from developing its rated capacity?Not learned 155. Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 156. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?Not learned 157. The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.Not learned 158. Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?Not learned 159. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by __________.Not learned 160. When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be _________.Not learned 161. When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?Not learned 162. Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?Not learned 163. The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to __________.Not learned 164. To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should __________.Not learned 165. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by_______.Not learned 166. Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?Not learned 167. A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by __________.Not learned 168. Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the __________.Not learned 169. When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be ______.Not learned 170. Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?Not learned 171. Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by __________.Not learned 172. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.Not learned 173. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump __________.Not learned 174. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.Not learned 175. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?Not learned 176. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?Not learned 177. An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.Not learned 178. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the __________.Not learned 179. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________.Not learned 180. Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?Not learned 181. The cylinders and intercoolers of most low-pressure air compressors are cooled by __________.Not learned 182. For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multi-stage air compressor, interstage cooling will __________.Not learned 183. The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.Not learned 184. The usual method of unloading a low-pressure air compressor at start-up is accomplished by __________.Not learned 185. One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to __________.Not learned 186. When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an aftercooler, what must be done with the reservoir?Not learned 187. If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system and other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the __________.Not learned 188. Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat exchangers to __________.Not learned 189. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.Not learned 190. If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?Not learned 191. If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?Not learned 192. What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?Not learned 193. If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end waterboxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?Not learned 194. The auxiliary exhaust system shown in the illustration can be supplied by steam from the __________Not learned 195. What is the purpose of the main steam stop bypass valve?Not learned 196. High pressure and low pressure drain systems are part of the __________.Not learned 197. Clean low-pressure steam drains are collected in the __________.Not learned 198. The atmospheric drain tank (ADT) normally drains to the _______.Not learned 199. High-pressure steam drains are normally discharged to the __________.Not learned 200. Condensate return lines from tank heating coils are led to the __________.Not learned 201. Which statement is true concerning drain inspection tanks?Not learned 202. If live steam is supplied directly to the tank heating coils, the collected drains in the "clean" section of the contaminated drain inspection tank are removed directly to the __________.Not learned 203. Item 4 shown in the illustration represents a __________Not learned 204. How is the emergency bilge suction valve typically used?Not learned 205. What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?Not learned 206. By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?Not learned 207. Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?Not learned 208. What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?Not learned 209. What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide residual disinfectant in the potable water?Not learned 210. Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a potable water system?Not learned 211. Most type(s) of microbiological growths in fuel are __________.Not learned 212. Which of the pumps listed operates at constant speed and delivers water to the deaerating feed tank at a nearly constant pressure?Not learned 213. Condensate pumps have distinctly noticeable characteristics and can usually be recognized by their ______.Not learned 214. Zincs are installed in the main and auxiliary condenser waterboxes to __________.Not learned 215. Which statement listed represents a vital function of the main condenser?Not learned 216. Which of the condensers listed is cooled by sea water?Not learned 217. While underway, vacuum in the main condenser is primarily caused by the __________.Not learned 218. A main condenser utilizing a scoop for the circulation of sea water must be constructed as a __________.Not learned 219. Waterboxes on condensers are vented to __________.Not learned 220. In a main propulsion steam turbine installation, the condensate pump initially discharges to the __________.Not learned 221. Air trapped within the main condenser shell is detrimental because it will __________.Not learned 222. The automatic recirculating valve in the main condensate recirculating line is controlled by a temperature sensor which is located at the __________.Not learned 223. Salt water contamination of condensate could occur at which component?Not learned 224. Excessive recirculation of condensate should be avoided, as it can cause __________.Not learned 225. Steam condensed in the air ejector intercondenser, drains to the __________.Not learned 226. Air accumulated in the intercondenser of the air ejector assembly is discharged directly to the __________.Not learned 227. The cooling water flow from an air ejector intercondenser and aftercondenser is discharged directly into the _______.Not learned 228. Which statement is true concerning two-stage air ejector assemblies?Not learned 229. In the condensate system, the automatic recirculating valve can be actuated by the __________.Not learned 230. Main condensate recirculating systems are primarily intended to __________.Not learned 231. Serious tube leaks in the air ejector aftercondenser assembly may cause __________.Not learned 232. While vacuum is being raised on the main unit and the turbine is being warmed, condensate is recirculated to the main condenser to __________.Not learned 233. If the condensate level in the loop seal of the air ejector intercondenser is lost, __________.Not learned 234. Under normal conditions, the rate of heat transfer in a feedwater heater is most greatly affected by the __________.Not learned 235. The DC heater functions to __________.Not learned 236. The DC heater automatic level dump valve is used to __________.Not learned 237. Cooling water to the vent condenser in a DC heater is supplied by the _______.Not learned 238. If the boiler water and condenser hot well levels are normal, but the DC heater level is only 30% of full, you should __________.Not learned 239. The purpose of the steam control valves installed in the auxiliary exhaust line is to __________.Not learned 240. When starting a turbine driven boiler feed pump, care should be taken to ensure that the recirculating valve is open. Which of the following valves should be closed when starting?Not learned 241. An excess pressure governor would normally be used on a __________.Not learned 242. The constant pressure governor of a turbine-driven feed pump maintains which of the following pressures at a constant value for all capacities?Not learned 243. Which system should be used when required to raise the water level in an idle boiler?Not learned 244. Under EMERGENCY operating conditions with the main feed valve malfunctioning, what should be the proper valve positions for controlling feedwater to the boiler?Not learned 245. The main feed check valve functions to __________.Not learned 246. The pressure in the feedwater system must exceed boiler steam drum pressure in order to __________.Not learned 247. To prevent pulsations from developing in the boiler feedwater lines, the discharge side of a reciprocating feed pump is equipped with a/an __________.Not learned 248. Makeup feedwater is brought into an operating closed feed system via the __________.Not learned 249. Which of the listed components would be considered the dividing line separating the condensate system from the feedwater system?Not learned 250. Excessive water loss from the main feed system can be caused by __________.Not learned 251. Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when operated in cooler sea water temperatures?Not learned 252. The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled by __________.Not learned 253. In a two-stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is increased as it passes through the __________.Not learned 254. What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?Not learned 255. Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing __________.Not learned 256. In a flash type distilling plant, a screen is fitted over the suction connection to the brine overboard pump in order to prevent __________.Not learned 257. In which of the following types of evaporators is the control of brine density least important?Not learned 258. The primary reason low-pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high-pressure evaporators is __________.Not learned 259. The process of boiling sea water in order to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine is usually defined as ________.Not learned 260. When any low-pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the designed vacuum, the __________.Not learned 261. Diesel engine jacket water is used in the fresh water distillation process as the __________.Not learned 262. Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.Not learned 263. In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs. (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64Not learned 264. Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to __________.Not learned 265. The component, which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.Not learned 266. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _______.Not learned 267. Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the __________.Not learned 268. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by __________.Not learned 269. When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.Not learned 270. To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?Not learned 271. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity?Not learned 272. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally __________.Not learned 273. If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.Not learned 274. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.Not learned 275. The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate __________.Not learned 276. Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an __________.Not learned 277. Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.Not learned 278. The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is this temperature normally controlled?Not learned 279. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.Not learned 280. A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.Not learned 281. All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________.Not learned 282. All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________.Not learned 283. Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?Not learned 284. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is that the __________Not learned 285. What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?Not learned 286. The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when ______.Not learned 287. Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.Not learned 288. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 289. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?Not learned 290. An example of an antifriction bearing is a __________.Not learned 291. Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?Not learned 292. Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?Not learned 293. Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.Not learned 294. The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to __________.Not learned 295. When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.Not learned 296. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 297. As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.Not learned 298. A ball bearing will overheat if ______.Not learned 299. A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.Not learned 300. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.Not learned 301. What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?Not learned 302. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.Not learned 303. Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?Not learned 304. What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?Not learned 305. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?Not learned 306. The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the __________.Not learned 307. What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?Not learned 308. Which of the conditions listed should be immediately reported to the engineering officer on watch?Not learned 309. In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm response would be the most immediately critical?Not learned 310. By which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one body to another?Not learned 311. Which of the following statements is correct concerning heat transfer?Not learned 312. Regarding heat transfer principles, which of the following is true?Not learned 313. Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system should be in which of the following conditions?Not learned 314. At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure, what is the status of R-134a?Not learned 315. Traditionally, which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor?Not learned 316. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?Not learned 317. Which of the fluids listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant?Not learned 318. Inhalation of high concentrations of chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants (CFCs) may have which of the following effects?Not learned 319. The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by what means?Not learned 320. Some chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a toxic irritating gas under what conditions?Not learned 321. In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants decompose and form what chemical substance?Not learned 322. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of an R-22 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment with a halide torch?Not learned 323. To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from an R-22 refrigeration system in an enclosed area, how should this be done?Not learned 324. What is the physical state and pressure condition of refrigerant as it leaves a receiver in a typical refrigeration system?Not learned 325. R-134a is often the replacement for which older type of refrigerant?Not learned 326. The "tare weight" of a refrigerant storage cylinder refers to what weight?Not learned 327. Which of the following substances is normally classified as a low-pressure refrigerant?Not learned 328. If there is a "large" release of R-134a refrigerant gas in a confined area, which of the following statements would be true?Not learned 329. Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a confined space or in limited surroundings cause suffocation?Not learned 330. The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a protective shield that helps to protect the environment from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation is called what?Not learned 331. Which of the following refrigerants is chlorine free and safe regarding atmospheric ozone depletion?Not learned 332. A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?Not learned 333. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?Not learned 334. In a refrigeration plant, what is one vital purpose of the receiver?Not learned 335. The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what essential function?Not learned 336. Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of produce in chill boxes. Which of the following will minimize this dehydration?Not learned 337. If an abnormally large difference is maintained between the evaporator refrigerant temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated compartment, what will be the result?Not learned 338. For most multi-box refrigeration systems, the refrigerant sight glass would be located where in the system?Not learned 339. The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration system is to prevent dirt and scale from entering what system component(s)?Not learned 340. On a modern refrigerated container unit employing suction modulation for the purposes of capacity control and capacity limitation, what happens when the applied voltage and current draw associated with the normally open (NO) suction modulation valve located in the suction line both increase?Not learned 341. When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor discharge line, it discharges high-pressure refrigerant vapor to what location?Not learned 342. Rather than design an infinite variety of thermostatic expansion valve sizes to accommodate different capacities for heat removal, some manufacturers use a few standard valve body sizes in conjunction with what other feature?Not learned 343. Besides the evaporator pressure, the thermal expansion valve reacts directly to changes in what parameter?Not learned 344. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with an 8 psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a replaceable power element are both desiredNot learned 345. What is one function of the thermal expansion valve used in a refrigeration system?Not learned 346. In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located where?Not learned 347. When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, what name of the charge is associated with the power element?Not learned 348. In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of refrigerant to each refrigerated space evaporator is accomplished by what device?Not learned 349. A thermal expansion valve installed in a refrigeration system is controlled by the action of what device?Not learned 350. When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve power element, what is true concerning the thermal bulb?Not learned 351. If the evaporator coil horizontal return line of a container refrigeration system is less than 0.875" (2.21 cm) in diameter (considered small), the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb should be attached where on the return line?Not learned 352. Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 353. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the system has a single evaporator?Not learned 354. If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?Not learned 355. A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 356. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at 1/2 tons, what would be the result if the replacement valve cage was oversized at 5 tonsNot learned 357. Why are dehydrators usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems?Not learned 358. Which of the devices listed will indicate whether or not a refrigeration system's dehydrator continues to be capable of removing moisture from the circulating refrigerant?Not learned 359. In a refrigeration system, silica gel is found in what component?Not learned 360. Standard filter/driers used in many commercial type refrigeration units may contain what type of substance?Not learned 361. Moisture is removed from recovered refrigerant using a recycling machine by what means?Not learned 362. If the combination moisture indicator and sight glass indicates an accumulation of moisture within the system, which of the listed procedures would be the most practical to follow?Not learned 363. What is the most important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 364. Properties of a good refrigeration compressor lubricating oil include which of the following?Not learned 365. The lubrication oil in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor that is shut down is heated. For what purpose is this done?Not learned 366. Unless the system is designed for such operation, two compressors should not be operated in parallel in a refrigeration system for what reason?Not learned 367. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 368. The color and/or condition of the oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refrigeration compressor experiencing bearing wear or piston scoring would be which of the following?Not learned 369. A "hygroscopic" lubricant used in refrigeration compressors would have what characteristic?Not learned 370. What is the purpose of the low pressure cut-out switch as used as a primary controller for a refrigeration system or unit?Not learned 371. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart if the system features a pump-down cycle?Not learned 372. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?Not learned 373. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when only one of the evporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what valueNot learned 374. A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system, is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?Not learned 375. A box solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed in what manner?Not learned 376. In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line prior to what device?Not learned 377. The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator senses what temperature?Not learned 378. How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve?Not learned 379. When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, under what conditions would the most accurate reading be obtained?Not learned 380. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a perishable chilled cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what should be the operational status of the unit if the actual box temperature is 6Not learned 381. In addition to the drive belt itself, a V-belt that is tensioned too tight will cause excessive wear to what other drive component?Not learned 382. Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause what condition?Not learned 383. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid-line solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, what would this cause?Not learned 384. If a condenser coil of an air-cooled container refrigeration system becomes dirty and requires cleaning, what would be an acceptable method of cleaning?Not learned 385. When opening or closing compressor service and line isolation valves on a typical refrigeration system that is fitted with packed valves, what must you do?Not learned 386. What is true concerning frost build-up on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion refrigeration system?Not learned 387. Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any part of a refrigeration system for the purpose of accomplishing non-major repairs?Not learned 388. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?Not learned 389. Before charging a refrigeration unit, unless quick disconnect fittings are used, the refrigerant charging hoses should be prepared in what way?Not learned 390. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?Not learned 391. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent what from happening?Not learned 392. In a low pressure refrigeration system, excessive running of the purge recovery unit generally indicates which probable condition?Not learned 393. In a low-pressure centrifugal chiller, what is meant by the term "high efficiency purge unit"?Not learned 394. Excessive moisture being collected in the purge unit of a low-pressure refrigeration system could indicate which probable condition?Not learned 395. Release of refrigerant to the atmosphere during the process of purging of air and non-condensable gases can be kept to a permissible minimum by what action?Not learned 396. Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?Not learned 397. Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through the system?Not learned 398. Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of the high-pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the result of what?Not learned 399. What must be done, at a minimum, before a system can legally be opened up for repairs while adhering to the prohibition against the venting of halogenated fluorocarbon refrigerants to the atmosphere?Not learned 400. Minor repairs may be performed on low-pressure refrigerant systems without recovering the refrigerant charge if the pressure in the system is raised to atmospheric. How may this be accomplished?Not learned 401. What is the correct color-coding of refrigerant recovery cylinders regardless of the refrigerant contained within?Not learned 402. In reclaiming recovered refrigerant, which type of contamination will the reclamation process be unable to separate?Not learned 403. In a refrigeration system, the push-pull technique can be used for the recovery of the refrigerant in what state?Not learned 404. When removing the primary refrigerant from a system using water as a secondary refrigerant, it is important to follow which procedure(s) to safeguard the equipment?Not learned 405. If passive recovery is used on a small appliance fitted with a capillary tube as a metering device with a non-operating compressor, the recovery should be made through what means?Not learned 406. Technicians servicing small refrigeration appliances can employ what type of recovery equipment?Not learned 407. What is the color coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant?Not learned 408. What is the color of the flame produced by a halide torch when there is no halogenated refrigerant present at the location of the exploring tube?Not learned 409. What is a quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for the presence of a refrigerant leak without actually pinpointing the actual location?Not learned 410. If you find a refrigerant leak while using a halide torch, what will happen to the flame as the exploring tube approaches the leak?Not learned 411. What must be done to use standard leak detection methods on a low-pressure refrigeration system charged with refrigerant?Not learned 412. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, what would be the normal range of expected discharge pressures if the ambient air temperature is 90°FNot learned 413. One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can be which of the following?Not learned 414. An increasing head pressure in a refrigeration system, without any corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temperature, would probably be caused by which of the following?Not learned 415. An excessive charge of refrigerant in a thermostatically controlled, air-cooled, refrigeration system using a TXV as an expansion device can cause which of the following?Not learned 416. A refrigeration system is equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit. If the system is overcharged, the resulting high head pressure will be caused by what condition?Not learned 417. If increasing the cooling water flow to a refrigeration condenser fails to lower the condenser pressure, the probable cause may be due to what condition?Not learned 418. Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of what condition?Not learned 419. A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined and gas bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. What does this mean?Not learned 420. If the running suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor of a TXV controlled air-cooled refrigeration system is below normal, which of the following can be a cause?Not learned 421. A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. Where is it generally located in the system?Not learned 422. When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, what should be done to compensate for or to correct this situation?Not learned 423. Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by which of the following?Not learned 424. Unusual noise coming from a refrigeration compressor can be caused by which of the following conditions?Not learned 425. If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is exhibiting an unusual degree of sweating or frosting and is operating noisily, what should be done?Not learned 426. When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST thing that should be checked for is what?Not learned 427. If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low side for repairs, but otherwise the compressor sounds normal, this is a possible indication of what condition?Not learned 428. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating or frosting and is operating with an unusual noise, what is most likely the cause?Not learned 429. Excessive, prolonged oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor can result in what condition?Not learned 430. If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, besides an elevated box temperature, what would be an observable symptom?Not learned 431. During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running continuously, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature is slightly above normal without ever reaching the desired minimum temperature. Suction and discharge pressures are normal for the corresponding box temperature. In this situation, what should you suspect?Not learned 432. An evaporator coil of a single evaporator, air-cooled refrigerator is accumulating excessive frost due to a failure of the defrost mechanism. If the refrigerator features a thermostatically controlled box solenoid and a low-pressure cut-out controlled compressor, as well as a high-pressure cut-out, in terms of the compressor, what would be the most likely operating symptom?Not learned 433. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?Not learned 434. Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause which of the following conditons?Not learned 435. Which of the following conditions would indicate that the liquid line strainer in a refrigeration system has become excessively restricted and requires cleaning or replacement?Not learned 436. Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding machine?Not learned 437. Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object?Not learned 438. What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use?Not learned 439. When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned 440. Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?Not learned 441. Under what conditions is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 442. Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?Not learned 443. What will be the FIRST thing to occur if both the main and standby lube oil pumps failed to operate on a geared main propulsion steam turbine operating at full sea speed?Not learned 444. If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should ________.Not learned 445. Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require any physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?Not learned 446. In which of the listed components is chemical energy converted to thermal energy with regards to boiler operation?Not learned 447. Which of the following is the purpose of the steam drum in a D-Type marine boiler?Not learned 448. In a single furnace boiler, where is the steam typically cooled for use as auxiliary steam?Not learned 449. After a boiler has been taken off the line and is cooling, the air cock is opened to __________.Not learned 450. After which of the following is the air cock to be closed when raising steam on a cold boiler?Not learned 451. A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to __________.Not learned 452. To properly remove the burner tip nut from the burner barrel, the barrel should be __________.Not learned 453. In the event of a failure of the pneumatic control system, a multi-element feedwater regulator is designed to operate as a _________.Not learned 454. Which of the valves listed should be closed before lighting off a boiler?Not learned 455. The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.Not learned 456. When heated, fuel oil will __________.Not learned 457. Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?Not learned 458. When you are transferring fuel oil to the settling tanks, precautions to be observed should include __________.Not learned 459. Fuel oil settling tanks are used to __________.Not learned 460. Why are two fuel oil heaters "E" provided in the fuel oil system shown in the illustrationNot learned 461. Which of the conditions listed would indicate a dirty fuel oil strainer?Not learned 462. If you noted a large difference in the pressures indicated by a duplex pressure gage to the fuel oil system strainer, you should __________.Not learned 463. If manual control of the water level in a steaming boiler is required, the proper method of control is with the auxiliary feed __________.Not learned 464. Which of the actions listed should be carried out immediately after securing the fires in one boiler of a two- boiler ship?Not learned 465. Which of the following statements about boilers is correct?Not learned 466. When a boiler has been secured and is being initially cooled, the water level showing in the steam drum gauge glass should be __________.Not learned 467. What is the danger if a boiler is brought on the line with its steam pressure much higher than that of the boiler already on the line?Not learned 468. When raising steam on an idle boiler and the steam pressure has risen to about 5 pounds more than the pressure of the boiler already on the line, you can __________.Not learned 469. Which of the following precautions should be taken prior to lighting off a boiler?Not learned 470. If the water level in a steaming boiler is dropping rapidly and cannot be kept at the normal level by standard practices, you should __________.Not learned 471. Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?Not learned 472. The maximum temperature rise of oil passing through any reduction gear set, or bearing, should not exceed __________.Not learned 473. The best indication that a bearing is being properly lubricated is by the __________.Not learned 474. An overheated bearing in the main propulsion unit is indicated by __________.Not learned 475. Babbitt is a metal alloy commonly used for lining __________.Not learned 476. As found in a reduction gear drive system, thrust bearings serve to __________.Not learned 477. Kingsbury thrust bearings are lubricated by __________.Not learned 478. After the steam leaves the low-pressure turbine, it enters the _________.Not learned 479. In a cross-compounded turbine propulsion plant, steam enters the __________.Not learned 480. Steam supplied to the main propulsion turbines is ________.Not learned 481. Concerning the classification of steam turbines, a cross compound designed unit __________.Not learned 482. Most auxiliary turbine feed pumps do not require an external source of gland sealing steam because they __________.Not learned 483. When starting a turbo-generator, you must provide lube oil pressure to the governor power piston by means of __________.Not learned 484. The safety device provided on a turbo generator which closes the throttle automatically when the cooling water to the condenser is insufficient is called a/an __________.Not learned 485. A back pressure trip on a ship's service turbo-generator functions to trip the turbine under what circumstance?Not learned 486. An efficient seal is normally obtained between the upper and lower halves of a turbine casing by __________.Not learned 487. Which of the devices listed is found on an LP main propulsion steam turbine casing?Not learned 488. Which of the listed conditions aids in directing gland leakoff steam from the low-pressure propulsion turbine to pass through the gland exhaust condenser?Not learned 489. Gland sealing steam is used during steam turbine operation to prevent the loss of __________.Not learned 490. What is the main turbine gland sealing steam system designed to do?Not learned 491. While a vessel is underway, one of the FIRST indications of the failure of the gland leak off exhaust fan motor is __________.Not learned 492. The jacking gear on main propulsion turbines can be used to __________.Not learned 493. Which of the following methods is used to lubricate main propulsion turbine reduction gears?Not learned 494. The purpose of the main reduction gears is to __________.Not learned 495. One of the most common causes of reduction gear failure is gear wear caused by scoring as a result of __________.Not learned 496. Which of the devices listed is commonly used to compensate for the expansion and minor misalignments occurring between the main turbine rotor and the reduction gear?Not learned 497. Guardian valves are installed on main propulsion turbines to ______.Not learned 498. A lube oil sample is taken from the main engine lube oil system and visually inspected. Which of the following would indicate water contamination?Not learned 499. Excessive water in an operating lube oil system can be detected by __________.Not learned 500. During high-speed operation of the main turbine propulsion unit, the heat absorbed by the lubricating oil is removed by the __________.Not learned 501. The lube oil coolers installed in a gravity lubricating oil system are located between the __________.Not learned 502. The gravity tank in a gravity lube oil system serves to __________.Not learned 503. In a pressure type main propulsion turbine lubrication system, the lube oil service pumps normally take suction from the main sump and discharge directly to the __________.Not learned 504. On a ship equipped with a gravity type lube oil system, which of the conditions listed will occur FIRST if the main lube oil pump discharge pressure is lost?Not learned 505. While a vessel is underway, which of the conditions listed would indicate a tube leak associated with the sea water-cooled lube oil cooler on service?Not learned 506. When a sudden increase in pressure occurs in a forced lubrication system, you should check for a __________.Not learned 507. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure-feed lubricating oil system, which statement is true?Not learned 508. Magnets are installed in the main propulsion turbine lube oil strainers to attract metal particles released through wearing of the __________.Not learned 509. The source of metal particles adhering to the magnets in a lube oil strainer is probably from the __________.Not learned 510. Lube oil is preheated before centrifuging in order to __________.Not learned 511. In a disk type centrifugal purifier, the bowl is mounted on the upper end of the __________.Not learned 512. The dirty oil inlet on centrifugal lube oil purifiers is located at the __________.Not learned 513. In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be __________.Not learned 514. A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?Not learned 515. When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water removed will __________.Not learned 516. A poorly cleaned lube oil purifier bowl may result in __________.Not learned 517. During the routine inspection of an operating centrifugal lube oil purifier, you notice oil discharging through the water discharge port. Which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 518. Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?Not learned 519. If fuel oil were being discharged from the waste water outlet of a fuel oil disk type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should __________.Not learned 520. The astern guarding valve on main propulsion steam turbine units must be open when a vessel is __________.Not learned 521. The jacking gear must be engaged as quickly as possible when securing the main turbines in order to __________.Not learned 522. A common method of preheating main turbine lube oil prior to rolling over the main unit would be to ______.Not learned 523. While making your rounds, you notice the main lube oil temperature to be higher than normal. To remedy this situation, you should __________.Not learned 524. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fireroom status by verifying the boiler steam drum level and _________.Not learned 525. The cubic inch (or liter) displacement of a cylinder is determined by the diameter of the piston and the __________.Not learned 526. If the compression ratio is increased on any diesel engine, __________.Not learned 527. Which of the following relationships exist between the temperature developed in the combustion space, and the compression ratio of the engine?Not learned 528. Which of the following reasons represents why the designed compression ratio of a gasoline engine is lower than that of a diesel engine?Not learned 529. The most important factor in engine performance is the actual power output at the end of the crankshaft available for doing work. This is known as __________.Not learned 530. The thermal energy produced by an internal combustion engine is transformed into ________.Not learned 531. Diesel engines are classified as reciprocating internal combustion engines because they __________.Not learned 532. A naturally aspirated diesel engine at full throttle will have an intake manifold pressure __________.Not learned 533. The highest pressure in a diesel engine cylinder normally occurs __________.Not learned 534. The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel engine is to warn of __________.Not learned 535. Which of the following problems could develop due to the accumulation of oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel engine?Not learned 536. The possibility of a diesel engine crankcase explosion will be increased by operating an engine __________.Not learned 537. Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing?Not learned 538. Connecting rods in a diesel engine are used to connect the ________.Not learned 539. The linear motion of a diesel engine piston is converted into the rotary motion required to drive gears, propeller shafts, and generators by the __________.Not learned 540. On a large diesel engine installation, crankshaft axial alignment is maintained by the ________.Not learned 541. Which of the terms listed below represents the operational speed at which excessive engine vibration is created?Not learned 542. The proper location for journal bearing oil grooves is __________.Not learned 543. The load is always placed on the lower half of the main bearings in a __________.Not learned 544. A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?Not learned 545. On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?Not learned 546. Which of the statements represents a characteristic of the thrust collar in a Kingsbury thrust bearingNot learned 547. What is the function of the main thrust bearing?Not learned 548. In a diesel engine, a leaking exhaust valve can cause _________.Not learned 549. A main propulsion diesel engine is normally shutdown by __________.Not learned 550. In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is necessary for __________.Not learned 551. Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile; however, contamination can occur as fuels are __________.Not learned 552. Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to __________.Not learned 553. Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned at regular intervals in order to remove __________.Not learned 554. To minimize corrosion, what are fuel oil strainer disks, spacers and scraper blades made of?Not learned 555. Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by __________.Not learned 556. The main advantage of unit injectors over other fuel injection systems is __________.Not learned 557. What is the primary purpose of a fuel injection system, besides metering and atomizing fuel?Not learned 558. Fuel oil discharged into the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the __________.Not learned 559. Which of the fuel injection systems listed uses a spring-loaded differential spray needle valve and an individual pump for each cylinder?Not learned 560. Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles can be prevented by avoiding __________.Not learned 561. Fuel injection pumps using the port and helix metering principle requires the use of a __________.Not learned 562. Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system using individual plunger-type pumps __________.Not learned 563. The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection pump is controlled by __________.Not learned 564. In a normally operating diesel engine, the main source of lubricating oil contamination in the crankcase is a result of the __________.Not learned 565. Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube oil cooler will be indicated by a gradual increase in the lube oil __________.Not learned 566. For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?Not learned 567. What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?Not learned 568. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?Not learned 569. Which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate bearings in a small high-speed diesel engine?Not learned 570. In an auxiliary diesel engine "bypass type" lubricating oil system, the main lube oil pump forces __________.Not learned 571. Lube oil pumps taking suction from the sump of most small marine engines are usually __________.Not learned 572. The lube oil cooler is located after the lube oil filter in order for __________.Not learned 573. Before starting a diesel engine that has an engine driven lube oil pump, the engineer should __________.Not learned 574. Lube oil cannot be efficiently filtered if it’s __________.Not learned 575. Where would a coarse screen wire mesh strainer normally be found on a diesel engine lubrication system?Not learned 576. A dirty diesel engine oil filter element can best be detected by _________.Not learned 577. A dirty lube oil strainer can result in __________.Not learned 578. Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and filtration will be the most effective when the oil is at a __________.Not learned 579. For a continuous operation diesel engine, a duplex filter unit would be the best arrangement because __________.Not learned 580. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line?Not learned 581. A centrifugal oil purifier should be shut down if the __________.Not learned 582. Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?Not learned 583. Cooling water pumps driven by direct-reversing diesel engines are usually __________.Not learned 584. The highest pressure in any closed diesel engine freshwater cooling system is at the __________.Not learned 585. What would be considered a normal temperature increase between the inlet and outlet jacket cooling water of a medium or high-speed diesel engine operating at normal load?Not learned 586. A closed freshwater cooling system is commonly used with marine diesel engines because the __________.Not learned 587. In a diesel engine jacket water cooler, with sea water cooling the fresh water, the __________.Not learned 588. In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system employing a radiator, proper water temperature can be obtained by __________.Not learned 589. If the cooling water temperature and the lube oil temperature in a diesel engine are too high, the cause can be __________.Not learned 590. If the raw water supply pressure for a diesel engine cooling system is below normal, you should check for a __________.Not learned 591. In a closed cooling water system, which of the following problems can cause the water pressure to fluctuate?Not learned 592. A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water to directly cool the __________.Not learned 593. Corrosion inhibitors and/or soluble oils are added to diesel engine cooling systems to __________.Not learned 594. Antifreeze solutions containing ethylene glycol should not be mixed with corrosion protection oils, as the resultant mixture __________.Not learned 595. The expansion tank in a diesel engine closed fresh water cooling system is located at __________.Not learned 596. Which of the following statements is true concerning a main diesel engine oil cooler?Not learned 597. Heat exchangers are most commonly found in a small auxiliary diesel engine __________.Not learned 598. The temperature at which an adjustable bellows type thermostatic valve operates is determined by __________.Not learned 599. In an operating diesel engine, preignition can be caused by __________.Not learned 600. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is directly associated with engine __________.Not learned 601. An increase in the air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will result in a/an __________.Not learned 602. The process of supplying a diesel engine cylinder with air at a pressure greater than atmospheric is called _________.Not learned 603. Compared to a naturally aspirated diesel engine, a supercharged diesel engine has _________.Not learned 604. Cooling the intake air supplied to a diesel engine will __________.Not learned 605. Some diesel engines are supercharged with a __________.Not learned 606. The power consumed during the scavenging process of a diesel engine is known as the _______.Not learned 607. The relative air pressure in the inlet manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine is usually __________.Not learned 608. Which of the following conditions is indicated by the presence of water in the scavenging air receiver?Not learned 609. The process of scavenging a two-stroke cycle diesel engine serves to __________.Not learned 610. Forcing the exhaust gases from the cylinder of an operating two cycle diesel engine with the aid of a blower is known as __________.Not learned 611. Maintaining the lowest possible scavenging air temperature at all times is not recommended due to the possibility of the __________.Not learned 612. Why will a turbocharged diesel engine produce black smoke if excessive additional load is applied too quickly?Not learned 613. During the valve overlap period, the exhaust pressure of a turbo-charged, four-stroke cycle diesel engine must be less than the intake manifold pressure to ensure __________.Not learned 614. At rated engine load and RPM, the diesel engine turbocharger is powered by __________.Not learned 615. Which of the listed types of superchargers will NOT have a volumetric capacity proportional to engine speed?Not learned 616. An operating diesel engine that suddenly loses power, is due to a/an __________.Not learned 617. A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine is an indication of a/an __________.Not learned 618. What statement is true concerning the charge air system of a modern turbocharged slow-speed two- stroke cycle diesel engine?Not learned 619. What statement is true concerning the charge air system of a modern turbocharged slow-speed two- stroke cycle diesel engine?Not learned 620. What is the function of the after coolers installed in the diesel engine air intake system?Not learned 621. Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in _________.Not learned 622. The power output of a turbo-charged diesel engine will drop if the cooling water flow through the after cooler is interrupted because the __________.Not learned 623. In a diesel engine exhaust system, the cooling of the exhaust gases below their dew point, will result in __________.Not learned 624. One of the factors limiting the amount of load which can be put on a modern marine diesel engine is the __________.Not learned 625. Exhaust pipes for separate main propulsion diesel engines can be combined only when __________.Not learned 626. The exhaust system for a turbocharged diesel engine functions to ________.Not learned 627. A dry-type exhaust silencer clogged with soot, will cause __________.Not learned 628. Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine is an indication of poor combustion which may be caused by __________.Not learned 629. Casing drains may be required on a waste heat boiler gas passage side to __________.Not learned 630. An exhaust gas bypass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order to __________.Not learned 631. The maximum pressure developed by a waste heat boiler is determined by the main engine exhaust __________.Not learned 632. As shown in the illustration, what component would normally be installed at location "I"Not learned 633. Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________.Not learned 634. Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?Not learned 635. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.Not learned 636. The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by _________.Not learned 637. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to ________.Not learned 638. Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on a boiler, are __________.Not learned 639. The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.Not learned 640. The solenoid valves in the fuel oil supply line to an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, are automatically closed by __________.Not learned 641. The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent what condition?Not learned 642. The pressuretrol which is installed on an auxiliary boiler senses steam pressure changes and __________.Not learned 643. Which of the following represents the motivating power fluid used in conjunction with the ejector pumps on plate type evaporators?Not learned 644. What type of reduction gear would most commonly be used with twin medium-speed propulsion diesel engines driving a single shaft?Not learned 645. Reduction gear casings are vented in order to __________.Not learned 646. Hydraulic couplings will transmit torque equal to the input torque by means of energy changes in a rotating vortex of liquid. For the vortices to form there must be __________.Not learned 647. One advantage of electromagnetic slip couplings is __________.Not learned 648. Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be detected by using a dial indicator or __________.Not learned 649. When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine which is using an inadequately inflated air bladder clutch unit, you can expect __________.Not learned 650. Which of the listed diesel engine operating conditions should be checked immediately after any diesel engine is started?Not learned 651. When attempting to restart a warm high-speed engine, which of the following reactions can you expect?Not learned 652. In the starting process of a diesel engine, the main object is to attain the compression conditions sufficient to _________.Not learned 653. Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for starting air receivers?Not learned 654. Starting systems for large, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines are usually __________.Not learned 655. Starting air check valves are held firmly on their seats by __________.Not learned 656. When an air started, four-stroke cycle diesel engine is being cranked over, the starting air is admitted to each cylinder during the beginning of its ________.Not learned 657. In a medium-speed marine propulsion engine equipped with direct admission air starting valves, the cylinders without air starting valves fire first because the __________.Not learned 658. Air motors used for starting some auxiliary diesel engines are generally the type known as __________.Not learned 659. Where is the air charge for an air starting system stored?Not learned 660. A two-stroke cycle diesel engine requires less starting air than a four-stroke cycle diesel engine, of equal displacement, because the two-stroke cycle diesel engine ______.Not learned 661. Which of the following problems can occur if you continually fail to drain off condensate from a starting air receiver?Not learned 662. An accumulator used in a hydraulic starting system is generally located between the __________.Not learned 663. Hydraulic starters are installed on many lifeboat diesel engines instead of comparable air start systems, because __________.Not learned 664. When an engine fitted with a hydraulic starting system starts up, the starter is protected from the higher speed of the engine by ________.Not learned 665. The purpose of the engine-driven hydraulic pump in an auxiliary diesel engine hydraulic starting system is to __________.Not learned 666. For a diesel engine, approximately how long can an electric starter motor be operated continuously before damage may begin to occur due to overheating?Not learned 667. The pinion of an auxiliary diesel-electric starting motor normally engages the flywheel ring gear by means of a/an __________.Not learned 668. Auxiliary diesel engine electric starting motors use __________.Not learned 669. Diesel engine electric starting motors generally require heavier duty motors and operate at higher voltages than comparable starting motors for gasoline engines due to __________.Not learned 670. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if the electric starter motor pinion gear fails to disengage from the flywheel of a diesel engine after the engine has started?Not learned 671. An electric heater built into some smaller diesel engines is used to __________.Not learned 672. When starting air is admitted, a diesel engine turns over very slowly without firing. The cause may be __________.Not learned 673. One cause of diesel engine surging can be a result of __________.Not learned 674. Irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by __________.Not learned 675. Before starting a diesel engine, you should always __________.Not learned 676. What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?Not learned 677. The most common instrument used to measure diesel engine exhaust pressure is the __________.Not learned 678. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both positive and negative pressures?Not learned 679. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two?Not learned 680. Which of the following direct-reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump suction pressure gauge?Not learned 681. If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?Not learned 682. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?Not learned 683. If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct this situation?Not learned 684. What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?Not learned 685. What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?Not learned 686. When determining the level of a potable water hydro pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?Not learned 687. Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station?Not learned 688. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 689. The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________Not learned 690. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.Not learned 691. In addition to the indicated gauge pressure, what other information is presented on the compound gauge for the hypothetical refrigerant illustratedNot learned 692. The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as __________Not learned 693. When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize bimetallic corrosion?Not learned 694. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 695. What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station, where the valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?Not learned 696. In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 697. In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?Not learned 698. An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________Not learned 699. If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential order of treatment chambers within the plant?Not learned 700. You are checking the supply chilled water temperature thermistor probe on a highpressure hermetic centrifugal chiller. Using the illustrated chart, what statement is true if the supply water temperature is verified 45°F with a digital thermometerNot learned 701. The coil temperature measured at the expansion valve sensing bulb of an operating system is 10°F. The low side pressure with the compressor running as shown on the gauge illustrated indicates 15 psig. What adjustments or changes, if any, should be made to the systemNot learned 702. Through which of the components shown in the illustration is flash gas formation a normal occurrenceNot learned 703. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by__________.Not learned 704. The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller with more than 500 lbs. of refrigerant and to meet EPA requirements is to recover the refrigerant using what protocol?Not learned 705. To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?Not learned 706. The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________Not learned 707. Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustrationNot learned 708. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 709. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________Not learned 710. Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurementsNot learned 711. Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gageNot learned 712. The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is _______Not learned 713. If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessivelyincreased, the tool will __________Not learned 714. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________.Not learned 715. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?Not learned 716. What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 717. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils?Not learned 718. To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.Not learned 719. Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screwNot learned 720. Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screwNot learned 721. The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the underside of the unloader power element piston of the refrigeration compressor capacity control mechanism illustrated is obtained from whereNot learned 722. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a 2-position diverting hot gas bypass solenoid valveNot learned 723. Which of the following illustrated expansion valves is designed to maintain a constant evaporator pressure rather than a constant evaporator superheatNot learned 724. Which of the following leak detectors would be appropriate for use in leak detecting on a system currently pressurized with nitrogenNot learned 725. Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jawindependent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?Not learned 726. Which of the following statements is trueNot learned 727. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?Not learned 728. Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 729. Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail) to prevent gauge damage?Not learned 730. Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device?Not learned 731. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 732. The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an __________Not learned 733. For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a Vernier scale making it possible to read in increments of __________.Not learned 734. Which of the hand valve configurations for the gauge manifold set is the correct set up for monitoring both the low and high system pressuresNot learned 735. When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?Not learned 736. Heat is removed from the refrigerant circulating through the refrigeration system, shown in the illustration, by which componentNot learned 737. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________Not learned 738. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable cause is the __________Not learned 739. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided by __________Not learned 740. In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by __________Not learned 741. Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure __________Not learned 742. Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing toolNot learned 743. Which of the illustrated gauges is capable of measuring vacuums at the micron level for the purpose of proving system dehydration during system evacuation with a vacuum pump, but displays the achieved vacuums at incremental threshold intervals rather than continuouslyNot learned 744. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 745. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure INot learned 746. In the illustrated schematic, which component is the device that was used to replace the six-way valve, as found on many older type steering gearsNot learned 747. The illustrated valve is known as a __________Not learned 748. Which of the illustrated valves is used to gain access to a hermetic system and features a Schrader core valve which is unseated by the core depressor of hose fitting when attachedNot learned 749. Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weldNot learned 750. Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dopeNot learned 751. In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.Illustration GS-0078Not learned 752. Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________Not learned 753. Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________Not learned 754. The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 755. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch producedis determined by the speed relationship between the __________.Not learned 756. Which of the lettered components shown in the illustration indicates the high-pressure cut-outNot learned 757. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 758. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 759. Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the stem and is associated with an endless chain for operation?Not learned 760. The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devicesNot learned 761. (1.2.15-9) On US flag steam propulsion vessels, the main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to accomplish which of the following?Not learned 762. What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?Not learned 763. In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve labeled "29"Not learned 764. If it is necessary to increase the operating head pressure of the refrigeration system using the device shown in the illustration, what should be doneNot learned 765. To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18-inch workpiece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over _________.Not learned 766. Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?Not learned 767. One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 768. What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating liquid tank level?Not learned 769. For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.Not learned 770. In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be openNot learned 771. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.Not learned 772. In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?Not learned 773. What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustrationNot learned 774. Prior to initial light off of an idle boiler, what must first be done to prevent boiler flareback?Not learned 775. To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________Not learned 776. To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________Not learned 777. The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if __________Not learned 778. The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________Not learned 779. What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as shown in the illustrationNot learned 780. When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct-reading pressure gauge, what should be done?Not learned 781. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is __________Not learned 782. What is the reading of the Vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustrationNot learned 783. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way?Not learned 784. Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unitNot learned 785. After the refrigerant has been recovered, leaks repaired if necessary, the system ideally should undergo a dehydration evacuation prior to recharging with refrigerant. As shown in the illustration, besides the vacuum pump suction manifold isolation valve being opened, what would be the proper valve positions to accomplish and prove the evacuationNot learned 786. In a refrigeration system featuring low-side pumpdown prior to the automatic shutdown of the compressor, the temperature of the refrigerated space is controlled by the action of a thermostat wired to what device?Not learned 787. Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a handwheel for local operation if the motor fails. If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?Not learned 788. Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closedNot learned 789. Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quartersor flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?Not learned 790. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of smallparts?Not learned 791. Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridgesresembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?Not learned 792. When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you shouldclose the __________.Not learned 793. With a service gauge manifold set connected to a refrigerant compressor as shown in the illustration, which arrangement of the gauge manifold set valves and compressor service valves would allow for simultaneous reading of the compressor suction and discharge pressuresNot learned 794. (1.5.5.4-4) The setpoint adjustment of the device shown in the illustration is made by rotating what componentNot learned 795. Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is thenegative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.Not learned 796. The shaft sleeve for the pump shown in the illustration is identified by which item numberNot learned 797. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?Not learned 798. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated self-contained recovery unit connection diagrams, what is the recovery method supported by the connection schemeNot learned 799. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 800. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller pressure maintenance system, what is its functional purposeNot learned 801. As shown in the illustrated refrigeration system piping schematic diagram with the various accessories and controls and equipped with an air-cooled condenser with high side pressure controls, what statement is true concerning the fan cycling control pressure switchNot learned 802. Spring reinforced oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the seal facing __________Not learned 803. When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shut down for a period of time, you should manually throttle which valve?Not learned 804. Which of the statements listed is applicable to the thermostatic expansion valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 805. What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-waterseparator?Not learned 806. What statement is true concerning portable power tools?Not learned 807. What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate threaded fasteners?Not learned 808. The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event?Not learned 809. The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the __________.Not learned 810. If a thermometer reads 80°C, what is the equivalent temperature in °F?Not learned 811. If a thermometer reads 850 °F, what is the equivalent temperature in °C?Not learned 812. What is true concerning highly contaminated refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances?Not learned 813. What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne impact hazards?Not learned 814. What type of pump is shown in the illustrationNot learned 815. What type of valve is shown in the illustrationNot learned 816. When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cuttingshould be __________.Not learned 817. Which of the valves listed for the device shown in the illustration will be open while the unit is operating in the backflush modeNot learned 818. A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by __________.Not learned 819. On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of machinery and the manning of the engine room?Not learned 820. A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles toeach other, and is called a __________.Not learned 821. The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V" indicates __________Not learned 822. According to the illustrated diesel engine cooling water systems diagram, what fluid is the low temperature central freshwater thermostat designed to maintainNot learned 823. According to the illustrated diesel engine cooling water systems diagram, what is the functional description of the low temperature central fresh water thermostatNot learned 824. According to the illustrated diesel engine fuel treatment and fuel service systems schematic, what is the purpose of the valve labeled "1"Not learned 825. According to the illustrated diesel engine fuel treatment and fuel service systems schematic, what statement is true concerning the valves labeled "4" and "5"Not learned 826. According to the illustrated diesel propulsion plant fresh water cooling systems diagram, in which subsystem is the deaerator locatedNot learned 827. According to the illustrated main and auxiliary diesel engine cooling water systems diagram, which of the following heat exchangers are connected directly in series with one anotherNot learned 828. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems diagram, which of the following heat exchangers would be isolated and bypassed while maneuvering in or out of portNot learned 829. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems diagram, which of the following labeled heat exchangers represents the main lube oil coolerNot learned 830. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems drawing, which of the labeled heat exchangers represents the charge air coolersNot learned 831. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems drawing, which labeled heat exchangers use sea water as a cooling mediumNot learned 832. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems drawing, which labeled pump is the main engine sea water cooling water pumpNot learned 833. According to the illustrated main engine cooling water systems drawing, which labeled sea water-cooled heat exchanger would have the highest sea water inlet temperatureNot learned 834. In addition to achieving a speed reduction for efficient propeller operation, what statement represents other possible functional purposes for reduction gears?Not learned 835. In addition to checking the lube oil sump level and temperature of a line shaft steady bearing, what else must be checked for?Not learned 836. As it applies to the combustion process associated with diesel engines, what is meant by the term "scavenging"?Not learned 837. You are asked by the watch or duty engineer to check for any evidence for turbocharger surging. What should you check for?Not learned 838. When checking a water-lubricated stern tube bearing while underway, what should be checked for?Not learned 839. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "I", is the __________Not learned 840. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________Not learned 841. The diesel engine component labeled "3", shown in the illustration is called the __________Not learned 842. In a diesel engine jacket water cooler, with sea water cooling the engine jacket cooling water, what statement is true?Not learned 843. In a diesel engine lube oil cooler, with sea water cooling the lubricating oil, what statement is true?Not learned 844. Diesel engines powering large vessels that drive fixed-pitch propellers through a nonreversing reduction gear are of what type?Not learned 845. If a diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due to severe overheating, the crankcase __________.Not learned 846. The diesel engine wrist pin in the illustration is indicated by the component labeled __________Not learned 847. With a direct drive main propulsion arrangement, what statement is true?Not learned 848. Ethylene glycol, when used as a coolant in a closed cooling system for a diesel engine, is more advantageous than untreated raw water because it __________.Not learned 849. The expansion tank for a diesel engine closed cooling system is designed to maintain a constant head on the system and __________.Not learned 850. Which of the following methods is used to lubricate main propulsion medium-speed diesel engine reduction gears?Not learned 851. Which of the following methods is used to securely fasten the Babbitt lining of a reduction gear bearing to its shell?Not learned 852. What is the function of the intake system for a diesel engine?Not learned 853. In an HFO service system, what is the immediate destination of the fuel unconsumed by the main propulsion diesel engine?Not learned 854. The illustrated device is operated directly by __________Not learned 855. In the illustrated diesel engine, which label points to the pistonNot learned 856. How is the illustrated strainer element cleaned during engine operationNot learned 857. In what location is heavy fuel oil kept below the flash point?Not learned 858. In what location is heavy fuel oil kept above the flash point, but below the boiling point of water?Not learned 859. The lube oil strainer shown in the illustration is used on the reduction gear of a mid-size diesel engine. The strainer elements consist of __________Not learned 860. A magnetic strainer is primarily used in diesel engine reduction gear oil systems to remove small particles of __________.Not learned 861. By what means are two sections of propulsion line shafting typically joined together?Not learned 862. A modern centrifuge, similar to the device shown in the illustration, is opened for periodic cleaning. The most common cause of operating failure after reassembling is due to __________Not learned 863. When monitoring a heavy fuel oil treatment plant, what would be an indication that the treatment plant throughput volume is less than the main engine consumption?Not learned 864. If oil discharges are detected when the scavenging air receiver drains are blown on a slow-speed, two-stroke, turbocharged, aftercooled engine, what is the most likely oil source?Not learned 865. A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________.Not learned 866. The pinion gear shown in the illustration, is located __________Not learned 867. What is the primary purpose of self-aligning spherically-seated line shaft bearings?Not learned 868. The section of the turbocharger which would be connected to the aftercooler inlet is labeled __________Not learned 869. When a slow-speed diesel engine is used to directly drive a fixed-pitch propeller, how is a stop order met?Not learned 870. If a slow-speed two-stroke cycle diesel engine is fitted with exhaust valves located in the cylinder heads, what scavenging flow-pattern is utilized?Not learned 871. If a slow-speed two-stroke cycle diesel engine is fitted with scavenging air ports and exhaust ports located on opposite sides of the cylinder wall, what scavenging flow-pattern is utilized?Not learned 872. During the starting of a diesel engine, compression gases are prevented from backing into the air starting system, shown in the illustration, by the __________Not learned 873. What statement is true concerning oil-lubricated stern tube bearings?Not learned 874. A three-way thermostatic control valve regulates the diesel engine cooling water temperature by passing a portion of the water __________.Not learned 875. What type of clutch is pictured in the illustrationNot learned 876. What type of clutch is used in the illustrated medium-speed diesel engine reduction gearNot learned 877. What type of propeller thrust reversing method (or methods) is or are used with a main propulsion slow-speed crosshead type diesel engine installation?Not learned 878. Upon conducting a machinery space round on a main propulsion diesel, you detect a significant amount of water discharge when blowing down the charge air cooler or scavenging air receiver drains. What should you do?Not learned 879. Upon conducting a machinery space round on a slow-speed main propulsion diesel, you detect a significant amount of oil discharge when blowing down the scavenging air receiver drains. What should you do?Not learned 880. Valve '1', as shown in the illustration, should be operated when __________Not learned 881. What would be the most accurate description of the illustrated cutaway drawing of a reduction gear as used for medium-speed diesel propulsionNot learned 882. What would be the primary indication that a fuel oil service system booster pump duplex suction strainer needed to be shifted over and cleaned?Not learned 883. What would be the primary indication that a heavy fuel oil purifier supply pump suction strainer needed cleaning?Not learned 884. If you wish to initiate a station-to-station call over a sound-powered telephone circuit, what is the correct procedure?Not learned 885. According to the illustrated auxiliary steam and HP bleed steam system diagram, what are the characteristics of the steam supplied to the main feed pump drive turbinesNot learned 886. According to the illustrated auxiliary steam and HP bleed system diagram, what steam loads are supplied by the same steam pressure reducing stationNot learned 887. According to the illustrated cross-compounded main propulsion turbine set, where are the astern elements locatedNot learned 888. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the correct sequential order of heat exchangers that the main condensate pump pumps condensate throughNot learned 889. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the normal source of heat for the boiler air heaters when the vessel is underway under full powerNot learned 890. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the normal source of heat for the first stage feed heater and the distilling plants when the vessel is underway under full powerNot learned 891. According to the illustrated diagram, what statement is true concerning the operation of the main condenser hotwell level control deviceNot learned 892. According to the illustrated diagram, what statement is true concerning the operation of the "make-up valve"Not learned 893. According to the illustrated lubricating oil system diagram, which of the labeled items would be used to manually strip out the sludge from the bottom of the main lube oil sump prior to entry for cleaningNot learned 894. According to the illustrated lubricating oil system diagram, which of the labeled items would be used to verify that the gravity lube oil tank is full and overflowingNot learned 895. According to the illustrated steam and HP bleed system diagram, which steam pressure reducing station has the lowest set pointNot learned 896. In addition to sensing steam drum water level, what additional sensing input does a two-element feedwater regulator control system utilize?Not learned 897. The adjustable spherically seated self-aligning bearing housings used in turbines are provided with oil deflector rings. The function of these rings is to __________.Not learned 898. When blowing tubes, what is the determining factor in deciding how many revolutions of rotation of a sootblower element are required?Not learned 899. When blowing tubes on an integral superheat boiler fitted with an economizer, the operating sequence to be followed is recommended by the manufacturer. What section of the boiler is generally blown first and last?Not learned 900. Under what circumstances would a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear most likely be used?Not learned 901. When cleaning boiler fuel oil atomizer parts, what type of cleaning tool should NEVER be used?Not learned 902. In a coil-type forced circulation water-tube boiler, __________.Not learned 903. The component shown in the illustration, labeled "IV", is the ________Not learned 904. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________Not learned 905. Control of the fuel oil metering valve in an automatically fired boiler is accomplished by a __________.Not learned 906. Which of the following conditions is indicated by oil flowing through a lube oil gravity tank overflow sight glass?Not learned 907. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated air register and burner assembly represents the means by which the flame may be visually checked for color and conditionNot learned 908. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated air register and burner assembly represents the mechanism for operating the register air doorsNot learned 909. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated air register and burner assembly represents the poke hole cover and would be temporarily removed to poke through a clinkerNot learned 910. Which of the following labeled items of the illustrated section of boiler refractory represents the insulating blockNot learned 911. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of the level or drain regulator associated with the feed water heater shown in the illustration is correctNot learned 912. Which of the following statements about gravity type lube oil systems is correct?Not learned 913. Where do fuel oil vapors tend to accumulate in an engine room?Not learned 914. Fuel piping should be regularly inspected for leaks. What leak location would be particularly troublesome in terms of presenting a fire hazard?Not learned 915. For the gland seal regulator shown in the illustration, an increase in gland seal pressure will result in ________Not learned 916. In a gravity type lube oil service system, if no lube oil appears in the sight glass of the return drop line while underway, this is a positive indication that __________.Not learned 917. In the illustrated exploded view of a pivoted shoe thrust bearing, identify the base ringNot learned 918. The intermediate pressure bleed steam system, shown in the illustration, is used to supply steam at approximately __________Not learned 919. The items labeled "D" in the illustration are the __________Not learned 920. The item shown in the illustration is commonly identified as a _________Not learned 921. Which of the labeled items attached to the top of the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which saturated steam is delivered to the superheaterNot learned 922. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum helps prevent surging of water within the drum as a vessel pitchesNot learned 923. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the last line of defense in helping to prevent moisture carryover into the saturated steam leaving the steam drumNot learned 924. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which feed water is introduced into the steam drumNot learned 925. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which floating impurities are removed from the steam drumNot learned 926. Which of the labeled items within the illustrated steam drum represents the means by which water treatment chemicals are introduced into the steam drumNot learned 927. Which line in the illustration shown provides live steam to the gland seal regulatorNot learned 928. On a main propulsion turbine set of a merchant ship, where is the astern staging generally located?Not learned 929. What method of burner light-off presents the greatest danger to boiler flareback?Not learned 930. What is the name of the device pictured in the illustrationNot learned 931. What is the name of the nozzle which is associated with the steam drum and is shown in the illustrationNot learned 932. What is the normal destination of steam exiting a main feed pump drive turbine?Not learned 933. During normal operation of a main propulsion turbine, the lube oil supply temperature to the bearings should be maintained at approximately __________.Not learned 934. When operating with the auxiliary feed line, feed water flow is controlled __________.Not learned 935. In what part of a main boiler fuel oil service system is it permissible to raise the temperature of the fuel above the flash point?Not learned 936. When performing a bottom blow on a boiler, what valve is spun open quickly?Not learned 937. When performing a periodic gauge glass blow down to insure that the glass is free and operating correctly, what action is performed first?Not learned 938. When placing a cleaned and properly made up atomizer in the spare atomizer rack, how should the atomizer be stored?Not learned 939. What is the purpose of the items labeled "moving blades" located on the illustrated steam turbineNot learned 940. What is the purpose of the item labeled "nozzle" located on the illustrated steam turbineNot learned 941. As shown on the illustrated huddling chamber type safety valve drawing, what item is associated with setting the blow down adjustmentNot learned 942. As shown on the illustrated soot blower diagram, what item is responsible for opening and closing the steam admission poppet valve at the appropriate times during element rotationNot learned 943. As shown on the illustrated sootblower diagram, how is the sootblower element rotatedNot learned 944. What size drill is used to drill the orifice of the sprayer plate of the illustrated atomizerNot learned 945. A slight vacuum is maintained in the shell of the first stage heater shown in the illustration. The primary reason for the vacuum is to __________Not learned 946. What is the source of heat for a third stage feed heater (if fitted) while a vessel is underway under full load?Not learned 947. What statement concerning the operation of a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear is true?Not learned 948. What statement is true concerning the illustrated boiler saddle, support and footNot learned 949. What statement is true concerning the illustrated steam turbine bearing lubricating oil flow and temperature indicating deviceNot learned 950. Which statement is true concerning the operation of item 12 on the illustrated air register and burner assemblyNot learned 951. What statement is true concerning a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear?Not learned 952. To stop the rotor of a main turbine while underway at sea you should __________.Not learned 953. In terms of the completeness of combustion, in viewing the condition of the stack, what would be the indication of the MOST complete combustion and HIGHEST boiler efficiency?Not learned 954. In terms of the completeness of combustion, in viewing the flame through the peephole, what would be the indication of the MOST complete combustion?Not learned 955. In terms of the diluting effect of excessive excess air, when viewing the flame through a peephole, what would be the indication of the greatest diluting effect with far too much excess air?Not learned 956. When transferring fuel from a fuel storage tank to a fuel oil settling tank, what is the best protection against an oil spill?Not learned 957. What type of bearing is shown in the illustrationNot learned 958. What type of thrust is the bearing shown in the illustrated steam turbine shaft bearing designed to absorbNot learned 959. The unit shown in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 960. The upper section of the feedwater heater indicated by "G" in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 961. When used for the purpose of controlling the temperature of main steam, what is the source of water and steam for the illustrated deviceNot learned 962. According to the illustrated steam tables, what would be the superheater outlet temperature if saturated steam at 400 psia was elevated 192Not learned 963. According to the temperature/enthalpy diagram for water at atmospheric pressure, if the substance is undergoing a heat loss, what heat transfer process is represented by the region associated with "4"Not learned 964. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?Not learned 965. Greases used for most marine applications would use what thickening base?Not learned 966. If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, what does this indicate?Not learned 967. If you hear the general alarm sounded 3 times supplemented by 3 short blasts of the whistle, what does this indicate?Not learned 968. In the diagram illustrated, the direction of flow through item 3 is __________Not learned 969. In which lubrication application is a lubricating oil with demulsibility properties most likely to be used?Not learned 970. On a slow speed, crosshead type, diesel engine, in which application is the lubricating oil considered a consumable?Not learned 971. The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 972. The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 973. To prevent blowback when attempting to light off an idle boiler, what statement is true?Not learned 974. What device on the bridge shows the rudder's position?Not learned 975. What is the alarm signal for manning boat stations or boat drills onboard a merchant ship?Not learned 976. What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated rising stem gate valve?Not learned 977. What is the whistle signal for stop lowering boats?Not learned 978. When a slow-speed diesel engine is used to directly drive a fixed-pitch propeller, upon execution of a stop order and cutting off fuel delivery, if there is way on the ship how is engine rotation stopped?Not learned 979. Which of the tanks, shown in the illustration, supplies fuel to the emergency generatorNot learned 980. While fires are lit in a boiler, in terms of uptake dampers and air register doors, what conditions must be met?Not learned 981. In a refrigeration system that is not protected by a water failure switch, if the cooling water to the condenser fails, what will be the result for protective purposes?Not learned 982. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in place by what means?Not learned 983. The sensing line for the low-pressure cut-out switch for a refrigeration system is typically connected at what location?Not learned 984. There are three pieces of information that should be included in delivering a message via a sound-powered telephone. Which of the following represents the proper sequence of information delivery?Not learned 985. What is the primary function of the device illustratedNot learned 986. Which of the listed devices would be installed in the air compressor discharge line between the compressor and receiver of a control air system?Not learned 987. What is a quick and effective way of determining whether or not a boiler water gauge glass is operating properly?Not learned 988. According to the illustrated diesel engine fuel treatment and fuel service systems schematic, what is the purpose of the device labeled "viscosimeter"Not learned 989. According to the illustrated diesel engine fuel treatment and fuel service systems schematic, what would be the appropriate valve configuration for operating the two heavy fuel oil purifiers in seriesNot learned 990. According to the illustrated lubricating oil system diagram, which of the labeled items is the lube oil storage tankNot learned 991. According to the illustrated main and auxiliary diesel engine cooling water systems diagram, which of the following heat exchangers uses high temperature fresh water (jacket water) as a source of heatNot learned 992. According to the illustrated steam tables, what would be the latent heat of vaporization for boiler water if the auxiliary boiler was operating at 135Not learned 993. As shown in the illustrated D type single furnace boiler, what does item "E" representNot learned 994. As shown in the illustrated D type single furnace boiler, what does item "F" representNot learned 995. As shown in the illustration, what is the diaphragm orifice labeled "H" used forNot learned 996. As shown in the illustration, what is the function of component "B"Not learned 997. For the typical marine turbocharged main propulsion diesel engine, where is the usual location for the air intake filter and silencer?Not learned 998. Greases used for most marine applications would have what National Lubricating Grease Institute (NLGI) grade?Not learned 999. How is accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system prevented?Not learned 1000. If a steam propulsion plant is provided with two main propulsion boilers, two fuel oil service heaters, two fuel oil service pumps, and two fuel oil settling tanks, what is the capacity of each fuel oil service heater?Not learned 1001. If an attempted light off of an idle boiler fails, what should be done?Not learned 1002. In terms of the completeness of combustion, in performing a stack gas analysis on an operating boiler, what would be the indication of the LEAST complete combustion?Not learned 1003. In the system illustrated, what type of valves are downstream of point "A"Not learned 1004. The diaphragm orifice labeled "H", as shown in the illustration is used as a/an __________Not learned 1005. The rudder torque capacity of the four-ram steering gear illustrated, is rated at 44,210,000 inch-pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four-ram system was able to be operated as a two-ram system with both power units on line, what would be the available torqueNot learned 1006. What is the heat source for the deaerating feed tank introduced at "E" in the illustrationNot learned 1007. What is the source of heat for a second stage feed heater (deaerating feed tank) while a vessel is underway under full load?Not learned 1008. What statement is true concerning the illustrated boiler saddle, support and/or footNot learned 1009. What type of bearing is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1010. What type of diesel engine starting system is pictured in the illustrationNot learned 1011. Which of the below engines might power a large merchant vessel with a direct drive controllable pitch propeller?Not learned 1012. Which of the following automatically actuates the overspeed tripping device installed on an auxiliary turbine?Not learned 1013. Which of the following statements correctly describes the construction of the close coupled sanitary pump shown in the illustrationNot learned 1014. Which of the following types of bearings are used as line shaft bearings?Not learned 1015. While underway on a steamship, the main condenser is operating under a 28.09 "Hg vacuum gauge. According to the illustrated properties of saturated steam table, how much condensate depression would there be if the condensate temperature leaving the main condenser hot well is 96Not learned 1016. How is lube oil pressure provided to a turbogenerator when starting the unit in an automated plant?Not learned 1017. As shown in the illustrated D type single furnace boiler, what does item "H" representNot learned 1018. The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event?Not learned 1019. According to the temperature/enthalpy diagram for water at atmospheric pressure, if the substance is undergoing a heat gain, what heat transfer process is represented by the region associated with "4"Not learned