Q805 - Oiler, Part II, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?Not learned 2. Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?Not learned 3. Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.Not learned 4. The designation 'schedule 80' refers to __________.Not learned 5. Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints or __________.Not learned 6. When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.Not learned 7. Which of the following measurements would be an example of total flow?Not learned 8. Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length for pipe nipples?Not learned 9. Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called "pipe _____________".Not learned 10. To connect two lengths of pipe previously set in place, you should use a pipe __________.Not learned 11. A pipe coupling is a fitting having __________.Not learned 12. Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.Not learned 13. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 14. Tubing is sized by __________.Not learned 15. Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?Not learned 16. Copper coil tubing is best cut with a _________.Not learned 17. The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a __________.Not learned 18. Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed __________.Not learned 19. After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should ______.Not learned 20. Some heavy-duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _________.Not learned 21. An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.Not learned 22. Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?Not learned 23. Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross-sectional tip?Not learned 24. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil wire or tightly coiled steel?Not learned 25. Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.Not learned 26. Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?Not learned 27. Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.Not learned 28. Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?Not learned 29. Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become __________.Not learned 30. A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of __________.Not learned 31. Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangular-shaped holes and slots?Not learned 32. The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.Not learned 33. A file coated with oil and stowed away will __________.Not learned 34. Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called __________.Not learned 35. It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is __________.Not learned 36. When using a chisel, you should __________.Not learned 37. The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the _________.Not learned 38. A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.Not learned 39. The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you _________.Not learned 40. What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed head?Not learned 41. Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?Not learned 42. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.Not learned 43. A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the ________.Not learned 44. For the power hacksaw shown in the illustration, how should the teeth point for the blade being installedNot learned 45. To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.Not learned 46. Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the __________.Not learned 47. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more accurately if you __________.Not learned 48. When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.Not learned 49. A hacksaw blade will break if __________.Not learned 50. Which of the drill sets listed would commonly be referred to as a “Jobbers Set”?Not learned 51. No two drills from differing drill sets are of the exact same size, with the exception of the drills measured as 0.25 inch. These two drills are the 1/4 inch and the __________.Not learned 52. If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will __________.Not learned 53. To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock should be mounted in a __________.Not learned 54. One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to _________.Not learned 55. When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter __________.Not learned 56. For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the correct included angle of a drill point is __________.Not learned 57. A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a __________.Not learned 58. The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.Not learned 59. If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will __________.Not learned 60. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for __________.Not learned 61. If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.Not learned 62. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?Not learned 63. The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.Not learned 64. When internal threading for bolts, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.Not learned 65. Taps and dies used for threading pipe, under U.S. standards, are __________.Not learned 66. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.Not learned 67. A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly __________.Not learned 68. A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.Not learned 69. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, "pitch" is the __________.Not learned 70. The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.Not learned 71. Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?Not learned 72. The open-end wrench size for a standard 3/4 inch American National hex head bolt is __________.Not learned 73. A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.Not learned 74. A metal scribe commonly found on a combination square measuring tool should only be used to __________.Not learned 75. A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file __________.Not learned 76. Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.Not learned 77. Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of it slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt?Not learned 78. Open end wrenches are __________.Not learned 79. In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.Not learned 80. A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.Not learned 81. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.Not learned 82. Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?Not learned 83. An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.Not learned 84. Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.Not learned 85. To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________.Not learned 86. A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding the contact surfaces together of a valve, is called __________.Not learned 87. Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?Not learned 88. The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _________.Not learned 89. To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.Not learned 90. The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.Not learned 91. A dial indicator is used to measure __________.Not learned 92. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.Not learned 93. When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should measure across the drill __________.Not learned 94. To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock, you should use a __________.Not learned 95. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you should use a __________.Not learned 96. A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.Not learned 97. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.Not learned 98. Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to __________.Not learned 99. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________Not learned 100. A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to __________.Not learned 101. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure __________.Not learned 102. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.Not learned 103. Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?Not learned 104. The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as __________Not learned 105. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________.Not learned 106. A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.Not learned 107. For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a __________.Not learned 108. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a __________.Not learned 109. A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.Not learned 110. When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe, you should mount the drill chuck in the __________.Not learned 111. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the __________.Not learned 112. The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the __________.Not learned 113. Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage locked in position?Not learned 114. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?Not learned 115. Which of the following statements best defines 'depth of cut' in lathe work?Not learned 116. If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should __________.Not learned 117. Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the __________.Not learned 118. To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.Not learned 119. Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.Not learned 120. The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.Not learned 121. Tinning a soldering iron will __________.Not learned 122. Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.Not learned 123. Solder is an alloy of __________.Not learned 124. When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.Not learned 125. With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________.Not learned 126. When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, __________.Not learned 127. Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxy-acetylene regulators and torches?Not learned 128. Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxy-acetylene torch?Not learned 129. The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is __________.Not learned 130. The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a _______.Not learned 131. To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.Not learned 132. When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts be tightened?Not learned 133. If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 134. Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 135. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.Not learned 136. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________.Not learned 137. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?Not learned 138. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by __________.Not learned 139. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?Not learned 140. Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?Not learned 141. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.Not learned 142. A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used __________.Not learned 143. The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring __________.Not learned 144. "Prussian Blue" is commonly used __________.Not learned 145. The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.Not learned 146. An eroded globe valve disk can be repaired by __________.Not learned 147. What is the primary purpose of a reach rod as used as a valve remote operator?Not learned 148. Suppose a remote valve operator is fitted with a gearbox. What is the purpose of the gearbox?Not learned 149. What type of valve would be fitted with a quarter-turn power actuator, such as a rack-and-pinion?Not learned 150. Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?Not learned 151. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.Not learned 152. A pump is defined as a device that __________.Not learned 153. The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.Not learned 154. The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to __________.Not learned 155. Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by __________.Not learned 156. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?Not learned 157. Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required?Not learned 158. Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.Not learned 159. One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a __________.Not learned 160. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that __________.Not learned 161. Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low pressures?Not learned 162. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?Not learned 163. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.Not learned 164. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.Not learned 165. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?Not learned 166. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 167. To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?Not learned 168. A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?Not learned 169. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.Not learned 170. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to ________.Not learned 171. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.Not learned 172. Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 173. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?Not learned 174. The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.Not learned 175. Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?Not learned 176. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by __________.Not learned 177. When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be _________.Not learned 178. When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?Not learned 179. Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?Not learned 180. The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to __________.Not learned 181. To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should __________.Not learned 182. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by_______.Not learned 183. Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?Not learned 184. A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by __________.Not learned 185. Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the __________.Not learned 186. When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be ______.Not learned 187. Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?Not learned 188. Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by __________.Not learned 189. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.Not learned 190. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump __________.Not learned 191. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.Not learned 192. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?Not learned 193. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?Not learned 194. An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.Not learned 195. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the __________.Not learned 196. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________.Not learned 197. Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?Not learned 198. The cylinders and intercoolers of most low-pressure air compressors are cooled by __________.Not learned 199. The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.Not learned 200. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.Not learned 201. If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?Not learned 202. If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?Not learned 203. What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?Not learned 204. If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end waterboxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?Not learned 205. With regard to the number of passes through the tubes of shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true?Not learned 206. If a heat exchanger is designed to evaporate sea water using diesel engine jacket water as an evaporating medium, what statement is true?Not learned 207. What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density approaching that of water?Not learned 208. What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?Not learned 209. By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?Not learned 210. Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?Not learned 211. Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.Not learned 212. In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs. (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64Not learned 213. Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to __________.Not learned 214. The component, which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.Not learned 215. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _______.Not learned 216. Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the __________.Not learned 217. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by __________.Not learned 218. When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.Not learned 219. To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?Not learned 220. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity?Not learned 221. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally __________.Not learned 222. If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.Not learned 223. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.Not learned 224. The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate __________.Not learned 225. Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an __________.Not learned 226. The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is this temperature normally controlled?Not learned 227. How is solid trash and garbage generally admitted to a solid-waste incinerator on most ships?Not learned 228. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.Not learned 229. A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.Not learned 230. All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________.Not learned 231. All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________.Not learned 232. Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?Not learned 233. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is that the __________Not learned 234. What damage may occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes deteriorated?Not learned 235. When the control handle is in the "off" position, what is the status of the solenoid actuated brake of an electric winch?Not learned 236. In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the movement of an electric powered cargo winch will be stopped by what means?Not learned 237. What is the function of the electric brake on a deck cargo winch?Not learned 238. As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery motor controllers, what should be done?Not learned 239. If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of time, what should be done?Not learned 240. Which of the following conditions will occur if the brake solenoid coil burns out on a cargo winch with an electrical brake?Not learned 241. What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?Not learned 242. The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when ______.Not learned 243. Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.Not learned 244. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 245. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?Not learned 246. An example of an antifriction bearing is a __________.Not learned 247. Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?Not learned 248. Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?Not learned 249. Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.Not learned 250. The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to __________.Not learned 251. When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.Not learned 252. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 253. A ball bearing will overheat if ______.Not learned 254. A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.Not learned 255. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.Not learned 256. What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?Not learned 257. For more complete vessel protection when using an impressed current cathodic system, what other features are built into the system?Not learned 258. Impressed current cathodic hull protection systems are commonly used on modern vessels. What are these systems designed to replace or reduce?Not learned 259. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.Not learned 260. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.Not learned 261. Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?Not learned 262. What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?Not learned 263. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?Not learned 264. What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?Not learned 265. If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, __________.Not learned 266. "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the __________.Not learned 267. When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________.Not learned 268. Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________.Not learned 269. Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as __________.Not learned 270. Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel?Not learned 271. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be _________.Not learned 272. To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should __________.Not learned 273. During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should __________.Not learned 274. After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and _________.Not learned 275. The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the __________.Not learned 276. During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the __________.Not learned 277. During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?Not learned 278. The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.Not learned 279. How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?Not learned 280. The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to _________.Not learned 281. When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be _________.Not learned 282. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________.Not learned 283. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 284. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, with a three-person watch rotation, what is the watch and rest period rotation?Not learned 285. In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm response would be the most immediately critical?Not learned 286. You are making a round of the engine room and approaching the motor driven cargo pumps and discover a person laying at the foot of the ladder. What action should be taken?Not learned 287. Regarding heat transfer principles, which of the following is true?Not learned 288. Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system should be in which of the following conditions?Not learned 289. At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure, what is the status of R-134a?Not learned 290. Traditionally, which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor?Not learned 291. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?Not learned 292. Which of the fluids listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant?Not learned 293. The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by what means?Not learned 294. Some chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a toxic irritating gas under what conditions?Not learned 295. In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants decompose and form what chemical substance?Not learned 296. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of an R-22 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment with a halide torch?Not learned 297. To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from an R-22 refrigeration system in an enclosed area, how should this be done?Not learned 298. What is the physical state and pressure condition of refrigerant as it leaves a receiver in a typical refrigeration system?Not learned 299. The "tare weight" of a refrigerant storage cylinder refers to what weight?Not learned 300. Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a confined space or in limited surroundings cause suffocation?Not learned 301. Which of the following refrigerants is chlorine free and safe regarding atmospheric ozone depletion?Not learned 302. A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?Not learned 303. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?Not learned 304. In a refrigeration plant, what is one vital purpose of the receiver?Not learned 305. The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what essential function?Not learned 306. Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of produce in chill boxes. Which of the following will minimize this dehydration?Not learned 307. If an abnormally large difference is maintained between the evaporator refrigerant temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated compartment, what will be the result?Not learned 308. For most multi-box refrigeration systems, the refrigerant sight glass would be located where in the system?Not learned 309. The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration system is to prevent dirt and scale from entering what system component(s)?Not learned 310. On a modern refrigerated container unit employing suction modulation for the purposes of capacity control and capacity limitation, what happens when the applied voltage and current draw associated with the normally open (NO) suction modulation valve located in the suction line both increase?Not learned 311. When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor discharge line, it discharges high-pressure refrigerant vapor to what location?Not learned 312. Rather than design an infinite variety of thermostatic expansion valve sizes to accommodate different capacities for heat removal, some manufacturers use a few standard valve body sizes in conjunction with what other feature?Not learned 313. Besides the evaporator pressure, the thermal expansion valve reacts directly to changes in what parameter?Not learned 314. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with an 8 psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a replaceable power element are both desiredNot learned 315. What is one function of the thermal expansion valve used in a refrigeration system?Not learned 316. In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located where?Not learned 317. When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, what name of the charge is associated with the power element?Not learned 318. In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of refrigerant to each refrigerated space evaporator is accomplished by what device?Not learned 319. A thermal expansion valve installed in a refrigeration system is controlled by the action of what device?Not learned 320. When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve power element, what is true concerning the thermal bulb?Not learned 321. If the evaporator coil horizontal return line of a container refrigeration system is less than 0.875" (2.21 cm) in diameter (considered small), the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb should be attached where on the return line?Not learned 322. Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 323. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the system has a single evaporator?Not learned 324. If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?Not learned 325. A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 326. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at 1/2 tons, what would be the result if the replacement valve cage was oversized at 5 tonsNot learned 327. Why are dehydrators usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems?Not learned 328. Which of the devices listed will indicate whether or not a refrigeration system's dehydrator continues to be capable of removing moisture from the circulating refrigerant?Not learned 329. In a refrigeration system, silica gel is found in what component?Not learned 330. Standard filter/driers used in many commercial type refrigeration units may contain what type of substance?Not learned 331. Moisture is removed from recovered refrigerant using a recycling machine by what means?Not learned 332. If the combination moisture indicator and sight glass indicates an accumulation of moisture within the system, which of the listed procedures would be the most practical to follow?Not learned 333. What is the most important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 334. The lubrication oil in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor that is shut down is heated. For what purpose is this done?Not learned 335. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 336. The color and/or condition of the oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refrigeration compressor experiencing bearing wear or piston scoring would be which of the following?Not learned 337. A "hygroscopic" lubricant used in refrigeration compressors would have what characteristic?Not learned 338. What is the purpose of the low pressure cut-out switch as used as a primary controller for a refrigeration system or unit?Not learned 339. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart if the system features a pump-down cycle?Not learned 340. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?Not learned 341. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when only one of the evporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what valueNot learned 342. A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system, is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?Not learned 343. A box solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed in what manner?Not learned 344. In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line prior to what device?Not learned 345. The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator senses what temperature?Not learned 346. How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve?Not learned 347. When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, under what conditions would the most accurate reading be obtained?Not learned 348. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a perishable chilled cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what should be the operational status of the unit if the actual box temperature is 6Not learned 349. In addition to the drive belt itself, a V-belt that is tensioned too tight will cause excessive wear to what other drive component?Not learned 350. Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause what condition?Not learned 351. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid-line solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, what would this cause?Not learned 352. If a condenser coil of an air-cooled container refrigeration system becomes dirty and requires cleaning, what would be an acceptable method of cleaning?Not learned 353. When opening or closing compressor service and line isolation valves on a typical refrigeration system that is fitted with packed valves, what must you do?Not learned 354. What is true concerning frost build-up on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion refrigeration system?Not learned 355. Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any part of a refrigeration system for the purpose of accomplishing non-major repairs?Not learned 356. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?Not learned 357. Before charging a refrigeration unit, unless quick disconnect fittings are used, the refrigerant charging hoses should be prepared in what way?Not learned 358. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?Not learned 359. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent what from happening?Not learned 360. In a low pressure refrigeration system, excessive running of the purge recovery unit generally indicates which probable condition?Not learned 361. In a low-pressure centrifugal chiller, what is meant by the term "high efficiency purge unit"?Not learned 362. Excessive moisture being collected in the purge unit of a low-pressure refrigeration system could indicate which probable condition?Not learned 363. Release of refrigerant to the atmosphere during the process of purging of air and non-condensable gases can be kept to a permissible minimum by what action?Not learned 364. Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?Not learned 365. Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through the system?Not learned 366. Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of the high-pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the result of what?Not learned 367. What must be done, at a minimum, before a system can legally be opened up for repairs while adhering to the prohibition against the venting of halogenated fluorocarbon refrigerants to the atmosphere?Not learned 368. Minor repairs may be performed on low-pressure refrigerant systems without recovering the refrigerant charge if the pressure in the system is raised to atmospheric. How may this be accomplished?Not learned 369. What is the correct color-coding of refrigerant recovery cylinders regardless of the refrigerant contained within?Not learned 370. In reclaiming recovered refrigerant, which type of contamination will the reclamation process be unable to separate?Not learned 371. In a refrigeration system, the push-pull technique can be used for the recovery of the refrigerant in what state?Not learned 372. When removing the primary refrigerant from a system using water as a secondary refrigerant, it is important to follow which procedure(s) to safeguard the equipment?Not learned 373. If passive recovery is used on a small appliance fitted with a capillary tube as a metering device with a non-operating compressor, the recovery should be made through what means?Not learned 374. Technicians servicing small refrigeration appliances can employ what type of recovery equipment?Not learned 375. What is the color coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant?Not learned 376. What is the color of the flame produced by a halide torch when there is no halogenated refrigerant present at the location of the exploring tube?Not learned 377. What is a quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for the presence of a refrigerant leak without actually pinpointing the actual location?Not learned 378. If you find a refrigerant leak while using a halide torch, what will happen to the flame as the exploring tube approaches the leak?Not learned 379. What must be done to use standard leak detection methods on a low-pressure refrigeration system charged with refrigerant?Not learned 380. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, what would be the normal range of expected discharge pressures if the ambient air temperature is 90°FNot learned 381. One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can be which of the following?Not learned 382. An increasing head pressure in a refrigeration system, without any corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temperature, would probably be caused by which of the following?Not learned 383. An excessive charge of refrigerant in a thermostatically controlled, air-cooled, refrigeration system using a TXV as an expansion device can cause which of the following?Not learned 384. A refrigeration system is equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit. If the system is overcharged, the resulting high head pressure will be caused by what condition?Not learned 385. If increasing the cooling water flow to a refrigeration condenser fails to lower the condenser pressure, the probable cause may be due to what condition?Not learned 386. Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of what condition?Not learned 387. A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined and gas bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. What does this mean?Not learned 388. If the running suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor of a TXV controlled air-cooled refrigeration system is below normal, which of the following can be a cause?Not learned 389. A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. Where is it generally located in the system?Not learned 390. When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, what should be done to compensate for or to correct this situation?Not learned 391. Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by which of the following?Not learned 392. Unusual noise coming from a refrigeration compressor can be caused by which of the following conditions?Not learned 393. If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is exhibiting an unusual degree of sweating or frosting and is operating noisily, what should be done?Not learned 394. When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST thing that should be checked for is what?Not learned 395. If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low side for repairs, but otherwise the compressor sounds normal, this is a possible indication of what condition?Not learned 396. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating or frosting and is operating with an unusual noise, what is most likely the cause?Not learned 397. Excessive, prolonged oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor can result in what condition?Not learned 398. If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, besides an elevated box temperature, what would be an observable symptom?Not learned 399. During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running continuously, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature is slightly above normal without ever reaching the desired minimum temperature. Suction and discharge pressures are normal for the corresponding box temperature. In this situation, what should you suspect?Not learned 400. An evaporator coil of a single evaporator, air-cooled refrigerator is accumulating excessive frost due to a failure of the defrost mechanism. If the refrigerator features a thermostatically controlled box solenoid and a low-pressure cut-out controlled compressor, as well as a high-pressure cut-out, in terms of the compressor, what would be the most likely operating symptom?Not learned 401. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?Not learned 402. Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause which of the following conditons?Not learned 403. Which of the following conditions would indicate that the liquid line strainer in a refrigeration system has become excessively restricted and requires cleaning or replacement?Not learned 404. Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding machine?Not learned 405. Which of the following statements represents the FIRST precaution to be taken prior to working on any installed electrical component?Not learned 406. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?Not learned 407. Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the proper technique for lifting an object?Not learned 408. What is the best protection against hand injuries from pinch points associated with being required to perform maintenance or repairs on rotating machinery?Not learned 409. Steel-toed safety shoes are recommended for many types of work. What type of work activity would be an exception to the rule and where steel-toed shoes would NOT be recommended?Not learned 410. What type of eye protection affords the best protection from dust and airborne abrasives?Not learned 411. What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time constraints associated with its use?Not learned 412. When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned 413. Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER tags?Not learned 414. Under what conditions is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 415. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 416. A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire?Not learned 417. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 418. A fire in the paint locker would probably be __________.Not learned 419. Fires are grouped into what categories?Not learned 420. Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class "B" fire?Not learned 421. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 422. A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor, is considered a __________.Not learned 423. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________.Not learned 424. A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class __________.Not learned 425. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.Not learned 426. A fire can be extinguished by removing __________.Not learned 427. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 428. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.Not learned 429. The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank vessels is _________.Not learned 430. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a __________.Not learned 431. Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced by __________.Not learned 432. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as "light water", is especially suitable for fighting __________.Not learned 433. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?Not learned 434. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?Not learned 435. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.Not learned 436. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 437. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 438. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?Not learned 439. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.Not learned 440. Which of the following extinguishing effects for dry chemical extinguishing agents is considered the most prevalent?Not learned 441. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire, which of the listed fire extinguishing agents should NEVER be sprayed directly into the fire?Not learned 442. To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________.Not learned 443. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire?Not learned 444. "Dry Powder" fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire?Not learned 445. The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is _________.Not learned 446. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.Not learned 447. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________.Not learned 448. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 449. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 450. A fire is considered "under control" when __________.Not learned 451. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 452. While fighting a fire, in order to utilize two hoses from a single "wye" gate attached to a hydrant outlet, you need only turn the valve handle __________.Not learned 453. Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be directed __________.Not learned 454. If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable fire extinguishers?Not learned 455. When re-entering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, the investigating team should initially __________.Not learned 456. When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you should always __________.Not learned 457. Which of the listed methods, is the most effective to fight a fire on the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher?Not learned 458. Class C fires may be combated using a __________.Not learned 459. Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 460. A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________.Not learned 461. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.Not learned 462. To properly maintain fire hoses, you should __________.Not learned 463. When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and _______.Not learned 464. A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the handle position is changed from __________.Not learned 465. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.Not learned 466. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the fog applicators used in conjunction with the combination nozzle?Not learned 467. There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure?Not learned 468. Which of the following components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system?Not learned 469. The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its over pressurization is called a __________.Not learned 470. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.Not learned 471. When fighting a machinery space fire, you should operate a fixed CO₂ system by opening the control valve to the space protected and __________.Not learned 472. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 473. When a ship's low-pressure CO₂ fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO₂ that will be released into the selected compartment?Not learned 474. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet?Not learned 475. Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________.Not learned 476. What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?Not learned 477. (1.7.4.1.1-2) Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life?Not learned 478. Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment to fight a fire?Not learned 479. While wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus, the user must be aware of the bulkiness of the unit in order to avoid confined spaces. Of what other limitations should the user be aware?Not learned 480. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.Not learned 481. The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by __________.Not learned 482. Clean air standards referred to as "Grade D" apply to compressed air for use in __________.Not learned 483. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?Not learned 484. What term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazards?Not learned 485. Which health hazard term is listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact?Not learned 486. Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?Not learned 487. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.Not learned 488. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.Not learned 489. As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________.Not learned 490. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is __________.Not learned 491. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.Not learned 492. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.Not learned 493. When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space __________.Not learned 494. Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________.Not learned 495. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 496. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?Not learned 497. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.Not learned 498. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?Not learned 499. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.Not learned 500. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a _____.Not learned 501. You are about to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If you're not wearing a self- contained breathing apparatus, you should test the compartment's atmosphere to determine if there is/are __________.Not learned 502. Petroleum vapors are dangerous __________.Not learned 503. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?Not learned 504. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.Not learned 505. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is __________.Not learned 506. What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken?Not learned 507. Which of the following devices allows the user to remain in an oxygen deficient space for the longest period of time without interruption?Not learned 508. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.Not learned 509. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 510. Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing an electrical spark?Not learned 511. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.Not learned 512. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.Not learned 513. While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?Not learned 514. Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 515. When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________.Not learned 516. The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the water is the use of __________.Not learned 517. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?Not learned 518. Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea?Not learned 519. The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________.Not learned 520. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.Not learned 521. Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by __________.Not learned 522. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.Not learned 523. While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing. Your FIRST response should be to __________.Not learned 524. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.Not learned 525. You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do?Not learned 526. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 527. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.Not learned 528. In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.Not learned 529. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 530. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 531. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 532. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 533. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 534. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.Not learned 535. When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 536. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.Not learned 537. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 538. Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?Not learned 539. If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you should ________.Not learned 540. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.Not learned 541. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 542. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 543. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 544. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 545. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.Not learned 546. What does the air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft provide protection against?Not learned 547. When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.Not learned 548. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 549. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.Not learned 550. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________.Not learned 551. An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.Not learned 552. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.Not learned 553. To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________.Not learned 554. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 555. With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from __________.Not learned 556. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?Not learned 557. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.Not learned 558. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 559. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 560. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoringNot learned 561. Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to __________.Not learned 562. In an emergency, a hole in the hull below the waterline, not over three inches in diameter, can be temporarily sealed by __________.Not learned 563. It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________.Not learned 564. A hole in the hull above the waterline may be temporarily patched with __________.Not learned 565. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.Not learned 566. The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.Not learned 567. Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.Not learned 568. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 569. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?Not learned 570. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 571. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 572. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?Not learned 573. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in shock?Not learned 574. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?Not learned 575. If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty in breathing, a patient in shock should be placed in which of the positions listed?Not learned 576. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?Not learned 577. What can be caused by severe airway burns?Not learned 578. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.Not learned 579. If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they should FIRST wash the eye with __________.Not learned 580. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 581. If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and _______.Not learned 582. Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock?Not learned 583. What should you do for a crew member who has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet?Not learned 584. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?Not learned 585. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 586. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?Not learned 587. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?Not learned 588. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.Not learned 589. Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?Not learned 590. Antiseptics are used principally to __________.Not learned 591. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 592. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 593. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 594. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 595. What should you do before CPR is started?Not learned 596. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 597. Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of __________.Not learned 598. If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is __________.Not learned 599. When administering mouth to mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?Not learned 600. The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.Not learned 601. Which combustible element in fuel oil is considered a significant and major source of air pollution?Not learned 602. When heated, fuel oil will __________.Not learned 603. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to determine the highest temperature to which the oil may be heated __________.Not learned 604. Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?Not learned 605. Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?Not learned 606. In order to obtain the best performance with a lube oil purifier, the lube oil inlet temperature should __________.Not learned 607. In the operation of a lube oil clarifier, the position of the oil/water interface should be __________.Not learned 608. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a lube oil purifier is correct?Not learned 609. A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the listed substances from lube oil?Not learned 610. When water is removed from lube oil passing through a centrifugal purifier, the water removed will __________.Not learned 611. Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?Not learned 612. In what application is an emergency shutdown most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the pump itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 613. For any piece of equipment requiring lubrication, what is the single most important lubricating oil property in meeting the operating conditions?Not learned 614. For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?Not learned 615. What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?Not learned 616. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?Not learned 617. Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by centrifuging?Not learned 618. Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________.Not learned 619. Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?Not learned 620. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.Not learned 621. The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by _________.Not learned 622. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to ________.Not learned 623. Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on a boiler, are __________.Not learned 624. The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.Not learned 625. The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent what condition?Not learned 626. In terms of units, how is the inductance of a coil measured?Not learned 627. What is the unit of measure for electrical resistance?Not learned 628. When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed has the highest permeability?Not learned 629. What is the correct name for current that flows in only one direction?Not learned 630. What is the name of the force that causes free electrons to flow in a conductor producing electric current?Not learned 631. What is the opposition to alternating current flow through a coil due to inductance called?Not learned 632. What is the combined effect of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and resistance in an alternating current circuit known as?Not learned 633. The term "volt" describes:Not learned 634. In a 60 Hz AC system, what is the duration in seconds for one complete cycle?Not learned 635. As a DC armature revolves within a stationary magnetic field, the reversals of magnetization of the armature core lags the current reversals which produces heat. What is the correct name for this action which is minimized by the use of soft silicon steel?Not learned 636. With respect to motors, how is ambient temperature defined?Not learned 637. The multiplier prefix "giga" (G) such as used in "gigabytes" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 638. The number of cycles per second occurring in AC voltage is known as what characteristic?Not learned 639. In a three-phase circuit, how far apart are the phase voltages?Not learned 640. AC circuits can possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and capacitance. In terms of units of measure, how is the capacitive reactance of the circuit expressed?Not learned 641. Alternating current circuits may develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. What is the unit of measure for expressing capacitance?Not learned 642. Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or controller, what should be done?Not learned 643. In order to safely carry out repairs to a generator circuit breaker, it must be isolated from the bus. How is this accomplished?Not learned 644. (1.1.10.2.2-2) When replacing fuses, what practice should be observed?Not learned 645. When working on a high voltage circuit, you should always have another person present with you. This person should have a good working knowledge of the hazards associated with working on high voltage electrical circuits as well as the first aid techniques for treating electrical shock. What other knowledge is essential?Not learned 646. When working on electrical circuits containing large capacitors, in addition to de-energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions should also be taken?Not learned 647. When maintenance personnel are working on electrical equipment, all supply switches should be secured in the open position and tagged. Who specifically should perform the lock-out/tag-out procedure?Not learned 648. Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de-energized circuit, or even one that is completely disconnected, you should do what FIRST?Not learned 649. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?Not learned 650. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would be unable to let go of the energized electrical conductor due to involuntary muscular contraction?Not learned 651. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would experience respiratory paralysis and be unable to breathe while still in contact with the energized conductor?Not learned 652. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would suffer ventricular fibrillation and could only be resuscitated with a ventricular defibrillator?Not learned 653. Contact with any energized electrical system conductor is potentially hazardous and precautions should be taken to prevent exposure. With all other factors considered equal (such as voltage, conducting path through the body and the duration of contact), contact with an energized electrical system conductor of which system type would produce the most damaging effect?Not learned 654. Before electrical work can be safely undertaken, the equipment must be de-energized, locked and tagged out, and verification must be made that the circuit is actually dead. What testing device is most certain to reliably verify that a circuit is actually dead?Not learned 655. Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of electrical isolation?Not learned 656. Which of the following voltage testers would be associated with high quality, be safe to use, and minimize the electric shock hazard?Not learned 657. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core is known as what?Not learned 658. What will happen to an electrical coil when the direct current flowing through the coil is increasing?Not learned 659. What is the correct name for the device used in an electrical circuit to change alternating current to direct current?Not learned 660. What will happen to a carbon resistor operating in electrical equipment that is NOT properly cooled?Not learned 661. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to the failure of a resistor due to overheating?Not learned 662. How does the resistance of a conductor vary?Not learned 663. The resistance of most conducting materials will change as a result of temperature change. What will happen to the resistance of copper wire when the temperature increases?Not learned 664. The existing resistance of a conductor is dependent upon its length, cross-sectional area, and what other factors?Not learned 665. How is electrical conductor insulation classed? Example: insulation class HNot learned 666. Why is copper often used as an electrical conductor?Not learned 667. What is the reason that some electric cables are formed of stranded wire?Not learned 668. Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining the wire gauge size of the cable to be used in a particular circuit?Not learned 669. To minimize magnetic field interaction between electrical conductors in physical proximity, what is the best practice?Not learned 670. What happens to the power loss when the current flow in a power transmission line is halved?Not learned 671. Hysteresis is one cause of electrical power loss associated with electricity generation equipment. What phenomenon results in hysteresis?Not learned 672. How are the line losses in a distribution circuit kept to a minimum?Not learned 673. In a simple DC circuit, the resistance is held constant while the applied voltage is halved. What will be the effect on the current flow as compared to the original current?Not learned 674. What is true concerning all of the connecting conductors of a DC series circuit?Not learned 675. What happens to the current in a series circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance increases?Not learned 676. Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same across each component in a parallel circuit?Not learned 677. Which of the following statements concerning a circuit with parallel connected resistors is correct?Not learned 678. Which of the following statements is true concerning circuits with parallel connected resistances?Not learned 679. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the applied voltage is 12 VDC, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, and R2 is 10 ohms what is the current flowing through R2 with the switch closedNot learned 680. What is the total effective resistance of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit if the resistance of R is 3 1 ohms, R is 4 ohms, and R is 5 ohmsNot learned 681. A battery is connected to a circuit containing three resistors in parallel. The values of the three resistors are 2 ohms, 3 ohms, and 6 ohms. What is the voltage of the battery if the total circuit current is 12 amps?Not learned 682. Which statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a parallel circuit?Not learned 683. Which of the formulas listed is correct for determining power?Not learned 684. How is the power dissipated as heat in a direct current circuit calculated?Not learned 685. How many watts of power is equal to one horsepower?Not learned 686. If the voltage supplied to the lighting circuit is 110 volts, how much current is drawn by a 100 watt light bulb?Not learned 687. What is the wattage of a heating element drawing a current of 30 amperes, at 120 volts?Not learned 688. A 125 volt DC motor is rated at 10 kW. What is the current rating of the motor?Not learned 689. Two 100 watt light bulbs rated at 100 volts are connected in parallel across a 100 volt power supply. What will be the total power consumed by the two bulbs?Not learned 690. What is a useful instrument for checking 3-phase AC motor performance by measuring possible unbalanced currents?Not learned 691. An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement of which of the following instruments?Not learned 692. Which of the listed meters uses a shunt connected in series with the load, but parallel with the meter movement?Not learned 693. Why are external shunts sometimes used with ammeters?Not learned 694. What is an ammeter used to measure?Not learned 695. If a digital multimeter set up to measure AC volts reads slightly above 'zero' when its leads are disconnected, what is this a result of?Not learned 696. When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with a meter movement coil, what capability does this provide?Not learned 697. What is the instrument called a galvanometer used to measure?Not learned 698. Which of the following would best describe a standard electric meter movement that uses the principles of electromagnetism to measure current?Not learned 699. To limit the current flow through a DC voltmeter to as low a value as possible, what is the moving coil circuit provided with?Not learned 700. Whether analog or digital, what are most AC voltmeters calibrated to measure?Not learned 701. A digital multimeter is set up as an ohmmeter. What does a display reading of "OL" ohms as read across the ends of a wire conductor indicate?Not learned 702. Which of the listed statements is correct when using a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter?Not learned 703. In troubleshooting a circuit in a console, you find that a resistor may be faulty. Which of the precautions listed must be observed when using an analog or digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter to carry out this test?Not learned 704. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an analog multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what should you do?Not learned 705. What is an ohmmeter used to measure?Not learned 706. Which of the meters listed should only be used after a circuit has been electrically de-energized?Not learned 707. Circuit resistance is usually measured off-line (de-energized) with an ohmmeter. In the absence of an ohmmeter, however, resistance may be INDIRECTLY measured on-line (energized) using what meter (or meters)?Not learned 708. What practice could potentially damage a multimeter?Not learned 709. If the approximate voltage to be measured in an electric circuit is not known, what should be done?Not learned 710. Under what circumstance would a hand-held portable phase sequence indicator be used should the main switchboard mounted fixed phase sequence indicator be inoperative?Not learned 711. The clamp-on AC ammeter consists essentially of a split-core and a rectifier-type instrument connected to the secondary winding of a particular type of transformer. Which type is used?Not learned 712. In order to take a current reading with a "clamp-on" ammeter, what should be the status of the jaws of the instrument?Not learned 713. Which of the following precautions should be taken when troubleshooting various power circuits using a digital multimeter?Not learned 714. Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC power systems indicate which of the following values of the waveforms measured?Not learned 715. What is a wattmeter used to measure and indicate?Not learned 716. A switchboard ammeter indicates a reading slightly above 'zero' when the leads are disconnected. What is this caused by?Not learned 717. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, why should you use a high impedance multimeter?Not learned 718. How many cells are within in a 24 volt lead-acid battery?Not learned 719. The electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery is distilled water and what other substance?Not learned 720. In general, how are nickel-cadmium storage batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?Not learned 721. What is the approximate voltage per cell produced by the nickel-iron (Edison) battery?Not learned 722. What should be the primary consideration when choosing a battery for a particular application?Not learned 723. The individual 6-volt lead-acid batteries, when connected as shown in the illustration, as a battery bank would produce how many voltsNot learned 724. What is the proper way to mix the electrolyte for a lead-acid battery?Not learned 725. Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium batteries is true?Not learned 726. Which statement is true concerning the charging of a wet cell nickel-cadmium battery?Not learned 727. When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperatures, what is the best procedure to keep it from freezing?Not learned 728. What could cause a very slow, but continual loss of electrolyte level from the cells of a storage battery?Not learned 729. When charging, which of the following represents the recommended maximum allowable temperature for electrolyte in a lead-acid battery?Not learned 730. What will the charging of lead-acid storage batteries always result in?Not learned 731. When charging lead-acid batteries, why is the charging rate reduced as the battery nears its full charge capacity?Not learned 732. When charging a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery, what statement is true?Not learned 733. When a nickel-cadmium battery begins gassing while connected to the battery charging circuit, what should be done?Not learned 734. Why should battery rooms be well ventilated during the charging process?Not learned 735. Under normal conditions, storage batteries used for starting the emergency diesel generator are maintained in a charged state by which of the following methods?Not learned 736. When a hydrometer indicates specific gravity what is being compared?Not learned 737. What is the nominal open-circuit cell voltage of one lead-acid storage battery cell?Not learned 738. What should be done when correcting specific gravity readings of a lead-acid battery for existing temperature conditions?Not learned 739. What is the most reliable indication of the state of charge of a lead-acid battery?Not learned 740. What statement is true concerning the specific gravity of the electrolyte solution in a lead-acid battery?Not learned 741. What would you use to determine the state of charge of a sealed nickel-cadmium battery?Not learned 742. Which of the following statements concerning the specific gravity of a battery electrolyte is true?Not learned 743. Why should a breakable, mercury-filled thermometer NOT be used in a lead-acid battery to measure electrolyte temperature?Not learned 744. When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, what is the best method for detecting a weak or dead cell?Not learned 745. In terms of the battery electrolyte, when performing maintenance of alkaline batteries what should be done?Not learned 746. When troubleshooting an alkaline storage battery, what is the best way to locate a weak or dead cell?Not learned 747. In a shunt-wound DC generator, with what generator component are the shunt field windings connected in parallel with?Not learned 748. A variable shunt, connected across the series field coils of a DC compound wound generator, permits adjustment of the degree of compounding. What is this variable shunt called?Not learned 749. What is the primary purpose of the brushes of DC generators?Not learned 750. By what means is DC generator output voltage decreased?Not learned 751. Which of the terms listed best describes a compound-wound DC generator having a higher voltage at no load than at full load?Not learned 752. Brushes in a DC generator must be positioned in the neutral plane to avoid excessive sparking associated with the brushes. What device is used to prevent the shifting of the neutral plane due to armature reaction for varying generator loads.Not learned 753. How can the loss of residual magnetism in an alternator with a brushless excitation system be corrected?Not learned 754. One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC motor is by connecting the coil to a low voltage source, and testing for polarity. How is this done?Not learned 755. What is the function of the interpoles installed in DC motors?Not learned 756. In DC motor construction, where are the commutating windings wound?Not learned 757. In D.C. motor construction, with regard to the individual armature coils' ends, which statement is true?Not learned 758. Why are the armature cores of the D.C. motors constructed with laminated steel sheets?Not learned 759. In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field windings also passes through what component?Not learned 760. What type of DC motor is never connected to a belt driven load?Not learned 761. If an unloaded DC compound motor's shunt field were weakened by excessive rheostat resistance or by an open circuit, how would the motor respond?Not learned 762. As load is added to a DC shunt motor, how will the motor respond?Not learned 763. In a short-shunt cumulatively compound-wound DC motor, how is the shunt field connected?Not learned 764. The counter EMF of a DC motor is maximum when the __________.Not learned 765. In terms of voltage potential and current sources, how are shunt wound, series wound, and compound wound DC motors designed to operate?Not learned 766. What is an advantage of DC motors over AC motors?Not learned 767. Which of the listed conditions will occur if the polarity of the field poles and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor were both reversed?Not learned 768. What will happen if you reverse both the field and the armature connections of a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 769. The torque produced by a DC motor armature is the multiplication product of two factors, one being the density of the magnetic flux which is dependent upon the field current. What is the other multiplication factor?Not learned 770. What can insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor cause?Not learned 771. If a short circuit in the armature of a DC motor occurs what would be the result?Not learned 772. If a DC motor runs hot, what would most likely be the cause?Not learned 773. If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all other conditions being normal, what could be the possible cause?Not learned 774. Which of the following components are used to convert alternating current produced in the DC generator armature windings to direct current?Not learned 775. To effectively clean a commutator in good physical condition, what should be used?Not learned 776. How may propulsion DC motor brush pressures be calculated?Not learned 777. What can cause uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current generator?Not learned 778. In addition to improper brush pressure or seating, what can result in excessive sparking at the brushes of a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 779. What may cause brush sparking in a DC generator during commutation?Not learned 780. What is the item referred to as a pigtail on a DC motor brush rigging?Not learned 781. What is the function of the commutator associated with a DC motor?Not learned 782. What is the characteristic of the mica used in the commutators of DC machinery?Not learned 783. What is an important factor in minimizing D.C. motor commutator wear?Not learned 784. In general, what can cause D.C. propulsion motor brush sparking to be excessive?Not learned 785. What should be included in performing proper maintenance of a D.C. motor's commutator?Not learned 786. Which of the listed colors properly describes a DC motor commutator when correct commutation is taking place?Not learned 787. What would excessive sparking at the brushes of a running DC motor be an indication of?Not learned 788. What is the most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a D.C. motor?Not learned 789. What property does capacitance have in an AC circuit?Not learned 790. Which of the following statements concerning AC circuits is correct?Not learned 791. A three-phase alternator operates at 450 volts with a 0.8 power factor. If the ammeter indicates 250 amperes, what should be the kW meter reading?Not learned 792. Capacitors can be used in electric distribution systems to improve power factor. This is accomplished by seesawing energy between the capacitor and what device or devices?Not learned 793. A load is connected across the secondary of the step-up transformer shown in figure "B" of the illustration and the current drawn by the load is 10 amps. If the turns ratio is 1 to 10 and The input voltage is 110 VAC, what will be the current drawn by the primaryNot learned 794. What is the maximum allowable primary current of a 2 kVA step-down transformer with a four to one turns ratio if the primary is connected across a 440 volt line?Not learned 795. In figure "4" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three phase step down power transformer has a turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected to terminals 'A1-B1-C1', what voltage should develop across terminals 'A2-B2-C2'Not learned 796. When a low input voltage is delivered to a transformer which then produces a high output voltage, what is the proper name for the transformer type?Not learned 797. Which of the following statements is true concerning a step-down transformer in an operating AC power circuit?Not learned 798. What will happen to the primary winding when the load increases on the secondary windings of a transformer?Not learned 799. When a transformer is used to step down voltage, what statement is true?Not learned 800. What is the primary purpose associated with the use of transformers onboard ships with AC generators?Not learned 801. Which of the listed transformers uses a single winding to produce voltage transformation?Not learned 802. What is the basic operating principle of a transformer in terms of producing a voltage?Not learned 803. If the primary winding of a particular voltage transformer rated for a given AC input voltage is mistakenly connected to a comparable steady DC input voltage with similar source impedance, selfinductance and mutual inductance are not possible. As a result, what part of the transformer will result in current overload?Not learned 804. What is the purpose of a potential transformer in an electric circuit?Not learned 805. When replacing a defective transformer in a paralleled transformer configuration, which of the following actions must be carried out to ensure proper operation of the equipment it serves?Not learned 806. An AC generator produces 60 Hz at 1800 RPM. If the generator speed is increased to 1830 RPM, what will happen to the frequency in Hz?Not learned 807. In a conventional AC generator utilizing brushes, direct current from the exciter output is passed through the windings of the main field rotor by what means?Not learned 808. Compared to conventional alternators, brushless alternators are designed to operate without the use of what?Not learned 809. Of the listed factors that influence the magnitude of the voltage induced in the stator windings of an AC generator operating at a constant 60 Hz frequency, some are fixed due to the alternator design and one is variable due to alternator operating conditions. Which of the following listed factors is subject to be variable during generator operation?Not learned 810. Which of the following statements is true concerning all rotating-field three-phase alternators?Not learned 811. Why are space heaters provided on larger generators?Not learned 812. What is the most practical way to control the voltage output of an AC generator?Not learned 813. How is the frequency of an alternator at a given RPM determined?Not learned 814. How are the number of cycles per second developed by the alternator aboard your vessel determined?Not learned 815. How will the value of the output frequency change if the load is removed from a turbogenerator having a governor speed droop setting of 3%?Not learned 816. The governor control switch of an alternator is moved to the 'raise' position. What will be the effect of this action?Not learned 817. When securing an AC generator, what should be your FIRST action in accomplishing the procedural steps?Not learned 818. How is the power factor of an AC generator operating singularly determined?Not learned 819. Regarding an AC generator connected to the main electrical bus; as the electric load and power factor vary, a corresponding change is reflected in the generator armature reaction. How are these changes in armature reaction compensated for?Not learned 820. Why is motorization of an AC generator undesirable?Not learned 821. How are AC and DC generators similar?Not learned 822. What is the main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large AC generator?Not learned 823. A DC generator which is used to supply direct current in order to provide magnetizing current to an AC generator field is commonly known as what?Not learned 824. Which of the methods listed below is used to provide the rotational torque to cause an AC generator to turn?Not learned 825. How may chattering of the collector/slip ring brushes on a generator be remedied?Not learned 826. If a shipboard AC generator experiences a failure to produce a voltage, what may be the cause?Not learned 827. What may be the cause of an AC generator to fail to produce a voltage?Not learned 828. What will be the impact of reduced voltage applied to an AC induction motor during the starting period?Not learned 829. An alternator is being paralleled with one already on the line. At the INSTANT the incoming generator circuit breaker is closed, what will happen to the frequency of the incoming alternator?Not learned 830. What should be the frequency of the incoming machine when paralleling two AC generators immediately prior to closing its breaker?Not learned 831. What governor setting is directly related to the load sharing characteristics of two diesel alternators operating in parallel?Not learned 832. What device is used so that the kilowatt load sharing can be adjusted on paralleled generators?Not learned 833. If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel is decreased below normal and the other above normal, what will be the result on the alternator with the excitation decreased below normal?Not learned 834. Attempting to parallel an AC generator which is out of phase with the bus will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 835. After closing the circuit breaker to place two alternators with identical ratings in parallel, in terms of achieving a balance between the two alternators, what is the NEXT step?Not learned 836. If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel with another alternator, what will happen to the alternator that has experienced a loss of field excitation?Not learned 837. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving in the slow direction. What is the oncoming generator frequency relative to that of the bus frequency?Not learned 838. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0°. What would happen if you close the circuit breaker at this position?Not learned 839. You are paralleling two alternators. The synchronizing lamps grow dim and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0° position. What does this indicate?Not learned 840. An alternator switchboard has a synchroscope and synchronizing lamps. If the synchroscope is broken, which of the steps listed is the most essential before an alternator can be paralleled with the bus?Not learned 841. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of two alternators in parallel?Not learned 842. To remove an alternator operating in parallel with another unit from the main electrical bus, what must be done FIRST?Not learned 843. A main switchboard synchronizing panel is fitted with two synchronizing lamps and a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one synchronizing light is bright while the other remains dark, what does this indicate?Not learned 844. When paralleling two AC generators, the synchroscope selector switch and frequency meter switch should be set up to sense the frequency of which of the following?Not learned 845. When paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps, the flickering of all three lamps becomes progressively slower and slower. What does this mean?Not learned 846. What will happen when a loss of field excitation to an AC generator occurs while operating in parallel?Not learned 847. When two generators are on the line and are both connected across a shared load, how are they said to be operating?Not learned 848. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0°. What would this indicate?Not learned 849. What is the rotor speed of a six pole, 60 cycle, induction motor operating at full load with 3% slip?Not learned 850. What determines the direction of rotation of an AC induction motor?Not learned 851. In a basic AC induction motor, by what means is current induced in the rotor?Not learned 852. What is meant by the synchronous speed of an AC induction motor?Not learned 853. If an induction motor were to be operated at 90% rated voltage and at rated load, what would be the result?Not learned 854. In a three-phase, squirrel-cage type, induction motor, how is the primary rotating magnetic field established?Not learned 855. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operating characteristics of a basic squirrel-cage induction motor?Not learned 856. In a 15 HP induction-type motor with a squirrel-cage rotor, compared to the full load current at rated speed, how much starting current is required at standstill to produce successful starting torque?Not learned 857. What is the characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance inserted in series with the rotor winding at startup?Not learned 858. By periodically checking the stator-to-rotor air gap clearance in an induction motor with a feeler gauge, what is prevented?Not learned 859. If a three-phase induction motor is operated under a light load and it develops an open in one of its supply lines, what will be the result?Not learned 860. If a single-phase capacitor start induction motor fails to start, but instead hums without starting, what is most likely to be the problem?Not learned 861. Low horsepower, polyphase, induction motors can be started with full voltage by means of which kind of starter?Not learned 862. How is the reversal of an AC, three-phase, induction motor accomplished?Not learned 863. What is the purpose of the squirrel-cage windings included as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 864. Why is a damper winding designed as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 865. What causes the rotor of a synchronous motor to operate in synchronism with the rotating field?Not learned 866. What is the most common source of excitation for the rotor of a synchronous motor utilizing slip rings and brushes?Not learned 867. An increase in which of the listed conditions will increase the speed of a synchronous electric motor?Not learned 868. Of the following listed single-phase induction motors, which has the highest starting torque?Not learned 869. Which statement is true concerning a split-phase induction motor?Not learned 870. What is the main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase, single phase motor?Not learned 871. What type of rotor is most commonly used in the split-phase family of single-phase induction motors?Not learned 872. What is the main function in the use of a capacitor for starting a single phase motor?Not learned 873. If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to open once the motor is in operation, what will be the result?Not learned 874. A single-phase capacitor-start induction motor starts, comes up to about 75% rated speed, slows down to a lower speed, and accelerates again. Where is the problem most likely to be?Not learned 875. Universal motors will operate on AC or DC current. In what application is this type of motor generally?Not learned 876. One item listed on the name plate of a cargo pump motor is 'degrees centigrade rise.' What does the number stamped for this item represent?Not learned 877. With respect to electrical enclosure types, how may an electric motor be designed and constructed?Not learned 878. What operational information data appears on the name plates of shipboard AC motors?Not learned 879. As shown in figure "1" of the illustration, a correctly connected synchronous transmission causes the receiver to be in correspondence with the transmitter. If the receiver is out of correspondence, properly zeroed, but the torque direction is reversed as shown in figure "2", what figure shows the incorrect connections responsible for this conditionNot learned 880. If coil 'R1-R2 -R3' on the transmitter in figure "C" shown in the illustration is turned 30°C lockwise, how will the corresponding coils 'R1-R2-R3' on the receivers (indicators) respondNot learned 881. By what means is the burning of controller contacts due to arcing, when opening, prevented?Not learned 882. If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out when the coil voltage is removed from the relay, what is the probable cause?Not learned 883. The setpoint current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be increased by turning the dashpot in the "lower" direction. What effect will this action have?Not learned 884. How are fuses rated?Not learned 885. How would a circuit with a blown fuse be described?Not learned 886. For what purpose are time delayed or delayed action-type fuses used?Not learned 887. Which of the following precautions should be taken when a blown fuse, rated at 10 amperes, is replaced?Not learned 888. In a single element cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for lighting and general power applications?Not learned 889. In a dual element time-delay cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for motor applications?Not learned 890. When changing fuses, what safety precaution should be taken after ensuring that the circuit is dead?Not learned 891. In order to definitively determine whether or not fuse "3", shown in the illustration is blown using an on-line testing technique, across what points would you connect the voltmeter leadsNot learned 892. To test fuses in an energized circuit, what testing apparatus or meter should be used?Not learned 893. What would cause a fuse to blow?Not learned 894. When replacing a fuse with one of a ampere higher rating than the original, which of the following is true?Not learned 895. By what means does a molded-case circuit breaker provide protection against short circuits?Not learned 896. By what means is protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case circuit breakers provided?Not learned 897. How does a circuit breaker differ from a fuse?Not learned 898. How will a molded-case circuit breaker with a thermal trip unit react immediately after it has tripped, as a result of an overloaded motor circuit?Not learned 899. When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-position, what is the indication for the position of the circuit breaker?Not learned 900. What device can be used to check the calibration of a circuit breaker?Not learned 901. What should be done when performing maintenance of circuit breaker contacts?Not learned 902. What statement is true in reference to reading electrical motor controller elementary diagrams?Not learned 903. In general, what type of starter would be used to connect a three-phase induction motor to full line voltage at the instant of start-up?Not learned 904. Autotransformer starters, sometimes called starting compensators, are sometimes used with larger polyphase induction motors. What function do they perform?Not learned 905. A three-phase, induction-type motor experiences an open in one phase. Which of the listed automatic protective devices will prevent the motor from being damaged?Not learned 906. When a motor is started by the controller shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what circuit components are in the holding current flow path through the control circuit while the motor is in operationNot learned 907. What is the primary functional purpose of the KM3 contactor as shown in the illustrationNot learned 908. What is the functional name of an electrical device which prevents simultaneous energization of loads thereby preventing damage or injury?Not learned 909. Why are motor controllers seldom troubled with grounds?Not learned 910. A motor controller contains three selector push buttons labeled 'start', 'jog', and 'stop'. What will happen to the motor when the 'jog' button is depressed?Not learned 911. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between an electromagnetic relay and an electromagnetic contactor as used in motor control and power circuits?Not learned 912. What functionality does a low-voltage protection circuit as used in electric motor starting equipment provide?Not learned 913. Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in voltage and automatically restart it when the voltage is restored to normal?Not learned 914. What is the name of the type of motor control circuit that will not permit automatic restarting after power is restored, following a power failure?Not learned 915. Moisture damage, as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch master switches, can be reduced by the use of what installed equipment?Not learned 916. Why are motor controllers seldom troubled by grounds?Not learned 917. How can a motor be protected from overheating due to sustained motor overload?Not learned 918. What is the function of the autotransformers used with autotransformer starters used on some large AC motors?Not learned 919. What statement is true concerning a ground in a 450 VAC electrical circuit outside the engine room?Not learned 920. Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded electrical distribution system?Not learned 921. If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal brilliance, whether the test button is depressed or released, what does this indicate?Not learned 922. In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are provided. One lamp goes dark and the others increase in brightness when the "ground test" button is pushed. What is indicated?Not learned 923. A three-phase electrical system is equipped with ground detecting lamps. If one of the lamps is dark, and remains dark when the test switch is operated, what does this indicate?Not learned 924. Multiple grounds have developed and were initially indicated by the ground-detecting system as one ground. What is the FIRST step in locating the grounds?Not learned 925. Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator?Not learned 926. If the pointer fails to return to zero when a hand-cranked megger is disconnected, what does this indicate?Not learned 927. In an ungrounded distribution system, as compared to a normal indication, what is the indication on a switchboard of a current carrying conductor making an accidental electrical contact with a wiring metal conduit?Not learned 928. The push button on the handset of a ship's sound-powered telephone must be depressed in order to do what?Not learned 929. Besides the fluorescent lamp itself and possibly a starter, which of the following components is included in a fluorescent lighting fixture?Not learned 930. Incandescent lamps are classified according to the shape of the bulb and the type of service, as well as the size and style of the base. How are incandescent lamps rated?Not learned 931. When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be replaced immediately. If not, what condition could the resultant flashing cause?Not learned 932. When a fluorescent lamp fails to light and both ends of the tube are severely darkened, what must usually be replaced?Not learned 933. As shown in the wiring diagram of the semi-automatic navigation lighting panel circuit, what would cause the buzzer to sound and for the indicator light to illuminate in the line section for a particular navigation running lightNot learned 934. With what device is the RPM of an AC generator indirectly measured on a switchboard when operating singly (no other generator connected to the bus)?Not learned 935. When would be the safest time to close the ship's main switchboard "shore power" circuit breaker?Not learned 936. What is a bus disconnect link used to isolate?Not learned 937. What is meant by a 'dead front' switchboard?Not learned 938. In comparison to a main switchboard for a DC electrical distribution system, a main switchboard for an AC electrical distribution system requires the use of which of the following devices, whereas a DC main switchboard does not?Not learned 939. By what means is an AC generator prevented from becoming motorized?Not learned 940. The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized unless what condition is met?Not learned 941. What is the name of the part of the shipboard electrical system used to control the distribution of power to the branch circuits?Not learned 942. Under voltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard circuit breakers for what reason?Not learned 943. Upon failure of the ships normal electrical power supply, by means of what device does the emergency generator supply power to the emergency switchboard, but not the main switchboard?Not learned 944. By what means is a diesel driven emergency generator prevented from being paralleled with the ship's service generators?Not learned 945. The 24 volt DC bus on the emergency switchboard is used to supply power to what system or equipment?Not learned 946. When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days, what should be ensured or manually accomplished?Not learned 947. Which of the following statements, concerning the cleaning maintenance of a brushless generator, is correct?Not learned 948. Which of the following materials is recommended for burnishing the slip rings of an alternator after grinding or turning?Not learned 949. In performing routine maintenance of a ship's service alternator, what should be included?Not learned 950. Rotor-to-stator air gap readings should be periodically taken for electrical generation equipment. What is the best tool to use to take these measurements?Not learned 951. With regard to the maintenance of electrical generating machines with insulated pedestal bearings, what practice should be avoided?Not learned 952. Which of the following statements represents the FIRST step in seating new brushes on slip rings?Not learned 953. When performing routine AC motor maintenance what should be included?Not learned 954. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cleaning of electrical contacts?Not learned 955. Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of silver-plated contacts?Not learned 956. Grease coatings on electrical contact surfaces increase contact resistance. How should grease accumulations be removed?Not learned 957. Which of the following represents the accepted method of cleaning dust and foreign particles from electrical equipment while limiting damage to electric components?Not learned 958. What should be included in the performance of routine maintenance of dry-type transformers?Not learned 959. What is the proper way to apply plastic electrical tape to an electric cable splice?Not learned 960. Which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire connections for electronic components on printed circuit boards?Not learned 961. Two contributors of electronic console failures are heat and vibration. To combat some of their effects, what should be included in performing preventive maintenance procedures?Not learned 962. What should be done with a capacitor that is obviously discolored due to excessive heat?Not learned 963. What can cause the pitting or welding of controller contacts?Not learned 964. If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become short circuited, what will happen to the coil?Not learned 965. If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up when the operating coil is energized, what could be one possible cause?Not learned 966. When troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the contacts are welded together. What is the most probable cause?Not learned 967. A loud buzzing noise coming from the contacts in a magnetic controller can be caused by what condition?Not learned 968. When troubleshooting a motor controller, all indications are that a relay coil should be energized. If there was no magnetic pull, with rated voltage measured across the coil, what would be the most probable cause?Not learned 969. What can be the cause of excessive heat or burning contacts in an operating motor controller?Not learned 970. If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a magnetic motor controller, what should you do?Not learned 971. As shown in figure "A" and "B" of the illustration, the potable water pump is short-cycling by the action of the pressure switch as a result of an unusually high level in the potable water hydro- pneumatic header tank. What is most likely the causeNot learned 972. An open occurring within the field rheostat of an AC generator can be detected by short circuiting its terminals and making specific observations. What should be checked for?Not learned 973. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short circuits, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor coils through the collector rings. What would be the indication of a short-circuited coil?Not learned 974. Which of the following methods should be used to test for an 'open' stator winding coil in a wye-connected AC squirrel cage induction motor?Not learned 975. When troubleshooting AC motors, what can a portable growler be used to locate?Not learned 976. In testing a three-phase delta-connected winding for an open circuit using an ohmmeter, what must be done?Not learned 977. How can a shorted armature coil in a DC motor be detected?Not learned 978. An open in the armature of a DC motor is suspected, but is not found by visual inspection of the commutator. What would be the next step in troubleshooting this problem?Not learned 979. How is a short in the shunt field of a DC motor best located?Not learned 980. Which of the listed conditions might contribute to very rapid wearing of a DC machine's commutator bars?Not learned 981. Besides for checking for circuit continuity, what can an ohmmeter be used for in diagnosing a DC motor?Not learned 982. A capacitor is to be tested with a digital multimeter set up to measure ohms. If the meter is connected to a shorted capacitor, how would the meter display respond?Not learned 983. An open primary coil in a voltage transformer (VT) will be indicated by which of the listed conditions?Not learned 984. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test a capacitor, what would the display read if the capacitor is shortedNot learned 985. Which of the following statements concerning electrical cables is correct?Not learned 986. A four pole turbo generator is used in conjunction with a 160 pole propulsion motor. If the generator is turning at 3,200 RPM, what is the current speed of the propeller?Not learned 987. What is the shape of the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier used in an analog circuit?Not learned 988. How may temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil be made, allowing continued operation until permanent repairs can be made?Not learned 989. Besides a condition of overload, what could be a cause of an open armature connection in a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 990. Which of the electronic schematic symbols represents the capacitor illustrated in figure 4 of the illustrationNot learned 991. What is the name of the semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature?Not learned 992. (1.1.11.1.3-12) A triac thyristor functions as a control device and can be thought of to function similarly as which of the following circuits?Not learned 993. Which section of the circuit shown in the illustration smooth's out highest degree of pulsationsNot learned 994. When a solid-state component of an electronic circuit is mounted to a metallic mass, what is the general purpose of that mass?Not learned 995. Capacitors are commonly used on DC power supply circuits for engine room automation consoles. For what functional purpose are they primarily used in this application?Not learned 996. In electronic circuitry, what does the abbreviation "PCB" commonly represent?Not learned 997. If a delicate component must be soldered into a circuit, how can the component be protected from the heat of the soldering process?Not learned 998. What would be the indication of a burned-out LED?Not learned 999. Although saturable reactors are extremely useful in some applications, why is their gain low?Not learned 1000. Basically, a magnetic amplifier is a saturable-core reactor with the addition of what additional feature?Not learned 1001. Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled rectifier?Not learned 1002. Which of the referenced wave shapes would appear at test point 5 (TP5) with respect to ground referring to the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1003. What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?Not learned 1004. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both positive and negative pressures?Not learned 1005. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying two pressures simultaneously?Not learned 1006. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two?Not learned 1007. Which of the following direct-reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump suction pressure gauge?Not learned 1008. If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?Not learned 1009. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of thermal volumetric expansion of a liquid as the temperature rises and features a linear scale?Not learned 1010. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?Not learned 1011. If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct this situation?Not learned 1012. What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?Not learned 1013. What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?Not learned 1014. When determining the level of a potable water hydro pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?Not learned 1015. In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be which of the following?Not learned 1016. Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________.Not learned 1017. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 1018. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.Not learned 1019. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 1020. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 1021. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 1022. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.Not learned 1023. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 1024. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?Not learned 1025. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 1026. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?Not learned 1027. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.Not learned 1028. If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not embedded, you can ________.Not learned 1029. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. Which action should be taken?Not learned 1030. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?Not learned 1031. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water?Not learned 1032. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.Not learned 1033. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?Not learned 1034. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 1035. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.Not learned 1036. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.Not learned 1037. According to the sample sheet of a typical "List of Motors and Controls" as shown in the illustration, which of the following motor applications features a means of keeping the motor windings warm and dry when the motor is idleNot learned 1038. (1.1.4.1.1-4) In actual applications, electrical connections associated with "R1, R2 and R3" of the transmitter to "R1, R2, and R3" of the indicators shown in figure "C" of the illustration are made by what meansNot learned 1039. The amount of voltage induced in the stator windings of a modern AC generator is primarily dependent upon which of the following?Not learned 1040. Assuming a standard 60 Hz input to the circuit shown in the illustration, what would be the ripple frequencyNot learned 1041. What is the characteristic that is associated with an "instantaneous-trip" single-element type fuse?Not learned 1042. The characteristics of the device shown in figure "8" of the illustration includes a stable voltage and low current while operating. Because of this, it can be suitably used in what type of circuitNot learned 1043. In the circuit 'B' of the illustration, what would be the result of the upper heating element being burned out and open circuitedNot learned 1044. (1.1.10.1.1-2) What is a common type of protective covering used on electrical conductors?Not learned 1045. What does the component labeled "B" shown in the illustration representNot learned 1046. The component labeled "CR1" in the circuit shown in the illustration serves what functional purposeNot learned 1047. Concerning the illustrated fire detection and alarm system, what statement is true concerning the wiring between zonesNot learned 1048. What controls rudder movement when the Operation Selector Switch shown in figure "A" of the illustration is in the "Controller" positionNot learned 1049. What is the current flow through R1 of the circuit in figure "B" of the illustration with the switch closed if the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 3 ohms and R3 is 6 ohms and the battery voltage is 12 VDCNot learned 1050. Which device will stop the motor shown in the illustration in case of a short-circuit (high current) motor faultNot learned 1051. Which of the diagrams shown in the illustration depicts the proper method of aligning brushes on a commutator for a DC machineNot learned 1052. Diesel-generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel with each machine operating at half-capacity. Diesel-generator #1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low lube oil pressure. The reverse power relay functions properly and trips generator #1 electrically off the board. In the absence of an automated power management system, which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?Not learned 1053. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what is the status of the silicon diode if the display reads 4.7 ohms when configured as in figure "A" and reads 490 ohms when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 1054. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test an AC contactor coil, what would the display read if the coil is open-circuitedNot learned 1055. A digital multimeter is set up as shown in the illustration to evaluate the single-circuit stator windings of a squirrel cage induction three-phase motor. The following readings are taken: From T1 to T2 reads "OL" ohms. From T2 to T3 reads "OL" ohms. From T3 to T1 as shown reads "1.6" ohms. What condition is indicatedNot learned 1056. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" to test a silicon diode, what is the status of the diode if the screen displays 0.70 V when configured as in figure "A" and displays OL V when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 1057. What is the direction of electron current through the load resistor in the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1058. What does the drawing in the illustrated circuit representNot learned 1059. The electrical diagram shown in figure "B" of the illustration represents what type of DC motorNot learned 1060. Which electrical schematic symbol represents a normally open thermostatNot learned 1061. An electromagnetic relay is most commonly used for what purpose?Not learned 1062. In figure "A" of the illustrated circuit, what is the main purpose of the bias resistor RbNot learned 1063. Which figure represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "2"Not learned 1064. In which figure shown in the illustration will the highest voltage be inducedNot learned 1065. In the flow of one cycle of single phase alternating current past any given point in a circuit, how many times will the current peak to a maximum or minimum?Not learned 1066. Which of the following illustrated manual motor starters represents the wiring diagram illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1067. Which of the following motors has a frame configuration for solid base mounting onlyNot learned 1068. Which of the following is a pictured three phase power transformer, usually used to step-down line voltage for supplying reduced voltage lighting circuitsNot learned 1069. Which of the following statements is true concerning the motor controller circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1070. Which of the following statements is true concerning step-down transformer operation?Not learned 1071. Four incandescent lamps are connected in series in a single circuit. If one of the lamp filaments burns out, what will happen to the other lamps?Not learned 1072. What is the function of section "D" of the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1073. What is the functional purpose of component "5" as shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1074. What functionality do the 'MS 1' contacts of the master switch shown in the illustration provideNot learned 1075. What will happen to the total effective circuit resistance when additional parallel circuits are added to a circuit?Not learned 1076. If the illustrated device in figure "B" has a step-up ratio of 10 to 1 what voltage would be measured at the secondary shortly after the primary of the device is connected to 110 volts DC and the primary current stabilized with a current of 12 ampsNot learned 1077. In the illustrated motor controller, what do the contacts across terminals "3" and "4" of the control circuit representNot learned 1078. In the illustrated motor controller, the motor fails to start. A voltmeter reading between 1 and 5 reads line voltage, while the voltmeter reading between 2 and 5 reads 0 VAC. What is most likely the problemNot learned 1079. The illustrated motor fails to start and gives a loud hum when the start button is depressed, what should then be your first actionNot learned 1080. Which of the illustrated motors has a totally enclosed motor enclosureNot learned 1081. Which of the illustrated resistors represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "C"Not learned 1082. Which of the illustrated safety disconnect switches represents a double-throw switchNot learned 1083. Which of the illustrated schematic symbols represents the type of switch pictured in figure "F" of the illustrationNot learned 1084. In the illustrated views of a lead-acid battery as shown in figures "A" and "B", what battery component has the sole function of preventing the individual plates in the negative plate group from coming into direct contact with the individual plates in the positive plate groupNot learned 1085. In the illustration, 1, 2, 3 and 4 are 12-volt batteries. What will be the nominal voltage as read by a voltmeter across the output of the battery bankNot learned 1086. In the illustration shown, what type of protection is provided to the potable pump drive motorNot learned 1087. In the illustration shown, what would be the functional name for the coil represented as '1S'Not learned 1088. What is indicated by gradual blackening at the ends of component "4" shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustrationNot learned 1089. Which line in figure "B" shown in the illustration represents the trailing edge of the waveNot learned 1090. If the line voltage to the controller shown in the illustration is 440 volts, what is applied across the control circuit assuming the control transformer has a 4:1 turns ratioNot learned 1091. Which of the listed conditions occur when '4th point lower' is selected on the winch hoist controller shown in the illustrationNot learned 1092. Which of the listed figures in the illustration represents a transformer configured for single voltage primary and a tapped secondaryNot learned 1093. Which of the listed figures shown in the illustration represents a three-phase transformer connected in a wye- wye configurationNot learned 1094. Which of the listed types of lighting fixtures does the diagram shown in figure "A" of the illustration representNot learned 1095. The motor fails to start on an attempted startup. With the start button depressed, a voltmeter reading between 1 and 5, as illustrated in figure "A", indicates line voltage available to the control circuit, what should be your next step in the troubleshooting processNot learned 1096. If the motor shown in the illustration will not start when the "off-run" switch is placed in the run position, which of the listed components should be checked FIRSTNot learned 1097. The motor starts when the start button in the illustration is pushed, but stops when the button is released. What is most likely the troubleNot learned 1098. Why must accidental grounds in a shipboard electrical system be repaired as soon as possible?Not learned 1099. What is the name of the component labeled Q1 as shown in section "D" of the regulated DC power supply illustratedNot learned 1100. What is the name of the DC motor speed control method utilized as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1101. What operational characteristic is associated with the illustrated manual starter circuit for a motor shown in figure "A"Not learned 1102. If overloading an electric motor becomes necessary in an emergency situation, what should be done to prevent damage to the motor while allowing sustained operation?Not learned 1103. Which of the pictured motors is a square core shaded pole motor used to drive very small electrical loads and is non-reversibleNot learned 1104. Which of the pictured motors within the split phase family of single phase induction motors represents a split phase, resistive start, induction run motorNot learned 1105. Which of the pictured solid-state semiconductor devices in the illustration is a rectifier bridgeNot learned 1106. Where is the power necessary to energize the howler "relay" coil at the engine room station as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1107. What power would be consumed by the series resistor in the circuit shown in the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 1108. After prior isolation and lock-out/tag-out procedures are performed, which electrical device requires discharging any stored electrical energy before any work may safely begin?Not learned 1109. The progressive operation of the contactors marked "1A" through "4A" provide the winch hoist controller shown in the illustration with what functionalityNot learned 1110. What is a purpose of the automatic bus transfer device shown in the illustrationNot learned 1111. What is the purpose of the capacitor within component "5" of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1112. What is the purpose for the device shown in figure "B" of the illustration in terms of its relationship with the loadNot learned 1113. For what reason should engine room watchstanders make periodic checks on the loads carried by electric motors?Not learned 1114. What is the recommended method used to resurface an eccentric DC motor commutator?Not learned 1115. Referring to figure "B" of the illustrated control circuit schematic diagram, which of the following statements is true when the motor is running in the forward directionNot learned 1116. In the regulated DC power supply illustrated, what is the function of section "B"Not learned 1117. If it is required that the coils 'R1-R2-R3' in the indicator of figure "A", turn opposite to those in the transmitter, as shown in the illustration, what action should be takenNot learned 1118. What is the resistance reading at "2" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1119. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 110 VDC is applied to a resistance of 32 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closedNot learned 1120. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 115 VDC is applied to a resistance of 12 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closedNot learned 1121. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 442.7 VDC is applied to a resistance of 1.25 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closedNot learned 1122. Which of the schematic symbols shown in the illustration represents a normally closed float level switchNot learned 1123. When shore power is being connected to a ship in drydock, what must be ensured, assuming that the ship's generators are rated at 450 VAC, 60 Hz with a total capacity of 5000 kW?Not learned 1124. As shown in figure "6" of the illustration, what does the symbol represent as used in electrical drawingsNot learned 1125. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", and "D" of the illustration, what is the usual means by which the rotation direction of the motor is reversedNot learned 1126. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, when the DC motor in figure "A" is operating at minimum speed what are the armature and field characteristicsNot learned 1127. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which of the operations listed will happen when the 'jog button' is pushedNot learned 1128. As shown in figure "C" of the illustrated typical ground fault sensor, what statement concerning its installation is trueNot learned 1129. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the significance of the symbol indicated by "2" being illuminatedNot learned 1130. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated motor nameplate, what is the service factor at sea levelNot learned 1131. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, with a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what set of readings would be consistent with an open in phase "B" of the single circuit, wye-connected stator windings as shownNot learned 1132. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, fine adjustments such as "rate of turn signal" have no effect on steering stand operation when the 'operation selector switch' is in what positionNot learned 1133. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what is the purpose of the interpolesNot learned 1134. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what type of machine is illustrated in terms of the configuration of the windingsNot learned 1135. As shown in the illustrated electrically operated watertight door controller, how is the rotation direction of the door motor reversedNot learned 1136. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay circuit, what is the functional purpose of potentiometer "R2"Not learned 1137. As shown in the illustrated one-line diagram of a two-tiered emergency power system for a passenger ship, what statement is trueNot learned 1138. As shown in the illustrated plots of uncorrected and temperature corrected insulation resistance readings for a particular piece of equipment, at what point in time should the equipment have been refurbished or replacedNot learned 1139. As shown in the illustrated wiring diagram for an engine order telegraph system, what statement concerning the constant ringing and trouble alarm is trueNot learned 1140. As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, how is the direction of rotation of the motor reversedNot learned 1141. As shown in the illustration, assuming power is available at the control circuit, which listed action will occur FIRST when the "off-run" switch is placed in the "run" positionNot learned 1142. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder is of the reaction typeNot learned 1143. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder would be appropriate to use in a bidirectional motorNot learned 1144. As shown in the illustration, the change-over switch is what type of deviceNot learned 1145. As shown in the illustration, what are the characteristics of the trouble relay contactsNot learned 1146. As shown in the illustration of the elementary diagram of a three speed anchor windlass controller, which of the following contactor, relay, or timer coils operates with DC voltageNot learned 1147. As shown in the illustration, what event would give the same indication that would occur when a stern light circuit fuse blows openNot learned 1148. As shown in the illustration, which of the following conditions will occur as a result of a momentary loss of powerNot learned 1149. As shown in the illustration, which of the following pieces of equipment is provided with a remote push button stationNot learned 1150. As shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is correct concerning the circuits in a sound- powered telephone systemNot learned 1151. As shown in the illustration, what is the functional purpose of the normally closed and normally open auxiliary contacts of the hoist and lower contactors respectivelyNot learned 1152. As shown in the illustration, which of the lighting fixtures represents an incandescent bulbNot learned 1153. As shown in the illustration, if the line voltage is 450 VAC, what would be the applied voltage to the motor at the instant of startup and through the acceleration periodNot learned 1154. As shown in the illustration, what maintenance would be required of the circuit componentsNot learned 1155. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor "2S"Not learned 1156. As shown in the illustration, what type of starter is illustratedNot learned 1157. What statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a series circuit?Not learned 1158. If the supply voltage is 220 volts 60 Hz, what is the operating voltage of the motor controller control circuit illustrated in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1159. What does the symbol labeled "OL" represent as shown in the power circuit on lines T1 and T3 to the motor as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1160. In the system shown in the illustration, the engine room station is unable to signal any other station, nor is any other station able to signal the engine room station. The engine room station can, however, ring itself by proper positioning of its selector switch. What is the most probable cause of this problemNot learned 1161. A thermal-magnetic molded case circuit breaker for a 300 kW alternator is rated at 500 amperes at full continuous load. Which of the following conditions will MOST likely trip the breaker?Not learned 1162. The torque-speed and current-speed curves for a three-phase induction motor with a squirrel-cage rotor are shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration. Which of the following statements is true concerning the depicted curvesNot learned 1163. You are troubleshooting the control circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration utilizing on-line techniques. With the start button depressed, the following readings are obtained with a voltmeter: (Refer to Illustration EL-0123) "X1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC. "1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC. "2" to "X2" reads 0 VAC. "3" to "X2" reads 0 VAC. Which of the following indicates what the fault is?Not learned 1164. The turns ratio of the step-down transformer with dual voltage secondary as shown in figure "B" of the illustration is two to one (total). If 440 volts were applied to terminals 'H1' and 'H2', what would be measured across 'X1-X3' and 'X2-X4' assuming that the secondary windings are connected in parallelNot learned 1165. What type of circuit is represented by the diagram shown in the illustrationNot learned 1166. What type of control circuit logic is featured in the electrical schematic diagram for the motor starting circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1167. What type of electrical diagram is shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1168. What type of feedback is featured in the transistor amplifier shown in figure "B" of the illustration assuming that the phase relationship between input and output is identical to the transistor amplifier shown in figure "A"Not learned 1169. What type of motor enclosure is utilized for the motor labeled "A" in the illustrationNot learned 1170. What type of motor is illustrated by the schematic of figure "B" of the illustration and what type of starting relay is usedNot learned 1171. What type of starter is represented in the electrical schematic shown in the illustrationNot learned 1172. Using the catalog selection chart shown in Illustration EL-0180, determine the correct catalog number for a motor starter that meets the selection criteria detailed as follows: NEMA, Open enclosure, 3-pole Rated, at 90 continuous amperes, Vertically mounted, Electronic overload relay-standard feature set, Non-reversing starter, Operating coil rated at 120 VAC/60 HzNot learned 1173. In using a portable growler for the purpose of locating a shorted stator coil in an AC motor as shown in the illustration, what statement is true as the feeler is moved from slot to slot around the statorNot learned 1174. Which of the wave shapes shown in the illustration is termed a ramp or sawtooth waveNot learned 1175. The wet cell storage batteries shown in the illustration are connected in what configurationNot learned 1176. The winch shown in the illustration will operate normally in all speeds in both directions, with the exception that it will not accelerate into 'fifth point' hoist or 'fifth point' lower. What would be a possible causeNot learned 1177. Within the split phase family of single phase motors, what are the operational characteristics of the motor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1178. What would be the source current and transformer current as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, with the secondary tap connected as shown, if the supply voltage at the branch circuit breaker is 440 VAC and the unity power factor load current draw is 50 ampsNot learned 1179. What would be the total current flowing in the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 1180. What would be the voltage drop across the series string of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the source voltage is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, the resistance for R2 is 10 ohms and the resistance for R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 1181. The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________Not learned 1182. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.Not learned 1183. In addition to the indicated gauge pressure, what other information is presented on the compound gauge for the hypothetical refrigerant illustratedNot learned 1184. The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as __________Not learned 1185. When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize bimetallic corrosion?Not learned 1186. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 1187. What application often requires a valve to be remotely operated from a control station, where the valve itself is operated by an electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic motor?Not learned 1188. In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 1189. In what application would a reflex type flat gauge glass be used?Not learned 1190. An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________Not learned 1191. If a biological sewage treatment plant consists of three chambers, what is the sequential order of treatment chambers within the plant?Not learned 1192. You are checking the supply chilled water temperature thermistor probe on a highpressure hermetic centrifugal chiller. Using the illustrated chart, what statement is true if the supply water temperature is verified 45°F with a digital thermometerNot learned 1193. The coil temperature measured at the expansion valve sensing bulb of an operating system is 10°F. The low side pressure with the compressor running as shown on the gauge illustrated indicates 15 psig. What adjustments or changes, if any, should be made to the systemNot learned 1194. Through which of the components shown in the illustration is flash gas formation a normal occurrenceNot learned 1195. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by__________.Not learned 1196. The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller with more than 500 lbs. of refrigerant and to meet EPA requirements is to recover the refrigerant using what protocol?Not learned 1197. To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?Not learned 1198. The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________Not learned 1199. Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustrationNot learned 1200. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________Not learned 1201. Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurementsNot learned 1202. Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gageNot learned 1203. The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is _______Not learned 1204. If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessivelyincreased, the tool will __________Not learned 1205. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________.Not learned 1206. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?Not learned 1207. What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1208. In what remote temperature indicating system is a voltage generated by the magnitude of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions?Not learned 1209. If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as SAE 20W as compared to SAE 20, what is the significant difference between the two lubricating oils?Not learned 1210. To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.Not learned 1211. Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screwNot learned 1212. Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screwNot learned 1213. The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the underside of the unloader power element piston of the refrigeration compressor capacity control mechanism illustrated is obtained from whereNot learned 1214. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a 2-position diverting hot gas bypass solenoid valveNot learned 1215. Which of the following illustrated expansion valves is designed to maintain a constant evaporator pressure rather than a constant evaporator superheatNot learned 1216. Which of the following leak detectors would be appropriate for use in leak detecting on a system currently pressurized with nitrogenNot learned 1217. Which of the following statements is correct for the illustrated circuit in figure "B"Not learned 1218. Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jawindependent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?Not learned 1219. Which of the following statements is trueNot learned 1220. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?Not learned 1221. Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 1222. Which of the following system applications would require the use of a siphon tube (pigtail) to prevent gauge damage?Not learned 1223. Which of the following technologies would be associated with a Type III marine sanitation device?Not learned 1224. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 1225. The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an __________Not learned 1226. For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a Vernier scale making it possible to read in increments of __________.Not learned 1227. Which of the hand valve configurations for the gauge manifold set is the correct set up for monitoring both the low and high system pressuresNot learned 1228. When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?Not learned 1229. Heat is removed from the refrigerant circulating through the refrigeration system, shown in the illustration, by which componentNot learned 1230. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________Not learned 1231. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable cause is the __________Not learned 1232. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided by __________Not learned 1233. In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by __________Not learned 1234. Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure __________Not learned 1235. Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing toolNot learned 1236. Which of the illustrated gauges is capable of measuring vacuums at the micron level for the purpose of proving system dehydration during system evacuation with a vacuum pump, but displays the achieved vacuums at incremental threshold intervals rather than continuouslyNot learned 1237. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 1238. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure INot learned 1239. The illustrated valve is known as a __________Not learned 1240. Which of the illustrated valves is used to gain access to a hermetic system and features a Schrader core valve which is unseated by the core depressor of hose fitting when attachedNot learned 1241. Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weldNot learned 1242. Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dopeNot learned 1243. In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.Illustration GS-0078Not learned 1244. Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________Not learned 1245. Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________Not learned 1246. The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 1247. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch producedis determined by the speed relationship between the __________.Not learned 1248. Which of the lettered components shown in the illustration indicates the high-pressure cut-outNot learned 1249. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1250. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1251. Where is the location of a chain-operated valve when a chain wheel is attached to the stem and is associated with an endless chain for operation?Not learned 1252. The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devicesNot learned 1253. (1.2.15-9) On US flag steam propulsion vessels, the main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to accomplish which of the following?Not learned 1254. What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?Not learned 1255. In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve labeled "29"Not learned 1256. If it is necessary to increase the operating head pressure of the refrigeration system using the device shown in the illustration, what should be doneNot learned 1257. To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18-inch workpiece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over _________.Not learned 1258. Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical safety valve?Not learned 1259. One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 1260. What is the operating principle upon which a bubble tube system operates in indicating liquid tank level?Not learned 1261. For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.Not learned 1262. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.Not learned 1263. In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?Not learned 1264. What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustrationNot learned 1265. To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________Not learned 1266. To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________Not learned 1267. The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if __________Not learned 1268. The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________Not learned 1269. What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1270. When reading a pressure that fluctuates severely on a direct-reading pressure gauge, what should be done?Not learned 1271. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is __________Not learned 1272. What is the reading of the Vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustrationNot learned 1273. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way?Not learned 1274. Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unitNot learned 1275. After the refrigerant has been recovered, leaks repaired if necessary, the system ideally should undergo a dehydration evacuation prior to recharging with refrigerant. As shown in the illustration, besides the vacuum pump suction manifold isolation valve being opened, what would be the proper valve positions to accomplish and prove the evacuationNot learned 1276. In a refrigeration system featuring low-side pumpdown prior to the automatic shutdown of the compressor, the temperature of the refrigerated space is controlled by the action of a thermostat wired to what device?Not learned 1277. Remote valve operators are frequently fitted with a handwheel for local operation if the motor fails. If this is so, what is the procedure for local manual control?Not learned 1278. Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quartersor flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?Not learned 1279. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of smallparts?Not learned 1280. Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridgesresembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?Not learned 1281. When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you shouldclose the __________.Not learned 1282. With a service gauge manifold set connected to a refrigerant compressor as shown in the illustration, which arrangement of the gauge manifold set valves and compressor service valves would allow for simultaneous reading of the compressor suction and discharge pressuresNot learned 1283. (1.5.5.4-4) The setpoint adjustment of the device shown in the illustration is made by rotating what componentNot learned 1284. Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is thenegative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.Not learned 1285. The shaft sleeve for the pump shown in the illustration is identified by which item numberNot learned 1286. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?Not learned 1287. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated self-contained recovery unit connection diagrams, what is the recovery method supported by the connection schemeNot learned 1288. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 1289. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller pressure maintenance system, what is its functional purposeNot learned 1290. As shown in the illustrated refrigeration system piping schematic diagram with the various accessories and controls and equipped with an air-cooled condenser with high side pressure controls, what statement is true concerning the fan cycling control pressure switchNot learned 1291. Spring reinforced oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the seal facing __________Not learned 1292. When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shut down for a period of time, you should manually throttle which valve?Not learned 1293. Which of the statements listed is applicable to the thermostatic expansion valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 1294. What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-waterseparator?Not learned 1295. What statement is true concerning portable power tools?Not learned 1296. What statement is true concerning the use of wrenches and drive tools as used to manipulate threaded fasteners?Not learned 1297. The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event?Not learned 1298. The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the __________.Not learned 1299. If a thermometer reads 80°C, what is the equivalent temperature in °F?Not learned 1300. If a thermometer reads 850 °F, what is the equivalent temperature in °C?Not learned 1301. What is true concerning highly contaminated refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances?Not learned 1302. What type of eye protection affords the best protection from severe exposure to airborne impact hazards?Not learned 1303. What type of pump is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1304. What type of valve is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1305. When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cuttingshould be __________.Not learned 1306. Which of the valves listed for the device shown in the illustration will be open while the unit is operating in the backflush modeNot learned 1307. A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by __________.Not learned 1308. On vessels exceeding 1600 GRT, who is responsible for the practical upkeep of machinery and the manning of the engine room?Not learned 1309. A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles toeach other, and is called a __________.Not learned 1310. The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V" indicates __________Not learned 1311. Which factor determines the size of the ring dam for a fuel oil centrifugal purifier?Not learned 1312. A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________.Not learned 1313. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 1314. In addition to moving the victim to a shaded area, placing the victim in a prone position and loosening any tight clothing, what treatment should be administered?Not learned 1315. What is the alarm signal for a fire emergency or fire drill onboard a merchant ship?Not learned 1316. In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________.Not learned 1317. What is the characteristic of the blood flow associated with arterial bleeding?Not learned 1318. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systemsNot learned 1319. When conversing over a sound-powered telephone circuit, the words "yes" and "no" should be avoided. What are appropriate substitutes?Not learned 1320. A crude oil wash (COW) system is considered as __________.Not learned 1321. The equipment shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 1322. Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?Not learned 1323. In the event of a grounding, which tanks should be sounded to determine any evidence of holing?Not learned 1324. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by__________Not learned 1325. The fire extinguishing agent dispensed by the unit shown in the illustration is produced by __________Not learned 1326. The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________Not learned 1327. Following a grounding, what action should be performed prior to the use of the main engines?Not learned 1328. Following a grounding, what would happen to the level of a slack double bottom tank if the tank was holed?Not learned 1329. In which of the following heat related illnesses has the body lost its ability to regulate the body core temperature?Not learned 1330. In which of the following heat related illnesses has the individual lost the ability to lose heat through the mechanism of sweating?Not learned 1331. In which of the following heat related illnesses is the individual most at risk for losing consciousness?Not learned 1332. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?Not learned 1333. Which of the following shoring materials is a long bar or beam used to distribute the pressure of a shore?Not learned 1334. Which of the following shoring materials is a portable beam designed to support a damaged structure?Not learned 1335. Which of the following shoring materials is a short flat block that is placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure?Not learned 1336. Which of the following shoring materials is used to tightly make up the difference in length of a shore cut slightly shorter than the measured distance for required length and must be frequently checked for tightness?Not learned 1337. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?Not learned 1338. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.Not learned 1339. If you hear a CO2 activated alarm warning you to evacuate the engine room, how much time do you have to evacuate before the CO2 gas is released into the engine room?Not learned 1340. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____Not learned 1341. If the items shown in the illustration are burning, this fire would be a Class __________Not learned 1342. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?Not learned 1343. What is meant by the phrase "partial flooding with boundaries intact"?Not learned 1344. What is meant by the term "counter-flooding"?Not learned 1345. What method of controlling severe bleeding is preferred and normally attempted first?Not learned 1346. One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an enclosed space is __________.Not learned 1347. To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would _________Not learned 1348. In order for a compartment to completely fill up due to flooding, what condition must exist?Not learned 1349. Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred method of rewarming?Not learned 1350. Part of the treatment for frostbite of the feet is the rapid rewarming of the cold injury. What is the preferred temperature of rewarming when using the wet rapid rewarming method?Not learned 1351. You are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure?Not learned 1352. What is the purpose of depressing the button on the handle of a sound-powered telephone handset?Not learned 1353. The source of power for the CO2 discharge alarm siren is obtained from __________.Not learned 1354. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.Not learned 1355. The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by __________.Not learned 1356. What strategy for avoiding heat exhaustion is most likely to result in more severe pain as associated with heat cramps?Not learned 1357. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?Not learned 1358. What type of wound is generally associated with a scraping away of the skin and may be very painful?Not learned 1359. What type of wound is most susceptible to a tetanus (lockjaw) infection?Not learned 1360. An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________.Not learned 1361. Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat?Not learned 1362. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?Not learned 1363. Water applied as a "fog" can be more effective than water applied as a "solid stream", because __________.Not learned 1364. If you wish to initiate a station-to-station call over a sound-powered telephone circuit, what is the correct procedure?Not learned 1365. The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for this conditionNot learned 1366. While working in a hot engine room, what is your best protection against heat exhaustion?Not learned 1367. While working in a hot engine room, what is the cause of heat exhaustion?Not learned 1368. In a coil-type forced circulation water-tube boiler, __________.Not learned 1369. The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy, is known as its __________.Not learned 1370. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 1371. What should you do in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim?Not learned 1372. "Arc eye" can be the result of gazing into an electric arc produced by an electric arc welder where the eyes are inadequately protected. What is the characteristic of the onset of symptoms such as pain, watering of the eyes, and gritty sensation like sand in the eyes?Not learned 1373. A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that all tanks and pumprooms are potentially dangerous. You should immediately leave an area whenever __________.Not learned 1374. Besides extreme exertion in a hot environment such as an engine room, what causes heat cramps which is pain and spasms associated with the abdomen, leg, and arm muscles?Not learned 1375. By what criteria are hard hats (protective helmets) rated?Not learned 1376. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?Not learned 1377. The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the _____Not learned 1378. The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 1379. The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 1380. To operate a portable foam fire extinguisher, you should __________.Not learned 1381. What is meant by the phrase "solid flooding"?Not learned 1382. What is the alarm signal for manning boat stations or boat drills onboard a merchant ship?Not learned 1383. What is the purpose of the torque limit switch as fitted on an electric motor operated rising stem gate valve?Not learned 1384. What is the whistle signal for stop lowering boats?Not learned 1385. What statement below summarizes an engine lubricating oil's viscosity given as 20W-50?Not learned 1386. Which of the following maintenance procedures would require a tag-out/lock-out to be performed?Not learned 1387. With regard to the relative flow patterns through the tubes and the shell of single pass shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true?Not learned 1388. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next immediate action is for the space to be __________.Not learned 1389. For what purpose is the variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor induction motor provided?Not learned 1390. If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room, you should ________.Not learned 1391. In a refrigeration system that is not protected by a water failure switch, if the cooling water to the condenser fails, what will be the result for protective purposes?Not learned 1392. In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is a must for cleaning inside corners?Not learned 1393. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in place by what means?Not learned 1394. The sensing line for the low-pressure cut-out switch for a refrigeration system is typically connected at what location?Not learned 1395. The valve depicted in the illustration shown is a __________Not learned 1396. What is the primary function of the device illustratedNot learned 1397. What is the purpose of a ship's service generator circuit breaker's reverse power trip?Not learned 1398. What is the voltage across "R1" of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closed if the applied voltage is 24 volts and resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 1399. What statement is true concerning remote valve position indication at a control station?Not learned 1400. What statement is true regarding the reading of a liquid filled manometer?Not learned 1401. Which of the following direct reading gauge types is the most popular type used for local display of pressures in the engine room?Not learned 1402. Which of the following statements describes the difference between the primary windings and the secondary windings of an ideal 2:1 stepdown voltage transformer?Not learned 1403. Which of the following statements represents the important factor that must be considered when replacing a faulty diode in a generators excitation field rectifier assembly?Not learned 1404. Which of the gasket types listed is typically used on high-pressure steam flange joints?Not learned 1405. If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gauge indicating zero psig and the water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________Not learned 1406. In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal burns it is important to prevent or reduce __________.Not learned 1407. As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause ______.Not learned 1408. In which of the following heat related illnesses is it appropriate to reduce the individual's core temperature by immersion in a tub of cold water or repeatedly sponging with cold water?Not learned 1409. Why should battery rooms be well ventilated during the charging process?Not learned 1410. By definition, which of the following is an example of a flammable liquid?Not learned 1411. Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?Not learned 1412. Under what conditions is a CAUTION tag installed at equipment control stations in preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?Not learned 1413. Which of the illustrated motors has a totally enclosed, fan-cooled (TEFC) motor enclosureNot learned 1414. When installing CAUTION tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?Not learned