FCC Element 6 - Advanced Radiotelegraph, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. SITOR-ARQ is a common mode of data communications in the maritime service. It is a system based on transmission bursts and acknowledgements. What is the baud, and interval between the burst transmissions:Not learned 2. Weather information is commonly sent by radio in map form by one-way facsimile transmission. Two common parameters which must be set by the receiving station are:Not learned 3. 2182 kHz is the international radiotelephone distress frequency. It is also used for a calling channel. The authorized mode of emission is H3E (single-sideband full carrier). A3E (double-sideband full carrier) is only authorized for equipment:Not learned 4. Ship's power is generated as 3-phase and is ungrounded. On a delta-wound transformer with 120 VAC line-to-line secondary, what is the voltmeter reading from line to ground:Not learned 5. When passing through areas of static charge, high voltages can accumulate on antennas which are insulated from ground. What protects a connected receiver from damage?Not learned 6. Vertical shipboard antennas for use in the MF band (410-525 kHz) are often fitted with top-hat loading sections. What is the purpose of these structures?Not learned 7. Modern reserve transmitters are solid-state designs and transmit using only A2 modulation. When measuring transmitter center frequency, what precaution must be taken:Not learned 8. Voltage may be expressed by what other expression?Not learned 9. Amperage may also be known by:Not learned 10. Factors which determine the amplitude of the voltage induced in a conductor which is cutting magnetic lines of force:Not learned 11. An electrical potential may be generated by:Not learned 12. Ohm's law is stated as:Not learned 13. The unit of electrical power is:Not learned 14. The unit of conductance is:Not learned 15. The unit of inductance is:Not learned 16. The ratio of current through a conductor to the voltage which produces it is:Not learned 17. The product of the number of turns and the current in amperes used to describe relative magnitude is:Not learned 18. The property of a conductor or coil which causes a voltage to be developed across its terminals when the number of magnetic lines of force in the circuit or coil is changed is:Not learned 19. The charge of electricity which passes a given point in one second when a current of one ampere is flowing is:Not learned 20. C = capacity in farads. Q = the measure of the quantity of charge of electricity in Coulombs. E = the applied voltage. So Q = CE:Not learned 21. Resistance is:Not learned 22. The unit of AC impedance in a circuit is:Not learned 23. The unit of capacitance is:Not learned 24. Decibel is:Not learned 25. What factors determine the charge stored in a capacitor?Not learned 26. Ohm's law for AC circuits when I = amperes, E = volts, Z = impedance in volts is:Not learned 27. The formula for determining the power in a DC circuit when the voltage and resistance are known is:Not learned 28. The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and resistance are known:Not learned 29. The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and voltage are known:Not learned 30. The prefix " kilo " means:Not learned 31. The prefix " micro " means:Not learned 32. The factor by which the product of volts and amperes must be multiplied to obtain true power is:Not learned 33. The prefix " meg " means:Not learned 34. Factors which influence the resistance of a conductor:Not learned 35. Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will:Not learned 36. Name four conducting materials in order of their conductivity.Not learned 37. Good insulators at radio frequencies are:Not learned 38. A resistance across which a constant voltage is applied is doubled. What power dissipation will result?Not learned 39. The needle of a magnetic compass when placed within a coil carrying an electric current:Not learned 40. Electrical resistance is measured with:Not learned 41. The sum of all voltage drops around a simple DC circuit, including the source, is:Not learned 42. If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result?Not learned 43. The diameter of a conductor six inches long is doubled, what will be the effect on the resistance?Not learned 44. A minute subdivision of matter having the smallest known unit of negative electrical charge is:Not learned 45. Conductors differ from nonconductors, i.e.:Not learned 46. Direction of flow of DC electricity in a conductor can be determined by:Not learned 47. The difference between electrical power and electrical energy is:Not learned 48. A positive temperature coefficient means:Not learned 49. A liquid which is capable of conducting electricity, but undergoes decomposition while doing so is:Not learned 50. The effective value of an RF current and the heating value of the current are:Not learned 51. One horsepower is:Not learned 52. What factors determine the heat generated in a conductor?Not learned 53. What is the ratio of peak to average value of a sine wave?Not learned 54. When the current sine wave in a circuit reaches its peak value before the voltage wave:Not learned 55. An "harmonic" is:Not learned 56. Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal impedance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when:Not learned 57. When two sine waves of the same frequency do not reach their maximum or minimum values simultaneously:Not learned 58. Which method may be used to obtain more than one value of voltage from a fixed DC source?Not learned 59. The conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 A flows when 12 VDC is applied is:Not learned 60. Two 10 W, 500 ohm resistors in parallel will dissipate how many watts?Not learned 61. A 20 ohm resistor with a current of 0.25 A passing through it will dissipate how many watts?Not learned 62. If the voltage to a circuit is doubled and the resistance is increased to three times the original value, what will be the final current?Not learned 63. If a vacuum tube with a filament rating of 0.25 A and 5 V is operated from a 6 volt battery, what value of resistor is necessary?Not learned 64. The minimum power dissipation rating of a resistor of 20,000 ohms across a potential of 500 V should be:Not learned 65. The total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt, 500 ohm resistors connected in series is:Not learned 66. What is the total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt 500 ohm resistors connected in parallel?Not learned 67. What is the maximum current carrying capacity of a resistor of 5000 ohms, 200 watts?Not learned 68. What is the total resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of a 10 ohm branch and a 25 ohm branch?Not learned 69. The current through two resistors in series is 3 A. Resistance #1 is 50 ohms, resistance #2 drops 50 V across its terminals. What is the total voltage?Not learned 70. An 18 ohm and a 15 ohm resistor are connected in parallel; a 36 ohm resistor is connected in series with this combination; a 22 ohm resistor is connected in parallel with this total combination. The total current is 5 A. What current is flowing in the 15 ohm resistor?Not learned 71. A circuit passes 3 A. The internal resistance of the source is 2 ohms. The total resistance is 50 ohms. What is the terminal voltage of the source?Not learned 72. A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 VDC?Not learned 73. Given: Input power to a receiver is 75 watts. How much power does the receiver consume in 24 hours of continuous operation?Not learned 74. The total reactance when two capacitances of equal value are connected in series is:Not learned 75. A capacitor's charge is stored:Not learned 76. The voltage drop across an individual capacitor of a group of capacitors connected in series across an AC source is:Not learned 77. What is the total capacitance of the capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad connected in series?Not learned 78. If capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad are connected in parallel, what is the total capacitance?Not learned 79. How many capacitors of 400 volts and 2 microfarad each would be necessary to obtain a combination rated at 1600 volts and 1.5 microfarad?Not learned 80. If a turn in an inductor is shorted:Not learned 81. The relationship between the number of turns and the inductance of a coil may be expressed by:Not learned 82. The formula for determining the resonant frequency of a circuit when the inductance and capacitance are known is:Not learned 83. The formula for determining the wavelength when the frequency is known is:Not learned 84. The wavelength of the period of one complete cycle of a radio wave of 0.000,001 second is:Not learned 85. The efficiency of a radio device is:Not learned 86. What is the total impedance of a parallel capacitor and inductor with equal values of reactance?Not learned 87. The total inductance of two coils in parallel without any mutual coupling is:Not learned 88. What is the total reactance of a series AC circuit, with no resistance and equal inductance and capacitive reactances?Not learned 89. The total inductance of two coils in series without any mutual coupling is:Not learned 90. One wave-length is:Not learned 91. In an AC circuit, a series inductance acting alone:Not learned 92. Shock excitation into an L-C circuit is the result of:Not learned 93. The term cathode ray usually applies to:Not learned 94. Shielding an RF inductance:Not learned 95. The tendency of a tank circuit to keep oscillating for a time after the excitation energy has been removed is:Not learned 96. Power factor is defined as:Not learned 97. High or low frequency oscillations occurring in circuits other than the original tank desired output frequencies are:Not learned 98. What are effects of parasitic oscillations?Not learned 99. The velocity of propagation of radio frequency waves in free space is:Not learned 100. To double the resonant frequency of a resonant circuit:Not learned 101. How may the Q of a parallel resonant circuit be increased?Not learned 102. If L and C in a parallel resonant circuit resonants at 1000 kHz are so varied that their product remains constant, what will be the resulting resonant frequency?Not learned 103. What is the resonant frequency of a tuned circuit consisting of a 500 picofarad capacitor, a 150 microfarad tuning coil, and 10 ohms resistance?Not learned 104. What is voltage regulation as applied to power supplies?Not learned 105. An EMF may be generated by sound waves by what principle?Not learned 106. How can you correct power factor in an electrical circuit?Not learned 107. Permeability is:Not learned 108. The time in seconds for a capacitor to attain 63.2 % of the applied voltage across its terminals is:Not learned 109. What is the reactance of a 2-henry choke at 3000 Hz?Not learned 110. If there is no resistance in either leg of a circuit with an inductance of 5 henrys in parallel with a capacitance of 1 microfarad, what is the equivalent impedance of the parallel network circuit?Not learned 111. What is the total impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance?Not learned 112. The total impedance of a series AC circuit with an inductive reactance of 24 ohms, a resistance of 16 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 16 ohms is:Not learned 113. Essentials for making a good solder connection are:Not learned 114. For protection of personnel handling a transmitter:Not learned 115. The ratio of peak-to-effective voltage values of a sign wave are:Not learned 116. The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as:Not learned 117. The ratio of magnetic flux density to the field strength is known as:Not learned 118. The magnetic force which remains in a substance after the original magnetizing force has been removed is known as:Not learned 119. The direction of electron flow through a coil and the manner of winding the turns:Not learned 120. Adding an iron core to an air-core inductance:Not learned 121. Electromagnets are used in:Not learned 122. What will be the effect of a small increase in the number of turns upon the field strength of a single layer solenoid?Not learned 123. Can a transformer be used with direct current?Not learned 124. A tube containing either a filament or cathode structure, grid, and a plate is a:Not learned 125. A tube similar to a triode with the addition of a spirally wound screen grid between the plate and control grid is a:Not learned 126. Theoretical gain of a tube. The ratio of a small change in plate voltage to give a certain small change in plate current to a change in grid which would cause the same current:Not learned 127. Effectiveness of the grid in causing changes of plate current:Not learned 128. The maximum negative anode voltage with respect to the cathode. It equals the DC voltage at the input to the plus the peak AC voltage applied during the nonconducting portion of the cycle of operation of the tube:Not learned 129. What is the primary purpose of the control grid of the triode?Not learned 130. What is the primary purpose of the screen grid of the tetrode?Not learned 131. What is the primary purpose of the suppressor grid of a pentode?Not learned 132. Thoriated tungsten is usually used to make:Not learned 133. In what types of circuits do beam power vacuum tubes find application?Not learned 134. When free electrons in a conductor acquire sufficient energy to leave the conductor and pass into the surrounding space, it is expressed as:Not learned 135. The emission of electrons from a material due to the impact of high-velocity electrons on its surface is:Not learned 136. Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class A amplifier:Not learned 137. Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class B amplifier:Not learned 138. Factors which determine bios voltage of a vacuum tube:Not learned 139. In the usual Class A amplifier:Not learned 140. The DC bias in a Class A amplifier:Not learned 141. What is the effect of incorrect grid bias in a Class A amplifier?Not learned 142. The approximate efficiency of a Class A vacuum tube amplifier:Not learned 143. The approximate efficiency of a Class B vacuum tube amplifier:Not learned 144. The approximate efficiency of a Class C vacuum tube amplifier:Not learned 145. A charge due to the accumulation of negative electrons because the plate potential cannot attract all of the electrons leaving the emitter:Not learned 146. A material flashed by the application of heat after the tube is evacuated that absorbs any gases remaining inside the tube:Not learned 147. What types of vacuum tube filaments are reactivated:Not learned 148. A tungsten filament is operated at ____ temperature than a thoriated tungsten filament:Not learned 149. The presence of gas within a tube is indicated:Not learned 150. The cathode of an indirectly heated type of vacuum tube should be maintained at nearly the same potential as the heater circuit:Not learned 151. Transmitting tube filaments should be maintained at recommended voltages:Not learned 152. Use of an AC filament supply is desirable:Not learned 153. If a DC filament supply is used, it is advisable to periodically reverse the polarity of the filament potential:Not learned 154. Bias voltage on the grid of an AF amplifier tube:Not learned 155. The screen grid in a vacuum tube:Not learned 156. The suppressor grid in a multielement vacuum tube:Not learned 157. The gain of a triode audio amplifier is a function of:Not learned 158. "Load" on a vacuum tube commonly refers to:Not learned 159. A case in which the grid is held at an excessively negative value for a period of time thereby cutting off plate current:Not learned 160. The maximum power that can be safely and continuously dissipated in heat on the plate:Not learned 161. Occurs when plate current equals electron emission for any given filament or cathode temperature:Not learned 162. The most desirable factor in the choice of a vacuum tube for a voltage amplifier:Not learned 163. Lack of requirement for neutralizing, except at ultra high frequencies, is an advantage of a tetrode over ____:Not learned 164. Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a Class C amplifier:Not learned 165. Plate current flows for less than 180 degrees (about 120 degrees when the grid bias is about twice cutoff value) in what class amplifier?Not learned 166. Tubes operated as Class C amplifiers are not suited for audio-frequency amplifiers:Not learned 167. Low plate current may be caused by:Not learned 168. A tuned circuit made up of inductance and capacitance is:Not learned 169. Some radio-frequency amplifiers must be neutralized:Not learned 170. Cavity resonators are:Not learned 171. The diode detector:Not learned 172. The functioning of a grid-leak detector:Not learned 173. Characteristic of a square law type of vacuum tube detector:Not learned 174. A diode detector ordinarily produces ____ overall distortion of the audio output wave than does a triode detector:Not learned 175. Operating conditions for determining that a tube is being used as a power detector:Not learned 176. Why is a center top usually provided for vacuum tube plate and grid return circuits when and AC filament supply is used?Not learned 177. How would you determine the cathode-bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for an amplifier?Not learned 178. Given the following vacuum tube constants: Gp = 1000 V, Ip = 150 mA, Ig = 10 mA, Grid leaks = 5000 ohms. What would be the grid bias voltage?Not learned 179. What currents will be indicated by a milliammeter connected between the center top of the filament transformer of a tetrode and negative high voltage?Not learned 180. A dynatron oscillator is a ____ which depends upon the negative resistance characteristic of a tetrode tube for its operation:Not learned 181. Materials which can be used as crystal detectors:Not learned 182. A power detector may be operated:Not learned 183. Used to multiply the fundamental frequency by two:Not learned 184. When used as an RF amplifier, a pentode vacuum tube:Not learned 185. A quartz crystal in a radio transmitter:Not learned 186. Advantage of crystal control over tuned circuit oscillators:Not learned 187. If the crystal will undergo very small changes in its operating frequency with relatively large temperature variations:Not learned 188. A separate source of power is sometimes desirable for crystal-oscillator units in a transmitter:Not learned 189. "The temperature coefficient of an x-cut crystal is negative":Not learned 190. If you apply DC voltage to the opposite plane surfaces of a quartz crystal:Not learned 191. "The temperature coefficient of a y-cut crystal is positive" means:Not learned 192. Two dissimilar metals joined together and producing a current between them when the junction is heated is:Not learned 193. Waveguides:Not learned 194. Transistors may be compared to a conventional triode vacuum tube functionally:Not learned 195. Types of transistors:Not learned 196. When using and storing crystal microphones:Not learned 197. What effect does a change in the dielectric constant of a capacitor dielectric material have upon the capacitance of a capacitor:Not learned 198. Increasing the number of plates of a capacitor:Not learned 199. If the dielectric constants of a capacitor dielectric material between the capacitor plates were changed from 1 to 1:Not learned 200. Contacts which slide together on opening and closing:Not learned 201. Permanent magnets used in head telephones:Not learned 202. Emergency repairs to an inductance coil having burned or charred insulation:Not learned 203. Indications of a defective vacuum tube in a transmitter:Not learned 204. The breakdown voltage rating of a capacitor are determined by:Not learned 205. Crystal surfaces should be free of dirt of grease to operate properly:Not learned 206. A purplish glow from within a tube indicates:Not learned 207. Given a solenoid with a resistance of 5 ohms and 0.34 through the winding when 1108 at 60 Hz is applied. What is the impedance?Not learned 208. Use of a low pass filter network:Not learned 209. A special type of power supply filter choke whose inductance is inversely proportioned to values of DC within specified limits is:Not learned 210. The best suited material for use as an antenna strain insulator exposed to the elements:Not learned 211. Materials frequently used for relay contacts:Not learned 212. Why is rosin used as a soldering flux?Not learned 213. What substance is the most widely used in crystal oscillators?Not learned 214. Why is an oscillator crystal operated at a constant temperature?Not learned 215. The advantage of a single-button carbon microphone:Not learned 216. A carbon microphone should not be:Not learned 217. In connecting head telephones directly in the plate circuit of a vacuum tube one should observe the proper polarity:Not learned 218. What should the plate current do in the operation of a Class B audio amplifier?Not learned 219. What turns ratio does a transformer need to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms?Not learned 220. What microphones have a high impedance output?Not learned 221. How may low impedance (75 ohm) head telephones be connected to the output of a vacuum tube?Not learned 222. Why do headphones usually have high-impedance windings?Not learned 223. A "choke" coil:Not learned 224. Why is correct grid bias necessary for audio frequency amplifier?Not learned 225. When a tube is used as a Class B amplifier what portion of the excitation voltage cycle does plate current flow?Not learned 226. A properly operated Class A audio amplifier:Not learned 227. What is the main advantage obtained by using two triodes in push-pull in a Class a audio frequency amplifier?Not learned 228. What is the maximum permissible RMS value of audio voltage which can be applied to the grid of a Class A audio amplifier which has a grid bias of 10 V?Not learned 229. Distortion in a Class A amplifier can be caused by:Not learned 230. Vacuum tubes operating as Class A amplifiers may be used as:Not learned 231. Why is a push-pull audio frequency amplifier preferable to a single-tube stage?Not learned 232. What is the DC plate voltage of a resistance-coupled amplifier state with a plate-supply voltage of 260 V, a plate current of 1 mA, and a plate load resistance of 100,000 ohms?Not learned 233. Why is it necessary to use two tubes in a Class B audio amplifier?Not learned 234. If the coupling capacitor leaked in a resistance-coupled audio frequency amplifier:Not learned 235. A vacuum tube operated Class C audio amplifier is not feasible, either in single or push-pull:Not learned 236. Even harmonics may be reduced in the output of an audio frequency amplifier:Not learned 237. The main advantage of a tuned audio frequency amplifier in a receiver used for the reception of CW:Not learned 238. Decoupling networks in the plate circuit of a multistage audio amplifier:Not learned 239. An audio-transformer is seldom used as the output device in the plate circuit of a tetrode audio-amplifier stage:Not learned 240. The chief advantage of Class A audio operation is compared to the other classes of audio-frequency amplifiers:Not learned 241. Which is not the principle advantage of transformer coupling compared to resistance coupling in audio-frequency amplifiers?Not learned 242. Efficiency of a power transformer is determined by:Not learned 243. The ratios of primary and secondary currents in a power transformer:Not learned 244. A transformer has a primary voltage of 100, primary turns = 200, and secondary turns = 40. What is the secondary voltage?Not learned 245. What factors determine the no-load voltage ratio of a power transformer?Not learned 246. The turns ratio of a transformer varies:Not learned 247. Primary cells:Not learned 248. Secondary cells:Not learned 249. The formation of hydrogen gas around the positive electrode of a primary cell is:Not learned 250. A dry cell may be tested:Not learned 251. In the usual type dry cell:Not learned 252. "A", "B", and "C" batteries are alike, but specifically constructed for a particular function. Explain:Not learned 253. The condition of a dry "B" battery may be determined:Not learned 254. Spare "B" batteries should be stored:Not learned 255. A means of comparing the weight of a volume of liquid with the same volume of distilled water:Not learned 256. Edison type batteries:Not learned 257. The electrolyte of a lead-acid storage cell:Not learned 258. The negative plate of a lead-acid storage cell:Not learned 259. The positive plate of a lead-acid storage cell:Not learned 260. The chemical composition of the electrolyte in an Edison-type storage cell:Not learned 261. The negative plate of an Edison-type storage cell is:Not learned 262. The positive plate of an Edison-type storage cell is:Not learned 263. The average fully-charged voltage of an Edison storage cell is:Not learned 264. Decrease in capacity of an Edison-type storage cell can be caused by:Not learned 265. The average fully charged voltage of a lead-acid cell is:Not learned 266. To increase the power output of a storage cell:Not learned 267. The condition of charge of an Edison cell can be determined:Not learned 268. The charge of a lead-acid storage cell:Not learned 269. Sulfation:Not learned 270. If the polarity is reversed when charging a storage cell:Not learned 271. You may measure the voltage of a battery under heavy load:Not learned 272. If the voltage of some cells in a battery are found to be reversed, what is indicated?Not learned 273. Distilled water should be added to a lead-acid storage cell:Not learned 274. Local action in a lead-acid storage cell:Not learned 275. To maintain a group of storage cells in good operating condition:Not learned 276. What may cause the plates of a lead-acid call to buckle?Not learned 277. What may cause sulfation of a lead-acid cell?Not learned 278. What may be used to neutralize an acid electrolyte?Not learned 279. To prevent corrosion of battery terminals:Not learned 280. Why should there be ventilation to the room housing a large group of storage cells?Not learned 281. Radio equipment on which electrolyte may be used:Not learned 282. What is the effect of low temperature on the operation of a lead-acid storage battery?Not learned 283. What form of energy is stored in a lead-acid storage battery?Not learned 284. How may polarity of a storage battery be determined?Not learned 285. A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 V is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge from a 110 V line?Not learned 286. A discharged storage battery of 3 cells has an open circuit voltage of 1.8 V per cell and an internal resistance of 0.1 ohm per cell. What voltage is needed to give an initial charging rate of 10 A?Not learned 287. What capacity in amperes of storage battery is required to operate a 50 W emergency transmitter for 6 hr.? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A.Not learned 288. If a receiver storage A battery could not be kept charged, and maintain the required watch period, what should you do?Not learned 289. Abnormally low input power terminal voltage of a lifeboat radiotelegraph transmitter while in operation could be caused by:Not learned 290. If a battery has 12.4 V on open circuit and 12.2 V when its charging circuit is closed:Not learned 291. The tops of lead-acid batteries should be kept dry:Not learned 292. When lead-acid cells are subject to low temperatures they should:Not learned 293. If an electrolyte in a lead-acid storage cell becomes low due to evaporation:Not learned 294. An Edison storage battery should not be charged at less than the manufacturer's specified rate:Not learned 295. Your emergency battery has a specific gravity reading of 1.120. What should be done?Not learned 296. What care should be taken with selecting water to add to a storage cell?Not learned 297. If the circuit breakers refuse to stay closed when you place the emergency batteries on charge, what is the trouble?Not learned 298. Heat developed within a storage cell under charge or discharge conditions is caused by:Not learned 299. How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum zero resistance current?Not learned 300. How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum no-bond output voltage?Not learned 301. What current will flow in a 6 V storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3 W, 6 V lamp is connected?Not learned 302. The charging rate of a storage cell charged from a fixed voltage source decreases as the charging progresses opposition to the charging voltage?Not learned 303. The principal function of the filter in a power supply:Not learned 304. Advantages of capacitor input and choke-input filters when used with rectifiers:Not learned 305. A high-resistance fixed resistor is shunted across each unit of a high voltage series capacitor bank in the power-supply filter circuit to:Not learned 306. Part of the secondary winding of a transmitters power transformer is accidentally shorted. What should be the immediate effect?Not learned 307. Bleeder resistors are used in power supplies:Not learned 308. The ratio of the frequencies of the output and input circuits of a single-phase full-wave rectifier:Not learned 309. A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer:Not learned 310. What is the maximum allowable secondary voltage of a transformer used as a center-tapped full-wave rectifier with tubes having a peak inverse voltage rating of 10,000 V?Not learned 311. If a 60 Hz transformer is connected to a 120 Hz source of the same voltage:Not learned 312. If a 500 Hz transformer is connected to a 60 Hz source of the same voltage:Not learned 313. A 500 Hz AC plate supply, rectified by a full-wave, unfiltered rectifier circuit. What would the emission be?Not learned 314. The purpose of an air gap in a filter choke coil core. Which is the incorrect answer?Not learned 315. Loose laminations in a filter choke:Not learned 316. Poor regulation in a power supply may be caused by:Not learned 317. Why should the case of a high-voltage transformer be grounded?Not learned 318. When connecting electrolytic capacitors in series:Not learned 319. Full wave rectification has ____ than half-wave:Not learned 320. Voltage regulation is ____ with a high resistance choke:Not learned 321. Electrolyte capacitors are desirable over other types because:Not learned 322. The most common values of chokes range from:Not learned 323. The power transformer and rectifier of a radio receiver are designed to supply a plate voltage of 250 V when operating from a 110 V 60 Hz supply, if the transformer is connected to 110 VDC what will happen?Not learned 324. A shunt-wound DC motor:Not learned 325. A series DC motor has:Not learned 326. This partially counteracts the line voltage and so limits the armature current in a DC motor:Not learned 327. A compound-wound DC motor:Not learned 328. Laminated iron is used in armature and field construction to:Not learned 329. The ____ of a DC motor periodically change the armature coils to maintain one direction of rotation:Not learned 330. The speed of a series DC motor may increase and destroy the motor by centrifugal action:Not learned 331. When the field of a shunt-wound DC motor opens while the machine is operating under no load:Not learned 332. ____ are used in a DC motor to reduce brush sparking without moving the brushes:Not learned 333. A short in the armature coils of a DC motor causes:Not learned 334. The motor-field rheostat should be ____ when starting a DC motor generator set:Not learned 335. If a motor generator fails to start when the start button is depressed, the trouble may be:Not learned 336. When increased output is desired from a motor-generator, what is the usual procedure?Not learned 337. A dynamotor is:Not learned 338. Output voltage of a dynamotor may be regulated:Not learned 339. What disadvantage is there to a dynamotor?Not learned 340. Causes of excessive sparking at the brushes of a DC motor or generator include:Not learned 341. By-pass capacitors are often connected across the brushes of a high-voltage DC generator:Not learned 342. Causes of motor-generator bearing overheating include:Not learned 343. RF interference may be minimized:Not learned 344. Emery cloth should never be used to clean the commutator of a motor or generator:Not learned 345. A 3 HP 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current?Not learned 346. The speed of a synchronous motor is determined:Not learned 347. The speed of an induction motor is determined:Not learned 348. The speed of a DC series motor is determined:Not learned 349. What is the line current of a 7 HP motor operating on 120 V at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficiency?Not learned 350. Alternators are usually rated in:Not learned 351. What conditions must be met before two AC generators can be operated in parallel?Not learned 352. The voltage of an alternator will:Not learned 353. What effect will high coupling between the plate and grid circuits of a quartz-crystal oscillator have?Not learned 354. The operation of a dynatron oscillator depends on what?Not learned 355. To provide additional feedback voltage in a crystal oscillator what is sometimes needed?Not learned 356. What is the primary reason for the use of a crystal controlled oscillator for use as a transmitter?Not learned 357. What is are the advantages of self excited oscillator and master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitters?Not learned 358. The primary function of the power-amplifier stage of a marine radiotelegraph transmitter is:Not learned 359. The buffer amplifier stage of a transmitter:Not learned 360. Which class of amplifier is used in the final amplifier stage for maximum plate efficiency?Not learned 361. What class of amplifier is used as linear in order not to distort the modulation components?Not learned 362. If a class B linear final R-F amplifier were in saturation and no modulation what would happen when modulated?Not learned 363. A class C amplifier:Not learned 364. What effect would insufficient radio-frequency excitation have on Class C modulated amplifier output?Not learned 365. The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is:Not learned 366. Two effects of over-excitation of a Class B amplifier grid circuit are:Not learned 367. Three main factors to consider about grid-leak in a vacuum tube transmitter:Not learned 368. How can an R-F amplifier stage be neutralized?Not learned 369. What is the purpose of a speech amplifier in connection with the modulator of a transmitter?Not learned 370. When the first speech-amplifier of a transmitter were overexcited, but the modulation capabilities were not exceeded what would be the effect on the output?Not learned 371. The bias of a grid-modulated R-F stage is adjusted:Not learned 372. Given the following: (1) audio power for 100% modulation equals 50% of DC input power to RF modulated amplifier, (2) load presented to the modulated tube consists of the DC plate impedance of the modulated amplifier, (3) constant grid excitation voltage, very lot distortion, what type of modulation?Not learned 373. Modulation occurring in an RF stage other than the final power amplifier:Not learned 374. The efficiency of a grid-bias modulated stage should be:Not learned 375. Does grid current flow in a grid-bias modulated stage under modulated conditions?Not learned 376. What might be the cause of a positive shift in carrier amplitude during modulation?Not learned 377. For 100% modulation, DC power input to the modulated RF amplifier should:Not learned 378. When a radiotelephone transmitter is 100% modulated by sinusoidal waveform , how much antenna current will be observed?Not learned 379. What can be done in a Heising modulation system to obtain 100% modulation?Not learned 380. A plate choke in a Heising modulator:Not learned 381. What value of sinusoidal audio power is required to insure 100% modulation when the DC plate input to a modulated Class C amplifier has an efficiency of 60 % , and is 200 W?Not learned 382. What would be the antenna current when a transmitter has an antenna current of 8 amp, under A -1, even if it is 100% modulated by sinusoidal modulation?Not learned 383. If a transmitter is adjusted for maximum power for telegraph, what must be done to be amplitude modulated?Not learned 384. A series-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate bypass capacitor. What happened?Not learned 385. A shunt-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate RF choke. What happens?Not learned 386. The total bandwidth of a transmitter using A-2 emission with a modulating frequency of 800 Hz and a carrier frequency of 500 kHz is:Not learned 387. Given a vacuum tube of the following characteristics: plate voltage 1000 V, plate current 127 ma, filament current 5.4 amp, mutual conductance 8000 microvolts, and amplification factor of 25. What is the correct volume of negative grid bias for Class B amplifier?Not learned 388. When the relative amplitudes of the positive and negative modulation peaks are unsymmetrical:Not learned 389. What may be used as indicating devices in neutralizing an RF amplifier stage?Not learned 390. Important factors in the operation of the vacuum tube as a frequency doubler are:Not learned 391. If a 1500 kHz radio wave is modulated by a 2000 Hz sine wave tone, what frequencies does the modulated wave contain?Not learned 392. To avoid damage to components what precautions should be observed in tuning a transmitter?Not learned 393. A transmitter has a master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, and final amplifier. In what order should the circuit be adjusted in putting the transmitter in operation?Not learned 394. Excessive plate current of an RF amplifier may be caused by:Not learned 395. The disadvantage of using a self-excited oscillator type of transmitter for shipboard service:Not learned 396. The degree of coupling is varied in a pi-network used to transfer energy from a vacuum tube plate circuit to an antenna:Not learned 397. In order of selectivity, the best receivers are:Not learned 398. An RF filter in the plate circuit of a tube detector is sometimes necessary to:Not learned 399. In an RF amplifier with fixed bias, as the plate circuit is varied from below resonance to above resonance, what will the grid current do?Not learned 400. In a self-biased RF amplifier stage: plate voltage is 1250 V, plate current 150 ma, grid current 15 ma, grid-leak resistance of 4000 ohms, what is the operating grid bias?Not learned 401. How would you determine the cathode bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for an amplifier?Not learned 402. What is a method of link coupling between two R-F amplifier stages?Not learned 403. Which type of amplifier circuit is used in a link coupling R-F?Not learned 404. An advantage of link coupling between RF amplifier stages is:Not learned 405. What effect does excessive coupling between the output circuit of an oscillator and an antenna have?Not learned 406. How is power output of a transmitter adjusted?Not learned 407. When is a transmitter tuned to reduced power?Not learned 408. What is meant by split tuning?Not learned 409. What is a self rectified circuit?Not learned 410. What would be the dB change in field intensity at a given distance if the power is doubled?Not learned 411. Keying can be accomplished at various points in a radiotelegraph transmitter. Some are:Not learned 412. What is the term used when the receiving operator may interrupt the transmitting operator at any point during transmission?Not learned 413. Which of the following best explains frequency-shift keying?Not learned 414. What is one of the advantages frequency-shift keying has over "on-off" keying?Not learned 415. Code speed or number of words per minute transmitted have what effect if any on the bandwidth of emission of a radiotelegraph transmitter?Not learned 416. Keying a simple-oscillator type of emergency transmitter may be accomplished by:Not learned 417. The plate current of the final RF amplifier in a transmitter increases and radiation decreases, if the antenna circuit is in good order, what could be the cause?Not learned 418. When hoisting a shipboard antenna, to avoid damage to the wire and insulators:Not learned 419. If a field strength is 100 microvolts per meter at 100 miles, what is the field strength at 200 miles?Not learned 420. Field intensity is:Not learned 421. What point on a shipboard antenna system displays the maximum potential?Not learned 422. A defective vacuum tube in a transmitter may be indicated by:Not learned 423. A master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitter has been operating normally. The antenna ammeter suddenly reads zero. All filaments are burning and plate and grid meters read normal currents and voltages. What happened?Not learned 424. Effects of dirty or salt-encrusted insulation are:Not learned 425. To reduce the sparking at the contacts of a key used in a radiotelegraph transmitter:Not learned 426. In a self excited oscillator, a swinging antenna:Not learned 427. What may be observed as the antenna circuit is brought into resonance about the plate current of the final amplifier?Not learned 428. Instruments used to indicate various DC currents and voltages in a transmitter may be protected against damage to stray RF by:Not learned 429. In a radiotelegraph transmitter with a DC generator plate voltage source, an AC generator filament supply, and grid-bias keying, what could be wrong when the emission continues with the key contacts open?Not learned 430. A station has an assigned frequency of 8000 kHz and a frequency tolerance of plus or minus 0.04%. The oscillator operates at 1/8th of the input. What is the maximum permitted deviation of the oscillation frequency in Hz, which will not exceed the tolerance?Not learned 431. A transmitter operating on 5000 kHz uses a 1000 kHz crystal with a tempered coefficient of - 4 Hz/MHz/0 degrees centigrade. What is the change in the output frequency of the transmitter if the temperature increases 6 degrees centigrade?Not learned 432. The correct formula for determining the surge impedance of a quarter wavelength matching line is:Not learned 433. What are the three factors to consider when figuring the surge impedance of a non-resonant transmission line?Not learned 434. If the output frequency after passing through three doubler stages is 16,800 kHz, give the crystal frequency of a transmitter:Not learned 435. Adding an inductor in series with an antenna will have what effect on the resonant frequency?Not learned 436. Adding a capacitor in series with an antenna will have what effect on resonant frequency?Not learned 437. The radiated wavelength of a Hertzian antenna is:Not learned 438. To operate on a lower resonant frequency on an available Marconi antenna which would be the correct procedure?Not learned 439. By reducing the physical length of a Hertzian antenna what are the results?Not learned 440. Which antenna system has the ability to discriminate between various directions of receiving or transmitting?Not learned 441. Given the current and resistance of the base of a Marconi antenna, what would be the formula for determining the power?Not learned 442. A vertical loop antenna has a:Not learned 443. What modulation is contained in static and lightning radio waves?Not learned 444. The difference between a Hertz and Marconi antenna is:Not learned 445. What is meant by the term polarization of a radio wave?Not learned 446. What are the lowest frequencies used in radio communication today?Not learned 447. Radio frequencies that are useful for long distance communications requiring continuous operation:Not learned 448. Communication at frequencies in the order of 15 kHz are usually accomplished by ground waves, and require generation of ____ power outputs for reliable and continuous operation:Not learned 449. Frequencies with substantially line propagations:Not learned 450. On an average yearly basis the received Trans-Atlantic signals increased in strength in proportion to the degree of ____. Made on the basis of the 11 year cycle:Not learned 451. Harmonic radiation is:Not learned 452. Harmonic radiation from a transmitter may cause interference:Not learned 453. Why suppress RF harmonics in the output of a transmitter?Not learned 454. A wavetrap in a receiver:Not learned 455. The follow devices that could be used to indicate oscillation in a crystal oscillator are:Not learned 456. An artificial antenna sometimes used in testing a transmitter:Not learned 457. The system producing A-2 emission by a "chopper" may be thought of:Not learned 458. Advantages of high-frequency radio communication:Not learned 459. Transmitters that employ variometers rather than variable capacitors as tuning elements do so because of:Not learned 460. The relationship between the antenna current and radiated power of an antenna:Not learned 461. Iron compound cylinders found in inductances:Not learned 462. Modulation of an RF carrier produces in the plate circuit of the last radio stage of the system:Not learned 463. Basically, am FM receiver is a conventional superheterodyne but differs in:Not learned 464. A form of regenerative receiver in which the detector breaks into and out of oscillation at a rate above audibility:Not learned 465. A tuned RF amplifier stage ahead of the mixer stage in a superheterodyne receiver:Not learned 466. What is the "mixer" tube in the superheterodyne receiver?Not learned 467. An incoming signal causing image interference is ____ the IF above or below the frequency to which the receiver is tuned:Not learned 468. A superheterodyne receiver is adjusted to 2738 kHz. The IF is 475 kHz. What is the grid circuit of the second detector tuned to?Not learned 469. A superheterodyne receiver may not successfully be used for reception of frequencies very near the IF frequency:Not learned 470. Some superheterodyne receives employ a crystal-controlled oscillator:Not learned 471. To obtain maximum response to weak CW signals with a superheterodyne receiver:Not learned 472. Most receiver hiss is due to:Not learned 473. High IF frequencies in a superheterodyne receiver:Not learned 474. What is the IF of a superheterodyne receiver receiving on 1000 kHz and the mixing oscillator is tuned to 1500 kHz?Not learned 475. Image response may be minimized in a superheterodyne receiver:Not learned 476. In a tuned RF receiver the heterodyne method, over the autodyne reception, has:Not learned 477. A regenerative receiver's operation is:Not learned 478. Advantages of a stage of RF amplification are:Not learned 479. Disadvantages of a stage of RF amplification are:Not learned 480. The sensitivity of a 3 circuit receiver is controlled by:Not learned 481. A regenerative, oscillating-detector receives directly coupled to an antenna:Not learned 482. Low sensitivity of a 3 circuit regenerative receiver might be caused by:Not learned 483. Some components of a three-circuit regenerative circuit tested in troubleshooting:Not learned 484. Noisy operation of a regenerative, 3-circuit receiver with two stages of AF amplification may be caused by:Not learned 485. How could you test a regenerative receiver to determine if the detector is oscillating?Not learned 486. How would you adjust a regenerative receiver without RF amplifier stages to receive radiotelegraph signals through interference?Not learned 487. How would you reduce or eliminate broadcast signal interference of reception on 500 kHz?Not learned 488. To adjust a regenerative receiver for maximum sensitivity:Not learned 489. What type of radio receiver do not respond to static interference?Not learned 490. Audio howl may be caused by:Not learned 491. If signals are heard with headphones in the detector plate circuit of a receiver, but none are heard with headphones in the first AF stage plate circuit, what might be the cause?Not learned 492. In the case of an open secondary winding in a coupling transformer causing no signal in the first AF stage, satisfactory repair could be made by:Not learned 493. An oscillator in a receiver operating on a frequency near the IF of the receiver:Not learned 494. Generally used to prevent any undesired frequencies from appearing in the output of a receiver:Not learned 495. By-pass capacitors across the cathode-bias resistors of an RF amplifier:Not learned 496. In general, shielding between RF amplifier stages:Not learned 497. Minimizes transfer of harmonic frequencies between two inductively coupled circuits:Not learned 498. An auxiliary receiving antenna on a ship with a radio direction finder:Not learned 499. Feeding back into the control grids of the IF and RF amplifiers a negative DC bias which is proportioned to the average magnitude of the received carrier wave accomplished:Not learned 500. The center-tap connection in a filament supply transformer:Not learned 501. A shorted grid capacitor in a three-circuit regenerative receiver would:Not learned 502. The first detector in a superheterodyne receiver:Not learned 503. The advantage of using iron cores of special construction in RF transformers and inductance?Not learned 504. The auto alarm receiver is tuned to ____ but is able to respond to signals from ____ to ____ (+/- 12.5 kHz)Not learned 505. The auto-alarm signal is:Not learned 506. The determining factor of the setting of the sensitivity control of an auto-alarm receiver:Not learned 507. With an auto alarm that uses a square-law detector and a mechanical selector what causes the bell to ring?Not learned 508. Intermittent ringing of the bells of an auto alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector could be caused by:Not learned 509. An open filament on an auto-alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector will:Not learned 510. The auto-alarm bell rings and the release button stops it:Not learned 511. If the auto-alarm bell rings and the release button doesn't stop it:Not learned 512. If the vacuum tube heater in an approved auto-alarm system burns out:Not learned 513. Unused portions of inductances in receivers are ____ to reduce any losses that might occur in these unused windings:Not learned 514. Harmonic radiation by a transmitter may be prevented:Not learned 515. The keying circuit of the ships transmitter is disconnected:Not learned 516. Normal undistorted modulation is indicated by:Not learned 517. If a vacuum tube in the only RF stages of your receiver burned out, make a temporary repair by:Not learned 518. A ____ provides a very high degree of selectivity in a receiver:Not learned 519. The D'Arsonval type meter consists of:Not learned 520. What is the purpose of multiplier resistance used with a voltmeter?Not learned 521. What is the purpose of a shunt as used with an ammeter?Not learned 522. What is indicated if a voltmeter connected between the negative side of a ship's DC line and ground reads the full line voltage?Not learned 523. Why are copper oxide rectifiers, associated with DC voltmeters to measure AC, unsuitable for the measurement of voltages at radio frequencies?Not learned 524. How may the power in a AC circuit be determined?Not learned 525. The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and ammeter in an AC circuit is called what?Not learned 526. Does an AC ammeter indicate peak, average, or effective values of current?Not learned 527. What types of meters may be used to measure RF currents?Not learned 528. How may the range of a thermocouple ammeter be increased?Not learned 529. By what factor must the voltage of an ac circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value?Not learned 530. By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak value?Not learned 531. What is the meaning of "zero beat" as used in connection with frequency measuring equipment?Not learned 532. What is the directional reception pattern of a loop antenna?Not learned 533. What is the reception pattern of a vertical antenna?Not learned 534. What is the principal function of a vertical sense antenna associated with a unilateral radio direction finder?Not learned 535. What figure represents the reception pattern of a properly adjusted unilateral radio direction finder?Not learned 536. From how many simultaneous directions is a direction finder capable of receiving signals if adjusted to take unilateral bearings through 360 degrees?Not learned 537. How is the unilateral effect obtained in a direction finder?Not learned 538. What is the function of the balancing capacitor in a direction finder?Not learned 539. What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a bilateral radio direction finder?Not learned 540. On shipboard what factors may effect the accuracy of a direction finder after it has been properly installed, calibrated?Not learned 541. What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a unilateral radio direction finder?Not learned 542. Within what frequency band limits do all United States marine radio beacon stations operate?Not learned 543. In what part of the RF spectrum do marine radar systems operate?Not learned 544. Approximately at what speed does the antenna of a navigational radar rotate?Not learned 545. How should a radar set be adjusted by the operator to reduce "sea return"?Not learned 546. In determining a "fix" position by a marine LORAN system, what is the minimum number of land transmitters involved?Not learned 547. What is the relationship between a master and a slave station in reference to LORAN navigation systems?Not learned 548. How can the operator of a LORAN receiver on shipboard identify the transmitting stations that are being received?Not learned 549. During daytime hours, approximately what is the maximum distance in nautical miles from LORAN transmitting stations from which LORAN lines of position can be determined?Not learned 550. What is the purpose of blinking in a loran navigational system?Not learned 551. What precautions should an operator or serviceman observe when working with cathode-ray tubes?Not learned 552. If the velocity of a radio wave is 186,000 statute miles per second, how many nautical miles does a radar pulse travel in one microsecond?Not learned 553. In all cases other than those in which the transmitter output must be maintained at a fixed value, what amount of power should be employed for routine communications?Not learned 554. What is the definition of a "station open to public service"?Not learned 555. In the transmission of the international Morse code, what are the relative time lengths of dashes, dots?Not learned 556. Why is the clock on a compulsorily equipped ship radiotelegraph station required to have a sweep second hand?Not learned 557. Between what points on a ship, compulsorily equipped with a radiotelegraph installation, is a reliable intercommunication system required?Not learned 558. Are there any age requirements that a person must meet before he can be issued a radiotelegraph operator license?Not learned 559. Upon compulsorily equipped vessels which are required to have an accurate clock in the radio room, how frequently must this clock be adjusted and be compared with standard time?Not learned 560. How frequently must an entry be made in a ship radiotelegraph log while a radio watch is being maintained?Not learned 561. At what time(s) are routine transmissions forbidden in the bands of 480 to 515 kHz?Not learned 562. What time system shell be used in making log entries with respect to the observance of the international silent period?Not learned 563. What is the international radiotelegraph distress frequency for stations in the mobile service?Not learned 564. Describe how a distress call should be made:Not learned 565. What transmission should precede the transmission of the distress call?Not learned 566. What stations shall be in control of distress traffic?Not learned 567. During what periods must a distress message be repeated following the initial transmission?Not learned 568. For how long must mobile stations listen after hearing an urgency signal?Not learned 569. When the auto-alarm bell rings, what should the operator do?Not learned 570. What space of time should elapse between the transmission of the international auto-alarm signal and the distress call?Not learned 571. While a vessel is at sea, how frequently must the auto-alarm be tested?Not learned 572. Upon hearing an SOS, what should an operator do?Not learned 573. What is the purpose of an auto-alarm signal keying device on a compulsorily equipped ship?Not learned 574. On a United States vessel equipped with an approved auto-alarm, where is the control button which silences the warning bells located?Not learned 575. With what type(s) of emission and upon what frequency should a transmitter be adjusted to transmit a distress call?Not learned 576. If you receive a distress call signed by a call signal composed of five letters, could you determine the type of craft which transmitted the signal?Not learned 577. While the vessel is in the open sea, how frequently must the specific gravity of the emergency battery be taken?Not learned 578. How frequently must the quantity of fuel in the supply tank for use with an oil or gas driven emergency generator be checked while the vessel is in the open sea?Not learned 579. While a vessel is in port, how frequently should the emergency equipment be tested?Not learned 580. You intercept "CQ CQ WSV TFC"; what does this mean?Not learned 581. Explain the use and meaning of the following indicator or prefix "RP" on radiotelegrams:Not learned 582. Upon what band, in addition to the 350 to 515 kHz band must a main receiver on a United States ship be capable of operation?Not learned 583. After a distress call has been transmitted, every distress-traffic radiotelegram shall contain what symbol in the preamble?Not learned 584. For how long a period of continuous operation should the emergency power supply of a compulsorily equipped ship station be capable of energizing the emergency radiotelegraph installation?Not learned 585. What is the principal port of the United States, on the Pacific coast, at which navigation lines terminate?Not learned 586. In what city is the major telecommunication center of the United States located?Not learned 587. Under what condition may an eligible person hold a radiotelegraph operator's license and a Marine Radio Operator permit?Not learned 588. How does a First Class Radiotelegraph Operator renew an unexpired license?Not learned 589. How does an eligible Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator upgrade his license to First Class?Not learned 590. What is the license term of the First Class Radiotelegraph Operator License?Not learned 591. What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system?Not learned 592. What is the experience requirement of a First Class Radiotelegrapher?Not learned 593. What examination requirements are necessary to obtain a Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate?Not learned 594. How does an applicant qualify for a Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate?Not learned 595. What examination credit is accorded Amateur Extra Class operators?Not learned 596. What must every examination for the code portion of a radiotelegraph license contain?Not learned 597. What answer format is accepted on commercial radiotelegraph license contain?Not learned 598. What is a requirement of all transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels?Not learned 599. What happens to a lower grade of Commercial Radiotelegraph License when a licensee qualifies for a higher grade?Not learned 600. What is an operating control requirement of a ship station using telegraphy?Not learned 601. How does a radiotelegraph operator transmit a routine call to another station?Not learned 602. What is the proper procedure to conduct a radiotelegraph equipment test?Not learned 603. How often must a radiotelegraph station transmit its call sign when a transmission is maintained for more than 20 minutes in the band 405-525 kHz?Not learned 604. When may a public coast station authorized to use high frequency narrow-band direct-printing (NB-DP) establish contact with a ship station using telegraphy?Not learned 605. Which operator is authorized to make equipment adjustments at maritime radio stations which may affect transmitter operation?Not learned 606. Who may install, maintain or adjust radiotelephone transmitters which radiate less than 50 watts carrier power?Not learned 607. Who may program authorized frequency channels into a transmitter or transceiver used in the maritime service?Not learned 608. What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of a high frequency radiotelegraphy signal, emission A1A, in the maritime service?Not learned 609. What is the maximum transmitter power that a ship station may radiate using radiotelegraphy emissions on frequencies below 27500 kHz?Not learned 610. Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage?Not learned 611. How often must compulsory radiotelegraph installations on passenger vessels be inspected?Not learned 612. What is the antenna requirement aboard a survival craft equipped with a non-portable radiotelegraph installation?Not learned 613. What document is issued after a radio station inspection aboard a large ship that is not a passenger vessel?Not learned 614. What is the minimum radio operator license requirement of a chief radio officer on U.S. passenger ships?Not learned 615. What is the order of priority of radiotelegraph communications in the maritime services?Not learned 616. What should a station operator do before making a transmission?Not learned