Q535 - General Subjects, USCG prep certification 2026

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1. What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the motor illustratedNot learned 2. In the illustration, line "J" is used to depict a ______Not learned 3. The exploded view of the drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the __________Not learned 4. When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal pipe size of the piping always indicates the __________.Not learned 5. For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less __________.Not learned 6. If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will __________.Not learned 7. Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to __________.Not learned 8. Failing to decrease the feed pressure on a drill as its point begins to break through the bottom of the work piece will cause the drill to __________.Not learned 9. One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to _________.Not learned 10. A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a __________.Not learned 11. When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter __________.Not learned 12. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be __________.Not learned 13. Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?Not learned 14. Which material can be drilled at the highest speed?Not learned 15. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for __________.Not learned 16. If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.Not learned 17. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?Not learned 18. When internal threading for bolts, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.Not learned 19. What class of screw thread is indicated with a machine screw described as 1/2-13 NC-2?Not learned 20. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, "pitch" is the __________.Not learned 21. The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.Not learned 22. Which of the following is true when comparing the different "class of fit" for machine threads on bolts and nuts?Not learned 23. Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?Not learned 24. The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _________.Not learned 25. When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should measure across the drill __________.Not learned 26. To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used with inside calipers to get an accurate reading?Not learned 27. The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as the __________.Not learned 28. If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the reading is __________.Not learned 29. A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.Not learned 30. One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.Not learned 31. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.Not learned 32. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________Not learned 33. A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to __________.Not learned 34. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure __________.Not learned 35. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.Not learned 36. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for checking the angle of __________.Not learned 37. The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as __________Not learned 38. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________.Not learned 39. If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first __________.Not learned 40. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________.Not learned 41. A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.Not learned 42. Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure __________.Not learned 43. Which of the following statements best defines 'depth of cut' in lathe work?Not learned 44. Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.Not learned 45. When metal is tempered, it becomes __________.Not learned 46. What is the purpose of heat treating steel?Not learned 47. Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of __________.Not learned 48. When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.Not learned 49. What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on welding a joint?Not learned 50. Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 51. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.Not learned 52. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________.Not learned 53. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?Not learned 54. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by __________.Not learned 55. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?Not learned 56. Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?Not learned 57. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.Not learned 58. As it pertains to safety valves, what is the definition of blow down?Not learned 59. Concerning safety valves, what statement is true?Not learned 60. Which of the following listed valves would require "blow down" to insure proper operation and prevent damage due to repeated and rapid opening and closing?Not learned 61. What could be the cause of water hammer in a steam heating system?Not learned 62. What statement representing the primary purpose of a steam trap is true?Not learned 63. What type of steam trap is most susceptible to damage if allowed to come into contact with superheated steam?Not learned 64. In order for a steam trap to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose, what statement is true regarding its installation?Not learned 65. Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?Not learned 66. If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction, the remainder is the __________.Not learned 67. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.Not learned 68. A pump is defined as a device that __________.Not learned 69. The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.Not learned 70. Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by __________.Not learned 71. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?Not learned 72. The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to __________.Not learned 73. A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to __________.Not learned 74. Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by the use of __________.Not learned 75. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that __________.Not learned 76. Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low pressures?Not learned 77. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?Not learned 78. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.Not learned 79. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.Not learned 80. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?Not learned 81. Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated centrifugal pump under manual supervision?Not learned 82. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _______.Not learned 83. If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed, the __________.Not learned 84. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 85. A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?Not learned 86. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.Not learned 87. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to ________.Not learned 88. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.Not learned 89. If you have a duplex, single acting, reciprocating pump making 140 strokes/minute with a 3" diameter cylinder, and a 12" stroke with a 94% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 90. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?Not learned 91. The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.Not learned 92. Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam cylinder of a reciprocating pump?Not learned 93. Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?Not learned 94. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by __________.Not learned 95. When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?Not learned 96. Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?Not learned 97. The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to __________.Not learned 98. To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should __________.Not learned 99. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by_______.Not learned 100. Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?Not learned 101. When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the cause may be __________.Not learned 102. A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by __________.Not learned 103. Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the __________.Not learned 104. When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be ______.Not learned 105. Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?Not learned 106. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.Not learned 107. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump __________.Not learned 108. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.Not learned 109. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?Not learned 110. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?Not learned 111. An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.Not learned 112. Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump or an eductor?Not learned 113. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the __________.Not learned 114. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________.Not learned 115. Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?Not learned 116. Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on modern low pressure air compressors?Not learned 117. In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners, which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low-pressure air compressors?Not learned 118. If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________.Not learned 119. After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use __________.Not learned 120. A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure reciprocating air compressor will __________.Not learned 121. Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________.Not learned 122. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from __________.Not learned 123. Aftercoolers are used with air compressors to __________.Not learned 124. Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at approximately 100 psig?Not learned 125. If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement concerning operation is true?Not learned 126. How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture and emulsions?Not learned 127. When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under what conditions should the oil level be checked?Not learned 128. As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned, what statement is true?Not learned 129. Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.Not learned 130. Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?Not learned 131. In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated with moisture?Not learned 132. Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw?Not learned 133. If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its design parameters, what would be the effect?Not learned 134. If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?Not learned 135. If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result?Not learned 136. What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating compressor cylinder valves?Not learned 137. Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer. Specifically, when heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the opposite side, what mode of heat transfer is associated with that particular part of the overall process?Not learned 138. If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during start-up, you should do which of the following?Not learned 139. Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a reciprocating air compressor suction valve?Not learned 140. In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon __________.Not learned 141. Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat exchangers only requires a single tube sheet located at one end?Not learned 142. For a given shell diameter and tube sizes for a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which tube pitch pattern would be the most compact design allowing for the most tubes?Not learned 143. For marine-type shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what is the most common arrangement for baffles?Not learned 144. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure?Not learned 145. When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to prevent water hammer what statement represents the correct operating procedure?Not learned 146. When securing a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger for an extended period of time, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure?Not learned 147. For removal of sludge from in the inside of the shell of a fuel oil heater or lube oil cooler, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?Not learned 148. How may a suspected tube leak on a shell-and-tube jacket water cooler most easily be located?Not learned 149. What statement is true concerning the heat transfer rates through a heat exchanger boundary wall by conduction?Not learned 150. How is the emergency bilge suction valve typically used?Not learned 151. Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly overboard without processing by an oily-water separator?Not learned 152. What is meant by the term independent bilge suction?Not learned 153. What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction?Not learned 154. Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?Not learned 155. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the double bottom ballast tanks?Not learned 156. With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term "segregated" ballast?Not learned 157. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the ballast water management regulations?Not learned 158. What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?Not learned 159. What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?Not learned 160. What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density approaching that of water?Not learned 161. What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?Not learned 162. In order to facilitate separation of oil from an oily-water mixture in an oily-water separator, what statement is true concerning the flow pattern of the oily-water?Not learned 163. What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to facilitate separation in an oily-water separator?Not learned 164. What statement is true with regard to the basic operating principle of gravity associated with an oily- water separator?Not learned 165. If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what statement concerning the plate pack is true?Not learned 166. The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent explosions by which of the following?Not learned 167. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the term "sewage"?Not learned 168. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?Not learned 169. Under the federal regulations of, if a vessel equipped with a Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is UNACCEPTABLE?Not learned 170. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?Not learned 171. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?Not learned 172. A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many vessels by using __________.Not learned 173. What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?Not learned 174. Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting for the "lag" potable water pump?Not learned 175. What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide residual disinfectant in the potable water?Not learned 176. Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a potable water system?Not learned 177. Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water system is true?Not learned 178. On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?Not learned 179. What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water pumps supporting a typical potable water system?Not learned 180. What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution piping for a potable water system?Not learned 181. Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose of such an arrangement?Not learned 182. What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro-pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?Not learned 183. On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery space sea water cooling systems?Not learned 184. What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 185. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the entry grating into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 186. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 187. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters?Not learned 188. In a two-stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is vented to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapor from the pump suction?Not learned 189. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by __________.Not learned 190. The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is __________.Not learned 191. The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.Not learned 192. Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________.Not learned 193. The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the __________.Not learned 194. Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type evaporator, are removed by the __________.Not learned 195. When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should __________.Not learned 196. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator would indicate __________.Not learned 197. If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect __________.Not learned 198. In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur in the __________.Not learned 199. Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant will be a result of __________.Not learned 200. While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued presence of scale?Not learned 201. When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished?Not learned 202. What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating surfaces of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production?Not learned 203. While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of the scale?Not learned 204. In a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor that determines the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle?Not learned 205. The primary reason low-pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high-pressure evaporators is __________.Not learned 206. In the production of fresh water from sea water through a process of heating and cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called __________.Not learned 207. If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to __________.Not learned 208. Regarding a reverse osmosis type fresh water generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules, what statement is true?Not learned 209. To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse-osmosis freshwater generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?Not learned 210. What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?Not learned 211. Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse osmosis freshwater generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be avoided?Not learned 212. In which of the following fresh water generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?Not learned 213. In order for a reverse osmosis fresh water generator to be able to overcome the osmotic pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator?Not learned 214. If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what statement is true?Not learned 215. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.Not learned 216. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.Not learned 217. The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a result of the fluid flow overcoming __________.Not learned 218. Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?Not learned 219. Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________.Not learned 220. The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is to __________.Not learned 221. Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to __________.Not learned 222. Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?Not learned 223. Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower than the required operating pressure will result in __________.Not learned 224. Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a hydraulic system?Not learned 225. A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil. Another function is to __________.Not learned 226. The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________.Not learned 227. An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the possibility of __________.Not learned 228. An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can __________.Not learned 229. In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring?Not learned 230. Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to __________.Not learned 231. If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled heat exchanger, the fan should ______.Not learned 232. The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the __________.Not learned 233. New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using __________.Not learned 234. A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch cover system and has developed a slight leak. To stop the leak, you should __________.Not learned 235. The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the __________.Not learned 236. To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________.Not learned 237. A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be potentially dangerous if ______.Not learned 238. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by __________.Not learned 239. One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to __________.Not learned 240. If the flow rate and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the device illustrated, the __________Not learned 241. Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston pump are determined by the relative positions of the __________.Not learned 242. Why is a hydraulic linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?Not learned 243. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic ram is correct?Not learned 244. To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?Not learned 245. A two-stage hydraulic pump unit is used to __________.Not learned 246. With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid __________.Not learned 247. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil __________.Not learned 248. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity?Not learned 249. In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be necessary?Not learned 250. Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.Not learned 251. Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of __________.Not learned 252. Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________.Not learned 253. If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be __________.Not learned 254. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.Not learned 255. While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to restore pressure?Not learned 256. Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.Not learned 257. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder shock is prevented by __________.Not learned 258. A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20° right rudder. The follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________Not learned 259. What do hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, changeover valves, used in a two-ram hydraulic steering gear accomplish?Not learned 260. When making welding repairs to a ship's structural member, why is it important to avoid weld faults?Not learned 261. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt joint?Not learned 262. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt joint?Not learned 263. When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle inputNot learned 264. The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control is to __________.Not learned 265. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a screw propeller of the conventional design?Not learned 266. Which of the following propulsor types would be used with unidirectional propulsion shafting rotation?Not learned 267. What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder-like blades projecting from it?Not learned 268. If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that no strut or strut bearing is required, what is an alternative name given to the propeller shaft, which is the section of shafting that the propeller is attached to?Not learned 269. What statement is true with respect to the back of a propeller blade?Not learned 270. What is meant by the term "left-handed" propeller?Not learned 271. Concerning the operating mechanism of a controllable-pitch propeller, what statement is true?Not learned 272. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Kort nozzle?Not learned 273. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith Schneider drive?Not learned 274. When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?Not learned 275. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Z-drive?Not learned 276. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?Not learned 277. Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder for steerage?Not learned 278. Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?Not learned 279. With respect to the vectoring ring of a steerable internal duct thruster, what statement represents the operating principle of the vectoring ring?Not learned 280. What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing thruster and a podded propulsor?Not learned 281. What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?Not learned 282. What is the primary advantage of transverse bow and stern tunnel thrusters when installed on ships?Not learned 283. Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse tunnel bow thruster?Not learned 284. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a single reduction?Not learned 285. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?Not learned 286. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is the minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in operation?Not learned 287. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator?Not learned 288. As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 289. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 290. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the pedestal-mounted controller?Not learned 291. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the manual brake handwheels?Not learned 292. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the warping heads and wildcats?Not learned 293. In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?Not learned 294. As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 295. Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?Not learned 296. Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true?Not learned 297. As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?Not learned 298. As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?Not learned 299. As it pertains to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?Not learned 300. As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal- type deck crane, which statement is true?Not learned 301. For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?Not learned 302. What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?Not learned 303. What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?Not learned 304. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 305. Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?Not learned 306. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 307. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.Not learned 308. The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________.Not learned 309. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?Not learned 310. A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?Not learned 311. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?Not learned 312. A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?Not learned 313. Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?Not learned 314. After adding grease to a ball bearing with a hand-held grease gun, you should __________.Not learned 315. What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?Not learned 316. When a metal is undergoing heat treatment, what happens when the metal is heated above its critical temperature?Not learned 317. When a metal is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of annealing, besides refining the grain structure, what is the determining characteristic of the metal?Not learned 318. When a low carbon steel is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of casehardening, what is the process that distinguishes this procedure from other hardening methods?Not learned 319. What is meant by the term tensile strength of a material?Not learned 320. What is meant by the term toughness as it applies to a material?Not learned 321. What is the name of an internal passage of watertight construction fitted along the centerline between the double bottoms of some ships, usually from the forepeak to the forward machinery space bulkhead, used to carry pipe work along the length of the ship to the various holds or tanks?Not learned 322. For a transverse-framed ship of double bottom construction, what structural members supports the inner bottom shell, or tank-tops?Not learned 323. As it applies to a transverse-framed ship with double bottom construction, what does the term "floor" represent?Not learned 324. Even though bilge keels do provide some improvement in longitudinal strength at the bilge radius, what is the primary purpose of the bilge keels?Not learned 325. In terms of ship construction framing methods, what statement is true concerning the longitudinal framing system?Not learned 326. With a ship built with a transverse framing system, by what means are double bottom floors and the transverse frames joined?Not learned 327. For a typical transverse-framed deep-draft commercial vessel, what is the normal arrangement for the support of decks?Not learned 328. What term is used to represent the bulkhead type used for tank boundary bulkheads?Not learned 329. Which of the following listed bulkhead types has the most rigorous standard for testing purposes?Not learned 330. What statement is true concerning the construction of watertight bulkheads?Not learned 331. What is the name of the structural member that is designed to transfer load from one deck to another?Not learned 332. An 8" diameter wheel is driving a 20" diameter wheel via a pair of belts. The power input is supplied by a 5 HP motor rotating the driving wheel at 300 RPM. If the efficiency of the transmission is 80%, what RPM and torque is delivered to the driven wheel?Not learned 333. Suppose a prime mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and rotates at a steady speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have been made to the governor speed control setting, what is the speed regulation of the prime mover expressed in percent?Not learned 334. In order for heat transfer to take place between two substances, what essential condition must exist?Not learned 335. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy from one location to another by fluid in motion?Not learned 336. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within a body or between two bodies in direct contact?Not learned 337. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy through a transparent medium by means of electro-magnetic energy in the infrared spectrum?Not learned 338. What statement is true concerning heat transfer rates by the heat transfer mode of natural convection?Not learned 339. What statement represents the second law of thermodynamics?Not learned 340. If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal gases, what statement is true?Not learned 341. What term is defined as the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance one degree?Not learned 342. What statement represents the ideal gas law?Not learned 343. What term is defined as the amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a substance from a liquid to a vapor at constant temperature and pressure?Not learned 344. What term is defined as the rate of doing work?Not learned 345. What statement is true concerning thermal energy in transition?Not learned 346. What statement is true concerning the internal energy of a substance?Not learned 347. In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant temperature decreases the most when passing through which system component?Not learned 348. What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air-conditioned cargo space?Not learned 349. Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?Not learned 350. A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is accomplished by what means?Not learned 351. If outside air at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the cooling coilNot learned 352. What is the wet bulb temperature of air if the dry bulb temperature of the air is 90 degrees and the relative humidity is 65%Not learned 353. What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured with a sling psychrometer?Not learned 354. A reheater in an air conditioning system performs what function?Not learned 355. In an air conditioning system, what is the name of the chamber where the duct-work originates?Not learned 356. In a two-stage centrifugal air conditioning system such as the one illustrated, the liquid refrigerant passes from the condenser directly to what componentNot learned 357. To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air conditioning system, what should be done?Not learned 358. Which of the following methods is normally used to control the circulated air temperature of an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation?Not learned 359. For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions should remain constant regardless of load changes?Not learned 360. In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by what means?Not learned 361. Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for shipboard steam heating systems?Not learned 362. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature range of the water?Not learned 363. What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?Not learned 364. What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?Not learned 365. What statement is true concerning a two-pipe hydronic heating system?Not learned 366. It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air contamination?Not learned 367. What type of fan is most commonly used in ducted air-conditioning systems?Not learned 368. What type of centrifugal fan is characterized by the highest operating efficiency?Not learned 369. What pressure drop across an air conditioning filter is indicative of a need to replace or clean the filter as appropriate?Not learned 370. Concerning air-conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?Not learned 371. What type of heating coil is generally preferred in heating spaces with electronic equipment?Not learned 372. What statement is true concerning steam-heated, hot water heated, or electric-heated convectors?Not learned 373. Concerning air-conditioning system dry-expansion cooling coils, what statement is true?Not learned 374. What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?Not learned 375. What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation and low system heat loads?Not learned 376. What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream, with one for cold air and the other for hot air?Not learned 377. What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?Not learned 378. Traditionally, which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor?Not learned 379. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?Not learned 380. Which of the fluids listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant?Not learned 381. The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by what means?Not learned 382. In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants decompose and form what chemical substance?Not learned 383. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of an R-22 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment with a halide torch?Not learned 384. What is the physical state and pressure condition of refrigerant as it leaves a receiver in a typical refrigeration system?Not learned 385. The "tare weight" of a refrigerant storage cylinder refers to what weight?Not learned 386. Which of the following substances is normally classified as a low-pressure refrigerant?Not learned 387. What is the pressure and condition of the refrigerant entering the receiver of a refrigeration system?Not learned 388. Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a confined space or in limited surroundings cause suffocation?Not learned 389. What would be an example of a small appliance as defined in the EPA Clean Air Act rules?Not learned 390. Within the territorial limits of the United States, violations of the Clean Air Act of 1990, that includes the intentional release of R-11, R-12, R-22 and other related class I or class II substances may result in fines for each violation per day of what amount?Not learned 391. Persons recovering refrigerant from small appliances must be certified as what type of technician under the EPA Clean Air Act rules?Not learned 392. The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a protective shield that helps to protect the environment from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation is called what?Not learned 393. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?Not learned 394. Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?Not learned 395. A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?Not learned 396. To prevent motor overload during start-up of a centrifugal refrigeration system, what is true concerning the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes?Not learned 397. The carbon seal ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft mechanical seal is held in position against the stationary ring face by using what device?Not learned 398. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?Not learned 399. In a refrigeration plant, what is one vital purpose of the receiver?Not learned 400. The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what essential function?Not learned 401. Zinc plates commonly found in refrigeration systems and used as sacrificial anodes are located where?Not learned 402. Sea water or low temperature central fresh water is typically provided to a ship's stores refrigeration plant for what purpose?Not learned 403. Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of produce in chill boxes. Which of the following will minimize this dehydration?Not learned 404. In a dry-type direct expansion refrigeration evaporator, what is true concerning the evaporator coils?Not learned 405. During the initial cooling down of a box temperature in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction for the purpose of prevention of overloading of the compressor driver?Not learned 406. Refrigeration system isolation valves are specially designed with a back-seat, as well as a front-seat. For what purpose are these valves designed in this way?Not learned 407. For most multi-box refrigeration systems, the refrigerant sight glass would be located where in the system?Not learned 408. Hard drawn copper tubing is commonly used in larger refrigeration systems. What statement concerning its use is true?Not learned 409. The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration system is to prevent dirt and scale from entering what system component(s)?Not learned 410. On a modern refrigerated container unit employing suction modulation for the purposes of capacity control and capacity limitation, what happens when the applied voltage and current draw associated with the normally open (NO) suction modulation valve located in the suction line both increase?Not learned 411. An arrow stamped on the valve body of a water regulating valve indicates which of the following?Not learned 412. When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor discharge line, it discharges high-pressure refrigerant vapor to what location?Not learned 413. The rupture disc on a low-pressure centrifugal refrigeration unit is used as an overpressure protection device and is set to relieve at 15 psig and is most likely to lift when the compressor is idle. Where is the rupture disc located?Not learned 414. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 58) require a method for the relieving pressure of an over pressurized refrigeration system. Which of the following statements complies with these regulations?Not learned 415. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 113) require refrigerated spaces that can be locked from the outside and that cannot be opened from the inside to have an audible alarm. Where is the audible alarm required to be?Not learned 416. In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system is usually charged with what substance?Not learned 417. Besides the evaporator pressure, the thermal expansion valve reacts directly to changes in what parameter?Not learned 418. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with an 8 psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a replaceable power element are both desiredNot learned 419. What is one function of the thermal expansion valve used in a refrigeration system?Not learned 420. In a refrigeration system, the pressure within the power element of a thermostatic expansion valve depends directly upon what factor?Not learned 421. In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located where?Not learned 422. When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, what name of the charge is associated with the power element?Not learned 423. A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates with one compressor and condenser. What is the purpose of the sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator coil outlet?Not learned 424. The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system further opens when the diaphragm flexes downward. With all other conditions being the same, what single condition causes this?Not learned 425. In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of refrigerant to each refrigerated space evaporator is accomplished by what device?Not learned 426. In a refrigeration system, what component is installed directly downstream of the thermal expansion valve?Not learned 427. A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the evaporator superheat setting will result in which of the following?Not learned 428. When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve power element, what is true concerning the thermal bulb?Not learned 429. If the evaporator coil horizontal return line of a container refrigeration system is less than 0.875" (2.21 cm) in diameter (considered small), the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb should be attached where on the return line?Not learned 430. Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the following procedures?Not learned 431. Which statement about calibrating a newly installed thermostatic expansion valve is correct?Not learned 432. Which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper operation of the thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 433. Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 434. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the system has a single evaporator?Not learned 435. If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?Not learned 436. A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 437. An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and what other symptom?Not learned 438. What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 439. When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a refrigerated container unit, the sensing bulb almost always requires insulation. Why is this so?Not learned 440. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at 1/2 tons, what would be the result if the replacement valve cage was oversized at 5 tonsNot learned 441. Vapor bubbles present in the liquid upon arrival to the thermal expansion valve in a refrigeration system may cause erosion of the expansion valve's needle and seat. This, in turn, could cause what condition?Not learned 442. Why are dehydrators usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems?Not learned 443. Which of the devices listed will indicate whether or not a refrigeration system's dehydrator continues to be capable of removing moisture from the circulating refrigerant?Not learned 444. In a refrigeration system, silica gel is found in what component?Not learned 445. Moisture is removed from a refrigeration system by what action?Not learned 446. Standard filter/driers used in many commercial type refrigeration units may contain what type of substance?Not learned 447. Which of the following dehydrators or combination filter/driers features a core that can be replaced when the dessicant becomes saturated with moistureNot learned 448. Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a result of what condition?Not learned 449. Alkylbenzene ISO 32 cSt synthetic refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to use with which of the following refrigerants?Not learned 450. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 451. What is the purpose of the low pressure cut-out switch as used as a primary controller for a refrigeration system or unit?Not learned 452. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart if the system features a pump-down cycle?Not learned 453. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?Not learned 454. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when only one of the evporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what valueNot learned 455. A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system, is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?Not learned 456. A box solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed in what manner?Not learned 457. In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a king solenoid valve should be installed in what location?Not learned 458. In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line prior to what device?Not learned 459. A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator by what means?Not learned 460. The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator senses what temperature?Not learned 461. How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve?Not learned 462. What is the purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short intermittent spurts or throttling the suction isolation valve when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown?Not learned 463. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a perishable chilled cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what should be the operational status of the unit if the actual box temperature is 6Not learned 464. Some "hot gas" defrost systems reheat the refrigerant just prior to its returning to the compressor for what purpose?Not learned 465. In addition to the drive belt itself, a V-belt that is tensioned too tight will cause excessive wear to what other drive component?Not learned 466. Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause what condition?Not learned 467. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid-line solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, what would this cause?Not learned 468. To add small amounts of non-blended refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the refrigerant should be introduced through a particular valve and in a particular state. What valve and state combination is correct?Not learned 469. To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should close the king valve and introduce the refrigerant through what valve in what state?Not learned 470. If a condenser coil of an air-cooled container refrigeration system becomes dirty and requires cleaning, what would be an acceptable method of cleaning?Not learned 471. When opening or closing compressor service and line isolation valves on a typical refrigeration system that is fitted with packed valves, what must you do?Not learned 472. What is true concerning frost build-up on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion refrigeration system?Not learned 473. When checking zinc plates, or pencil zincs in the refrigerating system condenser, what should you do?Not learned 474. Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any part of a refrigeration system for the purpose of accomplishing non-major repairs?Not learned 475. The pressure in the part of a high pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for a non-major repair should be brought to what value?Not learned 476. The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start while undergoing repairs is to do what?Not learned 477. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?Not learned 478. Before charging a refrigeration unit, unless quick disconnect fittings are used, the refrigerant charging hoses should be prepared in what way?Not learned 479. In addition to pressure, most compound and standard pressure gauges used for refrigeration service are also provided with a scale indicating what parameter?Not learned 480. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?Not learned 481. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent what from happening?Not learned 482. In a low pressure refrigeration system, excessive running of the purge recovery unit generally indicates which probable condition?Not learned 483. In a low-pressure centrifugal chiller, what is meant by the term "high efficiency purge unit"?Not learned 484. Excessive moisture being collected in the purge unit of a low-pressure refrigeration system could indicate which probable condition?Not learned 485. During normal operation, traditionally, how is most of the refrigerant released to the atmosphere from low-pressure systems?Not learned 486. Release of refrigerant to the atmosphere during the process of purging of air and non-condensable gases can be kept to a permissible minimum by what action?Not learned 487. Concerning the charging of refrigerant into a vapor compression refrigerating system, which of the following is true?Not learned 488. When a refrigeration system is being topped off with a small amount of refrigerant through the low side with the compressor running, what should be done?Not learned 489. Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?Not learned 490. How should small appliances with less than three pounds of refrigerant be charged with refrigerant?Not learned 491. Charging liquid HCFC-123 into a system under a deep vacuum could cause what to happen unless necessary precautions are taken?Not learned 492. Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of the high-pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the result of what?Not learned 493. What must be done, at a minimum, before a system can legally be opened up for repairs while adhering to the prohibition against the venting of halogenated fluorocarbon refrigerants to the atmosphere?Not learned 494. Which recovery procedure should be used to minimize the loss of oil from the system during the recovery of refrigerant from small appliances such as a water cooler?Not learned 495. Minor repairs may be performed on low-pressure refrigerant systems without recovering the refrigerant charge if the pressure in the system is raised to atmospheric. How may this be accomplished?Not learned 496. What is the correct color-coding of refrigerant recovery cylinders regardless of the refrigerant contained within?Not learned 497. What is the maximum volume to which refillable refrigeration cylinders should be filled?Not learned 498. In a refrigeration system, the push-pull technique can be used for the recovery of the refrigerant in what state?Not learned 499. If passive recovery is used on a small appliance fitted with a capillary tube as a metering device with a non-operating compressor, the recovery should be made through what means?Not learned 500. If you find the pressure of a refrigeration system containing a Class I or Class II refrigerant to be opened for the accomplishment of repairs is 0 psig, what must be done?Not learned 501. Technicians servicing small refrigeration appliances can employ what type of recovery equipment?Not learned 502. What is the color coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant?Not learned 503. When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system, the nitrogen cylinder should always be equipped with what device or feature?Not learned 504. Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?Not learned 505. What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?Not learned 506. With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration chambers of a liquid cargo- hold dehumidification system, which statement is true?Not learned 507. To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?Not learned 508. To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would the dew point be measured?Not learned 509. What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification systems?Not learned 510. The compressor used in a water-cooled air conditioning system is short-cycling and as a consequence a safety shutdown alarm occurs at each shutdown, and a manual reset is required to restart. A service check determines that the suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in point during cycling and that the discharge pressure rapidly builds up to the cut-out point while running and gradually falls to the cut-in point during the off cycle. What is likely the cause?Not learned 511. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, what would be the normal range of expected discharge pressures if the ambient air temperature is 90°FNot learned 512. Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be caused by which of the following?Not learned 513. In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration system, both low discharge and high suction pressures are being simultaneously experienced. The probable cause for this condition is which of the following?Not learned 514. An excessive charge of refrigerant in a thermostatically controlled, air-cooled, refrigeration system using a TXV as an expansion device can cause which of the following?Not learned 515. If increasing the cooling water flow to a refrigeration condenser fails to lower the condenser pressure, the probable cause may be due to what condition?Not learned 516. What is true concerning the accumulation of air and other non-condensable gases in a refrigeration system?Not learned 517. Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of what condition?Not learned 518. The air temperature associated with a direct reciprocating air conditioning plant is found to be too warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in point, with a normal head pressure, and high evaporator superheat. Which of the following could be the cause of this problem?Not learned 519. High suction pressure accompanied by low suction temperature to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by which of the following?Not learned 520. Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant pressure at the compressor suction of a TXV controlled refrigeration system?Not learned 521. If a refrigeration compressor had developed a slightly high suction pressure accompanied with an abnormally low suction temperature, the problem could be a result of which of the following?Not learned 522. If the running suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor of a TXV controlled air-cooled refrigeration system is below normal, which of the following can be a cause?Not learned 523. A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. Where is it generally located in the system?Not learned 524. The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of what conditions?Not learned 525. In an air conditioning system, low discharge head pressure associated with a reciprocating compressor can be the result of what condition?Not learned 526. When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, what should be done to compensate for or to correct this situation?Not learned 527. Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by which of the following?Not learned 528. Unusual noise coming from a refrigeration compressor can be caused by which of the following conditions?Not learned 529. If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, what is the most probable cause?Not learned 530. When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST thing that should be checked for is what?Not learned 531. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating or frosting and is operating with an unusual noise, what is most likely the cause?Not learned 532. If a refrigeration compressor using a thermostat as a primary controller is running continuously without significantly lowering the temperature in the refrigerated space, which of the following is most likely the trouble?Not learned 533. If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, besides an elevated box temperature, what would be an observable symptom?Not learned 534. During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running continuously, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature is slightly above normal without ever reaching the desired minimum temperature. Suction and discharge pressures are normal for the corresponding box temperature. In this situation, what should you suspect?Not learned 535. An evaporator coil of a single evaporator, air-cooled refrigerator is accumulating excessive frost due to a failure of the defrost mechanism. If the refrigerator features a thermostatically controlled box solenoid and a low-pressure cut-out controlled compressor, as well as a high-pressure cut-out, in terms of the compressor, what would be the most likely operating symptom?Not learned 536. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?Not learned 537. Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will most likely produce what effect?Not learned 538. Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause which of the following conditons?Not learned 539. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book?Not learned 540. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil Record Book?Not learned 541. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for vessels of 400 gross tons and above which are all required to carry an oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is the design criteria in terms of maximum oil content of the overboard discharge?Not learned 542. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?Not learned 543. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in any waters?Not learned 544. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all garbage applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 545. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 546. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of 400 gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which of the following discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description of the contents of the garbage?Not learned 547. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of plastics into the sea or the navigable waters of the United States is strictly prohibited. Which of following statements is true concerning the legal disposal of plastics?Not learned 548. What statement is true concerning the lubrication of line shaft bearings?Not learned 549. What statement is true concerning the ability of a line shaft bearing to adapt to shaft misalignment as the ship's hull flexes?Not learned 550. Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?Not learned 551. What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?Not learned 552. What is an example of an epicyclic gear?Not learned 553. Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with one another?Not learned 554. What is a shipboard application for a worm gear drive?Not learned 555. The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what type?Not learned 556. Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?Not learned 557. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure-feed lubricating oil system, which statement is true?Not learned 558. Preferably when should the bridge be informed when engine room situations may affect the speed, maneuverability, power supply, or other essentials for the safe operation of the ship?Not learned 559. Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the rate of change of the velocity as a result of a part vibrating during its periodic or oscillatory motion?Not learned 560. What is the standard unit of measure for vibration displacement?Not learned 561. When performing a vibration analysis for rotating machinery, what is essential?Not learned 562. On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?Not learned 563. Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational speed?Not learned 564. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?Not learned 565. What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust bearing where used?Not learned 566. What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on merchant ships?Not learned 567. Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor?Not learned 568. Concerning governor speed droop, what statement is true?Not learned 569. Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without hunting?Not learned 570. Which term represents how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a corrective action as the result of a load change?Not learned 571. Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?Not learned 572. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?Not learned 573. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?Not learned 574. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulfur content of any fuel oil used onboard ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight?Not learned 575. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable Sulphur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area?Not learned 576. What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustrationNot learned 577. For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?Not learned 578. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations apply?Not learned 579. The heat exchanger plates, used in the device shown in the illustration, are produced from which of the listed materialsNot learned 580. For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?Not learned 581. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a double reduction?Not learned 582. Which of the following couplings or clutches allows, within limits, a certain degree of slip?Not learned 583. If it is desired to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what thermocouple wiring technique can be used to generate an emf proportional to the average temperature?Not learned 584. Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as platinum, where the resistance varies directly with temperature?Not learned 585. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic temperature indicator has a calibrated scale of -40 to +40°F, what would be the actual measured temperature if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?Not learned 586. What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as opposed to an instantaneous flow rate?Not learned 587. Which of the following flowmeter primary devices works on the constriction type, differential head principle?Not learned 588. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic instantaneous flow indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 gpm, what would be the actual measured instantaneous flow rate if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?Not learned 589. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what is a common industry standard for pneumatic signal pressure range?Not learned 590. For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what is a common industry standard for electronic signal current range?Not learned 591. Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring pressures very close to atmospheric pressure such as boiler furnace draft pressure?Not learned 592. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?Not learned 593. For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an analog pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 30 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted analog signal current to the indicator is 12 mA, assuming the industry standard of 4 to 20 mA is used for instrument current?Not learned 594. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 5000 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 6 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?Not learned 595. In which of the following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used with a pressure measuring instrument?Not learned 596. Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring most pressures, typically above 10 psig and is by far the most common type?Not learned 597. What is used to protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from contact with steam?Not learned 598. What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a thermocouple pyrometer?Not learned 599. What type of liquid level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a supply of compressed air?Not learned 600. Which of the following level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for discrete-level detection as opposed to continuous-level detection?Not learned 601. What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for measuring oil- fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?Not learned 602. Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?Not learned 603. Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the liquid level in a pressure vessel, such as a water-tube boiler steam drum?Not learned 604. How would the pressure setting of the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure-reducer be reduced to a lower setpointNot learned 605. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result?Not learned 606. In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?Not learned 607. In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function of the error detector within the controller?Not learned 608. What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses two-point control?Not learned 609. Which of the listed central operating system types converts continuous analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control?Not learned 610. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is responsible for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is unattended. How often should these machinery space rounds be performed by the duty engineer?Not learned 611. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, under what conditions must the propulsion console be continuously manned?Not learned 612. Under which of the listed conditions can the engine room retake the throttle control from the bridge of an automated vessel?Not learned 613. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 614. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the area networksNot learned 615. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating system workstationsNot learned 616. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.Not learned 617. In accordance with the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), continuing violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 618. In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for U.S. non- oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?Not learned 619. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?Not learned 620. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33 CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. This includes disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge water that has accumulated in machinery spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the Oil Record Book entry for the specific operation?Not learned 621. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?Not learned 622. According to 46 CFR, Part 58, for protection purposes, what is required of all refrigeration systems? Reference: 46 CFR 58Not learned 623. According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause Pump "A" to short cycleNot learned 624. In addition to the indicated gauge pressure, what other information is presented on the compound gauge for the hypothetical refrigerant illustratedNot learned 625. What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling systemNot learned 626. The air charge leaving an intercooler or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected to be which of the following?Not learned 627. If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor mechanical unloading system will __________.Not learned 628. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 629. An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________Not learned 630. Assuming that the flow is from left to right on the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is trueNot learned 631. Assuming that a standard micrometer (without a Vernier scale) has the ability to read to the nearest one thousandths of an inch, such a micrometer with a vernier scale would make it possible to read to the nearest __________.Not learned 632. A box solenoid valve used in a multi-box refrigeration system is operated by electromagnetic action by what control device?Not learned 633. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?Not learned 634. A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures shown in the illustrationNot learned 635. Charging liquid HCFC-123 into a system under a deep vacuum could cause what to happen unless necessary precautions are taken?Not learned 636. You are checking the supply chilled water temperature thermistor probe on a highpressure hermetic centrifugal chiller. Using the illustrated chart, what statement is true if the supply water temperature is verified 45°F with a digital thermometerNot learned 637. Classification society requirements stipulate that main sea water cooling pumps be furnished with redundancy with either two dedicated pumps or with one dedicated pump and one standby pump available for other sea water services. Referring to the illustrated motor ship sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning meeting these classification society requirementsNot learned 638. The coil temperature measured at the expansion valve sensing bulb of an operating system is 10°F. The low side pressure with the compressor running as shown on the gauge illustrated indicates 15 psig. What adjustments or changes, if any, should be made to the systemNot learned 639. The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as the __________Not learned 640. The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the __________Not learned 641. Through which of the components shown in the illustration is flash gas formation a normal occurrenceNot learned 642. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by__________.Not learned 643. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 644. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 645. Concerning the proper installation of the sensing bulb of a thermal expansion valve that is attached to the evaporator tail coil on a horizontal run, what statement is true?Not learned 646. Concerning transverse fixed tunnel thrusters, what statement is true?Not learned 647. Which of the conditions listed does the blueprint symbol shown in the illustration representNot learned 648. Which of the conditions listed would indicate a large condenser tube leak within the distiller shown in the illustrationNot learned 649. The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller with more than 500 lbs. of refrigerant and to meet EPA requirements is to recover the refrigerant using what protocol?Not learned 650. If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which of the following will occurNot learned 651. If it is desired to determine the temperature difference between two locations using thermocouples, what wiring technique can be used to accomplish this?Not learned 652. The device illustrated would be best used as a __________Not learned 653. Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustrationNot learned 654. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 655. The device shown in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________Not learned 656. Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurementsNot learned 657. The device shown in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 658. Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gageNot learned 659. The device shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial piston pump. "T" is the exhaust to pump casing. "P" is the supply from the replenishing pump. What will happen when part "3" is moved to the leftNot learned 660. If the device shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial piston pump, when part "A" is moved to the right, then part "B" __________Not learned 661. The device shown in the illustration which is used for removing moisture from the liquid refrigerant in the system is labeled with what letterNot learned 662. Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distillerNot learned 663. The dimension of the sensing gap in the left hand limit sensor assembly shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 664. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________.Not learned 665. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?Not learned 666. What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 667. In what remote temperature indicating system is a voltage generated by the magnitude of temperature difference between hot and cold junctions?Not learned 668. You are on a ship with a large slow speed main engine that operates an Unattended Machinery Space. When entering the main machinery space to conduct maintenance or a machinery space round, what should be done?Not learned 669. If the evaporator coil horizontal return line of a refrigeration system is less than 7/8" (2.21 cm) in diameter (considered small), which figure in the illustration represents the proper orientation and placement of the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulbNot learned 670. In examining a baseline vibration signature and the historical record of periodic vibration analyses, what must be considered for the evaluation of rotating machinery?Not learned 671. Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal operation by __________Not learned 672. Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor is caused by which of the following?Not learned 673. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the waterNot learned 674. Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the illustration may be the result of __________Not learned 675. Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to indicate a/an __________Not learned 676. Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screwNot learned 677. Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screwNot learned 678. Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "B" of the device shown in illustration GS-0124Not learned 679. Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "C" in illustration GS-0015Not learned 680. Which of the figures shown in the illustration depicts an orthographic projectionNot learned 681. Which figure shown in the illustration, is the nut lock improperly usedNot learned 682. In the figure shown in the illustration, the standard blueprint symbols above the letters "A", "B", and "C" indicate __________Not learned 683. The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the underside of the unloader power element piston of the refrigeration compressor capacity control mechanism illustrated is obtained from whereNot learned 684. Which of the following components listed is shown in the illustrationNot learned 685. Which of the following compressors would be used for a dead ship start-up of a ship's service diesel- generator on a motor ship?Not learned 686. Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water leakage in the illustrated deviceNot learned 687. Which of the following conditions will occur if the power element of the thermostatic expansion valve shown in the illustration loses its chargeNot learned 688. Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 689. Which of the following could be a probable cause of abnormal valve wear and breakage?Not learned 690. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a 2-position diverting hot gas bypass solenoid valveNot learned 691. Which of the following freshwater generators has an operating principle that evaporates preheated sea water by causing it to undergo a pressure drop into a vacuum?Not learned 692. Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in the illustrationNot learned 693. Which of the following illustrated expansion valves is designed to maintain a constant evaporator pressure rather than a constant evaporator superheatNot learned 694. Which of the following illustrations represents the proper method of circuit grounding for a low level analog signal cableNot learned 695. Which of the following speed tachometers produces an analog signal proportional to the shaft speed?Not learned 696. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 697. Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feedwater entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removedNot learned 698. Which of the following statements describes what will occur to the volume of water vapor as it is exposed to the lower temperatures existing in the device labeled "24" shown in the illustrationNot learned 699. Which of the following statements is NOT a function of an effective vibration analysis program?Not learned 700. Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jawindependent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?Not learned 701. Which of the following statements is trueNot learned 702. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?Not learned 703. Which of the following statements is true concerning the gauge labeled "A" of the illustrated gauge manifold setNot learned 704. Which of the following statements is true concerning the illustrated gauge manifold setNot learned 705. Which of the following statements will be true if the position of the manual control lever, shown in the illustration, remains unchanged after the pump is placed on strokeNot learned 706. Which of the following is true concerning the class "D" air conditioning system shown in the following illustrationNot learned 707. Which of the following is true concerning the class "A" air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used to condition the air of large public spacesNot learned 708. What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustrationNot learned 709. What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustrationNot learned 710. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 711. The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an __________Not learned 712. Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal, the harder the metal, the greater the drill's required __________.Not learned 713. Given that valve "14" is the king solenoid valve, which of the following statements is trueNot learned 714. When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?Not learned 715. Heat is removed from the refrigerant circulating through the refrigeration system, shown in the illustration, by which componentNot learned 716. A high-pressure centrifugal chiller, currently charged with R-134a, is being evaluated for leak testing. The machine is idle, the pressures equalized at 10 psig, with an ambient temperature of 60°F. Using the leak test procedures decision tree and the R-134a pressure-temperature chart, what statement is TRUE? RA-0094_1.jpgRA-0094_2.jpgNot learned 717. A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cells labeled "W" and "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the probable result of __________Not learned 718. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal- mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers?Not learned 719. A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of its stroke, then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause?Not learned 720. In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by __________Not learned 721. Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure __________Not learned 722. The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will probably leak when in operation because the tubing __________Not learned 723. Which of the illustrated devices would be the LEAST accurate for the purposes of weighing-in a refrigerant chargeNot learned 724. Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing toolNot learned 725. Which of the illustrated gauges is capable of measuring vacuums at the micron level for the purpose of proving system dehydration during system evacuation with a vacuum pump, but displays the achieved vacuums at incremental threshold intervals rather than continuouslyNot learned 726. In the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the discNot learned 727. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure INot learned 728. In the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the control diaphragmNot learned 729. In the illustrated refrigeration system, what is the proper name for the component labeled "A"Not learned 730. In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve, what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valvesNot learned 731. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of steam through the preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coilNot learned 732. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the functioning of the diverting relay as it controls the cooling coil flow and the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampersNot learned 733. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampersNot learned 734. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the supply air duct thermostats controlling the preheater steam flow and the cooling coil chilled water flowNot learned 735. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the winter outside air duct thermostatNot learned 736. Which of the illustrated valves is used to gain access to a hermetic system and features a Schrader core valve which is unseated by the core depressor of hose fitting when attachedNot learned 737. The illustration is drawn to a scale of 3/8 inch = 1 inch. What is the full-size dimension of "X", if the scale lengths for "E" = 5/8", "F" = 1 3/8", "G" = 2 1/8", and "H" = 5 3/4"Not learned 738. In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________Not learned 739. In the illustration, line "C" is a __________Not learned 740. In the illustration shown, what is the distance indicated by dimension "I"Not learned 741. In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute by __________Not learned 742. In the illustration shown, what is the proper description of the hole represented by "C"Not learned 743. The illustration shown represents a blueprint of a metal __________Not learned 744. Item "10" shown in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 745. Item "B" in the pump illustration is the __________Not learned 746. Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________Not learned 747. Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as __________Not learned 748. Where is the latent heat obtained to create vapor from the feed water in the illustrated distillerNot learned 749. The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 750. Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best be used on a workpiece to perform a right-hand facing operationNot learned 751. What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the illustrationNot learned 752. The letters "NPT" used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as shown in the illustration, indicates the __________Not learned 753. Which of the lettered components shown in the illustration indicates the high-pressure cut-outNot learned 754. Which lettered component, shown in the illustration, indicates the location of the receiverNot learned 755. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 756. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 757. Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing shells on merchant ships?Not learned 758. Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be temporarily shut down, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force?Not learned 759. Which of the listed statements describes the method used to determine the amount of superheat present in the suction gas leaving the evaporator coilNot learned 760. Which of the listed temperature sensors is made of heat-treated metallic oxides and generally has a negative coefficient of resistance?Not learned 761. The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devicesNot learned 762. The low-pressure cut-out switch settings vary with the refrigerant used and the temperature application. If the low-pressure cut-out switch for a particular application is set with a cut-in pressure of 5 psig, what would be the cut-out pressure if the differential is 7.5 psig?Not learned 763. How many hidden lines are shown in the right side (end) view of the drawing illustratedNot learned 764. What is meant by the term "deadband" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?Not learned 765. In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve labeled "29"Not learned 766. If it is necessary to increase the operating head pressure of the refrigeration system using the device shown in the illustration, what should be doneNot learned 767. How would you prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the steering system using the illustrated actuatorNot learned 768. What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while operating in the processing modeNot learned 769. To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18-inch workpiece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over _________.Not learned 770. What occurs in the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 771. What will happen if oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the illustrationNot learned 772. When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water levelNot learned 773. What is the operating principle upon which a salinometer is based?Not learned 774. The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon __________Not learned 775. For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the connection labeled "I"Not learned 776. In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be openNot learned 777. The physical feature indicated for each of the smallest diameter ends of the device illustrated is that they are __________Not learned 778. The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 779. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.Not learned 780. You press start button on the hydraulic power unit shown in the illustration, and the motor does not start. The first thing you should check is the ________Not learned 781. Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by which of the following?Not learned 782. Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What is the term that represents the number of vibration cycles per unit time as a result of a part vibrating during its periodic or oscillatory motion?Not learned 783. To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________Not learned 784. To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________Not learned 785. In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom end of the motor shaftNot learned 786. When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?Not learned 787. Why is a purge recovery unit typically fitted on low-pressure centrifugal chillers?Not learned 788. The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________Not learned 789. What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as shown in the illustrationNot learned 790. A radiation pyrometer is sensitive to what form of radiation?Not learned 791. A reading taken with a portable hand-held vibration meter is capable of indicating which of the following conditions?Not learned 792. What is the reading of the Vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustrationNot learned 793. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way?Not learned 794. When recovering the remaining R-134a refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller shown in the illustration as a vapor using the recovery unit's compressor, in addition to opening valves "1a", "1b", and the compressor suction and discharge isolation valves, which of the following would be the correct valve lineupNot learned 795. Referring to the illustrated bellows-type thermostatic steam trap, what statement is true concerning its operationNot learned 796. Referring to the illustrated diagram for a central-station hookup for a hot water heating system, what statement represents the configuration of the systemNot learned 797. Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shownNot learned 798. Referring to the illustrated drawing of the central-station hookup for a hot water heating system, what statement is true concerning the air separator on the heated water outlet of the converterNot learned 799. Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space temperature directly controlledNot learned 800. Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement concerning the blowdown adjusting ring (B) is trueNot learned 801. Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the adjustment of blowdownNot learned 802. Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the adjustment of the popping pressureNot learned 803. Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading the control cylinder "E" upward out of the trap bodyNot learned 804. Referring to the illustrated motor ship freshwater cooling system drawing, which cooling system has cooling water passing through passages within components that are continuously undergoing motionNot learned 805. Referring to the illustrated motorship freshwater cooling system drawing, which cooling system tanks are MOST likely to have oil separation capabilityNot learned 806. Referring to the illustrated motorship fresh water cooling system drawing, which set of cooling water pumps would MOST likely require a priming maintenance system or the use of deep-well pumpsNot learned 807. Referring to the illustrated motorship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the evaporatorNot learned 808. Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the jacket water heaterNot learned 809. Referring to the illustrated motorship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling system heat recovery capability as associated with generating fresh waterNot learned 810. Referring to the illustrated motor ship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control systemNot learned 811. Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the standby heating coilNot learned 812. Referring to the illustrated motor ship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling systemNot learned 813. Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is trueNot learned 814. Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is trueNot learned 815. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures for air all equal in valueNot learned 816. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70°F and the relative humidity is 40%, what is the absolute humidityNot learned 817. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the measured dry bulb temperature is 80 °F and the measured wet bulb temperature is 70 °F, what is the determined relative humidityNot learned 818. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry bulb temperature of 60°F and a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain, and the off-coil temperature is now 80°F. What is off-coil relative humidityNot learned 819. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss with no change in moisture content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process lineNot learned 820. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature below the dew point temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss and dehumidification. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process lineNot learned 821. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season that air passes over a heating coil, and this results in sensible heat gain with no change in moisture content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process lineNot learned 822. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season where steam is injected into the air stream, this results in sensible heat gain and humidification. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process lineNot learned 823. Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true concerning the damper controlsNot learned 824. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump is considered a high-head pump operating with the highest discharge pressureNot learned 825. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergencyNot learned 826. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning main circulating to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect capabilityNot learned 827. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning sea water service system to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect capabilityNot learned 828. Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unitNot learned 829. Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the lower oil/water interface detection probe became faultyNot learned 830. After the refrigerant has been recovered, leaks repaired if necessary, the system ideally should undergo a dehydration evacuation prior to recharging with refrigerant. As shown in the illustration, besides the vacuum pump suction manifold isolation valve being opened, what would be the proper valve positions to accomplish and prove the evacuationNot learned 831. In a refrigeration system featuring low-side pumpdown prior to the automatic shutdown of the compressor, the temperature of the refrigerated space is controlled by the action of a thermostat wired to what device?Not learned 832. In a refrigeration system, from what location would air and non-condensable gases be removed?Not learned 833. In a refrigeration system, the valve shown in the illustration is used for what purposeNot learned 834. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the fore peak and aft peak tanks?Not learned 835. With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term "deballasting"?Not learned 836. With regard to fresh water generators, what statement concerning brine is true?Not learned 837. With regards to shipboard refrigeration systems, after July 1, 1992, what action became illegal?Not learned 838. When repairing a refrigeration system, a swaging tool set would be used to carry out which of the following operations?Not learned 839. With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?Not learned 840. With respect to shaft bearing load absorption capability in terms of direction, what is meant by a radial load?Not learned 841. When responding to a "right rudder" command from the amidships position, which parts of the steering gear system illustrated will be subjected to the highest pressureNot learned 842. The ruler indicated in the illustration is commonly referred to as a/an _________Not learned 843. Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closedNot learned 844. The sensing line for the low-pressure cut-out switch for a refrigeration system is typically connected at what specific service valve location?Not learned 845. (1.5.5.4-4) The setpoint adjustment of the device shown in the illustration is made by rotating what componentNot learned 846. The shaft shown in the illustration has an overall length of 42 inches in addition to the following dimensions of "A" = 8", "B" = 8", "C" = 10", and "D"=8 3/16". The tapered length "X" is __________Not learned 847. All shipboard personnel responsible for the maintenance and repair of air conditioning systems using refrigerants covered under the EPA Clean Air Act venting prohibition, must be certified through an approved Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) program to do which of the following?Not learned 848. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission of analog signals for a measured variableNot learned 849. As shown in figure "B" in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG (A-D MUX)"Not learned 850. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for supervisory control, which statement is true concerning the block "COMPUTER" with respect to closed-loop control processesNot learned 851. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated self-contained recovery unit connection diagrams, what is the recovery method supported by the connection schemeNot learned 852. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT" representNot learned 853. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL OUTPUT" representNot learned 854. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the voltage sensing unitNot learned 855. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the data communication pathways labeled "Dual CAN"Not learned 856. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 857. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller high efficiency purge recovery unit piping schematic, what statement is true concerning the vacuum pumpNot learned 858. As shown in the illustrated refrigeration system piping schematic diagram with the various accessories and controls and equipped with an air-cooled condenser with high side pressure controls, what statement is true concerning the fan cycling control pressure switchNot learned 859. As shown in the illustration, if figure "21" indicates the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection, and figure "11" indicates the "FRONT VIEW", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"Not learned 860. Which single illustrated lathe tool could be used to turn down the stock in figure IINot learned 861. Spring reinforced oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the seal facing __________Not learned 862. When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shut down for a period of time, you should manually throttle which valve?Not learned 863. What statement represents the first law of thermodynamics?Not learned 864. What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity sensor as used for sensing the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?Not learned 865. Which of the statements is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the directional control valve is centeredNot learned 866. Which statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?Not learned 867. What statement is true concerning the operation of continuous-level liquid level detectors?Not learned 868. What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?Not learned 869. What statement is true with respect to the pressure side of a propeller blade?Not learned 870. All straight shank twist drills must be mounted or held in a __________.Not learned 871. Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be the result if there was a complete loss of pilot air being delivered to the valve actuatorNot learned 872. Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be the result if the control diaphragm became rupturedNot learned 873. Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be the result if the stem packing was over-tightened and the stem was unable to vertically move in either directionNot learned 874. Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve is part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater for a steam boiler. If there was an increase in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement correctly represents how the valve would initially respondNot learned 875. Suppose the pilot controller for the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is supplied with 20 psig control air and is designed to operate the valve with a pilot pressure ranging from 3 to 15 psig. What would be the indication of a properly adjusted spring (6) by means of the adjusting nut (12)Not learned 876. Suppose the pilot pressure is from 3 to 15 psig for the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve. Assuming the control valve is trimmed for a linear response and the travel position indicator is calibrated in percentage, what would be the approximate pilot pressure if the position indicator showed the valve to be 75% openNot learned 877. Suppose that a standard bourdon tube pressure gauge has a scale of 0 to 1000 psig. If the accuracy of the gauge is plus or minus .5% of the span, what would the range of measured pressure be if the gauge indicates 690 psig?Not learned 878. Suppose that a standard remote reading bourdon tube thermometer has a scale of 40 to 240°F. If the accuracy of the thermometer is plus or minus 1% of the span, what would the range of measured temperature be if the thermometer indicates 180°F?Not learned 879. Suppose a steam trap's primary purpose is to keep a steam line dry. What would be the outcome if the trap were to fail in a closed position?Not learned 880. The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event?Not learned 881. Which term represents the change in speed required before a speed control governor will initiate corrective action as the load changes?Not learned 882. The term, whole depth of the gear, shown in the illustration, is equal to __________Not learned 883. When tightening the plate type heat exchangers shown in the illustration, care must be taken to __________Not learned 884. Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used in the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 885. The tool shown in the illustration is called a __________Not learned 886. What is true concerning highly contaminated refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances?Not learned 887. What type of pump is shown in the illustrationNot learned 888. A typical oily-water separator has three stages of separation. Which statement represents the correct sequential order of the stages?Not learned 889. In the unit illustrated, the feedwater temperature is required to be increased to 165°F or greater and must exist at this temperature when leaving __________Not learned 890. What is the most useful measurement that represents the severity of vibration associated with periodic or oscillatory motion?Not learned 891. Using the device shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is true when adding refrigerant as a vapor to the low side of the refrigeration systemNot learned 892. Using the illustrated chart giving the boiling point of moisture at various depths of vacuum, with an ambient temperature of 72°F, what depth of vacuum would be associated with the BEST chance of achieving a dehydration evacuation with a deep vacuum pumpNot learned 893. Using the information in the illustration shown, the tail of the welding symbol will __________Not learned 894. If the valve labeled "D" in the illustration is a suction service valve, what will the port labeled "7" be connected toNot learned 895. If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration, which of the events listed will occurNot learned 896. A variable displacement pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow rate will be reduced as described by which of the following statementsNot learned 897. Of the various possible methods shown in the illustration, which is the correct method of attaching a TXV feeler bulb to a large suction line (7/8" and larger) with a horizontal runNot learned 898. A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by __________.Not learned 899. Vibration characteristics to establish a baseline signature or to check the mechanical condition of machinery are measured under which of the following operative conditions?Not learned 900. Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the one that correctly represents the right side view of the unnumbered object in the illustrationNot learned 901. If water continues to flow excessively from the device shown in the illustration, the problem is most likely due to __________Not learned 902. If water continues to trickle into the toilet bowl after the device shown in the illustration has apparently closed, the problem is likely due to __________Not learned 903. The working depth of the gear illustrated is represented by __________Not learned 904. What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"Not learned 905. What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in operationNot learned 906. How would the illustrated valve respond to a complete loss of charge from the remote bulb-to-control diaphragm power element if the valve is used as a temperature control valve for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heaterNot learned 907. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?Not learned 908. The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 909. The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 910. Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator coil outlet of a refrigeration system or unit by the action of what device?Not learned 911. In a refrigeration system that is not protected by a water failure switch, if the cooling water to the condenser fails, what will be the result for protective purposes?Not learned 912. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in place by what means?Not learned 913. The sensing line for the low-pressure cut-out switch for a refrigeration system is typically connected at what location?Not learned 914. If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gauge indicating zero psig and the water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________Not learned 915. How is accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system prevented?Not learned 916. The rudder torque capacity of the four-ram steering gear illustrated, is rated at 44,210,000 inch-pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four-ram system was able to be operated as a two-ram system with both power units on line, what would be the available torqueNot learned 917. In terms of ship construction framing methods, what statement is true concerning the longitudinal framing system?Not learned 918. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity-controlled compressor, when all of the evaporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston shown in the illustration will be at what valueNot learned 919. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?Not learned 920. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the summer outside air duct thermostatNot learned 921. Concerning air conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?Not learned