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Third Assistant Engineer (Steam-Motor-Gas Turbine Plants (Unlimited))
Q537 — Steam Plants I
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23
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Learning progress
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1. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) permit copper pipe to be used for steam service subjected to a maximum pressure and temperature of __________.
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2. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) regarding hydrostatic testing of main steam piping state that __________.
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3. The steam separator as used in conjunction with a steam whistle normally drains to which of the listed drain systems?
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4. The net positive suction head of a boiler centrifugal feed pump should be calculated over and above the __________.
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5. The leakage of air into the pump casing by way of the packing gland of a condensate pump, is prevented by __________.
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6. Which of the conditions listed could prevent a centrifugal condensate pump from developing its rated capacity?
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7. At a given pressure, erosion of steam piping and machinery will be minimized by utilizing __________.
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8. Which of the following systems can normally be supplied by auxiliary exhaust steam?
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9. The primary source of steam to the auxiliary exhaust system is typically supplied directly from __________.
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10. The turbo generator steam stop is located between the superheater outlet and the main steam stop valve to __________.
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11. The main steam stop valve on a "D" type marine boiler is located at the __________.
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12. What is the purpose of the main steam stop bypass valve?
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13. When two or more boilers provide steam flow to a common main steam line, each boiler main steam line shall be fitted with a main steam stop valve and a/an __________.
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14. Clean low-pressure steam drains are collected in the __________.
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15. From which of the areas listed are condensate drains normally collected and returned to the low-pressure drain system?
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16. The atmospheric drain tank (ADT) normally drains to the _______.
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17. High-pressure steam drains are normally discharged to the __________.
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18. Excessively hot water returning to an atmospheric drain tank indicates __________.
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19. Which of the listed systems would be a potential source for the high-pressure drain system?
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20. The contaminated drain system normally receives drains that may be exposed to __________.
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21. Which statement is true concerning drain inspection tanks?
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22. If live steam is supplied directly to the tank heating coils, the collected drains in the "clean" section of the contaminated drain inspection tank are removed directly to the __________.
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23. A contaminated steam generator is used to produce saturated vapor from collected __________.
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24. The purpose of a contaminated steam system is to __________.
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25. A basic comparison can be made between a low-pressure evaporator operation and a main condenser with regards to the removal of non-condensable gases. The vacuum drag line for the main condenser is specifically connected in which area?
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26. When condenser tube ends are rolled into both tube sheets, the different rates of material expansion are compensated for by utilizing __________.
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27. Condensate pumps have distinctly noticeable characteristics and can usually be recognized by their ______.
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28. Which statement listed represents a vital function of the main condenser?
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29. In a marine condenser designed with a reheating hot well, the hot well is reheated by __________.
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30. While underway, vacuum in the main condenser is primarily caused by the __________.
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31. A main condenser utilizing a scoop for the circulation of sea water must be constructed as a __________.
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32. If the main condenser were operating at a vacuum of 28.7"Hg, a condensate discharge temperature of 81°F, a seawater inlet temperature of 72°F, and a seawater outlet temperature of 79°F, what would be the condensate depression
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33. The differential temperature of the main condenser cooling water will be significantly affected by a change in __________.
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34. In a main propulsion steam turbine installation, the condensate pump initially discharges to the __________.
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35. Why does air entry into the main condenser reduce the efficiency of the steam cycle?
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36. Which of the water supplies listed below is typically used as a cooling medium for the gland exhaust condenser, intercondenser, and after condenser of an air ejector unit?
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37. The automatic recirculating valve in the main condensate recirculating line is controlled by a temperature sensor which is located at the __________.
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38. In a closed feed and water cycle, which of the conditions listed could prevent vacuum from reaching the desired level?
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39. Salt water contamination of condensate could occur at which component?
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40. Air accumulated in the after condenser of the air ejector unit is discharged directly to the __________.
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41. Air accumulated in the intercondenser of the air ejector assembly is discharged directly to the __________.
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42. While standing watch in the engine room, which of the following actions should be taken to reestablish a 'blown' air ejector loop seal?
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43. The loop seal connected to the main condenser returns the drains from the __________.
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44. Which statement is true concerning two-stage air ejector assemblies?
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45. Main condensate recirculating systems are primarily intended to __________.
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46. Serious tube leaks in the air ejector condenser assembly will cause __________.
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47. While vacuum is being raised on the main unit and the turbine is being warmed, condensate is recirculated to the main condenser to __________.
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48. What type of sensor is normally used with the automatic recirculating valve in the main condensate line?
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49. Scale in the air ejector first-stage nozzle could cause a decrease in the __________.
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50. Under normal conditions, the rate of heat transfer in a feedwater heater is most greatly affected by the __________.
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51. The feed water heater shown in the illustration was designed to maintain the required feed water outlet temperature with an approximate 10" Hg shell vacuum. If the shell vacuum is decreased to approximately 8" Hg vacuum, the __________
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52. Which of the components listed prevents water from flowing back into the auxiliary exhaust line if the deaerating feed tank becomes flooded?
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53. The DC Heater functions to __________.
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54. A high water level in a deaerating feed heater will cause the automatic dump valve to divert condensate to the __________.
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55. Cooling water to the vent condenser in a DC heater is supplied by the _______.
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56. Vent condensers are usually an integral part of deaerating feed heaters and serve to condense __________.
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57. To provide emergency feedwater supply to a steaming boiler, if it becomes necessary to secure the DC heater, suction should be taken on the distilled water tank using the __________.
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58. During cold ship start-up, you should open the feedwater outlet and condensate valves to a DC heater in order to __________.
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59. The purpose of the steam control valves installed in the auxiliary exhaust line is to __________.
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60. With the steam control valve wide open during normal operation, the rate of steam flow from the auxiliary exhaust steam line to the DC heater is actually a function of __________.
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61. If the DC heater relief valve lifts frequently, the cause can be excessive __________.
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62. The main boiler feed pump discharge is controlled by the admission of steam to the auxiliary turbine. The admission of steam is normally regulated by a __________.
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63. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the start-up operation of a non-condensing turbine-driven feed pump?
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64. During initial starting of the standby turbine-driven boiler feed pump, which of the listed valves should remain closed?
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65. If a centrifugal main feed pump were operated at shutoff head with the recirculating line closed, which of the following conditions could occur?
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66. A turbine-driven centrifugal feed pump used for boiler feed service should normally be stopped by __________.
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67. Which system should be tested and used when required to raise the water level in an idle boiler?
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68. Under EMERGENCY operating conditions with the main feed valve malfunctioning, what should be the proper valve positions for controlling feedwater to the boiler?
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69. The main feed check valve functions to __________.
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70. Which of the following is the advantage of operating a typical closed feedwater system for a marine boiler when compared to an open feedwater system?
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71. A boiler feed stop-valve must be mounted __________.
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72. The boiler main feed stop check valve is located nearest the __________.
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73. In the boiler steam and water system, pressure is highest in the __________.
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74. The pressure in the feedwater system must exceed boiler steam drum pressure in order to __________.
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75. If it is necessary to operate a turbine driven main feed pump at shut off head, or at less than 20% of its rated capacity, what will prevent the pump from overheating?
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76. Recirculation of the feedwater ensures a flow of water through the __________.
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77. To prevent pulsations from developing in the boiler feedwater lines, the discharge side of a reciprocating feed pump is equipped with a/an __________.
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78. Which of the devices listed is used to keep overheated condensate from flowing to the deaerating feed tank?
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79. Which of the listed components would be considered the dividing line separating the condensate system from the feedwater system?
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80. A salinity indicator cell is located in the __________.
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81. Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?
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82. The temperature of the fuel oil received during bunkering operations is critical in determining the __________.
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83. If it should become necessary to abandon a compartment because of the danger of a large steam leak on a boiler, which of the following actions represents the best avenue of escape?
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84. If a quantity of saturated steam consists of 90 percent steam and 10 percent moisture, the quality of the mixture is __________.
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85. Which type of energy conversion is associated with an operating steam boiler?
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86. Assume that steam has formed in a boiler in which all of the steam stop valves are closed, and the water level is held constant. When there is an increase in the temperature of the steam and water in the boiler, which of the following effects will occur on the pressure and the specific volume of the steam?
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87. Steam tables can be used to obtain the __________.
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88. In what section of a boiler would you find a steam quality of 90%?
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89. The best conductor of heat in a marine boiler is __________.
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90. As compared with a typical front fired boiler, which of the listed conditions represents an advantage of a top fired boiler?
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91. A natural circulation water-tube boiler, with one or more water drums, would be classified as a/an __________.
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92. That portion of the steam drum, containing a manhole for internal access to the drum, for the purpose of cleaning, inspecting, and carrying out repairs, is called the __________.
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93. Which of the following statements represents the primary function of handholes used on a boiler?
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94. Steam baffles are used in the steam drum of a water-tube boiler to __________.
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95. How is boiler water forced to circulate faster in accelerated natural circulation boilers as compared to free natural circulation boilers?
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96. Which of the stated pressure conditions identifies the boiler design pressure?
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97. The required number of pounds of steam generated per hour to develop contract shaft horsepower and maintain the specified pressures and temperatures in the plant, when divided by the number of installed boilers, will give the __________.
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98. Reaching which "end point" will result in the most severe damage to the boiler?
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99. The greatest deterrent to heat transfer from the fireside to the waterside of a boiler is __________.
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100. The advantage of installing waterwall tubes in a boiler furnace is to __________.
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101. The boiler shown in the illustration has its screen tubes connecting the steam drum and the component label '____'
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102. Which of the tube types listed can be considered to serve as downcomers at low firing rates, and as generating tubes at high firing rates on some boilers?
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103. In most marine boilers, the primary reason the first few rows of generating tubes, called screen or furnace row tubes, are made larger in diameter than the rest of the generating tubes is because __________.
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104. Which of the following statements represents the advantage of using a small diameter boiler tube over a larger diameter tube?
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105. The correct method of expanding a generating tube at the boiler drum tube sheet is to roll __________.
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106. Which of the following repairs should be made to a badly warped boiler tube?
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107. A hole should be made in the sagged tube occurring in a water-tube boiler, prior to plugging the tube to prevent a __________.
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108. Which of the following problems can occur when an excessive number of water screen tubes are plugged?
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109. The MOST common cause of heat blisters developing on boiler generating tubes is due to __________.
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110. What is the cause of "laning" in a boiler tube bank?
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111. An advantage of using boiler furnace studded water wall tubes packed with refractory is that __________.
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112. A corbel is used in a boiler furnace to __________.
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113. The useful life of furnace refractory is affected most by __________.
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114. Boiler refractory previously baked out and fired is most sensitive to __________.
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115. Which of the listed refractory materials is capable of providing structural stability?
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116. Which of the following statements represents the function of insulating brick?
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117. To assure a long service life for boiler refractory materials after installation, the most effective method is to __________.
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118. When drying and baking are impractical, or time is not available, which of the listed materials could be used to repair both burner openings and gas baffles?
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119. To make temporary emergency repairs to brickwork in a boiler furnace, which of the materials listed should be used?
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120. Slag buildup on boiler furnace refractory is undesirable because it causes __________.
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121. Which of the conditions listed occurs when glassy slag, formed by the burning of fuel oil contaminated with salt water, melts and runs over the furnace wall?
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122. Radial cracks have developed in the castable refractory of the burner cones after the first firing since the installation of new furnace front refractory. This is an indication of __________.
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123. Which of the following conditions is indicated by an external bulge or bowed area of the boiler furnace wall?
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124. Boiler furnace brickwork can be fractured and broken by thermal shock caused by __________.
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125. Where is the "dry pipe" located in a boiler?
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126. Which of the following statements represents one operational characteristic of a cyclone steam separator?
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127. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), main propulsion water-tube boilers are not required to be fitted with a surface blow-off valve if the design pressure is which of the following?
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128. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), feed water nozzles shall be fitted with sleeves, or have other suitable means employed to reduce the effects of temperature differentials on all boilers designed for operating pressures of __________.
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129. Which of the following locations could desuperheated steam be considered to occur?
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130. The primary purpose of a control desuperheater installed in the steam drum of a boiler is to __________.
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131. Which of the following would indicate a moderate leak in the desuperheater?
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132. A leak in a desuperheater could be indicated by an __________.
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133. The purpose of the boiler drum air cock is to __________.
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134. Which of the following is the best reason for opening the air cock when draining a water-tube boiler?
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135. Desuperheated steam can be found at the __________.
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136. After a boiler has been taken off the line and is cooling, the air cock is opened to __________.
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137. After which of the following is the air cock to be closed when raising steam on a cold boiler?
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138. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following is classified as a boiler mounting?
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139. A nozzle reaction safety valve will lift at a pressure lower than required if the __________.
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140. A boiler safety valve must be capable of __________.
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141. A boiler accumulation test is used to measure the __________.
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142. Proper bracing and support of the boiler safety valve escape piping is necessary to __________.
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143. On a boiler equipped with pilot actuated safety valves, which of the valves listed will be actuated first?
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144. One of the important functions of the superheater safety valves is to __________.
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145. Which of the precautions listed should be taken when gagging a boiler safety valve?
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146. When installing new safety valve escape piping, precautions should include assuring that __________.
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147. While your vessel is underway at normal speed, a steam drum safety valve develops a significant leak. Your first corrective action should be to __________.
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148. Coast Guard regulations require that the relieving capacity of boiler safety valves must be checked __________.
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149. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit repairs and adjustments to boiler safety valves while installed on a main propulsion boiler and may be made by ________.
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150. Coast Guard Regulations, 46 CFR Part 54, require steam safety and relief valves to be provided with a substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disc from its seat at what percentage of the set pressure?
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151. If the maximum steam generating capacity of a boiler is increased, 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering) requires that the safety valve's __________.
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152. The MAWP of a boiler is 900 psi and the normal drop across the superheater is 20 psi. If the superheater safety valve is set to lift at 825 psi, the minimum settings of the drum safety valves allowed by Coast Guard Regulations would be _______.
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153. A boiler superheater safety valve is set to lift at 450 psi (3102 kPa). Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that if there is a pressure drop of 10 psi (69 kPa) across the superheater, the drum safety valve should set to lift at a pressure of __________.
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154. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) concerning superheater safety valves require that the valve __________.
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155. The safety valve nominal size for propulsion boilers and superheaters must be not less than 1 1/2 inches and not more than 4 inches. The term 'nominal size' refers to the __________.
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156. A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to __________.
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157. The process of breaking up fuel oil into fine particles to ensure good combustion is called __________.
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158. In addition to a nozzle, a fuel oil atomizer uses which of the listed parts?
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159. The primary purpose of the sprayer plate in a mechanical atomizing oil burner is to __________.
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160. What is indicated by the code number 32Y20 stamped on a burner sprayer plate?
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161. Which atomizing sprayer plate has the largest capacity?
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162. The number '29' on a fuel oil burner sprayer plate marked '2909' indicates the __________.
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163. The last two digits stamped on a fuel oil atomizer sprayer plate represents the cross-sectional area ratios of the tangential slots and orifice. This ratio determines the __________.
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164. To obtain the best mixing of air and fuel with a fuel oil atomizer, you need to adjust the __________.
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165. The amount of oil atomized by a straight mechanical fuel oil burner depends on the sprayer plate size and the __________.
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166. Boilers equipped with steam atomizers can operate over a wide load range without cutting burners in and out because __________.
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167. In most installations, the firing rate of a boiler using steam atomization is indicated by the __________.
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168. In a steam assist atomizer, the fuel oil/steam mix takes place entirely within the __________.
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169. Compared to the return flow oil burner system, an internally mixed steam atomizer requires __________.
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170. In a steam assist fuel oil atomizer, the steam pressure is higher than the oil pressure at __________.
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171. Which of the following procedures represents the proper care of unused burners during low load conditions?
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172. Boiler fuel oil atomizer parts should be cleaned by soaking in 'tip cleaner' or diesel fuel and __________.
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173. To properly remove the burner tip nut from the burner barrel, the barrel should be __________.
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174. If the temperature of the fuel oil entering an atomizer is too low, the burner will __________.
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175. Accumulation of fuel oil in the boiler double casing could be caused by __________.
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176. Fluctuations in the atomizing steam pressure at the burners could be caused by a/an __________.
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177. In a multi-burner firebox, a burner tip with a worn and enlarged orifice will __________.
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178. Excessive accumulation of carbon deposits on a boiler burner throat ring and diffuser could result in __________.
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179. When preparing to light off a cold boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system, the recirculating valve directs the flow of oil __________.
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180. Which of the following statements describes how the fuel oil enters the whirling chambers of the sprayer plates used in an auxiliary boiler return flow fuel oil system?
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181. The entire unit which houses the burner, air scoop, air doors and bladed cone is correctly called the __________.
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182. Which of the following represents the function of the diffuser used with a mechanical atomizing oil burner?
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183. In an air register assembly, the majority of air passes through the __________.
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184. What is the purpose of the movable air doors in an air register?
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185. Throttling the burner air register of a lit burner could result in __________.
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186. Which of the conditions listed can cause the flame of a mechanically atomized burner to be blown away from the burner tip when you are attempting to light off?
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187. The purpose of the cam-actuated steam valve used in a boiler soot blower system, is to __________.
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188. Scavenging air is supplied to steam sootblower elements to __________.
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189. Before using a boiler compressed air soot blower system, you should __________.
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190. If a soot blower element does not revolve freely, the most likely cause would be __________.
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191. Which of the following conditions must exist before the superheating of saturated steam can occur in a steam propulsion boiler?
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192. In a boiler equipped with a convection type superheater, the superheater tubes are located __________.
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193. Boiler superheaters are designed to __________.
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194. Which of the types of superheaters listed has the flattest superheat temperature curve?
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195. If a pressure drop does not exist across the superheater in a steaming boiler __________.
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196. A heavy accumulation of soot on the fireside of the superheater can cause a __________.
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197. After steam has been raised and a boiler is being placed on the line, the superheater vent can be closed when __________.
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198. The superheater vents should always be open when __________.
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199. Under otherwise normal steaming conditions, an abnormally high temperature at the superheater outlet of a single furnace boiler would indicate __________.
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200. When answering a full astern bell from half ahead, the superheater outlet temperature on a single furnace boiler will __________.
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201. If there is a sudden drop in the outlet temperature of an uncontrolled superheater, you should __________.
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202. Which of the listed conditions can cause high superheater outlet steam temperature in an automated boiler?
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203. Damaging scale can form on the interior of superheater tubes as a result of __________.
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204. Which of the following statements represents the Coast Guard Regulation regarding a boiler installation in which the superheater outlet temperature exceeds 850°F?
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205. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) concerning marine boilers, require the installation of a safety valve on the __________.
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206. The phrase 'boiler water column' as defined in the regulations, refers to the __________.
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207. The glass used in a flat-type boiler water gage is protected from the hot steam and water by a/an __________.
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208. Bi-color water level indicators, connected directly to the boiler drum, operate on the principle of __________.
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209. Which of the following actions, if any, should be taken if the water gage glass on a steaming boiler breaks?
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210. You are standing watch in the engine room of a steam vessel. You should blow down a gauge glass periodically to __________.
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211. In the absence of the manufacturer's instructions, a good procedure in reassembling a high-pressure boiler gauge glass is to tighten the nuts in pairs and __________.
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212. If the engineer on watch has reason to doubt the accuracy of the water level showing in the boiler gauge glass, he should FIRST __________.
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213. An obstruction in the top connection of a boiler gage glass will cause the __________.
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214. Which type of feed water regulator listed provides the MOST effective regulation of boiler water level under all operating conditions?
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215. A two-element boiler feedwater regulator is controlled by __________.
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216. The two-element feedwater regulator functions similarly to the three-element feedwater regulator but does not utilize __________.
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217. A pneumatic dual element, main propulsion, boiler feedwater regulating system commonly used aboard ship utilizes __________.
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218. A single element boiler feedwater regulating system used aboard ship utilizes __________.
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219. The boiler feedwater control valve varies the unity relationship between steam and water flow during periods of __________.
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220. In the event of a failure of the pneumatic control system, a multi-element feedwater regulator is designed to operate as a _________.
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221. A major difference between the two-element and the three-element feedwater regulator control systems, is that a three-element system will additionally measure and incorporate the __________.
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222. If the theoretical quantity of dry air required to burn one pound of fuel oil is 13.75 pounds, what is the weight of air per pound of fuel when operating a boiler at 5% excess air?
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223. If the stack temperature is higher than normal, this could indicate __________.
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224. Which of the terms listed represents the ratio between the highest and lowest fuel oil pressure at which the burners will remain ignited?
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225. Which of the following represents the proper color of the flame end farthest from the boiler burner during normal operations?
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226. If a boiler is smoking black and increasing the boiler front air box pressure does not reduce the smoke, the cause can be __________.
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227. Which color burner flame would indicate too much excess air?
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228. The greatest single overall loss of efficiency in a marine propulsion steam plant cycle results from __________.
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229. Lower boiler efficiency results from carrying too much excess air because __________.
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230. Insufficient combustion air supply to the furnace would cause __________.
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231. In a boiler furnace, incomplete combustion due to insufficient air yields an excess amount of __________.
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232. Insufficient combustion air supply will cause an atomizer flame to appear as a __________.
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233. Insufficient air for combustion in a boiler furnace could result in a __________.
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234. A higher than normal stack gas temperature could indicate __________.
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235. Before an explosion can occur in a boiler furnace, there must be an accumulation of unburned fuel, sufficient air to form an explosive mixture, and a __________.
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236. If an analysis of boiler flue gas determines there is no excess air for combustion, you should expect the nitrogen content of the flue gas to be approximately __________.
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237. A flue gas analysis is performed to determine the __________.
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238. Assuming all burners are clean and the fuel oil is at the correct temperature, it is considered good practice to adjust the excess air until a light brown haze is obtained. With the aid of a chemical based flue gas analyzer, the percentage readings (not necessarily in order) should indicate __________.
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239. A mechanical carbon dioxide recorder operates by detecting the difference between air and the __________.
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240. Generally, a 12% to 14% content of carbon dioxide in boiler flue gases indicates __________.
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241. When testing boiler flue gas with a chemical absorption apparatus, to obtain accurate results __________.
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242. The absence of carbon monoxide in the flue gas of a boiler indicates __________.
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243. Which of the following chemicals is used in an Orsat apparatus to absorb carbon dioxide?
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244. As the percentage of CO2 in the stack gas decreases, you can assume that __________.
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245. If the flue gas oxygen content is too high, you should __________.
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246. All oil-fired main propulsion burners with automatic safety control systems must automatically close the burner valve when _________.
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247. A combustion control system diaphragm type air flow transmitter receives its high pressure signal from the boiler __________.
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248. Fine adjustments to a boiler combustion control system, to bring about near perfect combustion, should be made by manually adjusting the __________.
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249. In an automatically fired boiler, the steam pressure regulator controls the supply of fuel oil to the burners by responding to variations in the __________.
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250. In automated boiler operations, a dirty flame scanner will most likely result in __________.
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251. When the flame scanner senses flame failure during boiler operation, which of the listed events will occur FIRST?
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252. A flame scanner installed in modern boiler combustion control systems, functions to __________.
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253. Which of the following represents a significant system limitation to be aware of when a burner management system is operated in the "HAND" mode?
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254. In automatic combustion control systems, increasing or decreasing a loading pressure by a set amount is called __________.
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255. While your vessel is steaming with one boiler, the automatic combustion control system sensing line for the idle boiler is accidentally opened. How will this affect the steaming boiler?
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256. Modern day boiler automation allows bypassing the "flame safeguard" system to permit a burner to have a "trial for ignition" period during burner light-off. This period may not exceed ______.
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257. In a boiler automation system, if a burner fuel oil solenoid valve continually trips closed under normal steaming conditions, you should __________.
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258. In a regenerative air heater, air is bypassed around the heater while __________.
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259. Boiler fuel savings gained by the use of an economizer can amount to __________.
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260. The boiler economizer provides additional heat to the __________.
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261. Which of the conditions listed could cause steam formation in the economizer?
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262. The minimum feedwater inlet temperature to a boiler economizer is determined by the __________.
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263. Which of the conditions listed could cause a boiler economizer to leak?
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264. Which of the conditions listed would indicate excessive soot buildup on the economizer?
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265. Which of the valves listed should be closed before lighting off a boiler?
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266. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the design pressure of an economizer integral with the boiler and connected to the boiler drum without intervening stop valves shall be at least equal to __________.
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267. The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.
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268. Which of the significant combustible elements of fuel oil is a major source of boiler corrosion?
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269. Which combustible element in fuel oil is considered a significant and major source of air pollution?
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270. Which constituent of fuel oil determines the specific heat?
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271. When heated, fuel oil will __________.
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272. The most harmful slag forming compounds found in fuel oils are __________.
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273. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), what is the minimum flash point of oil to be used as fuel for the boilers?
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274. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to determine the highest temperature to which the oil may be heated __________.
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275. The minimum temperature requirements for fuel oil in storage tanks is related to the _________.
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276. Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?
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277. Using an oil temperature-viscosity chart, you can determine the recommended __________.
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278. The viscosity of a residual fuel oil is measured in Saybolt __________.
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279. If oil is found in the main fuel oil heater steam drain system, which of the actions listed should be taken first?
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280. When you are transferring fuel oil to the settling tanks, precautions to be observed should include __________.
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281. Which of the pumps listed takes fuel oil suction from the double bottom tanks and discharges it to the settling tanks?
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282. Fuel oil is transferred to the settling tanks for __________.
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283. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST when water is found in the fuel oil settling tank?
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284. Pumps normally used for fuel oil service are __________.
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285. Which precaution should be observed to prevent damage to the fuel oil service pump when warming up the fuel service system?
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286. All fuel oil service pumps are equipped with a __________.
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287. The relief valve on the discharge side of the fuel oil service pump may discharge directly to the suction side of the pump, or to the __________.
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288. The boiler fuel oil service pump normally takes suction from the __________.
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289. In the majority of marine power plants, the fuel oil heater installations are divided into several units because __________.
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290. Strainers are installed in boiler fuel oil service lines to __________.
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291. When warming up a fuel oil service system, you should open the steam supply to the fuel oil heaters __________.
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292. The valve located between the fuel oil header and the burner valve is known as the __________.
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293. The advantage of a counterflow fuel oil heater, as compared to a parallel flow fuel oil heater, is that the counterflow heater __________.
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294. The fins on the tubes of a fin type fuel oil heater are provided to __________.
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295. Fuel oil solenoid valves at the burner fronts should be of the manual reset type to __________.
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296. Why should the fuel oil be recirculated before lighting off a cold boiler?
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297. Condensate accumulation in the steam side of a fuel oil heater could result in __________.
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298. The rate of fouling on the oil side of a fuel oil heater is inversely related to the __________.
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299. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require the duplex fuel oil discharge strainers installed in boiler fuel oil service systems to be __________.
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300. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) require that new fuel oil service piping between pumps and burners be subjected to __________.
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301. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that quick-closing valves on a fuel oil service system should be installed as close as is practicable to the __________.
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302. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) all fuel oil service piping in the vicinity of the burners must __________.
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303. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), which of the following is permitted in boiler fuel oil service system discharge piping?
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304. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) for boiler fuel oil service systems require __________.
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305. In the prevention of moisture carryover from a marine boiler, one important consideration is to __________.
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306. Oil accumulation in boiler water would __________.
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307. Which of the following statements describes the effects that dissolved oxygen has on boiler internal surfaces with changes in temperature and pressure?
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308. Which of the listed conditions will always result in dissolved oxygen being carried over from the main condenser?
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309. A malfunction in the DC heater is indicated by __________.
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310. Excessive carbon dioxide formed by improper chemical treatment in the boiler may cause corrosion in the __________.
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311. As the pH of the boiler water approaches zero, the water becomes increasingly __________.
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312. Phenolphthalein is used as an indicator to test boiler water for __________.
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313. The amount of sodium phosphate in treated boiler water can be measured by a/an __________.
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314. Testing boiler water for chloride content will indicate the amount of __________.
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315. Boiler water samples should be circulated through a cooling coil prior to analysis because __________.
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316. A sample of boiler water can be chemically tested for alkalinity by initially adding a few drops of phenolphthalein and then slowly titrating the water sample until the __________.
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317. Normally a boiler water sample should be taken __________.
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318. 8 ounces of oxygen, dissolved in 500,000 pounds of water, is a concentration of __________.
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319. A dissolved oxygen concentration of 8.0 ppm represents __________.
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320. Ferrous sulfate tends to go into solution in boiler water when the value of the hydrogen ion concentration increases. Consequently, the water in a 900 psi boiler should be _______.
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321. A boiler with a water capacity of 10 tons, generates steam at the rate of 30 tons per hour. If the feed water concentration of solids was initially 0.5 PPM, and will increase at a rate of 1.5 ppm every hour, what would be the increase in the feed water concentration of solids after 24 hours?
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322. The concentration of total dissolved solids in the boiler water can increase as a result of __________.
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323. What boiler water chemistry is necessary to ensure the precipitation of hard scale forming calcium?
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324. Scale prevention in boiler water is accomplished by adding treatment chemicals to __________.
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325. Calcium minerals in boiler water are precipitated out of solution by the use of which of the listed chemicals?
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326. Dissolved oxygen can be removed from the boiler water by __________.
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327. Treatment of boiler feedwater for the control of hardness is necessary to prevent __________.
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328. An adequate phosphate reserve should be maintained in boiler water to __________.
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329. Excessive foaming in a steaming boiler can cause damage to the __________.
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330. The major reason dissolved gases are removed from boiler feedwater is because they may cause __________.
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331. To minimize metal corrosion, boiler water is best kept __________.
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332. Excessive alkalinity of boiler water will cause ________.
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333. Boiler water hardness is increased by __________.
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334. Carbon dioxide dissolved in boiler water is dangerous in a modern power boiler because the gas __________.
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335. Why are hard scale deposits on the inside of boiler tubes most objectionable?
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336. The bottom blow valve on a water-tube boiler is usually attached to the __________.
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337. Before giving a boiler a bottom blow, it should be taken off the line and then the __________.
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338. Proper use of the boiler surface blow will __________.
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339. Which of the listed methods can be used to blow down a boiler without securing the fires?
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340. Most marine main boilers are designed to produce __________.
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341. When a propulsion boiler is removed from service for an extended period, why should the firesides be thoroughly dried after water washing?
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342. Which procedure should be followed to dry out the fireside of a boiler after water washing?
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343. Improper water washing of the water-tube boiler firesides can cause __________.
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344. When cleaning the inside surfaces of the boiler tubes of a water-tube boiler with a powered rotary brush, the brush should be kept in motion to __________.
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345. Which of the listed operating practices is considered as safe, and should be followed when opening and inspecting the waterside of a boiler?
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346. One boiler of a two-boiler plant has ruptured a tube, and the water cannot be maintained in sight in the gauge glass. After securing the fires, your next action should be to __________.
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347. Which of the following actions should be carried out if the boiler water level is falling due to a tube failure?
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348. Boiler tube failures can result from __________.
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349. Oil or scale deposits on boiler tube walls will cause __________.
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350. If a boiler tube bank baffle carries away, or burns through, there will be __________.
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351. If while filling the boiler a newly installed gasket on a water-tube hand-hole plate weeps, you should __________.
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352. If manual control of the water level in a steaming boiler is required, the proper method of control is with the auxiliary feed __________.
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353. If one burner of a group of operating steam atomizing burners in a steaming boiler is cut out, the register doors for that burner should be __________.
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354. When firing a boiler in local manual control, an increase in boiler load must be accompanied by a/an __________.
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355. Which of the actions listed should be carried out immediately after securing the fires in one boiler of a two- boiler ship?
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356. Which of the following statements about boilers is correct?
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357. A boiler is to be secured in port. After the burners have been secured, the forced draft fan and air registers should be secured __________.
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358. When a boiler has been secured and is being initially cooled, the water level showing in the steam drum gauge glass should be __________.
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359. What is the danger if a boiler is brought on the line with its steam pressure much higher than that of the boiler already on the line?
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360. When raising steam on a cold boiler under normal conditions, you should always __________.
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361. The time taken to raise steam on a cold boiler should always be __________.
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362. When raising steam on an idle boiler and the steam pressure has risen to about 5 pounds more than the pressure of the boiler already on the line, you can __________.
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363. When preparing to cut a boiler in on the line, you determine that the steam pressure of the incoming boiler is about 5 psig above line pressure. Which of the following steps should you take next?
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364. Prior to lighting a burner in a cold boiler, you should __________.
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365. Which of the following precautions should be taken prior to lighting off a boiler?
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366. When increasing the firing rate of a boiler, which of the following should be carried out FIRST?
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367. Which of the following items should be checked each time the firing rate or forced draft pressure is adjusted?
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368. Lower than normal steam pressure in an operating boiler may be caused by __________.
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369. If the water level in one boiler of a two-boiler plant rapidly falls out of sight, which of the following actions should be carried out FIRST?
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370. The water level in a steaming boiler has risen to within 2 inches from the top of the gauge glass. Your immediate action should be to __________.
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371. After restoring the normal water level in a boiler following a high water casualty, you should __________.
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372. When a boiler flareback occurs, you should __________.
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373. If a major flareback occurs to a boiler, which of the following actions should be immediately taken?
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374. Water in the fuel supply to a steaming boiler can be detected by __________.
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375. A water-tube boiler can be laid up either wet or dry. If it is to be laid up wet, you should __________.
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376. In a boiler equipped with an automatic feed water regulator, erratic variations in the steam drum water level could be caused by __________.
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377. If boiler water chemicals are decreasing in one boiler and increasing in the other boiler, while both are steaming at normal rates, a leak probably exists in the __________.
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378. Which of the following statements is true concerning boiler inspections?
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379. When preparing to hydrostatically test water-tube boilers, you should __________.
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380. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following steam piping conditions, subjected to main boiler pressure, is exempted from hydrostatic testing?
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381. Which of the Coast Guard publications listed contain the information regarding allowable repairs to boilers installed on cargo vessels?
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382. The gland exhaust fan draws steam and non-condensable vapors from the gland exhaust condenser and discharges to the __________.
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383. Which of the listed conditions aids in directing gland leakoff steam from the low-pressure propulsion turbine to pass through the gland exhaust condenser?
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384. If a ship is to be laid up for an indefinite period, the steam side of the main condenser should be __________.
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385. If a salinity alarm system indicates 2.5 grains per gallon at the main condensate pump discharge, your first action should be to __________.
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386. While maneuvering out of port, you answer a stop bell. You notice a lot of steam coming out of the gland exhaust condenser vent, in addition to the main condenser hotwell level being low. For this condition you should __________.
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387. Which steam plant watch operating condition requires priority attention over the other conditions listed?
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388. The level of the contaminated drain inspection tank continually decreases when steam is admitted to a fuel oil double bottom tank. You can expect __________.
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389. While underway on watch in the engine room of a steam vessel, the proper valve positions for controlling feedwater to the boiler using the auxiliary feed system should be __________.
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390. If one fuel oil strainer of a duplex unit becomes clogged while the vessel is steaming at sea, the FIRST action should be to __________.
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391. Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________.
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392. The purpose of the separating nozzle in the accumulator of a water-tube, coil-type, steam generator is to separate __________.
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393. Large steam drums are not required in the design of a coil-type auxiliary water-tube boiler because __________.
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394. The gauge glass on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is connected to the __________.
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395. Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct?
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396. The rate of heat transfer in a water-tube auxiliary boiler can be increased by __________.
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397. Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to _______.
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398. Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boilers are protected from direct contact with hot gases by __________.
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399. The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by _________.
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400. Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to ________.
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401. Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming loads on a boiler, are __________.
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402. The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.
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403. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), which of the following statements is true concerning the inspection of water-tube boilers?
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404. Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of a fire-tube type auxiliary boiler approaches the crown sheet?
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405. Why should the main steam stop valve of an auxiliary boiler be eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off?
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406. A photoelectric cell is installed in an oil fired boiler safeguard system to introduce proper resistance values to the electronic control circuit. This device is primarily sensitive to __________.
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407. Combustion control systems on automatic boilers are designed to prevent immediate burner ignition after a normal or safety shutdown in order to allow time for __________.
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408. If an automatically fired burner ignites, but repeatedly goes out within two seconds, the cause could be a/an __________.
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409. When the steam pressure drops below a set value on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with rotary cup atomizers, the combustion control system will __________.
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410. The solenoid valves in the fuel oil supply line to an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, are automatically closed by __________.
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411. The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent what condition?
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412. Which of the listed sequence of events occurs when an automatic auxiliary boiler is pre-purged?
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413. During unsafe firing conditions in a large automatic auxiliary boiler, various control actuators are interlocked with the burner circuit to prevent start-up, in addition to safety shutdown. These controls are referred to as __________.
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414. The pressuretrol which is installed on an auxiliary boiler senses steam pressure changes and __________.
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415. Which of the following actions takes place in the control circuit of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler when the desired steam pressure is obtained?
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416. Which of the automatic boiler controls listed should be tested prior to lighting off an auxiliary boiler?
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417. Steam drum water level indicators must be calibrated to compensate for density differences between the indicated drum water level, and the actual drum water level. If no compensation is made, the indicator will show a __________.
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418. While trying to light off a burner on a semi-automated boiler, you note that the fuel oil solenoid valve at the burner will not stay open. Which of the following conditions could cause this problem?
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419. The boiler shown in the illustration would be classed as __________
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420. (1.2.15-9) On US flag steam propulsion vessels, the main reason for having a low suction line on the fuel oil service or settling tanks is to accomplish which of the following?
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421. With an increase in the saturation pressure of a fluid, the value represented by line "5" on the graph will __________
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422. A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler burner management system __________.
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423. With reference to the chart, if a boiler generates saturated steam at 385.3 psig, how much heat per pound was required to change the water into steam if the feedwater temperature was initially 220°F
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424. When vapor is in contact with and remains at the same temperature as the boiling liquid from which it was generated, the vapor and liquid are said to be in which of the following?
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425. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the final setting of boiler safety valves be conducted in presence of the __________.
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426. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the correct sequential order of heat exchangers that the main condensate pump pumps condensate through
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427. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "air door handle"
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428. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "air doors"
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429. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "diffuser"
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430. According to the illustration, what part number identifies the "igniter"
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431. According to the illustration of a typical boiler furnace rear wall, which item number would best represent "standard firebrick"
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432. Which action should be taken if the water level in the boiler gauge glass drops out of sight and the burners fail to secure automatically?
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433. Although accurate tests of boiler water for dissolved oxygen are difficult to obtain onboard ship, you can be fairly certain of proper oxygen removal by __________.
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434. Arrow "B" shown in the illustration indicates the __________
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435. Auxiliary steam at full operating pressure is supplied from the boiler directly to the __________.
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436. To avoid acid corrosion of the economizer tubes when blowing tubes __________.
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437. Before blowing tubes in a boiler equipped with steam sootblowers, you should __________.
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438. When a boiler economizer is fitted with a valved bypass, Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require which of the following devices to be installed?
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439. If a boiler generates saturated steam at 75.3 psig, how much heat is required to change the water into steam if the feedwater temperature is 220°F
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440. A boiler internal feed pipe is perforated to __________.
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441. On a boiler safety valve, the blowdown adjusting ring is locked in place by a __________.
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442. In the boiler shown in the illustration, the arrow "E" indicates a __________
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443. The boiler shown in the illustration, arrow "O" indicates the __________
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444. The boiler superheater shown in the illustration is a/an __________
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445. In a boiler water gauge glass, a ball check valve is installed on the __________.
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446. The boiler water gauge glasses should be blown down __________.
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447. When a boiler water test indicates a pH value of 6, you should __________.
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448. The boiler wrapper sheet, shown in the illustration, is indicated by arrow __________
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449. When burning fuel oil in a boiler, a high CO2 content is desired in the stack gas because __________.
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450. The Butterworth heater shown in the illustration receives steam at approximately __________
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451. A check valve is located between the economizer and the steam drum to __________.
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452. Chemicals are added to boiler water to __________.
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453. Circulation of water and the steam/water mixture within a natural circulation boiler is retarded by __________.
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454. In a coil-type forced circulation water-tube boiler, __________.
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455. The component labeled "F" as shown in the illustration is __________
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456. The component lettered "J" shown in the illustration serves as a __________
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457. Which of the conditions listed may be indicated by the lifting of the DC heater relief valve?
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458. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________
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459. Control of the fuel oil metering valve in an automatically fired boiler is accomplished by a __________.
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460. Deaeration of condensate primarily occurs in what section of the illustration shown
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461. Which of the devices listed is indicated by arrow "H" shown in the illustration
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462. Which of the devices listed is shown in the boiler illustration
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463. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________
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464. When excessive static boiler pressure has resulted in the initial lift of the valve disc, a huddling chamber safety valve will continue to lift open as a result of ___________,
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465. The feedwater heater shown in the illustration is actually comprised of three separately functioning heat exchangers. These heat exchangers are identified as the __________
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466. Which of the following statements concerning boiler steam drum surface blow piping is correct?
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467. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of the level or drain regulator associated with the feed water heater shown in the illustration is correct
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468. Which of the following statements represents the function of a turbine gland exhaust condenser?
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469. Which of the following statements is true concerning the piping system shown in the illustration
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470. As found in a basic pneumatic automatic combustion control system, the function of a standardizing relay is to __________.
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471. The function of item "E" shown in the illustration is to __________
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472. When heated, brickwork in a boiler is kept from buckling by the installation of __________.
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473. The illustrated burner atomizer assembly is __________
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474. With an increase in the saturation pressure of a fluid, the value represented by line "5" on the graph will __________
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475. The intermediate pressure bleed steam system, shown in the illustration, is used to supply steam at approximately __________
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476. The items labeled "D" in the illustration are the __________
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477. The items labeled "D" and "M" as indicated on the illustration are commonly called ________
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478. A leaky fuel oil heater relief valve could be indicated by an increase in the __________.
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479. Which of the listed types of safety valves is shown in the illustration
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480. The main purpose of the boiler steam drum component shown in the illustration is to __________
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481. Many steam plants are designed so that diesel oil can be provided to the burners when __________.
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482. Why is it necessary to have a relief valve protect the deaerating feed tank from internal pressure?
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483. One factor for determining the minimum feedwater inlet temperature to a boiler economizer is the __________.
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484. When operating with the auxiliary feed line, feed water flow is controlled __________.
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485. Originally steam ship f/o service and settling tanks were designed with only a high suction and a low suction and no other valves. What was the purpose of the low suction?
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486. Overheating of the generating tubes will occur when a boiler reaches its end point of __________.
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487. Which piping system is described in the illustration provided
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488. Which of the piping systems listed is shown in the illustration
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489. Poor atomization accompanied by an elongated flame from a steam atomization burner is MOST likely caused by __________.
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490. The popping pressure of the safety valve, shown in the illustration, is controlled by the __________
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491. To prevent a small plastic refractory wall patch repair from falling into the furnace of a boiler, you should __________.
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492. What is the primary operational difference between a nozzle reaction safety valve and a huddling chamber safety valve?
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493. To properly blowdown a boiler gage glass, you should __________.
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494. The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy, is known as its __________.
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495. The purpose of the mica used in a boiler water gauge glass assembly is to prevent __________.
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496. The purpose of the pressure control disk installed in the multi-nozzle soot blower, as shown in the illustration, is to __________
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497. When raising steam on a boiler, the superheater drains should __________.
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498. After routine blowing of tubes at sea, there should be a decrease in the __________.
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499. To safely decrease the boiler firing rate, you should always reduce the fuel pressure __________.
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500. A secondary function of the refractory installed in a marine boiler is to __________.
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501. A slight vacuum is maintained in the shell of the first stage heater shown in the illustration. The primary reason for the vacuum is to __________
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502. Steam assist fuel atomizers are converted to straight mechanical atomizers in order to __________.
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503. Where is the superheater located in the boiler shown in the illustration
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504. In the system illustrated the valves at point "A" are __________
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505. A triple element, main propulsion, boiler feedwater regulating system commonly used aboard ship utilizes __________.
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506. In a D-type boiler, which of the tubes listed would be located in the generating tube bank?
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507. A unit of measure used to express the chloride content of boiler water is __________.
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508. The unit shown in the illustration is used as the __________
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509. Valve "H" shown in the illustration, functions to __________
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510. While the vessel is rolling in heavy seas, the level in the boiler gauge glass remains steady, this is an indication that __________.
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511. The purpose of a "peep" hole in the boiler casing is to _________.
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512. According to the data given in illustration, which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 28.09 inches Hg, and 117.99 degrees Fahrenheit
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513. If a boiler generates saturated steam at 125.3 psig, how much heat is required to change the water into steam if the feed water temperature is 240°F
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514. According to the data given in the illustration, which of the following would be the physical state of the fluid at a gauge vacuum of 29.00 inches Hg, and 85.21 degrees Fahrenheit
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