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Chief Engineer (Motor Plants (MODU))
Q750 — General Subjects
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1. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "where a bilge pocket requires pumping out" serve in the objective statement?
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2. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable cause
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3. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.
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4. Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in __________.
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5. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.
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6. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the __________.
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7. When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be __________.
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8. How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on hydraulic systems?
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9. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil __________.
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10. Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of __________.
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11. A hydraulic system gear pump being fed from a reservoir frequently indicates signs of excessive pitting after two months of service. Which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?
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12. What do hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, changeover valves, used in a two-ram hydraulic steering gear accomplish?
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13. As shown in the illustrated adaptive digital steering control system functional block diagram and listed system interface signals table, what would the rudder order signal output voltage to the rudder servo amplifier be for a rudder order of 20 degrees left rudder, assuming left rudder signals are negative and right order signals are positive in polarity
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14. As shown in the illustrated adaptive digital steering control system functional block diagram and listed system interface signals table, what would the rudder order signal output voltage to the rudder servo amplifier be for a rudder order of 15 degrees right rudder, assuming left rudder signals are negative and right order signals are positive in polarity
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15. Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true?
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16. As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?
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17. What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?
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18. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.
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19. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?
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20. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.
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21. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.
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22. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain data such as part numbers and part stowage locations?
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23. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain technical data such as machinery serial numbers?
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24. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would be used to generate a report tracking consumable supplies consumption?
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25. What type of maintenance system would be associated with a vibration monitoring analysis system?
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26. What type of maintenance system would be associated with accomplishing maintenance after a machinery breakdown?
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27. A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration of practical skills. Ideally you should assess their skill __________.
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28. As you manage the engine room familiarization training program for new engine department employees, what should you explain to these new employees?
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29. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank" serve in the objective statement?
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30. You are in the planning stages of providing apparently needed general safety training. Besides a careful review of accident and incident investigations, what other strategy would provide an excellent resource for training ideas?
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31. In consultation with the other ship's management level officers, you are planning a required fire emergency drill. In addition to selecting a scenario as functionally realistic as possible (such as a high fire risk area) what follow-up activity would best maximize the training effectiveness for future applicability to an actual fire emergency?
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32. Attitudes, biases, and prejudices towards certain groups (nationalities, races, religions, and sexes) can pose formidable challenges to communication. This is because an individual is judged by group association rather than by getting to know the individual and recognizing individual differences. What is the tendency called?
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33. What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the amount of verbal and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?
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34. It has long been established that employee performance is linked to motivation. Which of the following levels of motivation would be considered to be at the highest level?
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35. When it comes to motivating employees, it is important to distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. What statement best represents the difference?
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36. The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the characteristics of a job design is skill variety, which is the extent to which a job requires a worker to use a broad range of skills and talents to perform the job successfully. What is true about skill variety?
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37. What leadership style tends to extrinsically motivate employees on a contingent reward system where the focus is on outcomes?
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38. Some managers think that the average person has a dislike for work, avoids responsibility, and cannot be trusted. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?
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39. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a structuring and telling leadership style?
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40. Which of the following shipboard groups would be an example of an informal group?
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41. During the "forming" stage of group development, members are trying to determine the task of the group and their role expectations of one another. As a manager, what should be done to help facilitate the "forming" process?
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42. As a manager considering which approach to use at a meeting, what type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use a leader-controlled approach as opposed to a group-centered approach?
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43. What type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use group consensus as a process?
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44. As a manager conducting a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee exhibits disruptive or inappropriate behavior?
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45. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques represents a strategy where everyone wins?
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46. As a manager, which of the following conflict management styles is considered the most appropriate for resolving conflict and is considered both an assertive and a cooperative approach?
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47. What statement is true concerning stress and personal psychological makeup of managers and supervisors?
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48. If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently familiar with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done?
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49. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is mediation. What is meant by mediation?
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50. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement is arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator?
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51. What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air-conditioned cargo space?
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52. Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?
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53. A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is accomplished by what means?
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54. The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning system is 95°F with a relative humidity of 70%. The air has been conditioned to 70°F with a relative humidity of 80%. Using the psychrometric chart, shown in the illustration, determine the quantity of moisture removed from one pound of the conditioned air
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55. In an air conditioning system, what is the name of the chamber where the duct-work originates?
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56. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?
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57. Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a confined space or in limited surroundings cause suffocation?
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58. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?
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59. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 58) require a method for the relieving pressure of an over pressurized refrigeration system. Which of the following statements complies with these regulations?
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60. In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system is usually charged with what substance?
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61. When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, what name of the charge is associated with the power element?
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62. A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the evaporator superheat setting will result in which of the following?
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63. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the system has a single evaporator?
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64. If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?
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65. An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and what other symptom?
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66. What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve?
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67. Vapor bubbles present in the liquid upon arrival to the thermal expansion valve in a refrigeration system may cause erosion of the expansion valve's needle and seat. This, in turn, could cause what condition?
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68. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?
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69. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when only one of the evporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what value
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70. A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system, is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?
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71. A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator by what means?
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72. What is the purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short intermittent spurts or throttling the suction isolation valve when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown?
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73. When opening or closing compressor service and line isolation valves on a typical refrigeration system that is fitted with packed valves, what must you do?
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74. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?
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75. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?
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76. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent what from happening?
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77. Refillable tanks used to ship CFC and HCFC refrigerants or used to recover these refrigerants must meet the standards of what entity?
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78. The compressor used in a water-cooled air conditioning system is short-cycling and as a consequence a safety shutdown alarm occurs at each shutdown, and a manual reset is required to restart. A service check determines that the suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in point during cycling and that the discharge pressure rapidly builds up to the cut-out point while running and gradually falls to the cut-in point during the off cycle. What is likely the cause?
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79. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?
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80. Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will most likely produce what effect?
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81. Before any work on electrical or electronic equipment is performed, which of the following precautions should be carried out?
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82. You are the Chief Engineer onboard a general cargo vessel in excess of 1600 gross tons. To remain in compliance with the 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for non-tank vessel machinery space operations, which of the following requires an entry to be made in the Oil Record Book?
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83. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), how long must the Oil Record Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply?
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84. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following statements is true concerning the signature of the Oil Record Book?
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85. Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?
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86. A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $30,000(USD) damage to the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________.
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87. Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?
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88. Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor?
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89. Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without hunting?
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90. What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?
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91. Before work may safely commence on a high voltage system, what must first be done after disconnection and isolation?
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92. In order for a live-line tester to be used to test and prove dead a high voltage circuit, what must be done to verify the ability of the tester to detect a voltage?
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93. Which activity or event accounts for the most electrical accidents resulting in injury?
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94. Why should an electrical worker determine the nominal voltage of a circuit first before making contact with the circuit?
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95. When taking voltage measurements, for reasons of electrical safety, what should be the proper sequence of actions?
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96. What statement is true concerning temporary protective grounds used to establish an equipotential zone for the purposes of eliminating the electric shock hazard?
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97. What type of motor is generally used in DC propulsion drive systems?
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98. Which of the following statements is true concerning a large polyphase synchronous main propulsion motor as used in an electric propulsion drive system?
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99. To check the three line fuses protecting a three-phase motor using a multimeter set up as a voltmeter, what should be done FIRST?
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100. In addition to short circuits and sustained overloads, in what other situation are fuses likely to blow?
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101. Why is it necessary to perform periodic testing of correctly rated and properly installed circuit breakers?
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102. Which of the listed classes of electrical insulation is suited for the highest operating temperature?
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103. When a high voltage system insulation test value is suspect or recorded during an annual survey, a polarization index test is performed. What is the polarization index?
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104. As chief engineer, to prevent the motorization of an alternator what safety device would you have checked quarterly?
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105. What is the most common and reliable type of circuit breaker used for high voltage practice aboard ship?
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106. Some shipboard high voltage systems have the neutral point of the generators bonded to the ship's hull with a neutral grounding resistor. What is the purpose of this resistor?
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107. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cleaning of electrical contacts?
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108. By what means should motor controller contacts be routinely cleaned?
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109. What item (or items) constitute routine AC motor controller maintenance?
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110. What should be done with a capacitor that is obviously discolored due to excessive heat?
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111. When troubleshooting motor controllers, what is a shorted relay or contactor coil often indicated by?
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112. As a general rule, what is the first troubleshooting action to be taken in checking inoperative electric circuits?
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113. What is one major advantage of a diesel-electric propulsion plant?
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114. Which of the following is a disadvantage of electric drive propulsion systems?
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115. What statement is TRUE concerning the Azipod propulsion system?
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116. On a digital numerical display readout, what would be the minimum number of LED segments required to form and display any digit 0 through 9?
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117. In order to check the performance of a transistor removed from its circuit, what meter or tester should be used?
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118. Which of the following actions can be carried out in order to prevent thermal runaway in a transistor?
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119. Which of the procedures or conditions listed could result in damaging a transistor beyond repair?
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120. If the clock frequency input to the circuit shown in the illustration were 2 kHz, what would be indicated at the output of "FF-3" at the Q3 output
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121. If the inputs to the diagram shown in figure "2" of the illustration were A=0 and B=0, what logic levels would be indicated at points "C", "D", "E", and "F" respectively
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122. If an 8-bit digital to analog converter (DAC) produces an analog output voltage with a range of 10 volts (0-9 volts), what is the smallest incremental step in voltage that can be generated at the output?
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123. Suppose a temperature transmitter has an input range from 0 to 100 degrees Celsius and an output range of 4 to 20 milliamps. Assuming that the transmitter has a linear response pattern, what is the output current in milliamps if the input temperature is 40 degrees Celsius?
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124. While calibrating an electronic 4-20 mA or 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, what is the value of 'Live Zero'?
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125. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result?
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126. What process control system control mode is most likely to have steady-state error (also known as offset or residual error)?
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127. For a process control system using the proportional control mode, what statement is true?
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128. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of control?
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129. When tuning a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should know/understand the influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of a component is correct?
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130. A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above and below the setpoint. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would you expect upon process changes vs. setpoint?
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131. Which of the following data communication cable types offers the greatest immunity to electromagnetic "noise"?
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132. What type of local area network physical topology features point-to-point interconnection between all communicating devices and is the least vulnerable to a break in communication?
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133. If a computer display is flickering, how may this be remedied?
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134. What computer network device maintenance procedure is recommended to be increased in frequency when the equipment is located in areas of high vibration?
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135. Which of the following electric propulsion motor types requires no brushes or electrical connections to the rotor?
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136. In the illustrated motor controller, what do the contacts across terminals "3" and "4" of the control circuit represent
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137. If a mechanical mouse of a computer workstation is operating erratically, what maintenance should be performed?
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138. If the motor of the illustrated circuit fails to start and gives a loud hum when the start button is pushed, what is most likely the problem
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139. The motor starts when the start button in the illustration is pushed, but stops when the button is released. What is most likely the trouble
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140. During its operation, loud buzzing and resultant welding of contacts of a magnetic relay may occur. Which of the following would be the likely cause?
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141. To prevent shaft currents in an alternator, the outboard bearing shell or outboard bearing pedestal is insulated. If the methodology used is the insulated bearing pedestal, how is the pedestal insulation evaluated?
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142. What problem with a printed circuit board may resolve itself once a board is removed from its edge card connector and then reinstalled?
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143. What is the proper name for the entire device, including all subassemblies, shown in the illustration
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144. For the purposes of safety and determining the shock hazard, nominal voltage is defined as the normal electrical system design voltage. This can be determined from what is displayed on nameplates, dataplates, schematics, or single-line diagrams. What does the nominal voltage represent?
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145. For the purposes of shipboard practice, voltages above what threshold would be considered high voltage?
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146. Referring to the illustration of a DC diesel-electric drive system, what type of DC propulsion motors are used
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147. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of the signal processing flow path, the block "TRANSDUCER" represents a sensing and transmitting device designed to sense and measure a physical parameter and convert it into a proportional force or signal of what type
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148. As shown in the alternator protection scheme diagram, what device provides the input to the overcurrent inverse time relay "OCIT", the overcurrent instantaneous trip "OC (inst.)", and the negative phase sequence relay "NPS"
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149. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a digitized echo sounding system, what statement is true concerning the function of the transducer
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150. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the units labeled "WCU" in the accommodations
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151. As shown in the illustrated steering hydraulic pump motor controller, what statement is true
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152. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor "2S"
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153. When troubleshooting a printed circuit board, one technique that can be used is component substitution. Upon what basis would a suspected defective component be substituted with a known good component?
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154. When troubleshooting a printed circuit board, one technique that can be used is swapping the suspected damaged board with a new board. If a board extraction system is not available, what technique should be used to remove the suspected damaged board that is plugged into its edge card connector horizontally?
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155. Using the catalog selection chart shown in Illustration EL-0180, determine the correct catalog number for a motor starter that meets the following criteria: NEMA Open enclosure 3-pole Rated at 45 continuous amperes Vertically mounted Electronic overload relay-Ground fault feature set Reversing starter Operating coil rated at 24 VAC/60 Hz
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156. Using the trouble analysis chart and faults table provided in the illustration, if the gyrocompass was malfunctioning, but no fault codes are present on the display unit, what is most likely the problem if the DC/DC converter LED status indicator is functioning properly, but the CPU LED status indicator is not blinking
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157. Without the benefit of a specially designed enclosure window for thermographic analysis, what must be done to obtain accurate, but safe readings using infrared thermographic techniques?
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158. According to 46 CFR, Part 58, for protection purposes, what is required of all refrigeration systems? Reference: 46 CFR 58
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159. According to the 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for mobile offshore drilling unit operations, for a self-propelled MODU, how often must the steering gear, whistle, general alarm bells, and communications between the bridge or control room and the engine room be tested while the MODU is on station?
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160. According to the 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for mobile offshore drilling unit operations, for a self-propelled MODU, what is the requirement for when testing communications between the bridge or control room and the engine room must be accomplished prior to getting underway?
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161. According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause Pump "A" to short cycle
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162. A bunkering plan requires a list of the tanks to be filled and the order in which they are to be filled. Why is it preferable that fuel be bunkered into empty tanks, where possible?
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163. As Chief Engineer you join a vessel enrolled in Continuous Machinery Survey. Approximately what percent of the machinery should be surveyed per year throughout the Special Survey cycle?
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164. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the undesirable characteristic in which the error of a control system oscillates with constant or increasing amplitude?
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165. The coil temperature measured at the expansion valve sensing bulb of an operating system is 10°F. The low side pressure with the compressor running as shown on the gauge illustrated indicates 15 psig. What adjustments or changes, if any, should be made to the system
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166. The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the __________
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167. Through which of the components shown in the illustration is flash gas formation a normal occurrence
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168. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, what statement is true
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169. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, which statement is true
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170. Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow engineers to describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the illustration
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171. The crosshatch design on the end of piece "3" in the illustration shown indicates that _______
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172. If it is desired to perform a thermographic analysis of new equipment to gain a thermal signature for purposes of comparison to the thermal signature for the same equipment at a later date, what is the name of the thermography performed on the equipment when new?
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173. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________
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174. Once a fire and emergency drill is conducted, the drill ideally should be critiqued. What of the following statements best describes the essential characteristics of an effective critique?
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175. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would be used to generate a maintenance due report?
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176. Which of the following condition-based maintenance data continuous monitoring techniques has the greatest value in predicting wear?
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177. Which of the following is true concerning the class "D" air conditioning system shown in the following illustration
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178. Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a reactive approach to maintenance as opposed to proactive?
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179. Which of the following would be a positive outcome associated with performing a trend analysis of data acquired from lube oil testing, vibration sensors, performance data sensors, and thermographic sensors? I) Avoidance of catastrophic failures. II) Determining the need of when to perform corrective maintenance. III) Improving the overall effectiveness of the engineering plant.
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180. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________
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181. A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of its stroke, then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause?
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182. A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________
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183. In the illustration shown, the notation 1/8"R indicates a one-eighth inch __________
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184. What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the illustration
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185. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______
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186. What maintenance management scheme does trend analysis support?
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187. As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. Besides collecting and preserving the physical evidence of the failure and interviewing key personnel, which of the following supplemental information should be considered? I) Onboard operating and maintenance procedures II) Historical operating and maintenance records III) Technical manuals and specifications IV) Personnel training records
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188. As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. In collecting the necessary data for the root cause analysis, what should be your FIRST priority?
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189. As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. Interviewing is a valuable data collection technique. Which interviewees should be your FIRST priority to interview?
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190. There are many tasks to carry out prior to and during bunkering. What is the best way to insure no task is missed?
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191. What are the necessary components of a fire and emergency training program onboard ship?
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192. If a new assistant engineer reports onboard, ideally, who should conduct the familiarization training specific and relevant to the engineer's routine maintenance and watchkeeping duties?
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193. What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while operating in the processing mode
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194. When observing the candidate's performance while conducting an assessment, what is the appropriate response from the assessor when a safety condition is being violated?
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195. What will happen if oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the illustration
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196. When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water level
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197. If the operating pressure is determined to be normal in the system shown in the illustration, yet the crane does not swing (slew) in either direction when the directional control valve is operated, the problem could be ________
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198. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers. Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?
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199. When planning for a fire and emergency drill, the crew should be motivated and challenged to do their very best. What type of simulation promotes this level of motivation and meeting the challenge?
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200. In planning for a fire and emergency drill, to insure drill success within the context of a comprehensive fire and emergency training program, what should be planned for?
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201. At what point during the overall assessment process should the assessor provide the candidate with a copy of the assessment control sheet?
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202. In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom end of the motor shaft
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203. When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?
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204. You are putting together a list of Class required work for a vessel's next special survey. Which of the following items would be required by Class?
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205. You have recently joined a vessel and are reviewing the classification society survey due dates. The last special periodic survey of the vessel was ten months previous. Within what time frame can the annual machinery surveys be completed?
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206. A reciprocating multi-cylinder air conditioning or refrigeration compressor starts cycling on/off. What would one do to prevent cycling?
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207. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way?
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208. Referring to the illustration, suppose while in the oil separation processing mode, the oil content detector display screen shows 17.9 ppm and the oily-water separator is discharging back to the bilge water holding tank for recirculation. What is most likely the cause
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209. In a refrigeration system, the valve shown in the illustration is used for what purpose
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210. With regards to shipboard refrigeration systems, after July 1, 1992, what action became illegal?
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211. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency?
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212. As a root cause analysis tool, what is the primary disadvantage to the fishbone (also known as the cause-and-effect) graphical approach to root cause analysis?
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213. A self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit is required to have its emergency storage batteries tested in accordance with 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for MODU operations. What is the test criteria?
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214. As shown in the illustrated alternator protection scheme diagram, under what circumstances would an earth leakage relay (EL) be used
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215. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller pressure maintenance system, what is its functional purpose
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216. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 4.0 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90-degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________
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217. Which of the speeds listed represents the synchronous speed rating of the lube oil pump motor shown in the illustration
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218. What statement is true concerning assessment validity and assessment reliability?
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219. What statement is true concerning the checks to be undertaken in the "checks prior to transfer" section of the bunkering safety checklist where the transfer is from barge-to-ship?
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220. What statement is true concerning the use of a thermal imager for the purposes of conducting a thermo graphic analysis of equipment?
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221. The tolerance of the largest diameter of the tool shown in the illustration is __________
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222. After unplugging a suspected damaged printed circuit board from its edge card connector, what may be revealed by slightly flexing the board?
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223. Using the illustrated chart giving the boiling point of moisture at various depths of vacuum, with an ambient temperature of 72°F, what depth of vacuum would be associated with the BEST chance of achieving a dehydration evacuation with a deep vacuum pump
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224. When using a thermal imager for the purpose of conducting a thermographic analysis of equipment, what form of energy produces the thermal signature radiating from the object surface?
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225. Of the various possible methods shown in the illustration, which is the correct method of attaching a TXV feeler bulb to a large suction line (7/8" and larger) with a horizontal run
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226. Vessel special surveys are conducted how often in the life of a vessel?
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227. As shown in the illustrated diagnostic setup for locating a shorted field coil of a ten-pole salient pole alternator, if 240 VAC/60 Hz is applied across the brushes, what would be the voltage drop across field coil No.4 if that field coil had shorted turns and the other field coils were free of shorts
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228. For troubleshooting purposes, the key indicator to the safety and general condition of high voltage circuitry is insulation resistance. For a 6.6 kV high voltage system, what would be the recommended minimum insulation resistance value?
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229. Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator coil outlet of a refrigeration system or unit by the action of what device?
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230. The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning system is 90°F with a relative humidity of 60%. The air has been conditioned to 70°F with a relative humidity of 80%. Using the psychrometric chart, shown in the illustration, determine the quantity of moisture removed from one pound of the conditioned air
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231. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a delegating leadership style?
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232. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity-controlled compressor, when all of the evaporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston shown in the illustration will be at what value
Not learned
233. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is arbitration. What is meant by arbitration?
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234. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist" serve in the objective statement?
Not learned
235. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor "1S"
Not learned
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