Q697 - General Subjects, USCG prep certification 2026

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1. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "where a bilge pocket requires pumping out" serve in the objective statement?Not learned 2. Hidden edges in objects are represented in blueprints by __________.Not learned 3. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable causeNot learned 4. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.Not learned 5. The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage particles is known as __________.Not learned 6. Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in __________.Not learned 7. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.Not learned 8. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the __________.Not learned 9. Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower than the required operating pressure will result in __________.Not learned 10. Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined filler/breather cap. If the breather element becomes fouled, the __________.Not learned 11. When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be __________.Not learned 12. To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________.Not learned 13. In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should _________.Not learned 14. How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on hydraulic systems?Not learned 15. If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will __________.Not learned 16. Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems because the lint __________.Not learned 17. Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.Not learned 18. Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of __________.Not learned 19. Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________.Not learned 20. If the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise while in operation, this is a probable indication of __________.Not learned 21. If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be __________.Not learned 22. If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck crane, which of the following problems will occur?Not learned 23. A hydraulic system gear pump being fed from a reservoir frequently indicates signs of excessive pitting after two months of service. Which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?Not learned 24. A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20° right rudder. The follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________Not learned 25. What do hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, changeover valves, used in a two-ram hydraulic steering gear accomplish?Not learned 26. When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle inputNot learned 27. The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control is to __________.Not learned 28. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 29. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the pedestal-mounted controller?Not learned 30. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 31. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?Not learned 32. When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to the bearing __________.Not learned 33. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 34. Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a ________.Not learned 35. As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.Not learned 36. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.Not learned 37. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), it is the duty of the chief engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until __________.Not learned 38. What type of maintenance system would be associated with a vibration monitoring analysis system?Not learned 39. What type of maintenance system would be associated with accomplishing maintenance after a machinery breakdown?Not learned 40. What statement is true concerning a well-planned turnover procedure from one crew to another?Not learned 41. Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing fire emergency skills training?Not learned 42. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank" serve in the objective statement?Not learned 43. You are in the planning stages of providing apparently needed general safety training. Besides a careful review of accident and incident investigations, what other strategy would provide an excellent resource for training ideas?Not learned 44. In consultation with the other ship's management level officers, you are planning a required fire emergency drill. In addition to selecting a scenario as functionally realistic as possible (such as a high fire risk area) what follow-up activity would best maximize the training effectiveness for future applicability to an actual fire emergency?Not learned 45. Engineering departments may experience a barrier to free and open communication vertically upward from subordinates to managers. What is the primary reason for this barrier to communication?Not learned 46. What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the amount of verbal and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?Not learned 47. An important communication tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps better ensure that managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active listening?Not learned 48. What leadership style tends to extrinsically motivate employees on a contingent reward system where the focus is on outcomes?Not learned 49. Some managers think that the average person has a dislike for work, avoids responsibility, and cannot be trusted. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?Not learned 50. Some managers think the average person likes work, willingly assumes responsibility, and is trustworthy. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?Not learned 51. Leadership style sometimes must change with the situation faced by the manager. Which of the following situations would be best suited for adopting a structured, autocratic leadership style?Not learned 52. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a structuring and telling leadership style?Not learned 53. During the "storming" phase of group development, conflicts generally arise over goals, task behaviors, and leadership roles. If these conflicts are not successfully resolved, what may result?Not learned 54. During the "forming" stage of group development, members are trying to determine the task of the group and their role expectations of one another. As a manager, what should be done to help facilitate the "forming" process?Not learned 55. If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently familiar with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done?Not learned 56. Decisions must be made based upon the appropriate response to a given situation. Which of the following situations requiring a decision require a different response each time and are considered unprogrammed decisions?Not learned 57. Decisions must be made based upon the appropriate response to a given situation, generally a problem of some sort. Before effective decision-making can take place, what must first be done?Not learned 58. Once a problem has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, the next step in the decision-making process is developing alternative solutions to the problem. What statement best reflects how many alternatives should be considered?Not learned 59. What is the critical first step that must be carried out before executing a plan?Not learned 60. Which of the following document types would offer the greatest flexibility in carrying out its intent?Not learned 61. For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for a visual progress report and identifies work stages or activities on the vertical axis and the scheduled completion dates on the horizontal axis?Not learned 62. As a first assistant or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority?Not learned 63. What is meant by the term empowering employees?Not learned 64. What type of managerial controls measure actions or activities that have already occurred and implement corrective action if needed?Not learned 65. In setting up a managerial control system, the standard must be established, and a means of measuring performance against that standard must be established. What statement is true concerning the comparison between performance and the standard?Not learned 66. A performance appraisal (employee evaluation) is the process used to determine what extent an employee is performing a job in the way that is was intended to be done. Properly done and in the interest of employee development, what should be the focus of the appraisal?Not learned 67. Progressive discipline is discipline that uses a graduated scale of penalties which become progressively more severe each time a particular violation is repeated. What disciplinary action is generally associated with a first offense?Not learned 68. In order for discipline to be administered fairly, discipline must carry a clear advance warning, be immediate, be consistent, and be impersonally administered. What is meant by consistency?Not learned 69. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is mediation. What is meant by mediation?Not learned 70. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement is arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator?Not learned 71. Which of the following third parties utilized in alternative dispute resolution proceedings has the authority to make a binding decision?Not learned 72. What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air-conditioned cargo space?Not learned 73. A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is accomplished by what means?Not learned 74. If outside air at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the cooling coilNot learned 75. A reheater in an air conditioning system performs what function?Not learned 76. In an air conditioning system, what is the name of the chamber where the duct-work originates?Not learned 77. To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air conditioning system, what should be done?Not learned 78. For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions should remain constant regardless of load changes?Not learned 79. In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by what means?Not learned 80. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?Not learned 81. Which of the fluids listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant?Not learned 82. In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants decompose and form what chemical substance?Not learned 83. Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a confined space or in limited surroundings cause suffocation?Not learned 84. The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a protective shield that helps to protect the environment from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation is called what?Not learned 85. A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?Not learned 86. To prevent motor overload during start-up of a centrifugal refrigeration system, what is true concerning the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes?Not learned 87. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?Not learned 88. Zinc plates commonly found in refrigeration systems and used as sacrificial anodes are located where?Not learned 89. Sea water or low temperature central fresh water is typically provided to a ship's stores refrigeration plant for what purpose?Not learned 90. Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of produce in chill boxes. Which of the following will minimize this dehydration?Not learned 91. In a dry-type direct expansion refrigeration evaporator, what is true concerning the evaporator coils?Not learned 92. During the initial cooling down of a box temperature in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction for the purpose of prevention of overloading of the compressor driver?Not learned 93. The rupture disc on a low-pressure centrifugal refrigeration unit is used as an overpressure protection device and is set to relieve at 15 psig and is most likely to lift when the compressor is idle. Where is the rupture disc located?Not learned 94. In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system is usually charged with what substance?Not learned 95. Besides the evaporator pressure, the thermal expansion valve reacts directly to changes in what parameter?Not learned 96. When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, what name of the charge is associated with the power element?Not learned 97. The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system further opens when the diaphragm flexes downward. With all other conditions being the same, what single condition causes this?Not learned 98. A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the evaporator superheat setting will result in which of the following?Not learned 99. If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?Not learned 100. A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 101. What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 102. When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a refrigerated container unit, the sensing bulb almost always requires insulation. Why is this so?Not learned 103. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at 1/2 tons, what would be the result if the replacement valve cage was oversized at 5 tonsNot learned 104. Vapor bubbles present in the liquid upon arrival to the thermal expansion valve in a refrigeration system may cause erosion of the expansion valve's needle and seat. This, in turn, could cause what condition?Not learned 105. Alkylbenzene ISO 32 cSt synthetic refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to use with which of the following refrigerants?Not learned 106. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?Not learned 107. The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator senses what temperature?Not learned 108. In addition to the drive belt itself, a V-belt that is tensioned too tight will cause excessive wear to what other drive component?Not learned 109. Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause what condition?Not learned 110. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid-line solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, what would this cause?Not learned 111. To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should close the king valve and introduce the refrigerant through what valve in what state?Not learned 112. When checking zinc plates, or pencil zincs in the refrigerating system condenser, what should you do?Not learned 113. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?Not learned 114. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?Not learned 115. When a refrigeration system is being topped off with a small amount of refrigerant through the low side with the compressor running, what should be done?Not learned 116. Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?Not learned 117. Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of the high-pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the result of what?Not learned 118. Technicians servicing small refrigeration appliances can employ what type of recovery equipment?Not learned 119. What is the color coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant?Not learned 120. Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be caused by which of the following?Not learned 121. What is true concerning the accumulation of air and other non-condensable gases in a refrigeration system?Not learned 122. High suction pressure accompanied by low suction temperature to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by which of the following?Not learned 123. Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant pressure at the compressor suction of a TXV controlled refrigeration system?Not learned 124. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?Not learned 125. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the general arrangement drawing. What type of drawing is the general arrangement drawing?Not learned 126. Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew member by position AND name?Not learned 127. Of the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component when used with stability charts would be particularly useful in decision-making as it applies to the effect of water accumulated during firefighting efforts and the free surface effect?Not learned 128. The unlicensed crew requirements listed on the Certificate of Inspection reads as follows: 3 firemen/water tenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to depart on a foreign voyage, and has in the crew: 3 firemen/water tenders, 2 oilers, and one man, whose merchant mariner's document is endorsed QMED, any rating. You should __________.Not learned 129. The Certificate of Inspection for your vessel was issued in January. In March of the same year, you need to replace a cooling water pump for the refrigeration system. What action would be appropriate?Not learned 130. Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?Not learned 131. A Coast Guard engineer's license can be suspended or revoked for __________.Not learned 132. As a chief engineer you are reviewing the engine room logbook. You must ensure that all entries are made properly. What should be your criteria for how a watch officer makes a correction to an incorrect log entry?Not learned 133. Resonant vibrations, which can cause machinery failure, occur when which of the following conditions happen?Not learned 134. While examining results of vibration analysis of a rotating piece of machinery, you find very high amplitude/displacement readings at a very high frequency at one measuring point. What would that indicate?Not learned 135. With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over time. What would be indicated by a sudden increase in metallic content of a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?Not learned 136. Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil is indicative of a condition. What would high silicon levels indicate?Not learned 137. Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil is indicative of a condition. What would high iron levels indicate?Not learned 138. While calibrating an electronic 4-20 mA or 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, what is the value of 'Live Zero'?Not learned 139. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result?Not learned 140. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of control?Not learned 141. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component?Not learned 142. When tuning a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should know/understand the influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of a component is correct?Not learned 143. As the engineer, it is necessary to tune a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) control loop. If the PID incorporates all three functions, which function(s) is/are dominant in the controller's performance?Not learned 144. A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above and below the setpoint. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would you expect upon process changes vs. setpoint?Not learned 145. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter E (Load Lines), an international and coastwise load line assignment and certificate issued to a vessel by the American Bureau of Shipping is valid for a period of __________.Not learned 146. According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause Pump "A" to short cycleNot learned 147. The assessment of a trainee's practical demonstration of skills should be conducted __________.Not learned 148. Assuming valve "A" is correctly aligned in the no-flow position as shown with the system in operation, which of the following statements is trueNot learned 149. While calibrating a 4-20 mA electronic, or a 3-15 psi pneumatic controller, with a process output of 50-250 psi, what is the controller span/range you are dealing with?Not learned 150. As a chief engineer, how often are you required to countersign the engine room log book?Not learned 151. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by error?Not learned 152. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by gain?Not learned 153. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the undesirable characteristic in which the error of a control system oscillates with constant or increasing amplitude?Not learned 154. You have completed repairs to a small galley refrigerator which uses a capillary tube and a hermetic compressor. The repairs required complete evacuation of the refrigerant and you find that you do not have a proper scale to weighing the amount of refrigerant you will recharge into the system. As the unit is critical to galley operations you must try and restore it to service. The most prudent course of action would be to do which of the following?Not learned 155. Through which of the components shown in the illustration is flash gas formation a normal occurrenceNot learned 156. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by__________.Not learned 157. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 158. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 159. The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller with more than 500 lbs. of refrigerant and to meet EPA requirements is to recover the refrigerant using what protocol?Not learned 160. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 161. A dimension line, as used in a drawing or blueprint, is represented by which of the figures shown in the illustrationNot learned 162. What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 163. The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include __________.Not learned 164. The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the underside of the unloader power element piston of the refrigeration compressor capacity control mechanism illustrated is obtained from whereNot learned 165. Which of the following condition-based maintenance data continuous monitoring techniques has the greatest value in predicting wear?Not learned 166. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a 2-position diverting hot gas bypass solenoid valveNot learned 167. Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of planned maintenance?Not learned 168. Which of the following statements is trueNot learned 169. Which of the following is true concerning the class "D" air conditioning system shown in the following illustrationNot learned 170. Which of the following is true concerning the class "A" air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used to condition the air of large public spacesNot learned 171. Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a reactive approach to maintenance as opposed to proactive?Not learned 172. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 173. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal- mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers?Not learned 174. A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of its stroke, then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause?Not learned 175. A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________Not learned 176. In the illustrated schematic, which component is the device that was used to replace the six-way valve, as found on many older type steering gearsNot learned 177. Which of the illustrated valves is used to gain access to a hermetic system and features a Schrader core valve which is unseated by the core depressor of hose fitting when attachedNot learned 178. In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________Not learned 179. In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute by __________Not learned 180. What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the illustrationNot learned 181. Which of the lettered components shown in the illustration indicates the high-pressure cut-outNot learned 182. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 183. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 184. Which of the listed types of machined 'hole' is represented by "B" as shown in the illustrationNot learned 185. How would you prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the steering system using the illustrated actuatorNot learned 186. If a new assistant engineer reports onboard, ideally, who should conduct the familiarization training specific and relevant to the engineer's routine maintenance and watchkeeping duties?Not learned 187. What will happen if oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the illustrationNot learned 188. The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon __________Not learned 189. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers. Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?Not learned 190. In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom end of the motor shaftNot learned 191. When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?Not learned 192. Why is a purge recovery unit typically fitted on low-pressure centrifugal chillers?Not learned 193. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way?Not learned 194. When recovering the remaining R-134a refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller shown in the illustration as a vapor using the recovery unit's compressor, in addition to opening valves "1a", "1b", and the compressor suction and discharge isolation valves, which of the following would be the correct valve lineupNot learned 195. Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily-water separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely the causeNot learned 196. Referring to the illustration, suppose while in the oil separation processing mode, the oil content detector display screen shows 17.9 ppm and the oily-water separator is discharging back to the bilge water holding tank for recirculation. What is most likely the causeNot learned 197. In a refrigeration system featuring low-side pumpdown prior to the automatic shutdown of the compressor, the temperature of the refrigerated space is controlled by the action of a thermostat wired to what device?Not learned 198. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency?Not learned 199. When reviewing a machinery vibration analysis report, the reports states the vibrational frequency is 4000 cpm in the Y direction. What does this indicate?Not learned 200. The sectional lines drawn within the flange sections, shown in the illustration, indicate the __________Not learned 201. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller high efficiency purge recovery unit piping schematic, what statement is true concerning the vacuum pumpNot learned 202. What statement represents the policy that should be implemented in terms of watch officers entering notes while maintaining the engine room logbook?Not learned 203. Using the device shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is true when adding refrigerant as a vapor to the low side of the refrigeration systemNot learned 204. Using the illustrated chart giving the boiling point of moisture at various depths of vacuum, with an ambient temperature of 72°F, what depth of vacuum would be associated with the BEST chance of achieving a dehydration evacuation with a deep vacuum pumpNot learned 205. Using the information in the illustration shown, the tail of the welding symbol will __________Not learned 206. Vibration analysis can provide comparative data of operating condition of rotating machinery. At what positions should such readings be taken at bearing housings and foundations?Not learned 207. The welding symbol as shown in the illustration uses a circle to indicate a/an __________Not learned 208. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in place by what means?Not learned 209. Referring to the device shown in the illustration, which statement is TRUE in regard to what happens when the rudder stock rotatesNot learned 210. Which of the illustrated valves is used to gain access to a hermetically sealed system and features a Schrader core valve which is unseated by the core depressor of the hose fitting when attachedNot learned 211. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a delegating leadership style?Not learned 212. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is arbitration. What is meant by arbitration?Not learned 213. In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute by __________Not learned