Q511 - General Subjects I, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

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1. What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the motor illustratedNot learned 2. Which of the tolerances listed is allowed on the outside diameter of the bushing illustratedNot learned 3. Which of the devices listed can be used to measure any angle on a blueprint or drawing?Not learned 4. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.Not learned 5. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.Not learned 6. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?Not learned 7. After a disassembly of a single stage centrifugal pump, one finds the outer circumference of the impeller badly pitted and worn. Not having a spare impeller on board, it is decided to turn down the impeller to eliminate the wear/pitting. What will be the pump capacity, in GPM, after the reduction of impeller diameter by 0.5 inches? GIVEN: Original pump capacity = 30 GPM Original impeller diameter = 8 in.Not learned 8. One is informed by the owner that two of the vessel's electrically driven centrifugal cooling water pumps will be replaced with two of higher capacity pumps. No modification of existing piping will be involved. What should be your concerns from an operational perspective?Not learned 9. On disassembling a centrifugal pump for overhaul, the third engineer reports holes drilled axially in the back side of a single suction closed impeller. The reason for the these holes is which of the following?Not learned 10. Your centrifugal ballast pump is producing a pressure less than the designed discharge pressure. What could be the cause?Not learned 11. The shipyard has just reassembled an overhauled centrifugal pump. On testing, water is coming from the mechanical seal area. Which of the following are likely reasons for the leakage?Not learned 12. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _______.Not learned 13. If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause?Not learned 14. If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed, the __________.Not learned 15. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to ________.Not learned 16. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.Not learned 17. While making a round in the lower engine room you discover a leak in the suction pipe to the main salt water pump. How would proceed to correct this problem?Not learned 18. When reviewing log books, the main salt water cooling pump discharge pressure has decreased in the three years since overhaul. Which of the following would most likely be the cause of the problem.Not learned 19. When opening a ballast pump for inspection, the wear ring clearance is found to be approaching maximum. Which of the following would be expected?Not learned 20. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.Not learned 21. Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat exchangers to __________.Not learned 22. The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to ______.Not learned 23. How is the emergency bilge suction valve typically used?Not learned 24. As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and examined. Prior to re-securing the valve bonnets, the valve __________.Not learned 25. The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not been successful. The next practical solution would be to __________.Not learned 26. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the __________.Not learned 27. If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 28. You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled, with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out?Not learned 29. The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft starboard engine room bilge well suddenly fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first to determine the cause?Not learned 30. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable causeNot learned 31. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.Not learned 32. The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage particles is known as __________.Not learned 33. Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in __________.Not learned 34. Marine sanitation devices installed on vessels must be certified by the __________.Not learned 35. What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?Not learned 36. Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a potable water system?Not learned 37. On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?Not learned 38. What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution piping for a potable water system?Not learned 39. What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro-pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?Not learned 40. On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery space sea water cooling systems?Not learned 41. What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 42. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 43. In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent cocks to the __________.Not learned 44. Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator, and the second stage air ejector __________.Not learned 45. Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained directly from the __________.Not learned 46. The temperature of the steam supply to the saltwater feed heater, in a flash type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an __________.Not learned 47. The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash-type evaporator is generally accomplished by __________.Not learned 48. Under normal operating conditions, the highest temperature and pressure conditions existing for flash-type evaporators will occur in the __________.Not learned 49. Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage due to __________.Not learned 50. The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.Not learned 51. In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is greatly reduced by __________.Not learned 52. The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the __________.Not learned 53. Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type evaporator, are removed by the __________.Not learned 54. When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should __________.Not learned 55. Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through __________.Not learned 56. Irregular feeding or surging of the feedwater supply to a flash evaporator may be attributed to __________.Not learned 57. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator would indicate __________.Not learned 58. If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect __________.Not learned 59. Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of __________.Not learned 60. Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator?Not learned 61. On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more likely to find soft scale formation?Not learned 62. In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur in the __________.Not learned 63. While operating a two-stage flash-type evaporator, designed to operate in sea water of 70°F, the current seawater temperature is 50°F, while the salt water feed temperature is maintained at 170°F. The three-way solenoid valve trips, directing the distillate pump discharge to the bilge. Which of the following conditions is the probable cause for this occurrence?Not learned 64. Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?Not learned 65. The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of a flash type evaporator should be kept at a constant value so as to __________.Not learned 66. Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the live steam supply line, the steam at the outlet of the orifice if not properly conditioned will be developed as __________.Not learned 67. When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the source of suspected air leaks you should use __________.Not learned 68. Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces __________.Not learned 69. A salinity indicator is used to determine the __________.Not learned 70. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the __________.Not learned 71. Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an electrical salinity indicator?Not learned 72. The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a __________.Not learned 73. In a flash-type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell would be installed in the __________.Not learned 74. Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?Not learned 75. Regarding a reverse osmosis type fresh water generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules, what statement is true?Not learned 76. For the successful operation of a reverse osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high-pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?Not learned 77. If a reverse osmosis fresh water generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the freshwater outlet, what should be done?Not learned 78. What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?Not learned 79. What component of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator could be isolated and replaced with the unit remaining in service?Not learned 80. Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse osmosis freshwater generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be avoided?Not learned 81. With regards to a reverse osmosis unit, what is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through?Not learned 82. When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be accomplished?Not learned 83. If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what statement is true?Not learned 84. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.Not learned 85. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.Not learned 86. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the __________.Not learned 87. When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be __________.Not learned 88. New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using __________.Not learned 89. Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should __________.Not learned 90. To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________.Not learned 91. In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should _________.Not learned 92. If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by half of the original amount, the __________.Not learned 93. If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume, the cause can be __________.Not learned 94. How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on hydraulic systems?Not learned 95. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil __________.Not learned 96. If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will __________.Not learned 97. Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems because the lint __________.Not learned 98. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special attention should be given to the hydraulic system?Not learned 99. Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.Not learned 100. Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of __________.Not learned 101. If a hydraulic pump sounds like it is pumping rocks when in operation, the problem is most likely ________.Not learned 102. Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________.Not learned 103. If a hydraulic pump is overheating, the cause may be __________.Not learned 104. Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by misalignment of the system components and by __________.Not learned 105. A gradual decrease in the discharge pressure of an operating hydraulic pump can be caused by __________.Not learned 106. If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be __________.Not learned 107. If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck crane, which of the following problems will occur?Not learned 108. A hydraulic system gear pump being fed from a reservoir frequently indicates signs of excessive pitting after two months of service. Which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?Not learned 109. A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20° right rudder. The follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________Not learned 110. Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system may be indicated by __________.Not learned 111. When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle inputNot learned 112. The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control is to __________.Not learned 113. What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder-like blades projecting from it?Not learned 114. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith Schneider drive?Not learned 115. When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?Not learned 116. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?Not learned 117. Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder for steerage?Not learned 118. Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?Not learned 119. What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing thruster and a podded propulsor?Not learned 120. What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?Not learned 121. Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse tunnel bow thruster?Not learned 122. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a single reduction?Not learned 123. As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 124. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 125. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the manual brake handwheels?Not learned 126. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the warping heads and wildcats?Not learned 127. In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?Not learned 128. As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 129. Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?Not learned 130. As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?Not learned 131. As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?Not learned 132. As it pertains to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?Not learned 133. As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal- type deck crane, which statement is true?Not learned 134. For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?Not learned 135. What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?Not learned 136. What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?Not learned 137. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 138. Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?Not learned 139. When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to the bearing __________.Not learned 140. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 141. Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a ________.Not learned 142. As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.Not learned 143. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.Not learned 144. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.Not learned 145. If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that a strut and strut bearing is required, what is the name of the section of shafting that passes through the hull penetration to the closest watertight bulkhead?Not learned 146. Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?Not learned 147. What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?Not learned 148. Concerning the proper lubrication of a ring-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?Not learned 149. Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?Not learned 150. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure-feed lubricating oil system, which statement is true?Not learned 151. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil system, what statement is true concerning the vertical arrangement of the lube oil tanks?Not learned 152. The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent filters __________.Not learned 153. A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?Not learned 154. On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?Not learned 155. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, at what oil level is the bearing maintained?Not learned 156. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?Not learned 157. What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust bearing where used?Not learned 158. What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on merchant ships?Not learned 159. Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor?Not learned 160. Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover speed without hunting?Not learned 161. What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?Not learned 162. Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?Not learned 163. Which type of lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or filter?Not learned 164. Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer?Not learned 165. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line?Not learned 166. For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?Not learned 167. For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?Not learned 168. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a double reduction?Not learned 169. Which of the following couplings or clutches would be able to prevent the transmission of torsional vibrations from an engine to a reduction gear?Not learned 170. While calibrating an electronic 4-20 mA or 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, what is the value of 'Live Zero'?Not learned 171. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result?Not learned 172. As a result of a load or setpoint change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of the error, what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control system?Not learned 173. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of control?Not learned 174. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component?Not learned 175. When tuning a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should know/understand the influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of a component is correct?Not learned 176. As the engineer, it is necessary to tune a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) control loop. If the PID incorporates all three functions, which function(s) is/are dominant in the controller's performance?Not learned 177. A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above and below the setpoint. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would you expect upon process changes vs. setpoint?Not learned 178. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 179. According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause Pump "A" to short cycleNot learned 180. Assuming valve "A" is correctly aligned in the no-flow position as shown with the system in operation, which of the following statements is trueNot learned 181. While calibrating a 4-20 mA electronic, or a 3-15 psi pneumatic controller, with a process output of 50-250 psi, what is the controller span/range you are dealing with?Not learned 182. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by error?Not learned 183. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by gain?Not learned 184. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the undesirable characteristic in which the error of a control system oscillates with constant or increasing amplitude?Not learned 185. The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as the __________Not learned 186. The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the __________Not learned 187. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by__________.Not learned 188. Which of the conditions listed would indicate a large condenser tube leak within the distiller shown in the illustrationNot learned 189. Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow engineers to describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the illustrationNot learned 190. The crosshatch design on the end of piece "3" in the illustration shown indicates that _______Not learned 191. If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which of the following will occurNot learned 192. Which device is used to prevent over pressurization of the illustrated distillerNot learned 193. A vessel has hydraulic winches and anchor windlasses powered by a central hydraulic system. One winch exhibits sluggish operation, poor speed and directional control. Selecting from the potential suggestions below, consider a most logical and systematic approach to formulate your answer to troubleshoot this unit? 1. Disassemble the hydraulic control valve, check "O" rings and check unit's filter. 2. Inspect unit visually, looking for hydraulic leaks and mechanical function of the control lever(s), such as looseness, and/or wear. 3. Open and inspect filters on the main hydraulic unit for particulates/cleanliness. 4. Test entire system's fluid for particulates, viscosity and moisture content.Not learned 194. The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be reduced if the last effect shell __________.Not learned 195. Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during normal operation by __________Not learned 196. Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the illustration may be the result of __________Not learned 197. Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water leakage in the illustrated deviceNot learned 198. Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 199. Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in the illustrationNot learned 200. Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with today's high detergent additive type oils?Not learned 201. Which of the following statements concerning the systems shown in the illustration is correctNot learned 202. Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feedwater entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removedNot learned 203. Which of the following statements represents the two major functions provided by the item labeled "20" shown in the illustrationNot learned 204. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time?Not learned 205. What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustrationNot learned 206. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 207. What is the function of the item "7" shown in the illustrationNot learned 208. What is the function of item 'D' shown in the illustrationNot learned 209. A high reading is indicated at the salinity cells labeled "SC1", "SC2", and "SC3" shown in the illustration. This is probably the result of which of the followingNot learned 210. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal- mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers?Not learned 211. A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of its stroke, then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause?Not learned 212. A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________Not learned 213. In the illustrated schematic, which component is the device that was used to replace the six-way valve, as found on many older type steering gearsNot learned 214. While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "OR4" the strainer "MD9" becomes fouled, this will result in __________Not learned 215. In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute by __________Not learned 216. Item "M" shown in the illustration is the __________Not learned 217. What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the illustrationNot learned 218. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 219. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 220. How would you prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the steering system using the illustrated actuatorNot learned 221. What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while operating in the processing modeNot learned 222. What will happen if oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the illustrationNot learned 223. When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water levelNot learned 224. During operation which device listed removes air and non-condensable gases from the unit shown in the illustrationNot learned 225. The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon __________Not learned 226. In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be openNot learned 227. When ordering a new centrifugal pump for installation, what is the advantage of a pump with a double suction impeller over a single suction impeller?Not learned 228. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.Not learned 229. The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if __________Not learned 230. In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom end of the motor shaftNot learned 231. Referring to the illustrated motor ship freshwater cooling system drawing, which cooling system has cooling water passing through passages within components that are continuously undergoing motionNot learned 232. Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the jacket water heaterNot learned 233. Referring to the illustrated motor ship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control systemNot learned 234. Referring to the illustrated motor ship freshwater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling systemNot learned 235. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergencyNot learned 236. Referring to the illustration, an oil/water separator is in the recirculation mode due to high oil content of the processed water outlet. What action may be required before the unit is capable of discharging overboard once againNot learned 237. Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily-water separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely the causeNot learned 238. Referring to the illustration, suppose while in the oil separation processing mode, the oil content detector display screen shows 17.9 ppm and the oily-water separator is discharging back to the bilge water holding tank for recirculation. What is most likely the causeNot learned 239. Referring to the illustration, suppose the oily-water separator vessel compound gauge is showing an unusually deep vacuum for operating in the separation processing mode with the separator service pump running. The oil content is 8.3 ppm. What is most likely the causeNot learned 240. With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?Not learned 241. Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closedNot learned 242. What statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speed control governors?Not learned 243. Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat exchangers used in the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 244. The type of thread illustrated is a/an __________Not learned 245. Which of the valve arrangements listed would be correct for operating the distillation plant shown in the illustrationNot learned 246. If valve "H" shown in the illustration is opened wide while the distiller is in operation, __________Not learned 247. If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the illustration, which of the events listed will occurNot learned 248. If the wearing rings of device "7" shown in the illustration become worn, how will the evaporation rate in "23" be affectedNot learned 249. What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"Not learned 250. What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in operationNot learned 251. Dimension "X" indicated on the architects scale, shown in the illustration, will be equal to __________Not learned 252. How is accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system prevented?Not learned 253. In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute by __________Not learned 254. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time?Not learned