Q512 - General Subjects II, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?Not learned 2. When preparing/writing shipyard items for your vessel's upcoming dry-docking period, what would you consider as an item regarding CuNi saltwater cooling systems/piping?Not learned 3. You are conducting an operational test of your main steering gear system. The main steering gear must be capable of moving the rudder from 35 degrees on either side to 35 degrees on the other with the vessel at its deepest load line draft and running at maximum ahead service speed, and from 35 degrees on either side to 30 degrees on the other in what minimum time frame?Not learned 4. Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international voyage, your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways safety that test steering system functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is conducted and logged on a regular basis at least once every three months. Within how many hours of arrival must these drills be performed?Not learned 5. Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international voyage, your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways safety that test steering system functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is conducted and logged on a regular basis at least once every three months. Which of the following functions must be tested for?Not learned 6. During the Special Survey the propeller is removed and shaft pulled into the vessel. Which of the following tests must be performed on the propeller shaft prior to refitting?Not learned 7. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?Not learned 8. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is the minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in operation?Not learned 9. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), it is the duty of the chief engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until __________.Not learned 10. When looking for IMO regulations on a vessel's oil water separator, the information will be found in which of the following documents?Not learned 11. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain data such as part numbers and part stowage locations?Not learned 12. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain technical data such as machinery serial numbers?Not learned 13. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would be used to generate a report tracking consumable supplies consumption?Not learned 14. What type of maintenance system would be associated with a vibration monitoring analysis system?Not learned 15. What type of maintenance system would be associated with a comprehensive lubricating oil analysis program?Not learned 16. What type of maintenance system would be associated with manufacturer recommendations as a function of machinery running hours?Not learned 17. What type of maintenance system would be associated with accomplishing maintenance after a machinery breakdown?Not learned 18. A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration of practical skills. Ideally you should assess their skill __________.Not learned 19. One important objective of a practical skill demonstration for mariner certification is to __________.Not learned 20. In order to assess each trainee in the performance of a practical demonstration, the assessor should __________.Not learned 21. When a ships officer signs off a trainee's successful completion of one or more practical demonstrations, they are attesting to the trainee's____________.Not learned 22. A licensed officer designated to certify a trainee's performance of a practical demonstration should sign off when __________.Not learned 23. As you manage the engine room familiarization training program for new engine department employees, what should you explain to these new employees?Not learned 24. Who onboard is responsible for identifying all new crew members and ensuring that the safety training and shipboard familiarization training program is implemented according to written policy and procedures?Not learned 25. Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing fire emergency skills training?Not learned 26. Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing general safety training?Not learned 27. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank" serve in the objective statement?Not learned 28. You are conducting a training session on how to parallel alternators manually. What delivery technique would be most effective to ensure transfer of learning with the desired outcome that the officers under training actually are able to successfully parallel manually in the future?Not learned 29. In consultation with the other ship's management level officers, you are planning a required fire emergency drill. In addition to selecting a scenario as functionally realistic as possible (such as a high fire risk area) what follow-up activity would best maximize the training effectiveness for future applicability to an actual fire emergency?Not learned 30. Engineering departments may experience a barrier to free and open communication vertically upward from subordinates to managers. What is the primary reason for this barrier to communication?Not learned 31. Attitudes, biases, and prejudices towards certain groups (nationalities, races, religions, and sexes) can pose formidable challenges to communication. This is because an individual is judged by group association rather than by getting to know the individual and recognizing individual differences. What is the tendency called?Not learned 32. What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the amount of verbal and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?Not learned 33. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to establish mutual trust between the employee and the manager. Which of the following facilitates the trust of employees in managers?Not learned 34. An important communication tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps better ensure that managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active listening?Not learned 35. Which of the following actions would motivate employees by making their job intrinsically more rewarding?Not learned 36. The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the characteristics of a job design is skill variety, which is the extent to which a job requires a worker to use a broad range of skills and talents to perform the job successfully. What is true about skill variety?Not learned 37. The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the characteristics of a job design is task significance, which is the extent to which the job substantially impacts the work or lives of others. What is true about task significance?Not learned 38. Some managers think that the average person has a dislike for work, avoids responsibility, and cannot be trusted. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?Not learned 39. Some managers think the average person likes work, willingly assumes responsibility, and is trustworthy. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?Not learned 40. Leadership style sometimes must change with the situation faced by the manager. Which of the following situations would be best suited for adopting a structured, autocratic leadership style?Not learned 41. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a structuring and telling leadership style?Not learned 42. Which of the following shipboard groups would be an example of an informal group?Not learned 43. During the "storming" phase of group development, conflicts generally arise over goals, task behaviors, and leadership roles. If these conflicts are not successfully resolved, what may result?Not learned 44. As a manager considering which approach to use at a meeting, what type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use a leader-controlled approach as opposed to a group-centered approach?Not learned 45. What type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use group consensus as a process?Not learned 46. In conducting a group-centered meeting, it is important to encourage participation and two-way communication. In addition to being an alert listener, what specific technique is particularly helpful in getting non-contributors to participate?Not learned 47. As a manager conducting a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee exhibits disruptive or inappropriate behavior?Not learned 48. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques represents a strategy where everyone wins?Not learned 49. As a manager, which of the following conflict management styles is considered the most appropriate for resolving conflict and is considered both an assertive and a cooperative approach?Not learned 50. As a manager, one of the practices of positive confrontation reduction skills essential to conflict resolution involves a type of listening. What type of listening would be most effective in resolving a conflict?Not learned 51. If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently familiar with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done?Not learned 52. Once a problem has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, the next step in the decision-making process is developing alternative solutions to the problem. What statement best reflects how many alternatives should be considered?Not learned 53. What is the critical first step that must be carried out before executing a plan?Not learned 54. Before a plan can be effectively executed, the objective of the plan must be defined. What statement concerning the definition of a plan objective best represents the proper writing of an objective as an engineering department management level officer?Not learned 55. Which of the following document types would offer the greatest flexibility in carrying out its intent?Not learned 56. For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for a visual progress report and identifies work stages or activities on the vertical axis and the scheduled completion dates on the horizontal axis?Not learned 57. For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for showing the dependency of one activity upon another and shows the relationship among a network of activities?Not learned 58. As a first assistant or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority?Not learned 59. What is meant by the term empowering employees?Not learned 60. What would be a legitimate reason why some managers don't delegate authority to subordinates?Not learned 61. It has been demonstrated that delegation can enhance employee development. To avoid a fear of failure, what must a manager avoid when delegating decision-making power to an employee?Not learned 62. What type of managerial controls measure actions or activities that have already occurred and implement corrective action if needed?Not learned 63. In setting up a managerial control system, the standard must be established, and a means of measuring performance against that standard must be established. What statement is true concerning the comparison between performance and the standard?Not learned 64. Which of the following would represent an attempt to reduce the frequency of required overhauls for machinery?Not learned 65. Which of the following diagrams or charts is particularly useful for understanding and identifying the causes of problems?Not learned 66. A performance appraisal (employee evaluation) is the process used to determine what extent an employee is performing a job in the way that is was intended to be done. Properly done and in the interest of employee development, what should be the focus of the appraisal?Not learned 67. Even though conducting an employee appraisal interview may be one of the least liked aspects of the job of a manager, why are they important?Not learned 68. The "hot stove" rule is sometimes used to illustrate the principles of fair, effective discipline. Which of the following principles illustrates the principle of discipline carrying a clear warning?Not learned 69. As an engineering department manager in dealing with a grievance presented by an unlicensed engine department crew and union member, what documentation spells out the grievance procedure?Not learned 70. What is usually the first step in trying to resolve a beef or a dispute brought up by a crew member?Not learned 71. What federal agency enforces the prohibition of employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin as it applies to shipboard employment onboard US flag vessels?Not learned 72. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is mediation. What is meant by mediation?Not learned 73. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement is arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator?Not learned 74. In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant temperature decreases the most when passing through which system component?Not learned 75. What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air-conditioned cargo space?Not learned 76. Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?Not learned 77. A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is accomplished by what means?Not learned 78. The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning system is 95°F with a relative humidity of 70%. The air has been conditioned to 70°F with a relative humidity of 80%. Using the psychrometric chart, shown in the illustration, determine the quantity of moisture removed from one pound of the conditioned airNot learned 79. If outside air at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the cooling coilNot learned 80. What is the wet bulb temperature of air if the dry bulb temperature of the air is 90 degrees and the relative humidity is 65%Not learned 81. What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured with a sling psychrometer?Not learned 82. A reheater in an air conditioning system performs what function?Not learned 83. In an air conditioning system, what is the name of the chamber where the duct-work originates?Not learned 84. In a two-stage centrifugal air conditioning system such as the one illustrated, the liquid refrigerant passes from the condenser directly to what componentNot learned 85. To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air conditioning system, what should be done?Not learned 86. Which of the following methods is normally used to control the circulated air temperature of an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation?Not learned 87. For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions should remain constant regardless of load changes?Not learned 88. In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by what means?Not learned 89. What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?Not learned 90. What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?Not learned 91. It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air contamination?Not learned 92. What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?Not learned 93. What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation and low system heat loads?Not learned 94. What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream, with one for cold air and the other for hot air?Not learned 95. What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?Not learned 96. Traditionally, which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor?Not learned 97. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?Not learned 98. Which of the fluids listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant?Not learned 99. The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by what means?Not learned 100. In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants decompose and form what chemical substance?Not learned 101. The "tare weight" of a refrigerant storage cylinder refers to what weight?Not learned 102. Which of the following substances is normally classified as a low-pressure refrigerant?Not learned 103. Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a confined space or in limited surroundings cause suffocation?Not learned 104. What would be an example of a small appliance as defined in the EPA Clean Air Act rules?Not learned 105. Within the territorial limits of the United States, violations of the Clean Air Act of 1990, that includes the intentional release of R-11, R-12, R-22 and other related class I or class II substances may result in fines for each violation per day of what amount?Not learned 106. EPA Clean Air Act rules permit refrigerant to be released to the atmosphere under which of the following conditions?Not learned 107. Persons recovering refrigerant from small appliances must be certified as what type of technician under the EPA Clean Air Act rules?Not learned 108. According to the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is true concerning refrigerant leaks in a small hermetically sealed shipboard water cooler with a 20 ounce charge weight?Not learned 109. The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a protective shield that helps to protect the environment from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation is called what?Not learned 110. Which best defines a "Type I" small refrigeration appliance according to the EPA regulations Section 608?Not learned 111. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?Not learned 112. A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?Not learned 113. To prevent motor overload during start-up of a centrifugal refrigeration system, what is true concerning the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes?Not learned 114. The carbon seal ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft mechanical seal is held in position against the stationary ring face by using what device?Not learned 115. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?Not learned 116. In a refrigeration plant, what is one vital purpose of the receiver?Not learned 117. The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what essential function?Not learned 118. Zinc plates commonly found in refrigeration systems and used as sacrificial anodes are located where?Not learned 119. Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of produce in chill boxes. Which of the following will minimize this dehydration?Not learned 120. In a dry-type direct expansion refrigeration evaporator, what is true concerning the evaporator coils?Not learned 121. During the initial cooling down of a box temperature in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction for the purpose of prevention of overloading of the compressor driver?Not learned 122. Refrigeration system isolation valves are specially designed with a back-seat, as well as a front-seat. For what purpose are these valves designed in this way?Not learned 123. Hard drawn copper tubing is commonly used in larger refrigeration systems. What statement concerning its use is true?Not learned 124. On a modern refrigerated container unit employing suction modulation for the purposes of capacity control and capacity limitation, what happens when the applied voltage and current draw associated with the normally open (NO) suction modulation valve located in the suction line both increase?Not learned 125. An arrow stamped on the valve body of a water regulating valve indicates which of the following?Not learned 126. When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor discharge line, it discharges high-pressure refrigerant vapor to what location?Not learned 127. The rupture disc on a low-pressure centrifugal refrigeration unit is used as an overpressure protection device and is set to relieve at 15 psig and is most likely to lift when the compressor is idle. Where is the rupture disc located?Not learned 128. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 113) require refrigerated spaces that can be locked from the outside and that cannot be opened from the inside to have an audible alarm. Where is the audible alarm required to be?Not learned 129. In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system is usually charged with what substance?Not learned 130. Rather than design an infinite variety of thermostatic expansion valve sizes to accommodate different capacities for heat removal, some manufacturers use a few standard valve body sizes in conjunction with what other feature?Not learned 131. Besides the evaporator pressure, the thermal expansion valve reacts directly to changes in what parameter?Not learned 132. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with an 8 psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a replaceable power element are both desiredNot learned 133. What is one function of the thermal expansion valve used in a refrigeration system?Not learned 134. When a refrigeration compressor is in the 'off' cycle, the thermal expansion valve will react in what way?Not learned 135. In a refrigeration system, the pressure within the power element of a thermostatic expansion valve depends directly upon what factor?Not learned 136. In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located where?Not learned 137. When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, what name of the charge is associated with the power element?Not learned 138. A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates with one compressor and condenser. What is the purpose of the sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator coil outlet?Not learned 139. Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is greatest under what conditions?Not learned 140. The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system further opens when the diaphragm flexes downward. With all other conditions being the same, what single condition causes this?Not learned 141. In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of refrigerant to each refrigerated space evaporator is accomplished by what device?Not learned 142. In a refrigeration system, what component is installed directly downstream of the thermal expansion valve?Not learned 143. A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the evaporator superheat setting will result in which of the following?Not learned 144. When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve power element, what is true concerning the thermal bulb?Not learned 145. If the evaporator coil horizontal return line of a container refrigeration system is less than 0.875" (2.21 cm) in diameter (considered small), the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb should be attached where on the return line?Not learned 146. Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the following procedures?Not learned 147. Which statement about calibrating a newly installed thermostatic expansion valve is correct?Not learned 148. Which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper operation of the thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 149. Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 150. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the system has a single evaporator?Not learned 151. If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?Not learned 152. A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 153. An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and what other symptom?Not learned 154. What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 155. When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a refrigerated container unit, the sensing bulb almost always requires insulation. Why is this so?Not learned 156. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at 1/2 tons, what would be the result if the replacement valve cage was oversized at 5 tonsNot learned 157. Vapor bubbles present in the liquid upon arrival to the thermal expansion valve in a refrigeration system may cause erosion of the expansion valve's needle and seat. This, in turn, could cause what condition?Not learned 158. Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a result of what condition?Not learned 159. Alkylbenzene ISO 32 cSt synthetic refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to use with which of the following refrigerants?Not learned 160. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 161. What is the purpose of the low pressure cut-out switch as used as a primary controller for a refrigeration system or unit?Not learned 162. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart if the system features a pump-down cycle?Not learned 163. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?Not learned 164. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when only one of the evporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what valueNot learned 165. A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system, is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?Not learned 166. In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a king solenoid valve should be installed in what location?Not learned 167. In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line prior to what device?Not learned 168. A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator by what means?Not learned 169. The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator senses what temperature?Not learned 170. How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve?Not learned 171. What is the purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short intermittent spurts or throttling the suction isolation valve when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown?Not learned 172. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a perishable chilled cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what should be the operational status of the unit if the actual box temperature is 6Not learned 173. In addition to the drive belt itself, a V-belt that is tensioned too tight will cause excessive wear to what other drive component?Not learned 174. Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause what condition?Not learned 175. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid-line solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, what would this cause?Not learned 176. To add small amounts of non-blended refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the refrigerant should be introduced through a particular valve and in a particular state. What valve and state combination is correct?Not learned 177. To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should close the king valve and introduce the refrigerant through what valve in what state?Not learned 178. If a condenser coil of an air-cooled container refrigeration system becomes dirty and requires cleaning, what would be an acceptable method of cleaning?Not learned 179. When opening or closing compressor service and line isolation valves on a typical refrigeration system that is fitted with packed valves, what must you do?Not learned 180. When checking zinc plates, or pencil zincs in the refrigerating system condenser, what should you do?Not learned 181. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?Not learned 182. In addition to pressure, most compound and standard pressure gauges used for refrigeration service are also provided with a scale indicating what parameter?Not learned 183. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?Not learned 184. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent what from happening?Not learned 185. In a low pressure refrigeration system, excessive running of the purge recovery unit generally indicates which probable condition?Not learned 186. When a refrigeration system is being topped off with a small amount of refrigerant through the low side with the compressor running, what should be done?Not learned 187. Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?Not learned 188. How should small appliances with less than three pounds of refrigerant be charged with refrigerant?Not learned 189. Charging liquid HCFC-123 into a system under a deep vacuum could cause what to happen unless necessary precautions are taken?Not learned 190. Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of the high-pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the result of what?Not learned 191. Which recovery procedure should be used to minimize the loss of oil from the system during the recovery of refrigerant from small appliances such as a water cooler?Not learned 192. Minor repairs may be performed on low-pressure refrigerant systems without recovering the refrigerant charge if the pressure in the system is raised to atmospheric. How may this be accomplished?Not learned 193. When recovering R-12 from a small appliance with a working compressor, using a recovery device manufactured after November 15, 1993, what percentage of the remaining charge must be removed from the system?Not learned 194. Refillable tanks used to ship CFC and HCFC refrigerants or used to recover these refrigerants must meet the standards of what entity?Not learned 195. If passive recovery is used on a small appliance fitted with a capillary tube as a metering device with a non-operating compressor, the recovery should be made through what means?Not learned 196. If you find the pressure of a refrigeration system containing a Class I or Class II refrigerant to be opened for the accomplishment of repairs is 0 psig, what must be done?Not learned 197. Technicians servicing small refrigeration appliances can employ what type of recovery equipment?Not learned 198. What is the color coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant?Not learned 199. Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?Not learned 200. What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?Not learned 201. With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration chambers of a liquid cargo- hold dehumidification system, which statement is true?Not learned 202. To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?Not learned 203. To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would the dew point be measured?Not learned 204. What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification systems?Not learned 205. The compressor used in a water-cooled air conditioning system is short-cycling and as a consequence a safety shutdown alarm occurs at each shutdown, and a manual reset is required to restart. A service check determines that the suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in point during cycling and that the discharge pressure rapidly builds up to the cut-out point while running and gradually falls to the cut-in point during the off cycle. What is likely the cause?Not learned 206. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, what would be the normal range of expected discharge pressures if the ambient air temperature is 90°FNot learned 207. Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be caused by which of the following?Not learned 208. In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration system, both low discharge and high suction pressures are being simultaneously experienced. The probable cause for this condition is which of the following?Not learned 209. An excessive charge of refrigerant in a thermostatically controlled, air-cooled, refrigeration system using a TXV as an expansion device can cause which of the following?Not learned 210. If increasing the cooling water flow to a refrigeration condenser fails to lower the condenser pressure, the probable cause may be due to what condition?Not learned 211. Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of what condition?Not learned 212. The air temperature associated with a direct reciprocating air conditioning plant is found to be too warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in point, with a normal head pressure, and high evaporator superheat. Which of the following could be the cause of this problem?Not learned 213. High suction pressure accompanied by low suction temperature to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by which of the following?Not learned 214. Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant pressure at the compressor suction of a TXV controlled refrigeration system?Not learned 215. If a refrigeration compressor had developed a slightly high suction pressure accompanied with an abnormally low suction temperature, the problem could be a result of which of the following?Not learned 216. If the running suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor of a TXV controlled air-cooled refrigeration system is below normal, which of the following can be a cause?Not learned 217. The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of what conditions?Not learned 218. In an air conditioning system, low discharge head pressure associated with a reciprocating compressor can be the result of what condition?Not learned 219. Unusual noise coming from a refrigeration compressor can be caused by which of the following conditions?Not learned 220. If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, what is the most probable cause?Not learned 221. When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST thing that should be checked for is what?Not learned 222. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating or frosting and is operating with an unusual noise, what is most likely the cause?Not learned 223. The compressor on the ships service refrigeration system starts up but stops after a brief period of running. Subsequent attempts to start it produce no result. What control component would you suspect?Not learned 224. If a refrigeration compressor using a thermostat as a primary controller is running continuously without significantly lowering the temperature in the refrigerated space, which of the following is most likely the trouble?Not learned 225. If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, besides an elevated box temperature, what would be an observable symptom?Not learned 226. During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running continuously, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature is slightly above normal without ever reaching the desired minimum temperature. Suction and discharge pressures are normal for the corresponding box temperature. In this situation, what should you suspect?Not learned 227. An evaporator coil of a single evaporator, air-cooled refrigerator is accumulating excessive frost due to a failure of the defrost mechanism. If the refrigerator features a thermostatically controlled box solenoid and a low-pressure cut-out controlled compressor, as well as a high-pressure cut-out, in terms of the compressor, what would be the most likely operating symptom?Not learned 228. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?Not learned 229. Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will most likely produce what effect?Not learned 230. Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause which of the following conditons?Not learned 231. While troubleshooting intermittent failures of the ship service refrigeration system you suspect the problem is with the lube oil pressure differential switch. The recommended course of action would be:Not learned 232. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. Which statement is true concerning the fire control plan for a vessel?Not learned 233. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. What type of drawings are generally furnished in the fire control plan?Not learned 234. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the general arrangement drawing. What type of drawing is the general arrangement drawing?Not learned 235. Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information pertaining to general instructions, fire and emergency instructions and signals, abandon ship instructions and signals, and assigns individual emergency response duties and responsibilities for each crew member by position?Not learned 236. Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew member by position AND name?Not learned 237. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book?Not learned 238. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), how long must the Oil Record Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply?Not learned 239. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following statements is true concerning the signature of the Oil Record Book?Not learned 240. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?Not learned 241. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in any waters?Not learned 242. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all garbage applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 243. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?Not learned 244. The firefighting equipment on your general cargo vessel was last inspected by a shore side contractor 12 months ago. To remain in compliance with the Federal Code of Regulations (46 CFR), as Chief Engineer, what should your appropriate action be?Not learned 245. Prior to getting underway on the navigable waters of the United States, within 12 hours, according to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety, certain tests are required. Which of the following are included in the tests that must be performed? 1) Operation of the main propulsion machinery, ahead and astern. 2) Operation of the low lube oil pressure trip on the main engine. 3) Operation of the reverse power relay on the emergency generator. 4) Operation of the over speed trip on the ship's service diesel generator. 5) Operation of the emergency generator.Not learned 246. An international and coastwise load line assignment and certificate has been issued to a vessel by the American Bureau of Shipping, under the authority of Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), for a period of __________.Not learned 247. The unlicensed crew requirements listed on the Certificate of Inspection reads as follows: 3 firemen/water tenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to depart on a foreign voyage, and has in the crew: 3 firemen/water tenders, 2 oilers, and one man, whose merchant mariner's document is endorsed QMED, any rating. You should __________.Not learned 248. The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to operate your vessel can be determined by checking the __________.Not learned 249. The Certificate of Inspection for your vessel was issued in January. In March of the same year, you need to replace a cooling water pump for the refrigeration system. What action would be appropriate?Not learned 250. The minimum firefighting equipment to be maintained onboard a tank vessel, can be determined from the __________.Not learned 251. Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?Not learned 252. A Coast Guard engineer's license can be suspended or revoked for __________.Not learned 253. A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $30,000(USD) damage to the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________.Not learned 254. A periodic hydrostatic test is being performed on an oil-fired auxiliary water-tube boiler with a maximum allowable working pressure of 150 psig. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, what is the required hydrostatic test pressure for this procedure?Not learned 255. Assuming the inspection interval for a boiler as specified by 46 CFR 61 is 2.5 years, which statement is true?Not learned 256. As a chief engineer you are reviewing the engine room logbook. You must ensure that all entries are made properly. What should be your criteria for how a watch officer makes a correction to an incorrect log entry?Not learned 257. On a vibration analysis report, acceleration is best described as which of the following?Not learned 258. Resonant vibrations, which can cause machinery failure, occur when which of the following conditions happen?Not learned 259. When reviewing results of vibration analysis, vibration at a bearing occurs at the same frequency as the motor rpm, with a displacement in the radial direction that is twice that of the axial direction. Which of the following could this indicate?Not learned 260. While examining results of vibration analysis of a rotating piece of machinery, you find very high amplitude/displacement readings at a very high frequency at one measuring point. What would that indicate?Not learned 261. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable Sulphur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area?Not learned 262. According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Passenger Vessels, for how long do the drawn and sealed half-pint fuel samples need to be maintained and preserved on board?Not learned 263. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), what is the minimum allowable flashpoint for a fuel to be burned in a steam boiler?Not learned 264. With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over time. What would be indicated by a sudden increase in metallic content of a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?Not learned 265. With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over time. What would be indicated by elevated copper levels associated with a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?Not learned 266. Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil is indicative of a condition. What would high iron levels indicate?Not learned 267. Which of the following fuel sampling methods would present the most reliable, accurate, and cost- effective option for shipboard use?Not learned 268. Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to facilitate proper fuel storage, handling, and treatment. What tests are most important for determining what temperatures to maintain throughout the fuel forwarding and service systems?Not learned 269. Various tests while conducting a fuel oil analysis can be performed on board to facilitate proper centrifugation. What test provides the key data for selecting the correct purifier gravity disk for fuel oil centrifugal purifiers?Not learned 270. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations apply?Not learned 271. Overcurrent protection for steering gear systems circuits that power alternating current motors must have an instantaneous trip set at what rating?Not learned 272. One of your ship's indirect-drive steering gear drive motors needs to be replaced. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J, what minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?Not learned 273. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following electrical repairs is permitted?Not learned 274. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following documents would be the most useful in dealing with a vessel oil spill resulting in a discharge into navigable waters?Not learned 275. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, which of the following pressure vessels listed on the ship's Certificate of Inspection would be exempt from hydrostatic testing?Not learned 276. In accordance with federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for U.S. non- oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?Not learned 277. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable Sulphur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area after January 1, 2020?Not learned 278. According to 46 CFR, Part 58, for protection purposes, what is required of all refrigeration systems? Reference: 46 CFR 58Not learned 279. According to the 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for offshore supply vessel operations, for an OSV that is expected to be away from shore for at least 48 hours, what is the requirement for when testing communications between the pilot house and the engine room must be accomplished prior to departure?Not learned 280. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to automatic auxiliary boilers, flame safeguard controls must be checked for proper shutdown operation. Which of the following must be checked? 1) Flame failure. 2) Ignition failure. 3) Audible alarm of shutdown. 4) Visual indication of shutdown. 5) Shutdown times.Not learned 281. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to automatic auxiliary boilers, safety programming controls must be checked for proper operation, sequencing, and timing. What functions must be checked?Not learned 282. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to fired thermal fluid heaters, regarding hydrostatic tests, what statement is true?Not learned 283. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment, what functional test must be performed on boiler draft fans, fuel oil transfer and service pumps, and machinery space ventilation fans during periodic inspections?Not learned 284. According 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment, what statement is true concerning the opening up of sea chests, sea valves, sea strainers, and emergency bilge suction valves?Not learned 285. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment, what statement is true concerning tailshaft examinations?Not learned 286. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment, what would be the basis for conducting tests and inspections of a feedwater regulator for a boiler as conducted by a marine inspector during a periodic ship inspection?Not learned 287. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to piping systems, under what circumstances is an internal inspection of a non-metallic expansion joint performed by the marine inspector?Not learned 288. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic auxiliary boilers, the draft limit control must be checked for proper operation. What statement is true?Not learned 289. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic auxiliary boilers, the fuel pressure limit control must be checked for proper shutdown operation. What statement is true?Not learned 290. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic auxiliary boilers, the fuel supply control solenoids must be checked for proper shutdown operation. What must be checked for?Not learned 291. According to the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS), how often are fire and emergency drills to be conducted at sea and in port?Not learned 292. What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling systemNot learned 293. When analyzing trend analysis data in reference to a critical value to avoid a catastrophic failure, what statement is true?Not learned 294. The assessment of a trainee's practical demonstration of skills should be conducted __________.Not learned 295. Automatic fire, smoke, and heat detectors are crucial in sizing-up a fire. Which of the following statements about the number of zones reporting is true?Not learned 296. Automatic fire, smoke, and heat detectors are crucial in sizing-up a fire. Which of the following statements is true about the type of alarms sounding?Not learned 297. Based on an inspection of the cables on one of your ship's service generators, you've decided that the cables need to be replaced. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the current-carrying capacity of the replacement generator cables should be what percentage of the continuous generator rating?Not learned 298. A box solenoid valve used in a multi-box refrigeration system is operated by electromagnetic action by what control device?Not learned 299. A bunkering plan requires a list of the tanks to be filled and the order in which they are to be filled. Why is it preferable that fuel be bunkered into empty tanks, where possible?Not learned 300. As a chief engineer, which of the following instructions would be most appropriately entered into the Chief Engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of the instruction?Not learned 301. As a chief engineer, which of the following instructions would most appropriately be written into the chief engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of the special instruction?Not learned 302. As Chief Engineer you join a vessel enrolled in Continuous Machinery Survey. Approximately what percent of the machinery should be surveyed per year throughout the Special Survey cycle?Not learned 303. As the Chief Engineer of a motor vessel equipped with engines capable of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels, on approaching arrival to a US port, for planning purposes, what must be done?Not learned 304. As a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel equipped with engines capable of burning both high sulfur content residual fuels and low sulfur content distillate fuels, on departure from a US port, when would you plan for the fuel changeover be commenced?Not learned 305. As a chief engineer on a motor vessel in a shipyard undergoing extensive repairs/modifications or being repaired after a significant grounding, what factors would you consider paramount to ensure the main engine and line shafting are properly aligned?Not learned 306. The coil temperature measured at the expansion valve sensing bulb of an operating system is 10°F. The low side pressure with the compressor running as shown on the gauge illustrated indicates 15 psig. What adjustments or changes, if any, should be made to the systemNot learned 307. Compatibility of fuel is easily checked onboard ship to ensure that serious problems do not result. What statement concerning fuel incompatibility is true?Not learned 308. You have completed repairs to a small galley refrigerator which uses a capillary tube and a hermetic compressor. The repairs required complete evacuation of the refrigerant and you find that you do not have a proper scale to weighing the amount of refrigerant you will recharge into the system. As the unit is critical to galley operations you must try and restore it to service. The most prudent course of action would be to do which of the following?Not learned 309. Through which of the components shown in the illustration is flash gas formation a normal occurrenceNot learned 310. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 311. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 312. Concerning the proper installation of the sensing bulb of a thermal expansion valve that is attached to the evaporator tail coil on a horizontal run, what statement is true?Not learned 313. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What is the "action" verb associated with the above objective?Not learned 314. A containership is scheduled to depart the Port of Houston, TX at 0600 on April 7th on a voyage to exceed 48 hours. What is the EARLIEST time that the steering gear could be tested prior to getting underway and be in compliance 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels)?Not learned 315. Corrosion has wasted away large sections of the fins attached to an air conditioning cooling coil. In assessing the effects on the system you would assume which of the following to be accurate?Not learned 316. The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller with more than 500 lbs. of refrigerant and to meet EPA requirements is to recover the refrigerant using what protocol?Not learned 317. What could cause a lower efficiency and a higher bypass factor for an air conditioning cooling coil?Not learned 318. If it is desired to perform a thermographic analysis of new equipment to gain a thermal signature for purposes of comparison to the thermal signature for the same equipment at a later date, what is the name of the thermography performed on the equipment when new?Not learned 319. If it is desired to perform a thermographic analysis of a piece of equipment with a suspected possible fault and compare the thermal signature with similar fault-free equipment, what is the name of the thermography performed?Not learned 320. What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 321. During a dry-docking survey it is necessary to check the freeboard marking of a vessel. Which of the following certificates addresses vessel freeboard markings?Not learned 322. The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include __________.Not learned 323. For the most efficient centrifuging of residual fuels on motor vessels, the lower the viscosity of the fuel as achieved by preheating, the more efficiently solids and moisture can be removed. For planning purposes, what is the typically the recommended upper limit of preheating for residual fuel oil centrifugation on motor ships?Not learned 324. In the event of a marine casualty, as a chief engineer what document would be considered a voyage record and must be made available to investigating officials?Not learned 325. While examining vibration analysis of a particular piece of rotating machinery, one of the measurement location readings exhibits high amplitude/displacement in vertical and horizontal direction at 2 X RPM frequency. What would this indicate?Not learned 326. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the waterNot learned 327. Once a fire and emergency drill is conducted, the drill ideally should be critiqued. What of the following statements best describes the essential characteristics of an effective critique?Not learned 328. Fire and emergency training has three major components: knowledge sessions, skills sessions, and drills. What is the essential difference between skills sessions and drills if applicable?Not learned 329. The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the underside of the unloader power element piston of the refrigeration compressor capacity control mechanism illustrated is obtained from whereNot learned 330. Which of the following analytical tools can be used for trend analysis? I) Lube oil analysis II) Vibration analysis III) Performance data analysis IV) Thermographic analysisNot learned 331. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain data such as work and safety procedures?Not learned 332. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would be used to generate a maintenance due report?Not learned 333. Which of the following conditions will occur if the power element of the thermostatic expansion valve shown in the illustration loses its chargeNot learned 334. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a 2-position diverting hot gas bypass solenoid valveNot learned 335. Which of the following illustrated expansion valves is designed to maintain a constant evaporator pressure rather than a constant evaporator superheatNot learned 336. Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of condition-based maintenance?Not learned 337. Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of planned maintenance?Not learned 338. Which of the following represents the visual factors that an officer in charge of a fire scene would use to size-up a fire?Not learned 339. Which of the following statements defines reliability as it pertains to assessing mariner proficiency or competency?Not learned 340. Which of the following statements represents the acceptable practice to follow for maximizing the residual fuel oil centrifuge efficiency in removing contaminants while still keeping up with diesel engine demand?Not learned 341. Which of the following statements represents the acceptable practice to follow to prevent mixing of potentially incompatible fuels in a heavy fuel oil settling tank?Not learned 342. Which of the following statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil settling tank heating?Not learned 343. Which of the following statements represents acceptable practice for heavy fuel oil storage tank heating?Not learned 344. Which of the following statements is trueNot learned 345. Which of the following is true concerning the class "D" air conditioning system shown in the following illustrationNot learned 346. Which of the following is true concerning the class "A" air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used to condition the air of large public spacesNot learned 347. Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a proactive approach to maintenance as opposed to reactive?Not learned 348. Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a reactive approach to maintenance as opposed to proactive?Not learned 349. Which of the following would be a positive outcome associated with performing a trend analysis of data acquired from lube oil testing, vibration sensors, performance data sensors, and thermographic sensors? I) Avoidance of catastrophic failures. II) Determining the need of when to perform corrective maintenance. III) Improving the overall effectiveness of the engineering plant.Not learned 350. Fuel tank tables are given in volumes whereas fuel is delivered by weight in tons. How is volume change represented by beginning and ending ullages converted into weight?Not learned 351. Heat is removed from the refrigerant circulating through the refrigeration system, shown in the illustration, by which componentNot learned 352. In the illustrated refrigeration system, what is the proper name for the component labeled "A"Not learned 353. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of steam through the preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coilNot learned 354. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampersNot learned 355. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the winter outside air duct thermostatNot learned 356. Which of the illustrated valves is used to gain access to a hermetic system and features a Schrader core valve which is unseated by the core depressor of hose fitting when attachedNot learned 357. If the initial report or automatic fire detection equipment are insufficient to provide adequate information to properly size-up a fire, an exploratory survey team consisting of at least two people may be required for reconnaissance purposes. How should the survey team members be equipped?Not learned 358. You are installing a new refrigeration system aboard your vessel. The system comes with a 240 psi rupture disk, a safety valve set at 240 psi and a pressure gauge connection and gauge. In accordance with 46 CFR, what is the preferred setup for installing the equipment on the condenser?Not learned 359. The intermediate survey for a vessel is typically carried out at what point in the survey cycle?Not learned 360. A very large crude carrier is scheduled to depart of the Port of Long Beach, CA at 0800 on June 28th on a voyage to exceed 48 hours. What is the EARLIEST time that the communication means between the wheelhouse and the engine control room could be tested prior to getting underway and be in compliance 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels)?Not learned 361. Which of the lettered components shown in the illustration indicates the high-pressure cut-outNot learned 362. Which lettered component, shown in the illustration, indicates the location of the receiverNot learned 363. Which of the listed statements describes the method used to determine the amount of superheat present in the suction gas leaving the evaporator coilNot learned 364. The low-pressure cut-out switch settings vary with the refrigerant used and the temperature application. If the low-pressure cut-out switch for a particular application is set with a cut-in pressure of 5 psig, what would be the cut-out pressure if the differential is 7.5 psig?Not learned 365. Machinery spaces must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance with U.S. regulations. Manned machinery space noise must not exceed which noise level?Not learned 366. As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. Besides collecting and preserving the physical evidence of the failure and interviewing key personnel, which of the following supplemental information should be considered? I) Onboard operating and maintenance procedures II) Historical operating and maintenance records III) Technical manuals and specifications IV) Personnel training recordsNot learned 367. As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. In collecting the necessary data for the root cause analysis, what should be your FIRST priority?Not learned 368. You are a management level engineering officer on a motor vessel. For departure planning purposes, when is the "standby" order typically rung?Not learned 369. As a management level engineering officer planning for the departure of a vessel, what would be the preferred document to use to make sure that you did not miss any important steps?Not learned 370. As a management level engineering officer planning for transitioning from the maneuvering watch posted when departing a US port to at sea manning on a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, in consultation with the ship's master, when would the transition take place?Not learned 371. As a management level engineering officer planning for underway operations onboard a tanker, you must maintain manning in the engineering spaces while underway in accordance with the certificate of inspection (COI) and the navigation safety regulations for underway tankers as set forth in 33 CFR. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 372. As a management level engineering officer planning for underway operations onboard a tanker, you must maintain manning in the engineering spaces while underway in accordance with the certificate of inspection (COI) and the navigation safety regulations for underway tankers as set forth in 33 CFR. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 373. There are many tasks to carry out prior to and during bunkering. What is the best way to insure no task is missed?Not learned 374. When measuring vibration, an engineer should be concerned with recording the velocity or displacement of the measurement. Which other factor should also be of concern?Not learned 375. In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve labeled "29"Not learned 376. What are the necessary components of a fire and emergency training program onboard ship?Not learned 377. If it is necessary to increase the operating head pressure of the refrigeration system using the device shown in the illustration, what should be doneNot learned 378. If a new assistant engineer reports onboard, ideally, who should conduct the familiarization training specific and relevant to the engineer's routine maintenance and watchkeeping duties?Not learned 379. In new construction or during significant steel plate replacements, what is the procedure of "line heating"?Not learned 380. For newly constructed vessels, extensive shipyard repair or a vessel's modification period, what does a shipyard's 'Gantt' chart represent?Not learned 381. When observing the candidate's performance while conducting an assessment, what is the appropriate response from the assessor when a safety condition is being violated?Not learned 382. One is slated to be a senior officer of a new vessel and is to participate in the 'Builder's Sea Trials'. What would you consider your responsibilities when asked to witness scheduled tests?Not learned 383. The operating motor on one of your ship's watertight doors needs to be replaced. What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?Not learned 384. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers. Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?Not learned 385. Overhaul of a ship at a shipyard represents an example of a large-scale project executed under contract. What characteristics best describe the terms of the project deliverables?Not learned 386. When performing mariner competency assessment onboard a vessel, as an assessor you must be mindful of the potential influence of other crew members. Which of the following statements regarding this potential influence is true?Not learned 387. A periodic hydrostatic test is being performed on a main steam line between the boiler drum and the throttle valve which has a maximum allowable working pressure of 960 psig. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), what is the required hydrostatic test pressure for this procedure?Not learned 388. On a PERT network (or arrow or line), what do the circles which are the beginning points or ending points for arrows or lines represent?Not learned 389. As it pertains to graphical tools used to visualize task scheduling in project management, what statement best represents the difference between a Gantt chart and a PERT chart?Not learned 390. Planned maintenance procedures are important to maintaining the operating condition of equipment. Your vessel is a single screw vessel. How often should you exam your vessel's tail shaft in order to be in compliance with Coast Guard periodic testing and inspection regulations?Not learned 391. In planning for a fire and emergency drill, to insure drill success within the context of a comprehensive fire and emergency training program, what should be planned for?Not learned 392. While in port, ships of what propulsive power and over are required to have an officer in charge of the engineering watch at all times?Not learned 393. In preparation for conducting a mariner assessment, an assessor must ascertain whether or not a candidate meets the assessment prerequisites. Which of the following indicates the prerequisite criteria that should be checked?Not learned 394. In preparing for the assessment of a mariner for competency, the assessor must establish that the appropriate conditions will be present for the assessment. What should the assessor do if the required conditions would adversely affect the normal operation of the ship?Not learned 395. Prior to arrival in Charleston, SC your vessel must conduct drills within 48 hours prior to entry and log that in the vessel logbook. Alternatively, you can log regularly scheduled quarterly drills according to 33 CFR regulations governing ports and waterways safety. Which of the following are included in the drills that must be performed? (1) Operation of the main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment. (2) Operation of the means of communications between the navigating bridge and the steering compartment. (3) Operation of the alternative power supply for the steering gear, if the vessel is so equipped. (4) Operation of the low lube pressure trip on the main engine. (5) Operation of the reverse power relay on the ship's diesel generator.Not learned 396. What project management scheduling chart is a bar chart with the activity or task descriptions displayed on the left and listed vertically from top to bottom, and the calendar displayed on the top and laid out horizontally from left to right?Not learned 397. When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?Not learned 398. Why is a purge recovery unit typically fitted on low-pressure centrifugal chillers?Not learned 399. What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as shown in the illustrationNot learned 400. You are putting together a list of Class required work for a vessel's next special survey. Which of the following items would be required by Class?Not learned 401. You have recently joined a vessel and are reviewing the classification society survey due dates. The last special periodic survey of the vessel was ten months previous. Within what time frame can the annual machinery surveys be completed?Not learned 402. While recharging a commercial type refrigerator, with a hermetically sealed compressor with no pressure gauges, what could you use or do to achieve a proper full charge?Not learned 403. A reciprocating multi-cylinder air conditioning or refrigeration compressor starts cycling on/off. What would one do to prevent cycling?Not learned 404. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way?Not learned 405. When recovering the remaining R-134a refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller shown in the illustration as a vapor using the recovery unit's compressor, in addition to opening valves "1a", "1b", and the compressor suction and discharge isolation valves, which of the following would be the correct valve lineupNot learned 406. Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shownNot learned 407. Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space temperature directly controlledNot learned 408. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures for air all equal in valueNot learned 409. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70°F and the relative humidity is 40%, what is the absolute humidityNot learned 410. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry bulb temperature of 60°F and a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain, and the off-coil temperature is now 80°F. What is off-coil relative humidityNot learned 411. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss with no change in moisture content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process lineNot learned 412. Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true concerning the damper controlsNot learned 413. In a refrigeration system featuring low-side pumpdown prior to the automatic shutdown of the compressor, the temperature of the refrigerated space is controlled by the action of a thermostat wired to what device?Not learned 414. In a refrigeration system, the valve shown in the illustration is used for what purposeNot learned 415. With regards to shipboard refrigeration systems, after July 1, 1992, what action became illegal?Not learned 416. You are the relieving the Chief Engineer of a general cargo vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage. You have just signed on the vessel and after reviewing the machinery running hours you notice the Emergency Generator has not been run in over sixty days. How would you proceed?Not learned 417. You are relieving the chief engineer on a self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit. What machinery and equipment are you required to inspect prior to assuming your duties?Not learned 418. You are requested by Port State Authority to present records pertaining to Flag State inspections. Which of the following records would you present?Not learned 419. In response to a fire in the engine room, who would ordinarily report immediately to the engine control room and assume command of the engine room?Not learned 420. In response to a fire on the main deck or in the accommodation spaces, who would ordinarily report immediately to the scene of the fire and act as second in command of the fire team led by the chief mate?Not learned 421. What responsibilities does a Senior Officer have while on Builder's Sea Trials of a new vessel to which one will be assigned?Not learned 422. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency?Not learned 423. While securing the air conditioning compressor you close the suction valve and the compressor stops after a short period of time. Subsequent attempts to start it produce no result. What control component would you suspect is preventing the compressor from starting?Not learned 424. As a senior engineer involved in new vessel construction, what would you consider to be the final proof of proper shaft alignment?Not learned 425. A sequence-of-events diagram can be a useful graphical tool used for root cause failure analysis. Several software programs are able to generate such diagrams. What statement concerning sequence-of-events diagrams is true?Not learned 426. (1.5.5.4-4) The setpoint adjustment of the device shown in the illustration is made by rotating what componentNot learned 427. All shipboard personnel responsible for the maintenance and repair of air conditioning systems using refrigerants covered under the EPA Clean Air Act venting prohibition, must be certified through an approved Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) program to do which of the following?Not learned 428. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 429. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller high efficiency purge recovery unit piping schematic, what statement is true concerning the vacuum pumpNot learned 430. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller pressure maintenance system, what is its functional purposeNot learned 431. As shown in the illustrated refrigeration system piping schematic diagram with the various accessories and controls and equipped with an air-cooled condenser with high side pressure controls, what statement is true concerning the fan cycling control pressure switchNot learned 432. When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shut down for a period of time, you should manually throttle which valve?Not learned 433. Which of the statements listed is applicable to the thermostatic expansion valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 434. What statement is true concerning assessment validity and assessment reliability?Not learned 435. What statement is true concerning the checks to be undertaken in the "checks prior to transfer" section of the bunkering safety checklist where the transfer is from barge-to-ship?Not learned 436. What statement is true concerning the engineering watch in port being handed over while an important operation, such as transferring fuel, is being performed?Not learned 437. Which statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?Not learned 438. What statement is true concerning the use of a thermal imager for the purposes of conducting a thermo graphic analysis of equipment?Not learned 439. What statement is true when considering bunkering tank volume?Not learned 440. Suppose a water-lubricated stern tube bearing is being evaluated for wear where the propulsion machinery is located aft. If the tail shaft diameter is 13.5 inches, according to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment, what would be the maximum clearance diameter permissible before the bearing must be re-bushed?Not learned 441. When transitioning from full sea speed to maneuvering speed on a slow-speed diesel-powered motor vessel featuring a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement, how should this be accomplished?Not learned 442. When transitioning from maneuvering speed to full sea speed on a slow-speed diesel-powered vessel that features a direct-drive fixed-pitch propeller propulsion arrangement, how should this be accomplished?Not learned 443. What is true concerning highly contaminated refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances?Not learned 444. If two centrifuges are to be simultaneously used in series to treat residual fuel contaminated with both water and solids, how should the centrifuges be configured?Not learned 445. Upon joining a vessel on 28 April 2013 you find the last dry-docking was May 2011. When is the next date for vessel dry-docking if the vessel is not enrolled in an underwater survey program in lieu of dry-docking?Not learned 446. Using the illustrated chart giving the boiling point of moisture at various depths of vacuum, with an ambient temperature of 72°F, what depth of vacuum would be associated with the BEST chance of achieving a dehydration evacuation with a deep vacuum pumpNot learned 447. When using a thermal imager for the purpose of conducting a thermographic analysis of equipment, what form of energy produces the thermal signature radiating from the object surface?Not learned 448. What is usually the last step in trying to resolve a grievance filed by a crew member as established by the collective bargaining agreement between the company and the crew member's union?Not learned 449. If the valve labeled "D" in the illustration is a suction service valve, what will the port labeled "7" be connected toNot learned 450. Of the various possible methods shown in the illustration, which is the correct method of attaching a TXV feeler bulb to a large suction line (7/8" and larger) with a horizontal runNot learned 451. On a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, which of the below listed events will trigger the annunciation of the engineer's assistance needed alarm?Not learned 452. On a vessel classed for a periodically unmanned engine room, which of the below listed items are a mandatory part of the maintenance program check-off list for transitioning to unmanned status at the end of the work day according to the 46 CFR regulations for automated selfpropelled vessel manning? I) Routine daily maintenance has been performed. II) Fire and flooding hazards have been minimized. III) Plant status is suitable for unattended operation.Not learned 453. During a vessel dry-docking survey which of the following items are typically required by Class to be surveyed?Not learned 454. If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement concerning dry boiler lay-up is true as it relates to protecting boiler watersides?Not learned 455. If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from ashore, boilers may be laid up dry. What statement is true as it relates to protecting boiler firesides?Not learned 456. If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to keeping electric motor windings dry and free from moisture?Not learned 457. If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to keeping gearboxes, turbine casings, and engine crankcases dry and free of moisture?Not learned 458. If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to preparing a refrigeration system for lay-up?Not learned 459. If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided where freezing is not a concern, boilers may be laid up wet. What statement concerning wet boiler lay-up is true?Not learned 460. Your vessel has a monthly predictive maintenance program for monitoring machinery vibrations and lubricating oil analysis. What information do the results of the vibration readings and oil analysis provide to you?Not learned 461. Your vessel requires the Certificate of Inspection (COI) to be renewed annually. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), how often must the steering gear be inspected?Not learned 462. A vessel you are sailing on as chief engineer had its last dry-docking survey 2 years prior and is not enrolled in an underwater survey program in lieu of dry-docking. When is the next dry-docking due?Not learned 463. A vessel you are sailing on as Chief Engineer had its last special survey 2 years prior to now. When is the next special survey due?Not learned 464. Vessel special surveys are conducted how often in the life of a vessel?Not learned 465. While a vessel is underway in periodically unmanned engine room status, the oily-water separator is undergoing extensive maintenance and repairs and will not be available for service for another 24 hours. With bilge holding tanks nearing capacity, as chief engineer you wish to be informed of when the oily-water separator is available for service. How would you best ensure that you will be so informed?Not learned 466. Vibration analysis can provide comparative data of operating condition of rotating machinery. At what positions should such readings be taken at bearing housings and foundations?Not learned 467. What would cause a pump casing distortion that may lead to casing crack(s), leaks and eventual mechanical pump problems?Not learned 468. What would be an indication that the vegetable box back pressure regulator is set too low?Not learned 469. During a yard period when a tailshaft survey is being performed and where the propeller shaft has been withdrawn, when is a surveyor attendance required?Not learned 470. Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator coil outlet of a refrigeration system or unit by the action of what device?Not learned 471. In a refrigeration system that is not protected by a water failure switch, if the cooling water to the condenser fails, what will be the result for protective purposes?Not learned 472. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in place by what means?Not learned 473. The sensing line for the low-pressure cut-out switch for a refrigeration system is typically connected at what location?Not learned 474. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to periodic tests and inspections as related to machinery and equipment, what statement is true concerning tailshaft examinations?Not learned 475. Machinery spaces must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance with U.S. regulations. Machinery control room noise must not exceed which noise level?Not learned 476. The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning system is 90°F with a relative humidity of 60%. The air has been conditioned to 70°F with a relative humidity of 80%. Using the psychrometric chart, shown in the illustration, determine the quantity of moisture removed from one pound of the conditioned airNot learned 477. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a delegating leadership style?Not learned 478. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the summer outside air duct thermostatNot learned 479. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist" serve in the objective statement?Not learned