MEWB - Electrical, Electronic, & Control Engineering, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. An electrical connection between the wiring of an electric motor and its metal frame is known as what?Not learned 2. A circuit that has a conductor in electrical contact with the hull of a ship is called what?Not learned 3. An unintended path of low resistance bypassing the intended path and allowing passage of an abnormally high amount of current is known as what?Not learned 4. An unintended path of low resistance bypassing the intended path and allowing passage of an abnormally high amount of current is known as what?Not learned 5. What is the basic unit of measure for inductance?Not learned 6. In terms of units, how is the inductance of a coil measured?Not learned 7. How may the unit "hertz" be best described?Not learned 8. What unit of measure is used to quantify electrical power?Not learned 9. What is the unit of measure for electrical power?Not learned 10. Electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor. How is the rate of this flow measured?Not learned 11. Electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor. How is the rate of this flow measured?Not learned 12. In the flow of one cycle of single phase alternating current past any given point in a circuit, how many times will the current peak to a maximum or minimum?Not learned 13. What is the unit of measure for electrical resistance?Not learned 14. When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed has the highest permeability?Not learned 15. What is the correct name for current that flows in only one direction?Not learned 16. What is the name of the force that causes free electrons to flow in a conductor producing electric current?Not learned 17. What is the opposition to the establishment of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit called?Not learned 18. What is the opposition to alternating current flow through a coil due to inductance called?Not learned 19. What is the combined effect of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and resistance in an alternating current circuit known as?Not learned 20. As a property of an electric circuit, how is inductance correctly described?Not learned 21. In terms of the type of load in an alternating circuit, in what type of alternating current circuit will the voltage always lead the current?Not learned 22. In terms of load type, in what type of alternating current circuit will the current always lag the voltage?Not learned 23. The term "volt" describes:Not learned 24. In a 60 Hz AC system, what is the duration in seconds for one complete cycle?Not learned 25. What type of electrical diagram is shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 26. As a DC armature revolves within a stationary magnetic field, the reversals of magnetization of the armature core lags the current reversals which produces heat. What is the correct name for this action which is minimized by the use of soft silicon steel?Not learned 27. How is the rated temperature rise of an electric motor defined?Not learned 28. What is the twisting force developed by a motor and applied to a shaft called?Not learned 29. With respect to motors, how is ambient temperature defined?Not learned 30. With respect to motors, how is ambient temperature defined?Not learned 31. With respect to electric motors, what does the term ambient temperature mean?Not learned 32. With respect to electric motors, what does the term ambient temperature mean?Not learned 33. What is meant by the term 'dielectric'?Not learned 34. What is the 'dielectric constant' of dry air or a vacuum?Not learned 35. What is the direction of electron current through the load resistor in the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 36. The multiplier prefix 'tera' (T) such as used in "terabytes" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 37. The multiplier prefix "giga" (G) such as used in "gigabytes" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 38. The multiplier prefix 'kilo' (k) such as used in "kilovolts" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 39. The multiplier prefix 'mega' (M) such as used in "megawatts" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 40. The multiplier prefix 'micro' (Greek letter mu) such as used in "micro amps" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 41. The multiplier prefix 'nano' (n) such as used in "nanometers" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 42. The multiplier prefix 'pico' (p) such as used in "picofarads" represents what multiplication factor?Not learned 43. In electronic circuits, DC voltages can be positive (+) or negative (-) when measured with respect to a certain physical reference point? What would be an example or examples of such a reference point? Analog or digital circuitry 'common' bus or PCB 'common' trace. Chassis, console frame, or hull 'ground'.Not learned 44. Alternating current circuits may develop resistance, inductance and capacitance. What would be the unit of measure used in measuring the inductance of a wound coil?Not learned 45. The number of cycles per second occurring in AC voltage is known as what characteristic?Not learned 46. The root mean square (RMS) value of a sine-wave current may also be referred to as what value?Not learned 47. Materials that retain a large part of their magnetization, after the magnetizing force is removed are considered to be permanent magnets. What characteristic of the material is responsible for this permanence?Not learned 48. In a three-phase circuit, how far apart are the phase voltages?Not learned 49. AC circuits can possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and capacitance. In terms of units of measure, how is the capacitive reactance of the circuit expressed?Not learned 50. Alternating current circuits may develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. What is the unit of measure for expressing capacitance?Not learned 51. AC circuits may develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. What is the unit of measure used to express inductive reactance?Not learned 52. Capacitance is the property of an electric circuit opposing a change in what value of a circuit?Not learned 53. What type of electrical diagram is shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 54. What type of electrical diagram is shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 55. What type of electrical diagram is shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 56. When the insulation breaks down within a metal encased, portable, electric tool, __________.Not learned 57. When disassembling electric motors for maintenance or overhaul, what should be done FIRST?Not learned 58. Which of the following precautions should be taken when troubleshooting various power circuits using an electronic voltage tester?Not learned 59. Which of the following precautions should be taken when troubleshooting various power circuits using an electronic solenoid type voltage tester?Not learned 60. Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or controller, what should be done?Not learned 61. In order to safely carry out repairs to a generator circuit breaker, it must be isolated from the bus. How is this accomplished?Not learned 62. (1.1.10.2.2-2) When replacing fuses, what practice should be observed?Not learned 63. When working on a high voltage circuit, you should always have another person present with you. This person should have a good working knowledge of the hazards associated with working on high voltage electrical circuits as well as the first aid techniques for treating electrical shock. What other knowledge is essential?Not learned 64. When working on electrical circuits containing large capacitors, in addition to de-energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions should also be taken?Not learned 65. When maintenance personnel are working on electrical equipment, all supply switches should be secured in the open position and tagged. Who specifically should perform the lock-out/tag-out procedure?Not learned 66. Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de-energized circuit, or even one that is completely disconnected, you should do what FIRST?Not learned 67. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, under what conditions is the test proving unit used in conjunction with the high voltage probeNot learned 68. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, after the high voltage circuit has been properly de-energized and isolated, and tested for the absence of voltage, what is the proper sequence for grounding high voltage motor terminals prior to commencing workNot learned 69. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what is the proper sequence for disconnecting the ground straps after completion of work on the high voltage motorNot learned 70. Which of the following describes intrinsically safe equipment?Not learned 71. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?Not learned 72. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would be unable to let go of the energized electrical conductor due to involuntary muscular contraction?Not learned 73. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would experience respiratory paralysis and be unable to breathe while still in contact with the energized conductor?Not learned 74. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would suffer ventricular fibrillation and could only be resuscitated with a ventricular defibrillator?Not learned 75. Contact with any energized electrical system conductor is potentially hazardous and precautions should be taken to prevent exposure. With all other factors considered equal (such as voltage, conducting path through the body and the duration of contact), contact with an energized electrical system conductor of which system type would produce the most damaging effect?Not learned 76. Before electrical work can be safely undertaken, the equipment must be de-energized, locked and tagged out, and verification must be made that the circuit is actually dead. What testing device is most certain to reliably verify that a circuit is actually dead?Not learned 77. Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of electrical isolation?Not learned 78. Which of the following voltage testers would be associated with high quality, be safe to use, and minimize the electric shock hazard?Not learned 79. What is the primary means by which an electrical maintenance worker is protected from electrical hazards while performing work on an electrical circuit?Not learned 80. After prior isolation and lock-out/tag-out procedures are performed, which electrical device requires discharging any stored electrical energy before any work may safely begin?Not learned 81. Before work may safely commence on a high voltage system, what must first be done after disconnection and isolation?Not learned 82. In order for a live-line tester to be used to test and prove dead a high voltage circuit, what must be done to verify the ability of the tester to detect a voltage?Not learned 83. What is the primary means by which an electrical maintenance worker is protected from electrical hazards while performing work on an electrical circuit?Not learned 84. Which of the following voltage testers would be associated with high quality, be safe to use, and minimize the electric shock hazard?Not learned 85. Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of electrical isolation?Not learned 86. Before electrical work can be safely undertaken, the equipment must be de-energized, locked and tagged out, and verification must be made that the circuit is actually dead. What testing device is most certain to reliably verify that a circuit is actually dead?Not learned 87. Contact with any energized electrical system conductor is potentially hazardous and precautions should be taken to prevent exposure. With all other factors considered equal (such as voltage, conducting path through the body and the duration of contact), contact with an energized electrical system conductor of which system type would produce the most damaging effect?Not learned 88. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would suffer ventricular fibrillation and could only be resuscitated with a ventricular defibrillator?Not learned 89. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would experience respiratory paralysis and be unable to breathe while still in contact with the energized conductor?Not learned 90. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a condition where most people would be unable to let go of the energized electrical conductor due to involuntary muscular contraction?Not learned 91. After prior isolation and lock-out/tag-out procedures are performed, which electrical device requires discharging any stored electrical energy before any work may safely begin?Not learned 92. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?Not learned 93. Before work may safely commence on a high voltage system, what must first be done after disconnection and isolation?Not learned 94. In order for a live-line tester to be used to test and prove dead a high voltage circuit, what must be done to verify the ability of the tester to detect a voltage?Not learned 95. What is the minimum threshold voltage at which the skin offers no appreciable resistance to electrical current flow and is known as the "skin-puncture voltage"?Not learned 96. Which activity or event accounts for the most electrical accidents resulting in injury?Not learned 97. Why should an electrical worker determine the nominal voltage of a circuit first before making contact with the circuit?Not learned 98. When taking voltage measurements, for reasons of electrical safety, what should be the proper sequence of actions?Not learned 99. When performing an absence-of-voltage test before commencing repair work, at the minimum where must the absence-of-voltage test be performed?Not learned 100. When performing an absence-of-voltage test, a live-dead-live test may be required in conjunction with the absence-of-voltage test. What is the purpose of the live-dead-live test?Not learned 101. What statement is true concerning temporary protective grounds used to establish an equipotential zone for the purposes of eliminating the electric shock hazard?Not learned 102. What is the minimum threshold voltage which requires electrical workers to be insulated from energized conductors or circuit parts by wearing the appropriate PPE while working in open enclosures?Not learned 103. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core is known as what?Not learned 104. The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of electromagnetic induction by mutual inductance is what?Not learned 105. What will happen to an electrical coil when the direct current flowing through the coil is increasing?Not learned 106. Which of the substances listed can be used to shield sensitive equipment from static magnetic fields?Not learned 107. As shown in figure "6" of the illustration, what does the symbol represent as used in electrical drawingsNot learned 108. In electrical circuit schematics, a normally open pressure switch is represented by which of the symbols shown in the illustrationNot learned 109. In electrical circuit schematics, a normally closed pressure switch is represented by which of the symbols shown in the illustrationNot learned 110. As shown in the illustration, the change-over switch is what type of deviceNot learned 111. Which of the listed devices is an electrical device which employs a stationary armature and a rotating electromagnetic field that is commonly used aboard ship?Not learned 112. Which material would have the lowest dielectric constant as used in a capacitor?Not learned 113. How should the shunt used in an ammeter be connected?Not learned 114. What does the schematic symbol shown in figure "2" of the illustration representNot learned 115. What does the schematic symbol shown in figure "2" of the illustration representNot learned 116. Which of the illustrated safety disconnect switches represents a double-throw switchNot learned 117. Which of the following electrical schematic symbols represents a normally closed flow switchNot learned 118. Which of the following electrical schematic symbols represents a normally open flow switchNot learned 119. What is the correct name for the device used in an electrical circuit to change alternating current to direct current?Not learned 120. On an engine throttle control system, the auxiliary control circuits are provided with devices to prevent excessive over travel of the actuating valve by the control motor. What are these devices commonly called?Not learned 121. Which electrical schematic symbol represents a normally open thermostatNot learned 122. If the illustrated device in figure "B" has a step-up ratio of 10 to 1 what voltage would be measured at the secondary shortly after the primary of the device is connected to 110 volts DC and the primary current stabilized with a current of 12 ampsNot learned 123. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the symbols shown in the illustration represents a standard normally closed relay contactNot learned 124. Which electrical schematic symbol represents a normally closed thermostatNot learned 125. Which of the electrical schematic symbols shown in the illustration represents a normally closed limit switchNot learned 126. What would be the resistance tolerance of a carbon resistor which is color-coded as red, violet, brown, and silver in bands 1 thru 4 respectfully as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 127. A carbon resistor has a resistance of 50 ohms, and a tolerance of 5 percent. What would be the respective colors indicated for bands 1, 2, 3 and 4 for this resistor as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 128. A carbon resistor has the following color bands; band 1 is yellow, band 2 is violet, band 3 is yellow, and band 4 is silver. What is the value of the resistor in ohms, as well as the toleranceNot learned 129. A carbon resistor has the following color bands; band 1 is yellow, band 2 is violet, band 3 is yellow, and band 4 is silver. What is the value of the resistor in ohms, as well as the toleranceNot learned 130. A carbon resistor has the following color bands; band 1 is yellow, band 2 is violet, band 3 is black, and band 4 is gold. What is the ohmic value of the resistor, as well as the toleranceNot learned 131. A carbon resistor has the following color bands; band 1 is yellow, band 2 is violet, band 3 is gold, and band 4 is silver. What is the ohmic value of the resistor, as well as the toleranceNot learned 132. What would be the ohmic value of a carbon resistor if the color bands 1, 2, 3, and 4 were yellow, violet, red, and gold respectivelyNot learned 133. What would be the ohmic value of a carbon resistor if the color bands 1, 2, 3, and 4 were yellow, green, orange, and gold respectivelyNot learned 134. What will happen to a carbon resistor operating in electrical equipment that is NOT properly cooled?Not learned 135. What is the third color band on a resistor used to indicate?Not learned 136. How can the nominal resistance value of a typical carbon resistor in a circuit best be determined?Not learned 137. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to the failure of a resistor due to overheating?Not learned 138. How does the resistance of a conductor vary?Not learned 139. Compared to the original wire, what will be the resistance of a replacement wire having twice the length and one-half the cross-sectional area of the original?Not learned 140. If the length of a wire is halved and the cross-sectional area is doubled, what will be the resistance of the wire as compared to the original wire?Not learned 141. When the length and cross sectional area of a replacement wire are both tripled, what will be the value of the resistance as compared to the original wire?Not learned 142. A wire is being used as a replacement having twice the length and one-half the cross-sectional area of the original wire. What will be the resistance of this new wire, when compared to that of the original wire?Not learned 143. Most conducting materials such as copper, aluminum, iron, nickel, and tungsten behave in such as way as the resistance and conductance is predictably effected by temperature. Which statement is true regarding this behavior?Not learned 144. The resistance of most conducting materials will change as a result of temperature change. What will happen to the resistance of copper wire when the temperature increases?Not learned 145. What will happen to a copper wire when the current flow through the wire increases in value?Not learned 146. What will cause the resistance of electric wire to decrease?Not learned 147. The existing resistance of a conductor is dependent upon its length, cross-sectional area, and what other factors?Not learned 148. With what units of measure is the cross-sectional area of shipboard electrical cable expressed?Not learned 149. The standard measuring unit of wire by its cross-sectional area, as used in American wire tables is measured how?Not learned 150. What would be the diameter of a conductor with a cross-sectional area of one circular mil?Not learned 151. Which solid AWG wire size has the smallest physical cross-sectional area?Not learned 152. Which of the AWG wire sizes listed below would have the smallest diameter?Not learned 153. Which of the following statements about copper wire sized by the AWG rating system is correct?Not learned 154. Which of the following statements about copper wire sized by the AWG rating system is correct?Not learned 155. A coil is wound with 200 feet of No. 16 tinned copper wire and connected to a 12 volt battery. What is the current if the resistance per 1000 feet of No. 16 tinned copper wire is 4.26 ohms?Not learned 156. A coil is wound with 400 feet of No. 16 tinned copper wire and connected to a 12 volt battery. What is the current if the resistance per 1000 feet of No. 16 tinned copper wire is 4.26 ohms?Not learned 157. How is electrical conductor insulation classed? Example: insulation class HNot learned 158. If you disconnect and arrange both ends of a conductor of a multi-conductor cable without any contact between the individual conductors, what would a low ohmic value between the ends of a single conductor indicate?Not learned 159. When electrical cables penetrate watertight bulkheads, what must be provided for?Not learned 160. All electric cables passing through watertight bulkheads must be configured in what manner?Not learned 161. (1.1.10.1.1-2) What is a common type of protective covering used on electrical conductors?Not learned 162. Why is copper often used as an electrical conductor?Not learned 163. What is the reason that some electric cables are formed of stranded wire?Not learned 164. Why are large cable sizes often formed as individual conductors comprised of several smaller strands?Not learned 165. Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining the wire gauge size of the cable to be used in a particular circuit?Not learned 166. As shown in the illustration, which of the following pieces of equipment is fed with the three conductor cable with the individual conductors having the smallest cross-sectional areaNot learned 167. To minimize magnetic field interaction between electrical conductors in physical proximity, what is the best practice?Not learned 168. Electrical wire in general, when used aboard vessels must meet minimum requirements. Which of the following statements is/are correct?Not learned 169. You are supervising a new electrician concerning an onboard test of an electrical component using a test rig with flexible cable. The electrician is unsure of the cable conductor color coding. Which of the color coded insulated conductors can only serve as an equipment safety ground and shall not be used as a current carrying conductor?Not learned 170. How is power loss expressed as the result of the heating of conductors due to resistance in distribution circuit cabling?Not learned 171. What happens to the power loss when the current flow in a power transmission line is halved?Not learned 172. What happens to the power loss when the current flow in a power transmission line is halved?Not learned 173. What happens to the power loss when the current in a power transmission line is increased?Not learned 174. Which of the following losses is minimized by laminating the core of a DC generator armature?Not learned 175. Hysteresis is one cause of electrical power loss associated with electricity generation equipment. What phenomenon results in hysteresis?Not learned 176. How are the line losses in a distribution circuit kept to a minimum?Not learned 177. If the resistance of a circuit is one half the original value and the applied voltage is kept constant, what will be the effect on the current as compared to the original current?Not learned 178. In a simple DC circuit, the resistance is held constant while the applied voltage is halved. What will be the effect on the current flow as compared to the original current?Not learned 179. Referring to figures "C" and "D" of the illustration what is the phase relationship of current to voltage in a purely resistive circuitNot learned 180. Referring to figures "C" and "D" of the illustration what is the phase relationship of current to voltage in a purely resistive circuitNot learned 181. Referring to figures "C" and "D" of the illustration what is the phase relationship of current to voltage in a purely resistive circuitNot learned 182. In the schematic of the electrical circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the value of the total capacitance, when compared to the value of equal individual capacitorsNot learned 183. What would be the total capacitance of the circuit illustrated in figure "A" if the value of capacitor C1 was 100 microfarads and capacitor C2 was 50 microfaradsNot learned 184. What would be the total capacitance of the circuit illustrated in figure "A" if the value of capacitor C1 was 100 microfarads and capacitor C2 was 50 microfaradsNot learned 185. What will be the resulting current if a voltage of 132 VDC is applied to the load with the switch closed in the illustrated circuit in figure "A" where the resistance is 12 ohmsNot learned 186. In a series circuit, which value will remain unchanged at all places in the circuit?Not learned 187. What is true concerning all of the connecting conductors of a DC series circuit?Not learned 188. What happens to the flow of current when the supply voltage remains constant and the resistance is changed in a circuit?Not learned 189. What happens to the current in a series circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance increases?Not learned 190. Which of the following statements is correct for the illustrated circuit in figure "B"Not learned 191. In a circuit with DC voltage applied to resistances connected in series and the switch closed, under what circumstance would the full applied voltage be measured across one resistorNot learned 192. (1.1.2.2-2) Consider a series circuit employing two resistors. What is true about the resistance value of the second resistor compared to the first when the voltage drop across the first resistor is one-half the source voltage?Not learned 193. For practical purposes, in a series circuit employing three resistors all with different resistance values, across which resistor will the largest voltage drop occur?Not learned 194. In a series circuit, what is the applied voltage (or sum of the applied voltages) equal to?Not learned 195. Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same across each component in a parallel circuit?Not learned 196. Which of the following statements concerning a circuit with parallel connected resistors is correct?Not learned 197. What statement is true concerning the total resistance of a parallel circuit?Not learned 198. What statement is true concerning the total resistance of a parallel circuit?Not learned 199. Which of the following statements is true concerning circuits with parallel connected resistances?Not learned 200. What statement is true concerning the electrical diagram shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 201. Four incandescent lamps are connected in series in a single circuit. If one of the lamp filaments burns out, what will happen to the other lamps?Not learned 202. What will happen to the total effective circuit resistance when additional parallel circuits are added to a circuit?Not learned 203. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, with the switch closed what statement is true if "R1" and "R2" have unequal resistance valuesNot learned 204. The distance between a generator and its load is 100 feet. What would be the approximate total voltage drop across a two wire supply cable if the current were 5.5 amperes and the resistance of the wire were 2.525 ohms per 1,000 feet?Not learned 205. A lamp is provided with 110 volts and draws a current of 0.8 amps. What is the hot resistance of the lamp filament?Not learned 206. A lamp has a source voltage of 110 volts and a current of 0.9 amps. What is the hot resistance of the lamp filament?Not learned 207. How many volts are necessary to provide a current of 10 amperes to a motor with an impedance of 11 ohms?Not learned 208. If the values of "C1" and "R1" shown in the illustration were 1 microfarad and 3 megohms respectively, which of the listed intervals of time would equal one "time constant"Not learned 209. If the values of "C1" and "R1" shown in the illustration were 1 microfarad and 3 megohms respectively, at what listed time would "C1" be considered fully chargedNot learned 210. If the values of "C1" and "R1" shown in the illustration were 1 microfarad and 100 k ohms, which of the listed time intervals would equal one 'time constant'Not learned 211. If the values of "C1" and "R1" shown in the illustration were 1 microfarad and 100 k ohms respectively, at what listed time would "C" be considered fully chargedNot learned 212. What will the resulting current be when a voltage of 115 VDC is applied across a resistance of 1.74 ohms when the switch is closed in figure "A" of the illustrated circuitNot learned 213. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 115 VDC is applied to a resistance of 12 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closedNot learned 214. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 442.7 VDC is applied to a resistance of 1.25 ohms in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closedNot learned 215. What would be the source voltage of the illustrated circuit in figure "A" if the current flow with the switch closed was 6 amps and the resistance was 180 ohmsNot learned 216. What will be the resulting current when a voltage of 12 VDC is applied to a capacitance of 470 microfarads in figure "C" of the illustrated circuit after the capacitor has had ample time to fully chargeNot learned 217. What current is will be drawn by two 75 watt lamps and one 40 watt lamp when connected in parallel to a 120 volt power source?Not learned 218. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the applied voltage is 12 VDC, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, and R2 is 10 ohms what is the current flowing through R2 with the switch closedNot learned 219. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the applied voltage is 12 VDC, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, and R2 is 10 ohms what is the total power consumed by the circuit when the switch is closedNot learned 220. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the applied voltage is 12 VDC, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, and R2 is 10 ohms what is the total power consumed by the circuit when the switch is closedNot learned 221. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, if the applied voltage is 12 volts DC, the resistance of R1 is 110 ohms, and R2 is 10 k ohms, what is the voltage measured across R1 when the switch is closedNot learned 222. In figure "A" of the illustration, 12 volts is applied to the circuit where the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms and R2 is 10 ohms. what is the voltage across R2 when the switch is closedNot learned 223. In figure of "A" of the illustrated circuit, what is the voltage measured across R1 if the battery voltage is 24 volts, the resistance of R1 is 34 ohms, and the resistance of R2 is 126 ohms when the switch is closedNot learned 224. In figure "A" of the illustrated circuit, what is the resistance across R2 if the battery voltage is 32 VDC, the resistance of R1 is 1.2 k ohms and the current through R2 is 18.82 milliampsNot learned 225. In figure "A" of the illustrated circuit, what is the voltage of the battery if the resistance of R1 is 150 ohms, the total resistance is 250 ohms and the current though R2 is 25 milliamps when the switch is closedNot learned 226. What will be the total current in figure "B" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closed if the applied voltage is 24 volts and the resistance of R is 3 ohms, R is 4 ohms, and R is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 227. What is the voltage across "R1" of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closed if the applied voltage is 24 volts and resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 228. What is the voltage across "R1" of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closed if the applied voltage is 24 volts and resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 229. What is the voltage across "R1" of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closed if the applied voltage is 24 volts and resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 230. What is the total effective resistance of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit if the resistance of R is 3 1 ohms, R is 4 ohms, and R is 5 ohmsNot learned 231. Which of the following statements is true if a 100 watt lamp and a 75 watt lamp each rated at 100 volts are connected in parallel across a 100 volt power supply?Not learned 232. A battery is connected to a circuit containing three resistors in parallel. The values of the three resistors are 2 ohms, 3 ohms, and 6 ohms. What is the voltage of the battery if the total circuit current is 12 amps?Not learned 233. If a circuit has resistances of 5, 10, and 20 ohms connected in parallel, what is the combined total resistance of the circuit?Not learned 234. What is the total resistance of the electrical circuit illustrated in figure "B" if the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 4 ohms and the battery voltage is 6 voltsNot learned 235. What is the total current of the illustrated circuit in figure "B" with the switch closed if the battery voltage is 12 VDC and the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 3 ohms and R3 is 6 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 236. What is the current flow through R1 of the circuit in figure "B" of the illustration with the switch closed if the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 3 ohms and R3 is 6 ohms and the battery voltage is 12 VDCNot learned 237. What is the current flowing through R in figure "B" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closed 3 if the battery voltage is 12 VDC and resistance of R is 2 ohms, R is 3 ohms, and R is 6 ohms, 1 2 3 respectivelyNot learned 238. What is the current flowing through R in figure "B" of the illustrated circuit when the switch is closed 3 if the battery voltage is 12 VDC and resistance of R is 2 ohms, R is 3 ohms, and R is 6 ohms, 1 2 3 respectivelyNot learned 239. What is the total current in figure "B" of the illustrated circuit powered by a 6 volt battery if the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 4 ohms, respectively with the switch closedNot learned 240. What is the current flowing through R1 of figure "B" of the illustrated circuit with the switch closed and with a 6 VDC battery if the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms and R3 is 4 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 241. What is the current through R2 of figure "B" of the circuit illustrated with the switch closed if the resistance of R1 is 2 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 4 ohms and the battery voltage is 6 VDCNot learned 242. What will be the resulting total current if a voltage of 125 VDC is applied to the loads of the circuit in figure "A" of the illustration where the resistance of R is 12 ohms, and R is 115 ohmsNot learned 243. In the illustrated circuit of figure "A", if the battery voltage is 24 VDC, the resistance of R1 is 24 ohms, and the resistance of R2 is 24 ohms, what will be the resulting total current with the switch closedNot learned 244. In figure "A" of the illustrated circuit, with the switch closed what is the resistance of R2 if the total current is .75 amps, the source voltage is 12 VDC and the resistance of R1 is 24 ohmsNot learned 245. In the illustrated circuit of figure "A", what is the total resistance if the source voltage is 10 VDC, the resistance of R2 is 40 ohms and the total current is .75 amps with the switch closedNot learned 246. In figure "B" of the illustrated circuit, if the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms, and R3 is 10 ohms, what is the total resistanceNot learned 247. What would be the total current flowing in the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 248. What would be the voltage drop across the series string of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the source voltage is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, the resistance for R2 is 10 ohms and the resistance for R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 249. What would be the voltage drop across the series resistor of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance of R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 250. What power would be consumed by the series resistor in the circuit shown in the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms and R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 251. Three 12-volt, lead-acid, batteries connected in series will develop how many volts?Not learned 252. As shown in the illustration, the wet cell storage batteries are connected in what configurationNot learned 253. The diagram shown in the illustration demonstrates one of the useful properties of an 'RC' time constant circuit. In terms of the charging and discharging cycles of "C1", what statement is trueNot learned 254. RC time constant characteristics, as shown in the illustration, are important in which of the following applicationsNot learned 255. Which figure represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "2"Not learned 256. Referring to figure "B" of the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 257. Referring to figure "B" of the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 258. What would be the voltage drop across the series string of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the source voltage is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, the resistance for R2 is 10 ohms and the resistance for R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 259. What would be the total current draw of the circuit as shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the source voltage is 24 volts, the resistance for R1 is 12 ohms, the resistance for R2 is 24 ohms, and the resistance for R3 is 36 ohmsNot learned 260. What would be the total power consumed by the circuit as shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the source voltage is 12 volts, the resistance for R1 is 470 ohms, the resistance of R2 is 330 ohms, and the resistance of R3 is 800 ohmsNot learned 261. What would be the total power consumed by the circuit as shown in figure "B" of the illustration if the source voltage is 12 volts, the resistance for R1 is 470 ohms, the resistance of R2 is 800 ohms, and the resistance of R3 is 330 ohmsNot learned 262. Which figure represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "2"Not learned 263. In referring to figure "E" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the functional purpose of the coupling transformerNot learned 264. In referring to figure "F" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the functional purpose of the RC couplingNot learned 265. Which figure represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "2"Not learned 266. For the purpose of calculating line current, which of the following procedures should be used to determine the total line current of a three-phase, delta wound, AC generator?Not learned 267. What statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a series circuit?Not learned 268. Which statement is true concerning the total power consumed in a parallel circuit?Not learned 269. Which of the formulas listed is correct for determining power?Not learned 270. How is the power dissipated as heat in a direct current circuit calculated?Not learned 271. How many watts of power is equal to one horsepower?Not learned 272. If the voltage supplied to the lighting circuit is 110 volts, how much current is drawn by a 100 watt light bulb?Not learned 273. An AC motor is started and produces 25 horsepower when running at rated speed and load. Neglecting power factor considerations, how much will the kW meter reading increase for the sole generator providing power?Not learned 274. An electric heating element supplied with 120 volts draws 15 amps. How much power will be consumed?Not learned 275. What is the wattage of a heating element drawing a current of 30 amperes, at 120 volts?Not learned 276. What power is consumed by a heating element drawing a current of 20 amperes at 120 volts?Not learned 277. A 125 volt DC motor is rated at 10 kW. What is the current rating of the motor?Not learned 278. With the switch closed in the circuit illustrated in figure "B", what is the total power consumed by the loads if the applied voltage is 24 volts and the resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 279. What is the power consumed by "R2" in the circuit illustrated in figure "B", if the applied voltage is 24 volts and the resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 280. What is the power consumed by 'R1' in the circuit illustrated in figure "B" with the switch closed if the applied voltage is 24 volts and the resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 281. What is the power consumed by "R2" in the circuit illustrated in figure "B", if the applied voltage is 24 volts and the resistance of R1 is 3 ohms, R2 is 4 ohms, and R3 is 5 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 282. Two 100 watt light bulbs rated at 100 volts are connected in parallel across a 100 volt power supply. What will be the total power consumed by the two bulbs?Not learned 283. What would be the total power consumed in the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration if the source is 30 volts, the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms, and R3 is 10 ohmsNot learned 284. What would be the power consumed in the combined parallel section of the circuit shown in the illustration if the source voltage was 30 volts and the resistance for R1 is 10 ohms, R2 is 10 ohms, and R3 is 10 ohms, respectivelyNot learned 285. Refer to figure "A" representing an electric oven as shown in the illustration. With the oven turned on, the power available indicator light is off, the oven on indicator light is off, and only elements "6" and "7" appear to be producing heat. Which fuse is blownNot learned 286. The Wheatstone bridge is a precision measuring instrument. Its operating principle is based on changes in what electrical parameter?Not learned 287. What is a useful instrument for checking 3-phase AC motor performance by measuring possible unbalanced currents?Not learned 288. What is a useful instrument for checking 3-phase AC motor performance by measuring possible unbalanced currents?Not learned 289. Which of the listed instruments can be best used to locate a grounded stator coil in a synchronous motor onboard ship?Not learned 290. Which of the instruments listed is used to check insulation resistance?Not learned 291. What is a megohmmeter used to measure?Not learned 292. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what is the operating principle of the current transformer illustratedNot learned 293. An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement of which of the following instruments?Not learned 294. How should the shunt used in an ammeter be connected?Not learned 295. Which of the listed meters uses a shunt connected in series with the load, but parallel with the meter movement?Not learned 296. How should the shunt used in an ammeter be connected?Not learned 297. Which of the listed meters uses a shunt connected in series with the load, but parallel with the meter movement?Not learned 298. Why are external shunts sometimes used with ammeters?Not learned 299. A basic electrical meter sensing device that responds to the flow of current through an electromagnetic coil commonly used in DC ammeters, voltmeters, and ohm meters is referred to as a particular type of movement. What is the proper name for this movement?Not learned 300. A digital multimeter, set up as a milliammeter on the 100 milliamp scale, is known to have an accuracy of plus or minus 2%. A display reading of 10.0 milliamps would indicate an actual line current between what two values?Not learned 301. A digital multimeter, set up as a milliammeter on the 100 milliamp scale, is known to have an accuracy of plus or minus 2%. A meter reading of 5.0 milliamps would indicate an actual line current between what two values?Not learned 302. What is an ammeter used to measure?Not learned 303. If a digital multimeter set up to measure AC volts reads slightly above 'zero' when its leads are disconnected, what is this a result of?Not learned 304. When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with a meter movement coil, what capability does this provide?Not learned 305. What is the instrument called a galvanometer used to measure?Not learned 306. Which of the following electric meter movements uses a stationary permanent magnet and movable coil?Not learned 307. Which of the following would best describe a standard electric meter movement that uses the principles of electromagnetism to measure current?Not learned 308. To limit the current flow through a DC voltmeter to as low a value as possible, what is the moving coil circuit provided with?Not learned 309. A digital multimeter set up to read AC volts is calibrated to read what type of voltage?Not learned 310. Whether analog or digital, what are most AC voltmeters calibrated to measure?Not learned 311. A digital multimeter is set up as an ohmmeter. What does a display reading of "OL" ohms as read across the ends of a wire conductor indicate?Not learned 312. Which of the listed statements is correct when using a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter?Not learned 313. While troubleshooting a circuit in an engine room central control console, a resistor is suspected of being faulty. Which of the following precautions must be observed if an analog or digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter is to be used to check its value?Not learned 314. In troubleshooting a circuit in a console, you find that a resistor may be faulty. Which of the precautions listed must be observed when using an analog or digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter to carry out this test?Not learned 315. Prior to using an analog multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, the leads are purposely shorted together. Which of the following actions should be taken if, when adjusting to "zero" ohms, the indicating needle cannot be returned to "zero" on the scale?Not learned 316. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an analog multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what should you do?Not learned 317. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an analog multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what should you do?Not learned 318. Before using an analog volt-ohmmeter to measure resistance readings, what should you do?Not learned 319. When using an analog multimeter set up as an ohmmeter for resistance measurements, it should be calibrated by clipping the loose ends of the leads together followed by what procedure?Not learned 320. Before using an analog all-purpose electric measuring instrument (multimeter) utilizing internal batteries to supply power for resistance measurements, what should be done FIRST?Not learned 321. Prior to taking a resistance reading with an analog volt-ohm-milliammeter, the 'zero' setting must be adjusted. After clipping the two leads together, you find the adjustment knob will not return the pointer to 'zero'. What is this most likely an indication of?Not learned 322. When used for taking resistance measurements, a portable analog or digital multimeter is normally powered by what source?Not learned 323. You are calibrating an analog multimeter using internal batteries to supply power for resistance measurements. However, you are unable to adjust the pointer to 'zero' using the adjustment knob. Therefore, what should you do?Not learned 324. What is an ohmmeter used to measure?Not learned 325. Which of the meters listed should only be used after a circuit has been electrically de-energized?Not learned 326. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to measure DC currents anticipated as high as 200 milliampsNot learned 327. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to measure DC voltages no higher than 600 millivoltsNot learned 328. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to measure DC currents anticipated as high as 200 milliampsNot learned 329. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is test a diode using the diode test function?Not learned 330. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to perform an audible continuity testNot learned 331. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to test a capacitor using the capacitance test function?Not learned 332. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to measure DC voltages no higher than 600 millivoltsNot learned 333. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to measure DC voltages no higher than 600 millivoltsNot learned 334. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to measure DC volts not to exceed 1000 VDCNot learned 335. As shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustration, what should be the switch position and which test lead terminal jacks should be used if your intent is to measure DC voltages no higher than 600 millivoltsNot learned 336. A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the voltmeter/ammeter method. How should the two meters be connected?Not learned 337. Circuit resistance is usually measured off-line (de-energized) with an ohmmeter. In the absence of an ohmmeter, however, resistance may be INDIRECTLY measured on-line (energized) using what meter (or meters)?Not learned 338. When measuring DC current flow using an analog or digital multimeter set up as a milliammeter, how is the meter connected?Not learned 339. How must an analog or digital multimeter set up as an millimammeter be connected?Not learned 340. Which of the instruments listed is generally connected in series with the load in the circuit?Not learned 341. To safely measure current with a DC milliammeter, how is the meter connected?Not learned 342. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of an analog or digital multimeter when directly measuring current?Not learned 343. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of an analog or digital multimeter when directly measuring current?Not learned 344. How would a DC ammeter designed to directly measure current be connected?Not learned 345. What practice could potentially damage a multimeter?Not learned 346. What can a typical common analog or digital multimeter be used to measure?Not learned 347. A typical common digital multimeter (DMM) can be used to measure what values?Not learned 348. A general purpose electrical multimeter can be used to directly measure what value?Not learned 349. If the approximate voltage to be measured in an electric circuit is not known, what should be done?Not learned 350. As shown in figure "A" of the digital multimeter screen shown in the illustration, what would be the significance of the symbol indicated by "1" being illuminatedNot learned 351. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the significance of the symbol indicated by "2" being illuminatedNot learned 352. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the significance of the symbol indicated by "3" being illuminatedNot learned 353. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the significance of the symbol indicated by "4" being illuminatedNot learned 354. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the significance of the symbol indicated by "9" being illuminatedNot learned 355. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the significance of the word "LEAd being illuminated (item "15")Not learned 356. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated digital multimeter screen, what would be the significance of the letters "OL" being illuminated (item "14")Not learned 357. Which of the illustrated electrical meters is best suited for determining three phase power phase sequence, is battery powered, and features a display with LEDsNot learned 358. Which of the illustrated electrical meters is best suited for determining the presence of voltage for safety purposes and features a lighted windowNot learned 359. Which of the illustrated electrical meters is a general purpose volt-ohm-milliammeter and features an analog displayNot learned 360. Which of the illustrated electrical meters is specifically designed to measure relatively heavy AC currents by clamping action, but can also measures AC volts and resistance and features an analog displayNot learned 361. Which of the illustrated electrical meters is specifically designed to measure relatively heavy currents by clamping action and features a digital display capable of holding maximum and minimum valuesNot learned 362. Which of the illustrated electrical meters is a general purpose volt-ohm-millimeter with many additional built-in special purpose functions and features a digital displayNot learned 363. Which of the illustrated electrical meters is a powerful, versatile diagnostic tool which features a digital display, but is also capable of displaying waveformsNot learned 364. Which of the illustrated electrical meters is specifically designed to measure insulation resistance, is battery powered, and features a digital displayNot learned 365. As shown in figure "D" of the illustrated digital power meter, what type of single-phase load is under test for power measurementNot learned 366. As shown in figure "D" of the illustrated digital power meter, what display of text represents the reactive power consumed by the loadNot learned 367. As shown in figure "D" of the illustrated digital power meter, what display of text represents the reactive power consumed by the loadNot learned 368. As shown in figure "D" of the illustrated digital power meter, what display of text represents the reactive power consumed by the loadNot learned 369. In what situation would an electrical phase sequence indicator be useful?Not learned 370. Under what circumstance would a hand-held portable phase sequence indicator be used should the main switchboard mounted fixed phase sequence indicator be inoperative?Not learned 371. When should a hand-held portable phase sequence indicator be used?Not learned 372. The clamp-on AC ammeter consists essentially of a split-core and a rectifier-type instrument connected to the secondary winding of a particular type of transformer. Which type is used?Not learned 373. To properly use a clamp-on type ammeter to check current flow, what must be done FIRST?Not learned 374. In order to take a current reading with a "clamp-on" ammeter, what should be the status of the jaws of the instrument?Not learned 375. What is a common technology for an electro-tachometer for measuring motor speed as used for variable speed drives?Not learned 376. Propulsion motor RPM can be indirectly indicated on a console by measuring the voltage delivered from what device?Not learned 377. Which of the following precautions should be taken when troubleshooting various power circuits using a digital multimeter?Not learned 378. What type of circuits are shown in the illustrationNot learned 379. What is the circuit shown in the illustration used to measureNot learned 380. Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC power systems indicate which of the following values of the waveforms measured?Not learned 381. How is a wattmeter electrically connected in a circuit?Not learned 382. What is a wattmeter used to measure and indicate?Not learned 383. A switchboard ammeter indicates a reading slightly above 'zero' when the leads are disconnected. What is this caused by?Not learned 384. Which of the listed temperature measuring devices installed on a large turbo-electric alternating current propulsion generator would be the most reliable for monitoring generator temperatures to avoid premature winding insulation failure?Not learned 385. When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, what voltmeter characteristic can minimize the 'loading effect'?Not learned 386. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, why should you use a high impedance multimeter?Not learned 387. What is the circuit shown in the illustration used to measureNot learned 388. As shown in figure "A" of the digital multimeter screen shown in the illustration, what would be the significance of the symbol indicated by "1" being illuminatedNot learned 389. As shown in figure "D" of the illustrated digital power meter, what type of single-phase load is under test for power measurementNot learned 390. When compared to an electronic digital voltmeter, the main disadvantage of the Simpson 250 analog multimeter is which of the following?Not learned 391. The shaft revolution indicator system for a fixed-pitch propeller has which of the following display capabilities?Not learned 392. In the illustrated circuit in figure "A", the voltage is provided by a 12 Volt lead acid battery and the resistor value is 3 ohms. When the switch is closed, if the battery is rated for 120 amp-hours, how long will it take before the voltage will drop to 1.75 volts per cellNot learned 393. A 120 volt battery is rated at 800 amp-hours for a continuous 50 kW load. Approximately how long will the fully charged battery be able to supply a continuous 50 kW load before the battery can no longer maintain this discharge rate and is effectively discharged?Not learned 394. What would be the terminal voltage and ampere-hour capacity of the battery bank illustrated if each battery was rated at 75 ampere-hours and 12 voltsNot learned 395. What would be the terminal voltage and ampere-hour capacity of the battery bank illustrated if each battery was rated at 75 ampere-hours and 12 voltsNot learned 396. What would be the terminal voltage and ampere-hour capacity of the battery bank illustrated if each battery was rated at 75 ampere-hours and 12 voltsNot learned 397. How many cells are within a twelve volt lead-acid battery?Not learned 398. How many cells are within in a 24 volt lead-acid battery?Not learned 399. The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of distilled water and __________.Not learned 400. Which of the following statements describes the effects of ambient temperature on local action within lead-acid storage batteries?Not learned 401. In the illustrated cutaway view of a lead acid battery shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the purpose of the series connecting strapsNot learned 402. In the illustrated views of a lead-acid battery as shown in figures "A" and "B", what battery component has the sole function of preventing the individual plates in the negative plate group from coming into direct contact with the individual plates in the positive plate groupNot learned 403. In the illustrated Ni-Cad alkaline battery, how many cells are shownNot learned 404. If the illustrated device is fully charged, what will be the resultNot learned 405. As shown in the cutaway view of the lead-acid battery in figure "A" of the illustration, if one-half of the battery's cells are revealed by the cutaway section (with the other half remaining hidden from view), what is the nominal output voltage of the batteryNot learned 406. The electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery is distilled water and what other substance?Not learned 407. What material are the plates of a wet cell NiCad storage battery made of?Not learned 408. Why are nickel-cadmium batteries superior to lead-acid batteries for standby service?Not learned 409. In general, how are nickel-cadmium storage batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?Not learned 410. At high discharge rates, why are nickel-cadmium storage batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?Not learned 411. What is the approximate discharge voltage produced by one cell of a wet type nickelcadmium battery at 75% of charge?Not learned 412. What is the approximate voltage per cell produced by the nickel-iron (Edison) battery?Not learned 413. In terms of electrolyte (acidity or alkalinity) and battery rechargability (primary or secondary), what do common wet-cell nickel-cadmium storage batteries utilize?Not learned 414. Which of the following is true when comparing a primary cell type battery and secondary cell type storage battery?Not learned 415. What is the ampere-hour rating of a lead-acid battery that can deliver 20 amperes continuously for 10 hours?Not learned 416. What should be the primary consideration when choosing a battery for a particular application?Not learned 417. By what means is the capacity of a battery given in terms of a rating?Not learned 418. The capacity of a storage battery is measured in what units?Not learned 419. The wet cell storage batteries shown in the illustration are connected in what configurationNot learned 420. As shown in the battery circuit illustration, what would be the nominal output voltage of the battery bank if the batteries individually were 12 VDC lead-acid batteriesNot learned 421. As shown in the battery circuit illustration, what would be the nominal output voltage and capacity of the battery bank if the batteries individually were 12 VDC lead-acid batteries rated at 100 ampere-hours eachNot learned 422. According to 46 CFR Subchapter J, what is true concerning the installation of batteries used for diesel engine starting?Not learned 423. What is meant by the process of "local action" in a lead-acid storage battery?Not learned 424. The individual 12-volt lead-acid batteries, when connected as shown in the illustration, as a battery bank would produce how many voltsNot learned 425. The individual 6-volt lead-acid batteries, when connected as shown in the illustration, as a battery bank would produce how many voltsNot learned 426. The individual 12 volt, 100 ampere-hour lead-acid batteries, when connected as shown in the illustration, as battery bank would produce what voltage and capacityNot learned 427. What will be the freezing point of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead-acid battery as compared to a discharged battery?Not learned 428. During discharge of a lead-acid storage battery, which of the following actions occurs?Not learned 429. What statement is true concerning the actual mixing process and the container used when mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery?Not learned 430. What is the proper way to mix the electrolyte for a lead-acid battery?Not learned 431. When mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery, what cautionary measure must be taken?Not learned 432. Which of the listed forms of water should be added to a lead-acid battery?Not learned 433. When mixing electrolyte, which of the following precautions should always be observed?Not learned 434. When the electrolyte level of a lead-acid storage battery has decreased due to normal evaporation, how is a normal the level re-established?Not learned 435. What statement is true concerning the charging of a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery?Not learned 436. Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium batteries is true?Not learned 437. Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium batteries is true?Not learned 438. Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium batteries is true?Not learned 439. Which of the following statements concerning a wet cell Nickel-Cadmium battery is true?Not learned 440. Which statement is true concerning the charging of a wet cell nickel-cadmium battery?Not learned 441. Which of the following procedures represents the best method to prevent the freezing of lead-acid batteries continuously exposed to low temperatures?Not learned 442. When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperatures, what is the best procedure to keep it from freezing?Not learned 443. Which of the substances listed should be applied to battery terminals to help prevent corrosion?Not learned 444. What practice is considered conducting proper storage battery maintenance?Not learned 445. What practice would be considered proper storage battery maintenance?Not learned 446. What could cause a very slow, but continual loss of electrolyte level from the cells of a storage battery?Not learned 447. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), Which of the following statements concerning battery installations is correct?Not learned 448. First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns, especially in the eyes, includes __________.Not learned 449. On the electrical one line diagram shown in the illustration, what statement is true concerning the illustrated battery charger switching arrangementsNot learned 450. Which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to maintain a wet cell, lead-acid, storage battery in a fully charged state during long periods of disuse?Not learned 451. When charging, which of the following represents the recommended maximum allowable temperature for electrolyte in a lead-acid battery?Not learned 452. Which of the following activities occurs during the charging process of a lead-acid storage battery?Not learned 453. When is a lead-acid battery considered fully charged?Not learned 454. Why must caution be exercised during the charging of flooded lead-acid storage batteries?Not learned 455. What will the charging of lead-acid storage batteries always result in?Not learned 456. What is the characteristic of the hydrogen gas given off by lead-acid batteries when charging?Not learned 457. What should be done with the charging current when a lead-acid battery starts to gas freely after receiving a normal charge current?Not learned 458. When charging lead-acid batteries, why is the charging rate reduced as the battery nears its full charge capacity?Not learned 459. When charging lead-acid batteries, why is the charging rate reduced as the battery nears its full charge capacity?Not learned 460. What does it indicate when violent gassing from a lead-acid battery occurs while it is being charged?Not learned 461. What should be done to the charging current when a lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while receiving a normal charge?Not learned 462. Which of the following problems is indicated if a lead-acid battery begins to gas violently when it is first placed on charge?Not learned 463. What is indicated if violent gassing occurs when a lead-acid storage battery is first placed on charge?Not learned 464. What does it mean when violent gassing occurs during charging of a lead-acid battery?Not learned 465. Which of the following conditions indicates that a lead-acid battery is being charged too rapidly?Not learned 466. How can the charge of a lead-acid battery be restored?Not learned 467. When charging a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery, what statement is true?Not learned 468. Which of the processes listed occurs during the charging of a lead-acid storage battery?Not learned 469. How is local action in a lead-acid battery offset?Not learned 470. A nickel-cadmium battery is receiving a normal charge and gases freely. What should be done in terms of the charging current?Not learned 471. When a nickel-cadmium battery begins gassing while connected to the battery charging circuit, what should be done?Not learned 472. When a nickel-cadmium battery begins gassing while connected to the battery charging circuit, what should be done?Not learned 473. Why should battery rooms be well ventilated during the charging of storage batteries?Not learned 474. Why should battery rooms be well ventilated during the charging process?Not learned 475. Which of the problems listed will occur if a lead-acid battery is allowed to remain in a discharged condition for a long period of time?Not learned 476. What is the standard procedure for maintaining the charge in an emergency diesel starting battery by trickle charge?Not learned 477. Under normal conditions, storage batteries used for starting the emergency diesel generator are maintained in a charged state by which of the following methods?Not learned 478. What condition associated with a lead-acid battery cell can cause the plates to partially short-out and cause the cell to fail to hold a charge?Not learned 479. What would cause a lead-acid battery to become hotter than normal during charging?Not learned 480. What could prevent a lead-acid battery from accepting a full charge?Not learned 481. To keep emergency lead-acid batteries in a full state of charge for emergency use, what is normally done?Not learned 482. When a hydrometer indicates specific gravity what is being compared?Not learned 483. In the illustration, 1, 2, 3 and 4 are 12-volt batteries. What will be the nominal voltage as read by a voltmeter across the output of the battery bankNot learned 484. What is the nominal open-circuit cell voltage of one lead-acid storage battery cell?Not learned 485. The nominal voltage of one cell of a wet cell nickel-cadmium battery is approximately how many volts?Not learned 486. What is the approximate discharge voltage produced by one cell of a wet type nickelcadmium battery at 75% of charge?Not learned 487. What should be done when correcting specific gravity readings of a lead-acid battery for existing temperature conditions?Not learned 488. Which of the listed ranges represents the specific gravity for the electrolyte of a fully charged lead-acid battery at room temperature?Not learned 489. What is the best method of determining the state of charge of a flooded lead-acid storage battery?Not learned 490. What is the most reliable indication of the state of charge of a lead-acid battery?Not learned 491. With what measuring device is the charge of a lead-acid battery checked?Not learned 492. With what device is the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery measured?Not learned 493. How is he charge of a lead-acid battery normally checked?Not learned 494. What statement is true concerning the specific gravity of the electrolyte solution in a lead-acid battery?Not learned 495. What is true concerning the specific gravity of the electrolyte solution in a lead acid battery?Not learned 496. What would you use to determine the state of charge of a sealed nickel-cadmium battery?Not learned 497. What would you use to determine the state of charge of a sealed nickel-cadmium battery?Not learned 498. To best determine the state of charge of a wet cell nickel-cadmium battery, what should you do?Not learned 499. To determine the state of charge of a wet cell nickel-cadmium battery, what should be done?Not learned 500. Which of the following statements concerning the specific gravity of a battery electrolyte is true?Not learned 501. What should you be aware of when checking the specific gravity of the battery electrolyte with a hydrometer?Not learned 502. What is a hydrometer used to measure?Not learned 503. What should be kept in mind when you check the specific gravity of the battery electrolyte with a hydrometer?Not learned 504. When checking the specific gravity of battery electrolyte with a hydrometer, which of the following statements is true?Not learned 505. When a hydrometer indicates specific gravity what is being compared?Not learned 506. For accuracy purposes, which of the following devices should be used to measure the temperature of a battery electrolyte?Not learned 507. Why should a breakable, mercury-filled thermometer NOT be used in a lead-acid battery to measure electrolyte temperature?Not learned 508. Mercury filled thermometers should NEVER be used to determine the temperature of the battery electrolyte due to the impact of accidental breakage. What could happen as a result of failure to observe this safety precaution?Not learned 509. Under which of the following conditions will a lead-acid battery be given a 'test discharge'?Not learned 510. When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, what is the best method for detecting a weak or dead cell?Not learned 511. In terms of the battery electrolyte, when performing maintenance of alkaline batteries what should be done?Not learned 512. When troubleshooting an alkaline storage battery, what is the best way to locate a weak or dead cell?Not learned 513. As the electrolyte level in the cells of a lead-acid battery evaporates over time, what will tend to happen to the specific gravity of the electrolyte in the cells as the level drops due to evaporation?Not learned 514. To determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium wet-cell storage battery during charging and discharging, what is the most reliable method?Not learned 515. What is the nominal open-circuit cell voltage of one lead-acid storage battery cell?Not learned 516. Assuming that the electrolyte has had sufficient time to be uniformly diffused throughout the cell, if the open-circuit cell voltage as measured by a digital multimeter is 2.12, what would be the approximate specific gravity?Not learned 517. What is the most reliable and preferred method for determining the state of charge of a wet cell NiCad battery while it is being charged?Not learned 518. How are the field windings of a DC shunt generator connected?Not learned 519. In a shunt-wound DC generator, with what generator component are the shunt field windings connected in parallel with?Not learned 520. A variable shunt, connected across the series field coils of a DC compound wound generator, permits adjustment of the degree of compounding. What is this variable shunt called?Not learned 521. What is the primary purpose of the brushes of DC generators?Not learned 522. Why are armature cores in a DC generator made of laminated steel sheets?Not learned 523. Why are modern DC generators fitted with commutating poles?Not learned 524. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what is the polarity of the interpoles as compared to the main field polesNot learned 525. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what type of machine is illustrated in terms of the configuration of the windingsNot learned 526. Which of the following statements is true concerning the following illustrationNot learned 527. With what device is the simplest method of controlling the terminal voltage of compound-wound DC generator?Not learned 528. By what means is DC generator output voltage decreased?Not learned 529. A compound wound DC generator has a no-load voltage of 250 volts and a full-load voltage of 230 volts. What type of compounding characteristic is indicated?Not learned 530. Which of the terms listed best describes a compound-wound DC generator having a higher voltage at no load than at full load?Not learned 531. What is the correct name for a variable resistor wired in series with the shunt field for the purposes of manually controlling generator output voltage?Not learned 532. Brushes in a DC generator must be positioned in the neutral plane to avoid excessive sparking associated with the brushes. What device is used to prevent the shifting of the neutral plane due to armature reaction for varying generator loads.Not learned 533. How can the loss of residual magnetism in an alternator with a brushless excitation system be corrected?Not learned 534. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what is the purpose of the interpolesNot learned 535. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what does the M-G set's three-phase drive motor mechanically driveNot learned 536. DC generator circuits are protected against malfunctions due to prime mover power loss by the use of what device (or devices)?Not learned 537. In which figure shown in the illustration will the highest voltage be inducedNot learned 538. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder is of the reaction typeNot learned 539. If a self-excited DC generator running at rated speed fails to deliver an output voltage, which of the following conditions may be a cause of this difficulty?Not learned 540. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder is of the reaction typeNot learned 541. In referring to the illustration of the elementary DC generator, what statement is trueNot learned 542. What two factors determine the magnitude of the generated voltage of a DC generator?Not learned 543. For the purposes of generating a DC voltage, which of the following factors is subject to vary for a particular generator installation while in operation?Not learned 544. What statement is true concerning the use of commutating poles (also known as interpoles) in DC generators?Not learned 545. What statement is true concerning the use of compensating windings in DC generators?Not learned 546. What is the purpose of the series field used in a stabilized shunt DC generator?Not learned 547. By what means is a DC generator prevented from becoming motorized if paralleling is accomplished without an equalizer?Not learned 548. Which of the methods listed is used to maintain the division of load between two compound-wound, DC generators operating in parallel?Not learned 549. What function does an equalizing connection between two compound-wound DC generators operating in parallel serve?Not learned 550. Which of the methods listed is used to maintain the division of load between two compound-wound, DC generators operating in parallel?Not learned 551. Prior to closing the circuit breaker when paralleling two DC generators, what must you be certain of?Not learned 552. What type of motor is shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 553. The electrical diagram shown in figure "B" of the illustration represents what type of DC motorNot learned 554. What type of motor is shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 555. What type of motor is shown in figure "C" of the illustrationNot learned 556. One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC motor is by connecting the coil to a low voltage source, and testing for polarity. How is this done?Not learned 557. What is the function of the interpoles installed in DC motors?Not learned 558. Which of the following types of DC motors has its field connected in parallel with its armature?Not learned 559. Relative to the direction of rotation, which statement is true concerning a D.C. motor commutating pole polarity?Not learned 560. In the construction of compound wound D.C. motors, how are the series and shunt fields physically arranged?Not learned 561. In DC motor construction, where are the commutating windings wound?Not learned 562. In D.C. motor construction, with regard to the individual armature coils' ends, which statement is true?Not learned 563. Why are the armature cores of the D.C. motors constructed with laminated steel sheets?Not learned 564. Which of the following types of DC motors is considered to produce the highest starting torque?Not learned 565. In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field windings also passes through what component?Not learned 566. How is the speed of a series wound winch motor controlled?Not learned 567. What type of DC motor is never connected to a belt driven load?Not learned 568. If an unloaded DC compound motor's shunt field were weakened by excessive rheostat resistance or by an open circuit, how would the motor respond?Not learned 569. As load is added to a DC shunt motor, how will the motor respond?Not learned 570. In a short-shunt cumulatively compound-wound DC motor, how is the shunt field connected?Not learned 571. From the instant of start-up, through the acceleration period, and until the motor reaches rated speed, when is the counter EMF produced in the windings of a DC motor "zero"?Not learned 572. The counter EMF of a DC motor is maximum when the __________.Not learned 573. In terms of voltage potential and current sources, how are shunt wound, series wound, and compound wound DC motors designed to operate?Not learned 574. What is an advantage of DC motors over AC motors?Not learned 575. Which of the listed conditions will occur if the polarity of the field poles and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor were both reversed?Not learned 576. How can the direction of rotation of a DC motor be reversed?Not learned 577. What will happen if you reverse both the field and the armature connections of a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 578. How can the direction of rotation of a DC propulsion motor can be changed?Not learned 579. If the connections for the field and armature leads on a DC motor are both reversed, what will be the result?Not learned 580. Which of the listed conditions will occur if the polarity of the field poles and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor were both reversed?Not learned 581. In order to change the direction of rotation of a D.C. Motor, what must be done? the field leads must be changed the input leads must be changedNot learned 582. The torque produced by a DC motor armature is the multiplication product of two factors, one being the density of the magnetic flux which is dependent upon the field current. What is the other multiplication factor?Not learned 583. When a shunt wound DC motor is operating at or near rated speed, what is the amount of mechanical power developed by the motor dependent upon? The mechanical load on the motor The current drawn by the armatureNot learned 584. What can cause excessive sparking of D.C. motor brushes? Improperly seated brushes Improperly set brush riggingNot learned 585. When performing D.C. motor brush replacements, close attention should be paid to what? Excessive brush play in the brush holder Brush length down to one-quarter of useful lengthNot learned 586. What can insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor cause?Not learned 587. If a short circuit in the armature of a DC motor occurs what would be the result?Not learned 588. If a DC motor runs hot, what would most likely be the cause?Not learned 589. Which of the listed conditions could cause a recently overhauled DC motor to have excessively hot windings and sparking at the brushes?Not learned 590. If a D.C. motor hums, but does not run when energized, which of the listed conditions could exist?Not learned 591. If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all other conditions being normal, what could be the possible cause?Not learned 592. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, when the DC motor in figure "A" is operating at minimum speed what are the armature and field characteristicsNot learned 593. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, when the DC motor in figure "A" is operating at minimum speed what are the armature and field characteristicsNot learned 594. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, when the DC motor in figure "A" is accelerating from minimum speed to base speed what are the motor's operational characteristicsNot learned 595. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, when the DC motor in figure "A" is accelerating from minimum speed to base speed what are the motor's operational characteristicsNot learned 596. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, in terms of frequency response characteristics, the filter circuit illustrated represent what type of filterNot learned 597. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, in terms of frequency response characteristics, the filter circuit illustrated represent what type of filterNot learned 598. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, in terms of frequency response characteristics, the filter circuit illustrated represent what type of filterNot learned 599. What type of motor is generally used in DC propulsion drive systems?Not learned 600. How is reversal of a DC propulsion motor achieved?Not learned 601. What type of electrical diagram for the shunt wound DC motor is shown in the illustrationNot learned 602. What type of DC motor has extremely high starting torque, but has poor inherent speed regulation?Not learned 603. The wiring diagram found in figure "C" of the illustration represents what type of DC motorNot learned 604. What type of DC motor has relatively low starting torque, but has excellent inherent speed regulation?Not learned 605. In a shunt wound DC motor, how is the shunt field connected?Not learned 606. What are the characteristics of the field winding of a shunt wound motor?Not learned 607. The wiring diagram found in figure "C" of the illustration represents what type of DC motorNot learned 608. The wiring diagram found in figure "B" of the illustration represents what type of DC motorNot learned 609. Which of the listed DC compound motor connection schemes is the most commonly used?Not learned 610. When a compound wound DC motor is cumulatively compounded, what does this mean?Not learned 611. When a compound wound DC motor is cumulatively compounded, what does this mean?Not learned 612. Assuming that a cumulatively compounded DC motor is fitted with interpoles and compensating windings, normally how is the direction of rotation in such a DC motor reversed?Not learned 613. As shown in the illustrated DC machine which is configured as a generator, what is the polarity of the interpoles as compared to the main field polesNot learned 614. What is the purpose of the commutator and brushes on a DC generator?Not learned 615. Which of the following components are used to convert alternating current produced in the DC generator armature windings to direct current?Not learned 616. What is the purpose of the commutator and brushes on a DC generator?Not learned 617. Which of the diagrams shown in the illustration depicts the proper method of aligning brushes on a commutator for a DC machineNot learned 618. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder is of the reaction typeNot learned 619. As shown in the illustration, which brush holder would be appropriate to use in a bidirectional motorNot learned 620. To effectively clean a commutator in good physical condition, what should be used?Not learned 621. What is the most practical method used for resurfacing a ship's main propulsion motor commutator?Not learned 622. What is the recommended method used to resurface an eccentric DC motor commutator?Not learned 623. What is the most practical method used for resurfacing a ship's main propulsion motor commutator?Not learned 624. What is the best method used to properly resurface an eccentric commutator on a small DC electric motor?Not learned 625. How may propulsion DC motor brush pressures be calculated?Not learned 626. What can cause uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current generator?Not learned 627. In addition to improper brush pressure or seating, what can result in excessive sparking at the brushes of a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 628. What may cause brush sparking in a DC generator during commutation?Not learned 629. What is the item referred to as a pigtail on a DC motor brush rigging?Not learned 630. What is the function of the commutator associated with a DC motor?Not learned 631. What is the characteristic of the mica used in the commutators of DC machinery?Not learned 632. To properly seat the brushes on a commutator or slip rings, what should be used?Not learned 633. Which of the listed faults can only be eliminated by turning or grinding the face of a commutator with a rigidly supported tool?Not learned 634. For routine cleaning of a commutator, what should be applied?Not learned 635. Which of the listed conditions will occur if dirt and grease are allowed to accumulate between the commutator segments of a DC motor?Not learned 636. What is an important factor in minimizing D.C. motor commutator wear?Not learned 637. In general, what can cause D.C. propulsion motor brush sparking to be excessive?Not learned 638. What should be used in the cleaning of a D.C. propulsion motor's commutator face?Not learned 639. What should be included in performing proper maintenance of a D.C. motor's commutator?Not learned 640. What should be included in performing proper maintenance of a D.C. motor's commutator?Not learned 641. How is seating of new brushes on a DC motor commutator accomplished?Not learned 642. D.C. propulsion motor brush pressure depends on the brush grade used. In practice with what device is the proper brush pressure established?Not learned 643. Which of the listed colors properly describes a DC motor commutator when correct commutation is taking place?Not learned 644. What would excessive sparking at the brushes of a running DC motor be an indication of?Not learned 645. What is the most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a D.C. motor?Not learned 646. While inspecting the copper commutator bars of a DC generator, you notice a chocolate brown film covering the bars. What should be done?Not learned 647. As the brushes ride on the commutator of a DC generator, eventually mica ridges will form between the bars causing sparking and chipping of the brushes. When this happens the mica must be undercut. To what depth is the mica undercut?Not learned 648. Incorrect brush pressure can result in accelerated brush wear on a DC generator. What statement concerning brush pressure is true?Not learned 649. If a DC generator was disassembled during overhaul, it is important that the brush holder rigging be installed in the neutral plane. On larger machines, if the brush rigging and end bells are not match-marked, what is the correct procedure for determining the neutral setting using factory marks?Not learned 650. If a DC motor has its armature and field connected across a resistor when the motor is disconnected from its power supply, what statement is true?Not learned 651. What is the name of the DC motor speed control method utilized as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 652. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, by what means is the DC motor speed controlledNot learned 653. If a D.C. motor fails to start when voltage is applied across both the line terminals of the starter in the motor controller, which of the listed conditions could exist?Not learned 654. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, when the DC motor in figure "A" is operating at minimum speed what are the armature and field characteristicsNot learned 655. What is the function of the movable cams in a master-switch winch motor drum controller?Not learned 656. What is one function of the movable contacts in a drum-type motor controller?Not learned 657. Motor controller or starter contacts may become pitted and welded together under certain circumstances. What would be the primary cause?Not learned 658. What statement is true concerning the "MS 1" contacts of the master switch shown in the illustrationNot learned 659. If power were lost to the hoist controller shown in the illustration while in 'second point hoist' the winch would stop. When power is restored, how would the winch respondNot learned 660. The progressive operation of the contactors marked "1A" through "4A" provide the winch hoist controller shown in the illustration with what functionalityNot learned 661. Which of the listed conditions occur when selection is made for "third point hoist" on the winch hoist controller shown in the illustrationNot learned 662. Which of the listed conditions occur when '4th point lower' is selected on the winch hoist controller shown in the illustrationNot learned 663. The winch shown in the illustration operates in any of the positions with the master switch in the 'lower' direction, but will not 'hoist' in any of the master switch hoist speed positions. Which of the listed faults could be the causeNot learned 664. The winch shown in the illustration will operate normally in all speeds in both directions, with the exception that it will not accelerate into 'fifth point' hoist or 'fifth point' lower. What would be a possible causeNot learned 665. As shown in the illustration, what is responsible for maintaining the "UV" relay energized when the master switch handle is moved away from the "off" positionNot learned 666. What statement is true concerning speed control of a shunt wound DC motor?Not learned 667. In referring to the illustration of the Ward-Leonard drive system, what type of DC generator is usedNot learned 668. An AC winch hoist controller such as shown in the illustration has welded contacts on the hoist contactor, and the contacts must be replaced. Before replacing the contacts, the cause for the welding of the contacts must be determined. Which of the following statements describes the possible causesNot learned 669. The AC winch hoist controller shown in the illustration has a burned out hoist contactor coil that must be replaced. Before replacing the coil, the cause for the burnout must be determined. Which of the following statements represents the possible causeNot learned 670. In an inductive-resistive circuit, what is the unit of measure for power associated with just the inductive aspects of the load?Not learned 671. In an alternating current circuit, what factor of a circuit will cause the inductive reactance to vary?Not learned 672. What property does capacitance have in an AC circuit?Not learned 673. A capacitive AC circuit has fixed capacitors connected in series. If the line voltage remains constant, what factor can allow the capacitive reactance of the circuit to be varied?Not learned 674. Decreasing the frequency in a capacitive circuit while maintaining a constant circuit voltage, will result in what change?Not learned 675. What is the phase relationship between voltage and current in an alternating current circuit including both inductive and resistive loads?Not learned 676. What would be the capacitive reactance of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the capacitance of C1 was 100 microfarads, the capacitance of C2 was 200 microfarads and the frequency of the source was 60 cycles per second (Hz)Not learned 677. What would be the total current in figure "A" of the circuit illustrated if the value of capacitor C1 was 100 microfarads, capacitor C2 was 200 microfarads and the power supply was 240 volts at 60 HzNot learned 678. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what load type or combination of load types would produce the voltage and current waveforms shown with the resulting phase shiftNot learned 679. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what load type or combination of load types would produce the voltage, current, and power waveforms shownNot learned 680. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what load type or combination of load types would produce the voltage, current, and power waveforms shownNot learned 681. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what load type or combination of load types would produce the voltage, current, and power waveforms shownNot learned 682. The apparent power supplied to a motor is six kilovolt amps at 120 volts. What is the impedance of the motor?Not learned 683. An electrical component is connected across a 120-volt 60 hertz AC supply. What is the current drawn by the component if the impedance is 200 ohms?Not learned 684. What is the formula for computing impedance in a series circuit containing resistance, capacitance, and inductance.Not learned 685. An AC circuit has a capacitive reactance of 30 ohms in addition to an inductive reactance of 40 ohms connected in series. What is the total reactance of the circuit?Not learned 686. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would be the circuit impedance if the inductive reactance is 10 ohms and the resistance is 10 ohmsNot learned 687. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would be the circuit impedance if the inductive reactance is 10 ohms and the resistance is 10 ohmsNot learned 688. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what would be the circuit impedance if the capacitive reactance is 10 ohms, the inductive reactance is 10 ohms and the resistance is 10 ohmsNot learned 689. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would be the circuit impedance if the inductive reactance is 10 ohms and the resistance is 10 ohmsNot learned 690. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would be the circuit impedance if the inductive reactance is 10 ohms and the resistance is 10 ohmsNot learned 691. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what would be the circuit impedance if the capacitive reactance is 10 ohms, the inductive reactance is 10 ohms and the resistance is 10 ohmsNot learned 692. In the schematic of the electrical circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration, assuming that C1 and C2 are equal in capacitance, what is the value of the total capacitance, when compared to the value of equal individual capacitorsNot learned 693. What would be the total capacitance of the circuit illustrated in figure "A" if the value of capacitor C1 was 100 microfarads and capacitor C2 was 50 microfaradsNot learned 694. What would be the total capacitance of the circuit illustrated in figure "A" if the value of capacitor C1 was 100 microfarads and capacitor C2 was 50 microfaradsNot learned 695. What would be the capacitive reactance of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the capacitance of C1 was 50 microfarads, the capacitance of C2 was 100 microfarads and the frequency of the source was 60 cycles per second (Hz)Not learned 696. What would be the capacitive reactance of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the capacitance of C1 was 50 microfarads, the capacitance of C2 was 100 microfarads and the frequency of the source was 60 cycles per second (Hz)Not learned 697. What would be the capacitive reactance of the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the capacitance of C1 was 200 microfarads, the capacitance of C2 was 400 microfarads and the frequency of the source was 60 cycles per second (Hz)Not learned 698. What effect will increasing the power source frequency have in a capacitive circuit?Not learned 699. What effect will increasing the power source frequency have in a capacitive circuit?Not learned 700. What would be the total current in figure "A" of the circuit illustrated if the value of capacitor C1 was 100 microfarads, capacitor C2 was 200 microfarads, and the power supply was 240 volts at 60 HzNot learned 701. Given the circuit and individual AC and DC voltage waveforms shown in figure "A" producing the composite voltage waveform shown in figure "B", what would be the value of the peak to peak voltageNot learned 702. Given the circuit and individual AC and DC voltage waveforms shown in figure "A" producing the composite voltage waveform shown in figure "B", what would be the value of the average current passing through the load resistor with a resistance of 1 ohmNot learned 703. What type of power would be equivalent to the apparent power associated with a purely inductive circuit?Not learned 704. Which of the following statements concerning AC circuits is correct?Not learned 705. If the voltage and the current developed in an AC circuit reach their peak values at the same time (with a phase angle difference of zero), how would the power factor be characterized?Not learned 706. When voltage and current developed in an AC circuit reach their peak values at the same time, how is the power factor characterized?Not learned 707. A three-phase alternator has a load current of 300 amps, with a 0.8 power factor, and supplying 450 volts. What will be the power indicated on the kilowatt meter, located on the main switchboard?Not learned 708. A three-phase alternator operates at 450 volts with a 0.8 power factor. If the ammeter indicates 250 amperes, what should be the kW meter reading?Not learned 709. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts, delivering 250 amps at 0.6 power factor. If the power factor increases to 0.8, how much of an increase will there be in the kilowatt load?Not learned 710. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with the switchboard ammeter indicating 300 amps. The kW meter currently indicates 163.6 kW, with a power factor of 0.7. If the power factor increases to 0.8, how much would the kW meter reading increase by?Not learned 711. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with the switchboard ammeter indicating 300 amps. The kW meter currently indicates 163.6 kW, with a power factor of 0.7. If the power factor increases to 0.8, what would the new kW meter reading?Not learned 712. A 4160 Volt AC generator is loaded to 2850 kW with a 0.85 power factor. What is the approximate kVAR load on the generator?Not learned 713. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, for the illustrated AC electrical system power triangle, which value represents the power factor for the systemNot learned 714. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, for the illustrated AC electrical system power triangle, which value represents the active power for the systemNot learned 715. As shown in figure "D" of the illustration as compared to figure "C", what is the purpose for the "wye" or "delta" connected capacitors when the loads are similar to that illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 716. What is the significance of having an indicated power factor of 0.8 when describing the output of a generator?Not learned 717. What determines the power factor of an electrical distribution system being supplied by a single AC generator?Not learned 718. What is the purpose of the synchronous compensator as shown in the illustrationNot learned 719. Which of the following types of motors can be used for correcting power factor during normal operation?Not learned 720. Capacitors can be used in electric distribution systems to improve power factor. This is accomplished by seesawing energy between the capacitor and what device or devices?Not learned 721. The true power indicated by a wattmeter depends on the current flow through the load, the magnitude of the voltage across the load, and what other factor?Not learned 722. The true power indicated by a wattmeter depends on the current flow through the load, the magnitude of the voltage across the load, and what other factor?Not learned 723. From the information given in the illustration, what would be the maximum output amperage available from the emergency generator if it operated with a power factor of 0Not learned 724. From the information given in the illustration, what would be the ampere capacity at full load of each of the main ship service diesel-generators if operating at the rated power factor of 0Not learned 725. While standing an "at sea watch" onboard an AC diesel-electric drive ship with a synchronous propulsion motor, you notice that the kwatt load is at roughly 75% of capacity with a leading power factor less than 1. Ideally what would be the character of the power factor associated with the main power distribution including all motors?Not learned 726. The design Power Factor (PF) of a vessel's electrical system is generally 0.8 - 0.9. The system's greatest load is inductive. One notices a slow, gradual decrease, over time, in the PF, from normal/design. What can one do on board to maintain the normal, design PF and thus maintain electrical system's efficiency?Not learned 727. The turns ratio of the tapped step-down transformer shown in figure "C" of the illustration is four to one and all taps are equally spaced. If 440-volts were applied between "H1" and "H4", what would appear across "X1" and "X4"Not learned 728. The turns ratio of the tapped step down transformer shown in figure "C" of the illustration is four to one and all the taps are equally spaced. If 120 volts was measured across the secondary between 'X1' and 'X2', what voltage must be applied across 'H1' and 'H4'Not learned 729. The turn's ratio of the step-down transformer with dual voltage secondary shown in figure "B" of the illustration is two to one (total). If 220 volts were applied to terminals 'H1' and 'H2', what would be measured across 'X3' and 'X4'Not learned 730. The turns ratio of the step-down transformer with dual voltage secondary as shown in figure "B" of the illustration is two to one (total). If 440 volts were applied to terminals 'H1' and 'H2', what would be measured across 'X1-X3' and 'X2-X4' assuming that the secondary windings are connected in parallelNot learned 731. The turns ratio of the step down transformer with dual voltage secondary as shown in figure "B" of the illustration is two to one (total). If 220 volts were applied to terminals 'H1' & 'H2', what would be indicated across 'X1' & 'X4' with 'X2' & 'X3' connected and isolatedNot learned 732. The turns ratio of the tapped step-down transformer shown in figure "C" of the illustration is four to one and all taps are evenly spaced. If 120 volts were applied to terminals "H1" and "H3", what would appear at "X1" and "X2"Not learned 733. The turns ratio of the tapped step down transformer shown in figure "C" of the illustration is four to one and all taps are evenly spaced. If 110 volts were applied to terminals 'X1' and 'X3', what would be measured across 'H1' and 'H2'Not learned 734. The turns ratio of the tapped step-down transformer shown in figure "C" of the illustration is four to one and all taps are evenly spaced. If 120 volts were applied to terminals "H1" and "H3", what would appear at "X1" and "X2"Not learned 735. A load is connected across the secondary of the step-up transformer shown in figure "B" of the illustration and the current drawn by the load is 10 amps. If the turns ratio is 1 to 10 and The input voltage is 110 VAC, what will be the current drawn by the primaryNot learned 736. A load with an impedance of 440 ohms is connected across the secondary of a step-up transformer. If the input voltage is 110 VAC and the turns ratio is 1 to 10, what will be the primary current?Not learned 737. A load is connected across the secondary of the step-up transformer shown in figure "B" of the illustration and the current drawn by the load is 10 amps. If the turns ratio is 1 to 10 and The input voltage is 110 VAC, what will be the current drawn by the primaryNot learned 738. A load with an impedance of 440 ohms is connected across the secondary of a step-up transformer. If the input voltage is 110 VAC and the turns ratio is 1 to 10, what will be the primary current?Not learned 739. What is the maximum current allowed to be drawn from the secondary of a 2 kVA step-down transformer with a turns ratio of four to one if connected across a 440 volt line?Not learned 740. What is the maximum allowable primary current of a 2 kVA step-down transformer with a four to one turns ratio if the primary is connected across a 440 volt line?Not learned 741. In figure "2" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three-phase power transformer has a step- down turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected to terminals "A1-B1- C1", what voltage should develop across terminals "A2-B2-C2"Not learned 742. In figure "4" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three phase step down power transformer has a turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected to terminals 'A1-B1-C1', what voltage should develop across terminals 'A2-B2-C2'Not learned 743. In figure "4" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three phase step down power transformer has a turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected to terminals 'A1-B1-C1', what voltage should develop across terminals 'A2-B2-C2'Not learned 744. In figure "4" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three phase step down power transformer has a turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 440 volt supply is connected to terminals 'A1-B1-C1', what voltage should develop across terminals 'A2-B2-C2'Not learned 745. Which of the listed figures in the illustration represents a transformer configured for single voltage primary and a tapped secondaryNot learned 746. Which of the listed figures in the illustration represents a transformer configured for single voltage primary and a tapped secondaryNot learned 747. Which of the listed figures in the illustration represents a transformer configured for single voltage primary and a tapped secondaryNot learned 748. Which of the listed figures in the illustration represents a transformer configured for single voltage primary and a tapped secondaryNot learned 749. In which figure shown in the illustration will the highest voltage be inducedNot learned 750. Which of the following pictures shown in the illustration is a control transformer, usually used to step down line voltage for supplying reduced voltage control circuitsNot learned 751. Which of the following is a pictured three phase power transformer, usually used to step-down line voltage for supplying reduced voltage lighting circuitsNot learned 752. Which of the following is a pictured current transformer, usually used for current measuring instrumentation and over current protection circuitsNot learned 753. When a low input voltage is delivered to a transformer which then produces a high output voltage, what is the proper name for the transformer type?Not learned 754. Which of the following statements is true concerning step-down transformer operation?Not learned 755. How are power transformers rated?Not learned 756. Relative to the number of turns of a secondary winding of a step-up transformer, what will be the number of turns of a primary winding?Not learned 757. What are the operating characteristics of a step-down potential transformer in terms of the secondary load?Not learned 758. Which of the following statements is true concerning a step-down transformer in an operating AC power circuit?Not learned 759. What will happen to the primary winding when the load increases on the secondary windings of a transformer?Not learned 760. When a transformer is used to step down voltage, what statement is true?Not learned 761. Which of the following statements describes the difference between the primary windings and the secondary windings of an ideal 2:1 stepdown voltage transformer?Not learned 762. What is the primary purpose associated with the use of transformers onboard ships with AC generators?Not learned 763. Which of the listed transformers uses a single winding to produce voltage transformation?Not learned 764. An autotransformer is equipped with a 50% tap, a 65% tap, and an 80% tap. Which of the following statements is true concerning a load connected to the 50% tap?Not learned 765. What is the basic principle of operation by which a transformer works?Not learned 766. What is the basic operating principle of a transformer in terms of producing a voltage?Not learned 767. If the primary winding of a particular voltage transformer rated for a given AC input voltage is mistakenly connected to a comparable steady DC input voltage with similar source impedance, selfinductance and mutual inductance are not possible. As a result, what part of the transformer will result in current overload?Not learned 768. Why are transformer cores laminated?Not learned 769. How can hysteresis losses in transformers be reduced?Not learned 770. What is the purpose of a potential transformer in an electric circuit?Not learned 771. The transformer diagram shown in figure "B" of the illustration represents what type of transformerNot learned 772. The transformer diagram shown in figure "C" of the illustration represents what type of transformerNot learned 773. What is the device shown in figure "B" of the illustration between the source circuit breaker and the loadNot learned 774. What is the purpose for the device shown in figure "B" of the illustration in terms of its relationship with the loadNot learned 775. When replacing a defective transformer in a paralleled transformer configuration, which of the following actions must be carried out to ensure proper operation of the equipment it serves?Not learned 776. What would be the source current and transformer current as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, with the secondary tap connected as shown, if the supply voltage at the branch circuit breaker is 440 VAC and the unity power factor load current draw is 50 ampsNot learned 777. If the illustrated device in figure "B" has a step-up ratio of 10 to 1 what voltage would be measured at the secondary shortly after the primary of the device is connected to 110 volts DC and the primary current stabilized with a current of 12 ampsNot learned 778. Propulsion AC generators creating 4160 VAC use transformers to provide nominally 120 VAC to the automatic voltage regulator. What is the turns ratio of this step-down transformer?Not learned 779. In figure "2" of the diagram shown in the illustration, the three-phase step-down power transformer has a turns ratio of four to one. If a three-phase 480 volt supply is connected to terminals "A1-B1- C1", what voltage should develop across terminals "A2-B2-C2"Not learned 780. In figure "4" of the diagram in the illustration, the three-phase step-down power transformer has a turns ratio of five to one. If a three-phase 4160 volt supply is connected to terminals "A1-B1-C1", what voltage should develop across terminals "A2-B2-C2"Not learned 781. A simple, untapped, single phase 480/120 VAC step-down control transformer is rated at 600 VA at 60 Hz. What is the rated secondary load current?Not learned 782. Which of the following pictures shown in the illustration is a control transformer, usually used to step down line voltage for supplying reduced voltage control circuitsNot learned 783. A 440/110 V single phase transformer supplies a load of 5 kW at 0.8 power factor load. What will be its primary current?Not learned 784. A 440/110 V single phase transformer supplies a load of 5 kW at 0.8 power factor load. What will be its secondary current ignoring transformer power losses?Not learned 785. Which of the following statements about a three-phase wye connected alternator is correct?Not learned 786. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated three phase alternator showing the stator winding connections, what can be said about the output line voltageNot learned 787. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated three phase alternator showing the stator winding connections, what can be said about the output line currentNot learned 788. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated three phase alternator showing the stator winding connections, what can be said about the output line voltageNot learned 789. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated three phase alternator showing the stator winding connections, what can be said about the output line currentNot learned 790. Wye-connected and delta-connected three phase alternators have different operating characteristics. In comparison to the wye-connected alternator, what is unique to the delta-connected alternator?Not learned 791. A digital multimeter is set up as shown in the illustration to test an individual element of a three- phase immersion heater. The elements are connected across terminals 1 and 4, 2 and 5, and 3 and 6 as shown. The reading across terminals 1 and 4 is 32 ohms. The reading across terminals 2 and 5 is 32 ohms. The reading across terminals 3 and 6 as shown is "OL" ohms. What condition is indicatedNot learned 792. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, with a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what set of readings would be consistent with an open in phase "B" of the single circuit, wye-connected stator windings as shownNot learned 793. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, with a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what set of readings would be consistent with an open in phase "B" of the single circuit, wye-connected stator windings as shownNot learned 794. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, with a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what set of readings would be consistent with an open in a phase of the single circuit, delta-connected stator windings separated out as shownNot learned 795. A digital multimeter is set up as shown in the illustration to evaluate the single-circuit stator windings of a squirrel cage induction three-phase motor. The following readings are taken: From T1 to T2 reads "OL" ohms. From T2 to T3 reads "OL" ohms. From T3 to T1 as shown reads "1.6" ohms. What condition is indicatedNot learned 796. A digital multimeter is set up as shown in the illustration to evaluate the single-circuit stator windings of a squirrel cage induction three-phase motor. The following readings are taken: From T1 to T2 reads "OL" ohms. From T2 to T3 reads "OL" ohms. From T3 to T1 as shown reads "1.6" ohms. What condition is indicatedNot learned 797. A digital multimeter is set up as shown in the illustration to evaluate the single-circuit stator windings of a squirrel cage induction three-phase motor. The following readings are taken: From T1 to T2 reads 0.8 ohms. From T2 to T3 reads 0.8 ohms. From T3 to T1 as shown reads 1.6 ohms. What condition is indicatedNot learned 798. In a three-phase, wye-wye connected transformer, what is the relationship between line current and phase current?Not learned 799. Which of the listed figures shown in the illustration represents a three-phase transformer connected in a wye- wye configurationNot learned 800. Which of the listed figures shown in the illustration represents a three-phase transformer connected in a wye- wye configurationNot learned 801. Which of the listed figures shown in the illustration represents a three-phase transformer connected in a wye- wye configurationNot learned 802. Which of the listed figures shown in the illustration represents a three-phase transformer connected in a wye- wye configurationNot learned 803. As shown in the illustration, how are the rotor windings (terminating as marked motor leads M1, M2, and M3) of the motor configuredNot learned 804. What is prevented by one of the generator or motor bearings being generally insulated from the end housing with which it is associated?Not learned 805. What will be the phase angle difference between phases of a six-pole, three-phase, rotating field alternator?Not learned 806. A turbo-generator has a rated output of 1200 kW at 60 Hertz, with a no load frequency of 61.5 Hertz. What is its speed droop?Not learned 807. Assuming the alternator shown in figure "A" of the illustration is equipped with a diode plate as configured in figure "D", what is the purpose of the diode plateNot learned 808. What will be the output frequency of a three-phase, six pole, AC generator operating at 1800 revolutions per minute?Not learned 809. What will be the frequency of a three-phase, 16 pole, AC generator operating at 3000 revolutions per minute?Not learned 810. An AC generator produces 60 Hz at 1800 RPM. If the generator speed is increased to 1830 RPM, what will happen to the frequency in Hz?Not learned 811. In the alternator excitation scheme shown in the illustration, where are brushes requiredNot learned 812. In the alternator excitation scheme shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the "3-Ph Diode Bridge", also known as a rotating rectifierNot learned 813. In the alternator excitation scheme shown in the illustration, which of the following components is stationary and housed within the generator frameNot learned 814. In a conventional AC generator utilizing brushes, direct current from the exciter output is passed through the windings of the main field rotor by what means?Not learned 815. Compared to conventional alternators, brushless alternators are designed to operate without the use of what?Not learned 816. Of the listed factors that influence the magnitude of the voltage induced in the stator windings of an AC generator operating at a constant 60 Hz frequency, some are fixed due to the alternator design and one is variable due to alternator operating conditions. Which of the following listed factors is subject to be variable during generator operation?Not learned 817. By what means is voltage and current generated by modern revolving field AC generators brought out from the alternator enclosure to the connected switch board?Not learned 818. What is the most common type of AC service generator found aboard ship in terms of armature and field types?Not learned 819. Which of the following statements is true concerning all rotating-field three-phase alternators?Not learned 820. Why are space heaters provided on larger generators?Not learned 821. What is the most practical way to control the voltage output of an AC generator?Not learned 822. What is one factor that determines the frequency of an alternator?Not learned 823. How is the frequency of an alternator at a given RPM determined?Not learned 824. How is the frequency output of an operating alternator controlled?Not learned 825. How are the number of cycles per second developed by the alternator aboard your vessel determined?Not learned 826. How would you increase the frequency of an operating AC generator?Not learned 827. By what means is the frequency of an AC generator adjusted?Not learned 828. By what means is the frequency of an AC generator controlled?Not learned 829. How will the value of the output frequency change if the load is removed from a turbogenerator having a governor speed droop setting of 3%?Not learned 830. As load is added to an AC generator provided with constant field excitation, the prime mover slows down. What immediate effect will this have on frequency and voltage?Not learned 831. The governor control switch of an alternator is moved to the 'raise' position. What will be the effect of this action?Not learned 832. When securing an AC generator, what should be your FIRST action in accomplishing the procedural steps?Not learned 833. How is the power factor of an AC generator operating singularly determined?Not learned 834. Regarding an AC generator connected to the main electrical bus; as the electric load and power factor vary, a corresponding change is reflected in the generator armature reaction. How are these changes in armature reaction compensated for?Not learned 835. Why is motorization of an AC generator undesirable?Not learned 836. How are AC and DC generators similar?Not learned 837. How are AC and DC generators similar?Not learned 838. What is the main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large AC generator?Not learned 839. The amount of voltage induced in the stator windings of a modern AC generator is primarily dependent upon which of the following?Not learned 840. A DC generator which is used to supply direct current in order to provide magnetizing current to an AC generator field is commonly known as what?Not learned 841. Which of the methods listed below is used to provide the rotational torque to cause an AC generator to turn?Not learned 842. As shown in the illustrated diagnostic setup for locating an open field coil of a tenpole synchronous motor, if 240 VDC is applied across the brushes, what statement is true if one of the field coils is open-circuitedNot learned 843. If a modern brushless alternator is to be inactive for an extended period of time, which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 844. How may chattering of the collector/slip ring brushes on a generator be remedied?Not learned 845. If a shipboard AC generator experiences a failure to produce a voltage, what may be the cause?Not learned 846. What may be the cause of an AC generator to fail to produce a voltage?Not learned 847. What will result in an alternator failing to produce line voltage?Not learned 848. What will be the impact of reduced voltage applied to an AC induction motor during the starting period?Not learned 849. What should be done regarding the windings of electric generators during idle periods?Not learned 850. AC generator circuits are protected against malfunctions due to prime mover power loss. Specifically what device or devices provide this protection?Not learned 851. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the second set of primary windings (PRI.2) of the static excitation transformer of the compounded self-excited alternatorNot learned 852. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the second set of primary windings (PRI.2) of the static excitation transformer of the compounded self-excited alternatorNot learned 853. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the first set of primary windings (PRI.1) as impacted by the reactor coils of the compounded self-excited alternatorNot learned 854. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the first set of primary windings (PRI.1) as impacted by the capacitor bank of the compounded self-excited alternatorNot learned 855. If a 12-pole three-phase synchronous alternator is operating at 590 rpm, what will be its output frequency?Not learned 856. If it becomes absolutely necessary to run an alternator at lower than 5% below its rated frequency, in terms of output voltage, what must be done?Not learned 857. Under unusual circumstances, it may be required to operate a ship's service generator above its rated kVA. What supplemental casualty control action will be required?Not learned 858. When a self-excited alternator's field has lost its residual magnetism due to a prolonged idle period, it will fail to produce a voltage. Flashing the field is the procedure used to restore the residual magnetism. Using a 12 volt storage battery, how is this performed?Not learned 859. Assuming that a ship's service generator is directly coupled to the prime mover, what condition must cause a prime mover to automatically shutdown?Not learned 860. As shown in the illustration, when transitioning from the electrical plant status indicated by figure "A" to the plant status indicated by figure "B", what is the functional purpose of this transitionNot learned 861. As shown in the illustration, when transitioning from the electrical plant status indicated by figure "A" to the plant status indicated by figure "B", how is this accomplished manually assuming that the machines are of equal capacity and that the governor droop settings are identicalNot learned 862. As shown in the illustration, when transitioning from the electrical plant status indicated by figure "B" to the plant status indicated by figure "C", what is the functional purpose of this transitionNot learned 863. As shown in the illustration, when transitioning from the electrical plant status indicated by figure "A" to the plant status indicated by figure "B", how is this accomplished manually assuming that the machines are of equal capacity and that the governor droop settings are identicalNot learned 864. A vessel is equipped with two ship's service generators. Generator No.1 is rated at 900 kW and generator No.2 is rated at 600 kW. During parallel operation, with a hotel load of 1,000 kW, what should be the kW load on generator No.2 if the load is shared proportionately?Not learned 865. If the field current of a paralleled AC generator is increased above normal, what will be the net result to the VAR's and power factor?Not learned 866. If the field current of a paralleled AC generator is increased above normal, what will be the net result to the VAR's and power factor?Not learned 867. If the field current of a paralleled AC generator is increased above normal, what will be the net result to the VAR's and power factor?Not learned 868. In the illustrated switchboard, if both generators were operating in parallel and the kilowatt meter of panel 3 indicated a significantly higher value than the kilowatt meter on panel 1, which of the following procedures should you follow to balance the loadNot learned 869. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator operating in parallel, the generator rotor may be periodically pulled ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. How can this condition called hunting be reduced?Not learned 870. Prior to manually starting an AC generator prime mover and paralleling in the manual control mode, what should be the position of the voltage regulator selector switch?Not learned 871. When two generators are operating in parallel, what will first occur if the engine driving generator #1 suddenly loses power?Not learned 872. Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in parallel. One with a zero-speed droop setting and the other with a 5% speed droop. If its capacity is not exceeded, what will be the characteristic of the unit whose governor has the zero-speed droop setting?Not learned 873. An alternator is being paralleled with one already on the line. At the INSTANT the incoming generator circuit breaker is closed, what will happen to the frequency of the incoming alternator?Not learned 874. Why is it a good practice to have the frequency of the incoming alternator adjusted slightly higher than that of the loaded alternator when manually paralleling two alternators?Not learned 875. In considering the status of the synchroscope pointer as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, at what point should the circuit breaker for the incoming machine be closed if paralleling manuallyNot learned 876. What should be the frequency of the incoming machine when paralleling two AC generators immediately prior to closing its breaker?Not learned 877. When paralleling two AC generators, what should be the frequency of the machine coming on-line, immediately prior to closing its breaker?Not learned 878. When paralleling two AC generators, what should be the frequency of the incoming generator, just prior to closing the circuit breaker?Not learned 879. Prior to closing the breaker when paralleling two AC generators, in terms of the oncoming machine frequency, what is the recommended practice?Not learned 880. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the synchroscope pointer is revolving fast in the clockwise direction. What does this indicates in terms of the frequency of the incoming machine compared to the bus frequency?Not learned 881. In considering the waveforms as shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what would be the status of the synchroscope pointer as shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 882. In considering the waveforms as shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what would be the position of the synchroscope pointer as shown in figure "B" of the illustration at the instant the waves are in synchronismNot learned 883. In considering the status of the synchroscope pointer as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, at what point should the circuit breaker for the incoming machine be closed if paralleling manuallyNot learned 884. Which of the following actions must be carried out prior to closing the alternator circuit breaker according to the graph "A" shown in the illustrationNot learned 885. Which of the following statements is true concerning the conditions depicted in graph "A" of the illustrationNot learned 886. Which of the following statements is true concerning the conditions depicted in graph "A" of the illustrationNot learned 887. What are the operational characteristics of the two alternators with the speed droop curves shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 888. What governor setting is directly related to the load sharing characteristics of two diesel alternators operating in parallel?Not learned 889. What generator control system component controls the division of the kilowatt load between two AC generators operating in parallel?Not learned 890. What governor setting is directly related to the load sharing characteristics of two diesel alternators operating in parallel?Not learned 891. What determines the division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators?Not learned 892. What determines the division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators?Not learned 893. Figure "A" of the illustration represents a constant frequency system. At load condition "1" machine A has a 40 kW load and machine B has a 120 kW load as shown. If load is to be transferred manually to achieve load condition "2" with machine A having a load of 100 kW and machine B having a load of 60 kW, how is this accomplishedNot learned 894. What are the operational characteristics of the two alternators with the speed droop curves shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 895. What is adjusted so that the kW load is evenly distributed between two alternators just placed in parallel?Not learned 896. What device is used so that the kilowatt load sharing can be adjusted on paralleled generators?Not learned 897. What must be done to adjust the kilowatt load division manually between two AC generators operating in parallel?Not learned 898. If two AC generators have just been placed in parallel manually, how is the kilowatt load initially distributed evenly?Not learned 899. What is adjusted so that the kW load is evenly distributed between two alternators just placed in parallel?Not learned 900. What must be done to manually equalize the power factor of two alternators operating in parallel?Not learned 901. What devices maintains equal power factors on paralleled AC generators automatically?Not learned 902. How is the power factor at which paralleled AC generators operate automatically equalized?Not learned 903. How can equalization of the power factors of two alternators operating in parallel be accomplished?Not learned 904. Why is it desirable to operate paralleled AC generators at the same power factor?Not learned 905. If the field excitation is increased to one of two alternators operating in parallel and decreased on the other, what will be the result on the alternator with the field excitation increased?Not learned 906. If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel is decreased below normal and the other above normal, what will be the result on the alternator with the excitation decreased below normal?Not learned 907. Attempting to parallel an AC generator which is out of phase with the bus will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 908. By what means is the division of the reactive kVAR load between paralleled AC generators automatically controlled?Not learned 909. After closing the circuit breaker to place two alternators with identical ratings in parallel, in terms of achieving a balance between the two alternators, what is the NEXT step?Not learned 910. Two paralleled alternators are operating near rated load. If one trips out mechanically resulting in a reverse power trip, which of the listed actions should be taken FIRST?Not learned 911. If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel with another alternator, what will happen to the alternator that has experienced a loss of field excitation?Not learned 912. If the energy input is significantly reduced to the prime mover of one shipboard alternator operating in parallel with others, what will happen to that alternator?Not learned 913. If two alternators are operating in parallel, what will change if each alternator's field excitation is changed in opposite directions (one alternator's field current increasing, while the other is decreasing)?Not learned 914. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving in the slow direction. What is the oncoming generator frequency relative to that of the bus frequency?Not learned 915. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving in the slow direction. What is the oncoming generator frequency relative to that of the bus frequency?Not learned 916. Which statement is true if the pointer of the synchroscope is rotating in the slow direction (counterclockwise) as you are preparing to parallel two alternators?Not learned 917. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0°. What would happen if you close the circuit breaker at this position?Not learned 918. Which of the following problems will occur if the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator is closed and it is 180° out of phase with the loaded alternator when paralleling?Not learned 919. You are in the process of paralleling two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer has stopped at a position other than 0°. What does this indicate?Not learned 920. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving slowly in the fast direction. What should be done next?Not learned 921. With respect to the rotation of the synchroscope pointer, when two AC generators are being paralleled, under what condition should the breaker be closed?Not learned 922. In preparation for paralleling generators, if the electric plant condition is as shown by graph "A", what would be the rotational status of the synchronizing lamps as shown in circuit "B"Not learned 923. In preparation for eventual paralleling of generators, if the condition of the electric plant is as shown in graph "A", what will be the status of the synchronizing lamps as shown in circuit "B" of the illustrationNot learned 924. In preparation for eventual paralleling of generators, if the condition of the electric plant is as shown in graph "A", what will be the status of the synchronizing lamps as shown in circuit "C" of the illustrationNot learned 925. What will be the status of the two synchronizing lamps as shown in circuit "C" of the illustration at the instant when the waves are in synchronism as shown in graph "A"Not learned 926. When paralleling two alternators the synchronizing lamps grow dim and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0° position. What does this indicate?Not learned 927. You are paralleling two alternators. The synchronizing lamps grow dim and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0° position. What does this indicate?Not learned 928. An alternator switchboard has a synchroscope and synchronizing lamps. If the synchroscope is broken, which of the steps listed is the most essential before an alternator can be paralleled with the bus?Not learned 929. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0°. What would this indicate?Not learned 930. Besides voltage and frequency, what other factor must be the same when alternators are operating in parallel?Not learned 931. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of two alternators in parallel?Not learned 932. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in removing a generator from parallel operation when no longer needed?Not learned 933. To remove an alternator operating in parallel with another unit from the main electrical bus, what must be done FIRST?Not learned 934. A main switchboard synchronizing panel is fitted with two synchronizing lamps and a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one synchronizing light is bright while the other remains dark, what does this indicate?Not learned 935. When paralleling two AC generators, the synchroscope selector switch and frequency meter switch should be set up to sense the frequency of which of the following?Not learned 936. While paralleling 2 AC generators using synchronizing lamps only, when will both lamps go dark?Not learned 937. When paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps, the flickering of all three lamps becomes progressively slower and slower. What does this mean?Not learned 938. An AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation without tripping the circuit breaker. What will be the result?Not learned 939. What will happen when a loss of field excitation to an AC generator occurs while operating in parallel?Not learned 940. Diesel-generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel with each machine operating at half-capacity. Diesel-generator #1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low lube oil pressure. The reverse power relay functions properly and trips generator #1 electrically off the board. In the absence of an automated power management system, which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST?Not learned 941. When shore power is being connected to a ship in drydock, what must be ensured, assuming that the ship's generators are rated at 450 VAC, 60 Hz with a total capacity of 5000 kW?Not learned 942. When two generators are on the line and are both connected across a shared load, how are they said to be operating?Not learned 943. While underway at sea, a mechanical malfunction in one of the ship's service generators operating in parallel, requires that you must secure that generator. In order to prevent a possible overload to the remaining generator, which of the following sequential courses of action should be taken?Not learned 944. From the illustration shown in figure "C", what can be determined from the speed droop characteristics of generator A and generator BNot learned 945. Two AC generators are operating in parallel and both are equipped with automatic voltage regulators. While standing watch, one generator is noted as having a greater lagging kvar value. In order to equalize the kvars between the generators manually, what should be done?Not learned 946. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0°. What would this indicate?Not learned 947. While underway at sea, a mechanical malfunction in one of the ship's service generators operating in parallel, requires that you must secure that generator. In order to prevent a possible overload to the remaining generator, which of the following sequential courses of action should be taken?Not learned 948. While on watch in the engine room, you are setting up to parallel alternators. The switchboard has a synchroscope and two synchronizing lamps used as a backup means of synchronization. If the synchroscope is broken, which of the steps listed is the most essential before an alternator can be paralleled with the bus, assuming the incoming machine alternator frequency is slightly higher than that of the bus?Not learned 949. No.1 SSDG was operating in parallel with No.2 SSDG in supplying the 480 VAC main bus while sharing the electrical load evenly. As a result of a problem, if No.1 SSDG begins to motorize, but the generator has not yet tripped out by the action of the reverse power relay, what would be the indication of this?Not learned 950. In the diagram of the switchboard shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the current transformersNot learned 951. In the diagram of the switchboard shown in the illustration, if one of the turbines should fail due to a throttle trip, what will happenNot learned 952. In the diagram of the switchboard shown in the illustration, what is the function of the device labeled "GenNot learned 953. Upon loss of field excitation of a generator operating in parallel with others, what must be done?Not learned 954. How is the is the voltage developed by an AC generator controlled?Not learned 955. By what means is the voltage of an operating AC turbo generator raised or lowered?Not learned 956. How is the output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator controlled?Not learned 957. By what means is a constant output voltage from an AC generator maintained?Not learned 958. How is the output voltage of a three-phase alternator regulated?Not learned 959. By what means is the voltage output of an AC generator accurately controlled?Not learned 960. What is the function of automatic voltage regulators as provided on switchboards?Not learned 961. Using the standard method of controlling the output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 Hz, AC generator, by what means is this accomplished?Not learned 962. By what means is the output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 Hz AC generator controlled?Not learned 963. The instantaneous reduction in voltage of an AC generator, resulting from an increase in load and prior to the automatic voltage regulator correcting the situation, is called what?Not learned 964. Besides voltage regulation, what is a function of the voltage regulators used with AC generators?Not learned 965. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the voltage sensing unitNot learned 966. Which of the following statements represents the important factor that must be considered when replacing a faulty diode in a generators excitation field rectifier assembly?Not learned 967. On a steamship, if No.1 SSTG fails to produce a voltage while in the automatic voltage control mode, but successfully produces a voltage while in the manual control mode, what statement is true?Not learned 968. What is the rotor speed of a four pole, 60 cycle, induction motor operating at full load with 3% slip?Not learned 969. What is the rotor speed of a six pole, 60 cycle, induction motor operating at full load with 3% slip?Not learned 970. A four-pole 60-hertz induction motor has a synchronous speed of 1800 RPM and a slip of 4 percent at full load. What will be its full load speed?Not learned 971. A four-pole induction motor, operating on three-phase 60 cycle current will operate at approximately __________.Not learned 972. A four-pole, 60 cycle, squirrel-cage motor has a full load speed of 1725 RPM. What will be the percent of slip at full load?Not learned 973. If the synchronous speed of a 12 pole, polyphase, induction motor operating at 60 Hz were 600 RPM, how many poles will be required in a similar motor operating at the same frequency but having a synchronous speed of 900 RPM?Not learned 974. What determines the direction of rotation of an AC induction motor?Not learned 975. Regarding an induction motor, what does the power developed by the rotor automatically adjust itself to?Not learned 976. Regarding an AC induction motor, what is the output power developed by the motor related to?Not learned 977. In a basic AC induction motor, by what means is current induced in the rotor?Not learned 978. What is meant by the synchronous speed of an AC induction motor?Not learned 979. How is the difference between the synchronous speed of a three-phase induction motor and its operating speed correctly expressed?Not learned 980. The difference between the synchronous speed of an three phase induction motor and its operating speed is called slip, which would be given in RPM. What is another way that slip can be expressed?Not learned 981. Assuming that the 3-phase power source has a phase sequence of A-B-C and that the motor is connected as shown in figure "A", if the motor has a clockwise (CW) rotation, what statement is true concerning the motors connected as shown in the other figuresNot learned 982. Assuming that the 3-phase power source has a phase sequence of A-B-C and that the motor is connected as shown in figure "A", if the motor has a clockwise (CW) rotation, what statement is true concerning the motors connected as shown in the other figuresNot learned 983. What is the most practical method of controlling the RPM of a multi-speed AC motor operating at a constant frequency?Not learned 984. How is the speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor determined?Not learned 985. How is the speed of a multi-speed squirrel-cage induction motor operating at a constant frequency usually changed?Not learned 986. How is the speed of a multi-speed, squirrel-cage, induction motor operating in a fixed frequency system changed?Not learned 987. Under normal conditions, how is the speed of a two-speed squirrel cage induction motor changed?Not learned 988. In addition to frequency, how is the speed of a squirrel cage induction motor determined?Not learned 989. How is the speed of a multi-speed three-phase squirrel-cage induction-type motor operating in a fixed frequency system changed?Not learned 990. How is the speed of a squirrel-cage, multi-speed, induction motor, as used aboard ship, typically changed?Not learned 991. Which of the following statements describes what will occur if the motor torque-speed and currentspeed curves shown in the illustration is required to carry 150% of full loadNot learned 992. The torque-speed and current-speed curves for a three-phase induction motor with a squirrel-cage rotor are shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration. Which of the following statements is true concerning the depicted curvesNot learned 993. What is the characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance inserted in series with the rotor winding at startup?Not learned 994. If an induction motor were to be operated at 90% rated voltage and at rated load, what would be the result?Not learned 995. In a three-phase, squirrel-cage type, induction motor, how is the primary rotating magnetic field established?Not learned 996. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operating characteristics of a basic squirrel-cage induction motor?Not learned 997. In a 15 HP induction-type motor with a squirrel-cage rotor, compared to the full load current at rated speed, how much starting current is required at standstill to produce successful starting torque?Not learned 998. Using the motor performance curves shown in the off standard-voltage graph of the illustration, what would be the impact of operating a motor significantly below its rated voltageNot learned 999. Using the motor performance curves shown in the off standard-frequency graph of the illustration, what would be the impact of operating a motor significantly below its rated frequencyNot learned 1000. Using the motor performance curves shown in the off standard-voltage graph of the illustration, what would be the full load current of a 450 VAC motor rated at 75 amperes of current at full load if the motor supply voltage is 405 VACNot learned 1001. For what purpose is the variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor induction motor provided?Not learned 1002. What statement is true concerning the speed of a wound-rotor induction motor?Not learned 1003. A degree of control over the speed of a slip ring induction motor can be obtained by what means?Not learned 1004. What is the characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high resistance inserted in series with the rotor winding at startup?Not learned 1005. Which of the following physical characteristics does a three-phase wound-rotor induction motor possess that a squirrel-cage induction motor does not?Not learned 1006. As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, what statement is true concerning motor lead connectionsNot learned 1007. As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, how is the direction of rotation of the motor reversedNot learned 1008. As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, what statement is true concerning changing the motor speedNot learned 1009. How is the full-load (rated) torque of an induction motor defined?Not learned 1010. What will be the impact of reduced voltage applied to a motor during the starting period?Not learned 1011. By periodically checking the stator-to-rotor air gap clearance in an induction motor with a feeler gauge, what is prevented?Not learned 1012. You are reconnecting a three-phase induction motor to the supply line. To prevent possible damage to the load, due to the wrong direction of rotation, what should be done?Not learned 1013. If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops to a single-phase (one supply line open), what would be the result?Not learned 1014. If a three-phase induction motor is operated under a light load and it develops an open in one of its supply lines, what will be the result?Not learned 1015. If a single-phase capacitor start induction motor fails to start, but instead hums without starting, what is most likely to be the problem?Not learned 1016. What would cause a three-phase, squirrel cage, induction motor to run hot? Operating at lower than rated voltage Operating at higher than rated voltageNot learned 1017. What would cause a three-phase, squirrel cage, induction motor to run hot? Operation at lower than rated voltage Operation at lower than rated frequencyNot learned 1018. Low horsepower, polyphase, induction motors can be started with full voltage by means of which kind of starter?Not learned 1019. By what means is the rotation of a three-phase induction motor reversed?Not learned 1020. How is the reversal of an AC, three-phase, induction motor accomplished?Not learned 1021. What will be the effect of interchanging any two of the three rotor leads on a wound-rotor induction motor?Not learned 1022. Suppose it is desired to connect a dual voltage three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor for low volts, but it is undetermined whether the nine-lead motor is internally configured for wye or delta configuration. Using an ohmmeter, the motor itself with leads disconnected, and the illustration as a guide, what statement is trueNot learned 1023. As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, how is the direction of rotation of the motor reversedNot learned 1024. What would be the synchronous speed of an eight-pole three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor operating at 60 Hz?Not learned 1025. What would be the actual rotor speed for a 4-pole three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor operating at 60 Hz if the rotor slip is 3%?Not learned 1026. A six-pole three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor operating at 60 Hz is running at 1155 rpm. What is the percentage slip in this case?Not learned 1027. Which of the illustrated motors has an open motor enclosureNot learned 1028. Which of the illustrated motors has an open motor enclosureNot learned 1029. The torque-speed and current-speed curves for a three-phase induction motor with a squirrel-cage rotor are shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration. Which of the following statements is true concerning the depicted curvesNot learned 1030. As shown in the illustrated wound-rotor induction motor, what statement is true concerning motor lead connectionsNot learned 1031. If a 6-pole motor is supplied at 60 Hz and runs with a slip of 5%, what is the actual rotor speed?Not learned 1032. A four pole, 60 Hz, three-phase synchronous motor comes up to 1760 RPM when started as an induction motor. What is the percent slip after the rotor field is energized?Not learned 1033. What is the purpose of a squirrel cage rotor winding placed on the rotor of a synchronous motor?Not learned 1034. What is the purpose of the squirrel-cage windings included as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 1035. What is the purpose of the squirrel-cage windings included as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 1036. Why is a damper winding designed as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 1037. Why is a damper winding designed as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 1038. What is the purpose of the squirrel-cage windings included as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 1039. Why is a damper winding designed as part of a synchronous motor?Not learned 1040. How does a synchronous motor maintains synchronism with the rotating field?Not learned 1041. What causes the rotor of a synchronous motor to operate in synchronism with the rotating field?Not learned 1042. What is a common source of field excitation for synchronous motors?Not learned 1043. What is the most common source of excitation for the rotor of a synchronous motor utilizing slip rings and brushes?Not learned 1044. How is the speed of a synchronous motor varied?Not learned 1045. An increase in which of the listed conditions will increase the speed of a synchronous electric motor?Not learned 1046. If a synchronous motor begins to vibrate severely and pull out of synchronism, what would most likely be the cause? a mechanical overload Insufficient excitation currentNot learned 1047. What would be the effect of carrying field excitation excessively high on a synchronous motor?Not learned 1048. As shown in the illustrated diagnostic setup for locating an open field coil of a tenpole synchronous motor, if 240 VDC is applied across the brushes, what statement is true if one of the field coils is open-circuitedNot learned 1049. As shown in the illustrated diagnostic setup checking for a reversed field pole on a ten-pole synchronous motor, if a rotor is being checked after reassembly and the steel bolts repel each other as shown in the illustration, what condition is indicatedNot learned 1050. As shown in the illustrated diagnostic setup checking for a reversed field pole on a ten-pole synchronous motor, if a rotor is being checked after reassembly and the steel bolts repel each other as shown in the illustration, what condition is indicatedNot learned 1051. As shown in the illustrated 3 phase synchronous motor controller, what statement is true regarding operation at synchronous speedNot learned 1052. As shown in the illustrated 3 phase synchronous motor controller, what statement is true regarding motor start-upNot learned 1053. Which of the following statements is true concerning a large polyphase synchronous main propulsion motor as used in an electric propulsion drive system?Not learned 1054. What statement is TRUE concerning the speed of a synchronous AC propulsion motor?Not learned 1055. What would be the synchronous speed of a 24-pole three-phase synchronous motor operating at 20 Hz?Not learned 1056. By what means is a synchronous motor started and brought nearly to synchronous speed?Not learned 1057. Concerning the operating characteristics of a synchronous motor, what statement is true?Not learned 1058. Assuming that a three-phase synchronous motor is separately excited, what statement is true concerning power supplies?Not learned 1059. Occasionally a synchronous motor is configured without an external shaft to drive a load. In this case, the sole purpose of the synchronous motor is improving overall power factor of an electrical distribution system. What is the name of the synchronous motor so constructed?Not learned 1060. Not only can a synchronous motor drive a load with greater efficiency than an induction motor, a fringe benefit of the synchronous motor is the ability for power factor correction. What statement is true?Not learned 1061. Of the following listed single-phase induction motors, which has the highest starting torque?Not learned 1062. Which statement is true concerning a split-phase induction motor?Not learned 1063. What is the main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase, single phase motor?Not learned 1064. What type of rotor is most commonly used in the split-phase family of single-phase induction motors?Not learned 1065. A shaded-pole motor is a specific type of motor included in what class of motor?Not learned 1066. What is the main function in the use of a capacitor for starting a single phase motor?Not learned 1067. Which of the pictured motors within the split phase family of single phase induction motors represents a split phase, resistive start, induction run motorNot learned 1068. Which of the pictured motors within the split phase family of single phase induction motors represents a split phase, resistive start, induction run motorNot learned 1069. Which of the pictured motors within the split phase family of single phase induction motors represents a permanent split capacitor motorNot learned 1070. Within the split phase family of single phase motors, what are the operational characteristics of the motor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1071. Within the split phase family of single phase motors, what are the operational characteristics of the motor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1072. Within the split phase family of single phase motors, what are the operational characteristics of the motor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1073. Within the split phase family of single phase motors, what are the operational characteristics of the motor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1074. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", and "D" of the illustration, what is the usual means by which the rotation direction of the motor is reversedNot learned 1075. What are the operational characteristics of the split-phase motor shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1076. What are the operational characteristics of the split-phase motor shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1077. What are the operational characteristics of the permanent split capacitor motor shown in figure "C" of the illustrationNot learned 1078. What are the operational characteristics of the shaded pole motor shown in figure "D" of the illustrationNot learned 1079. Which of the pictured motors is a square core shaded pole motor used to drive very small electrical loads and is non-reversibleNot learned 1080. Which of the pictured motors is a square core shaded pole motor used to drive very small electrical loads and is non-reversibleNot learned 1081. Which of the pictured motors is a synchronous motor used to drive very small electrical motors such as timersNot learned 1082. Which of the pictured motors is a stepper motor used to translate rotational position such as in a compass repeaterNot learned 1083. What type of motor is illustrated by the schematic of figure "B" of the illustration and what type of starting relay is usedNot learned 1084. What type of motor is illustrated by the schematic of figure "B" of the illustration and what type of starting relay is usedNot learned 1085. What type of motor is illustrated by the schematic of figure "B" of the illustration and what type of starting relay is usedNot learned 1086. What type of motor is illustrated by the schematic of figure "A" of the illustration and what type of starting relay is usedNot learned 1087. Which of the following problems will most likely occur if the starting winding of a split-phase induction motor failed to cutout once the motor approached operating speed?Not learned 1088. If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to open once the motor is in operation, what will be the result?Not learned 1089. A single-phase split-phase induction motor will only start if you spin the rotor rapidly with the line switch closed. After starting, its speed fluctuates between very slow and half-speed. What motor component most likely is faulty?Not learned 1090. A single-phase capacitor-start induction motor starts, comes up to about 75% rated speed, slows down to a lower speed, and accelerates again. Where is the problem most likely to be?Not learned 1091. A single-phase split-phase induction motor will only start if you spin the rotor rapidly with the line switch closed. After starting, its speed fluctuates between very slow and half-speed. What motor component most likely is faulty?Not learned 1092. What would be the most likely fault if a single-phase permanent split capacitor induction motor fails to start?Not learned 1093. A split-phase induction squirrel-cage motor will not start and come up to speed, even though the rated voltage and frequency are applied. Assuming that the motor hums without rotating, which of the following troubles would MOST likely be suspected?Not learned 1094. What would happen if the centrifugal switch or relay, for cutting out the starting winding of a split-phase induction motor, failed to open while the motor was in operation?Not learned 1095. What is prevented when one of the generator bearing shells is generally insulated from its end housing?Not learned 1096. Which of the illustrated motors has an open motor enclosureNot learned 1097. Which of the illustrated motors has a totally enclosed motor enclosureNot learned 1098. Which of the listed motors will operate at the highest RPM, assuming that each operates at the same frequency?Not learned 1099. Which of the illustrated motors has a totally enclosed motor enclosureNot learned 1100. Which of the illustrated motors has an open motor enclosureNot learned 1101. What type of motor enclosure is utilized for the motor labeled "A" in the illustrationNot learned 1102. What type of motor enclosure is utilized for the motor labeled "A" in the illustrationNot learned 1103. What type of motor enclosure is utilized for the motor labeled "A" in the illustrationNot learned 1104. What type of motor enclosure is utilized for the motor labeled "A" in the illustrationNot learned 1105. Which of the following motors has a frame configuration for solid base mounting onlyNot learned 1106. Which of the following motors has a frame configuration for solid base mounting onlyNot learned 1107. Which of the following motors has a frame configuration for solid base mounting onlyNot learned 1108. Which of the following motors has a frame configuration for solid base mounting onlyNot learned 1109. Which type of AC single phase motor will also operate on direct current?Not learned 1110. Universal motors will operate on AC or DC current. In what application is this type of motor generally?Not learned 1111. One item listed on the name plate of a cargo pump motor is 'degrees centigrade rise.' What does the number stamped for this item represent?Not learned 1112. Motor name plate data includes " degrees Centigrade temperature rise ". What does this indicate?Not learned 1113. What is the specific name for the torque produced by a motor at the instant of startup when voltage is applied to the motor?Not learned 1114. What is the primary function of an electric motor?Not learned 1115. With respect to electrical enclosure types, how may an electric motor be designed and constructed?Not learned 1116. What operational information data appears on the name plates of shipboard AC motors?Not learned 1117. If overloading an electric motor becomes necessary in an emergency situation, what should be done to prevent damage to the motor while allowing sustained operation?Not learned 1118. Some large A.C. motors are equipped with heaters. These could be __________. resistance heaters bolted directly to the frame low voltage windings embedded in the motor windingsNot learned 1119. What circumstance has the greatest detrimental effect on idle electrical equipment?Not learned 1120. According to the sample sheet of a typical "List of Motors and Controls" as shown in the illustration, which of the following motor applications features a motor enclosure designed for dusty, wet, and hazardous locationsNot learned 1121. According to the sample sheet of a typical "List of Motors and Controls" as shown in the illustration, which of the following motor applications features a means of keeping the motor windings warm and dry when the motor is idleNot learned 1122. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated motor nameplate, how much current could the motor safely draw on a continuous basis at sea level without overheatingNot learned 1123. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated motor nameplate, what is the service factor at sea levelNot learned 1124. As shown in the illustration, if the protected motor is rated at 25 amps at full load, what is the approximate locked rotor current valueNot learned 1125. Assuming that the 3-phase power source has a phase sequence of A-B-C and that the motor is connected as shown in figure "A", if the motor has a clockwise (CW) rotation, what statement is true concerning the motors connected as shown in the other figuresNot learned 1126. What does figure "C" of the illustration representNot learned 1127. If coil 'R1-R2 -R3' on the transmitter in figure "C" shown in the illustration is turned 30°C lockwise, how will the corresponding coils 'R1-R2-R3' on the receivers (indicators) respondNot learned 1128. (1.1.4.1.1-4) In actual applications, electrical connections associated with "R1, R2 and R3" of the transmitter to "R1, R2, and R3" of the indicators shown in figure "C" of the illustration are made by what meansNot learned 1129. As shown in the illustration, what is the magnetic phase differential in degrees between the reference signal magnetic axis and the control signal magnetic axis of the illustrated diagram for a two-phase induction servomotor for an automatic radio direction finderNot learned 1130. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for an automatic radio direction finder, what statement is true concerning the mechanical linkage of the servo-motorNot learned 1131. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for an automatic radio direction finder, what will happen when the control signal amplifier output goes to zero nullNot learned 1132. Erratic operation of the device represented in the diagram labeled "A" shown in the illustration could be traced to what conditionNot learned 1133. If coils 'R1-R2-R3' at the receiver of figure "C" shown in the illustration turned opposite of those in the transmitter, what action should be taken to have both turn in the same directionNot learned 1134. If it is required that the coils 'R1-R2-R3' in the indicator of figure "A", turn opposite to those in the transmitter, as shown in the illustration, what action should be takenNot learned 1135. If coil 'R1-R2-R3' at the receiver of figure "A" shown in the illustration were in 180 degree error with respect to that of the transmitter of figure "B", using figure "C" as a guide, what corrective action should be takenNot learned 1136. As shown in figure "1" of the illustration, a correctly connected synchronous transmission causes the receiver to be in correspondence with the transmitter. If the receiver is out of correspondence, properly zeroed, but the torque direction is reversed as shown in figure "2", what figure shows the incorrect connections responsible for this conditionNot learned 1137. As shown in figure "1" of the illustration, a correctly connected synchronous transmission causes the receiver to be in correspondence with the transmitter. If the receiver is out of correspondence, properly zeroed, but the torque direction is reversed as shown in figure "2", what figure shows the incorrect connections responsible for this conditionNot learned 1138. As shown in figure "1" of the illustration, a correctly connected synchronous transmission causes the receiver to be in correspondence with the transmitter. If the receiver is out of correspondence, properly zeroed, but the torque direction is reversed as shown in figure "2", what figure shows the incorrect connections responsible for this conditionNot learned 1139. As shown in figure "1" of the illustration, a correctly connected synchronous transmission causes the receiver to be in correspondence with the transmitter. If the receiver is out of correspondence, properly zeroed, but the torque direction is reversed as shown in figure "2", what figure shows the incorrect connections responsible for this conditionNot learned 1140. If it is required that the coils 'R1-R2-R3' in the indicator of figure "A", turn opposite to those in the transmitter, as shown in the illustration, what action should be takenNot learned 1141. Refer to figures "1" and "2" of the basic synchronous transmission system shown in the illustration. Figure "1" shows a properly connected system where the receiver TR remains in correspondence with the transmitter TX. In figure "2", although properly zeroed, the receiver goes out of correspondence with the transmitter due to improper connections resulting in reverse torque direction. Which connection error results in this behaviorNot learned 1142. Of the following, what shipboard system is MOST likely to use the synchronous transmission system featuring a transmitter and receiver?Not learned 1143. If coil 'R1-R2 -R3' on the transmitter in figure "C" shown in the illustration is turned 30°C lockwise, how will the corresponding coils 'R1-R2-R3' on the receivers (indicators) respondNot learned 1144. What does figure "C" of the illustration representNot learned 1145. What is the name of the mechanism used to transmit rudder angle information from the steering gear itself to the wheelhouse in the illustrated rudder angle indicator systemNot learned 1146. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the DC link within the frequency converterNot learned 1147. As shown in the illustrated solid-state stepless acceleration starting method graphs, which figure graphs a starting method that would require a tachometer inputNot learned 1148. As shown in the illustrated solid-state stepless acceleration starting method graphs, which figure graphs a starting method that provides the greatest control of starting currentNot learned 1149. As shown in the illustrated solid-state stepless acceleration starting method graphs, which figure graphs a starting method that provides linear acceleration, but where the acceleration rate depends on the load and a tachometer input is not requiredNot learned 1150. As shown in the illustrated solid-state stepless acceleration starting method graphs, which figure graphs a starting method that features a stepless acceleration ramp-up that is non-adjustableNot learned 1151. How is the speed of the propeller shaft directly coupled to an AC synchronous propulsion motor changed when powered by a variable frequency alternator in an AC turboelectric drive system?Not learned 1152. What is the operating function of a cycloconverter (CCV) as a static power converter used in electric propulsion motor drives?Not learned 1153. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the purpose of the frequency converterNot learned 1154. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated propulsion motor variable speed drive, what statement is trueNot learned 1155. A shown in figure "B" of the illustrated propulsion motor variable speed drive, what principle is used to achieve variable frequency sine-wave approximated alternating currentNot learned 1156. A shown in figure "B" of the illustrated propulsion motor variable speed drive, what statement is true concerning the PWM voltage outputNot learned 1157. As shown in the illustrated synchroconverter for an AC synchronous propulsion motor, what statement is true concerning operational characteristicsNot learned 1158. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, the load-commutated inverter drive illustrated has how many pulsesNot learned 1159. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, the load-commutated inverter drive illustrated has how many pulsesNot learned 1160. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, how many degrees phase shift are associated with the outputs of each of the six-pulse convertersNot learned 1161. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the symbols represents a standard normally open relay contactNot learned 1162. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the symbols represents a normally open, timed open time delay relay contactNot learned 1163. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the symbols represents a standard normally open relay contactNot learned 1164. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the symbols represents a normally open, timed open time delay relay contactNot learned 1165. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the symbols represents a normally open, timed open time delay relay contactNot learned 1166. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the symbols represents a normally open, timed open time delay relay contactNot learned 1167. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the devices represents a time delay relayNot learned 1168. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the devices represents an open general purpose relayNot learned 1169. As shown in the illustrated devices and symbols, which of the devices represents an enclosed relay which is designed to plug into a pin baseNot learned 1170. What is the function of a shading coil as used in an AC magnetic controller?Not learned 1171. What is the purpose of installing shading coils on AC full-voltage starters?Not learned 1172. Which of the following contactors or relays has a timing function for the transition from start to runNot learned 1173. By what means is the burning of controller contacts due to arcing, when opening, prevented?Not learned 1174. What is the purpose of an electromagnetic relay?Not learned 1175. An electromagnetic relay is most commonly used for what purpose?Not learned 1176. Which of the following statements concerning the maintenance of solid-silver contacts in relays and auxiliary control circuits is correct?Not learned 1177. During its operation, loud buzzing and resultant welding of contacts of a magnetic relay may occur. Which of the following would be the likely cause?Not learned 1178. If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out when the coil voltage is removed from the relay, what is the probable cause?Not learned 1179. Excessive buzzing of AC contactors may be caused by what condition?Not learned 1180. As shown in the illustration, what are the characteristics of the trouble relay contactsNot learned 1181. What is the purpose of the capacitor within component "5" of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1182. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what type of timer is representedNot learned 1183. Which of the following pictures represents a magnetic contactor assemblyNot learned 1184. Using the illustrated catalog number selection chart, determine the correct catalog number for a motor contactor that meets the following selection criteria: a 3-pole, NEMA non-reversing contactor with an open enclosure rated at 18 continuous amperes, fitted with an operating coil rated at 208 VAC/60HzNot learned 1185. Which of the motors for the devices listed below is fitted with an instantaneous overload relay?Not learned 1186. The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be decreased by raising the plunger further into the magnetic circuit of the relay. What effect does this action have?Not learned 1187. The setpoint current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be increased by turning the dashpot in the "lower" direction. What effect will this action have?Not learned 1188. As shown in the illustration, what mechanism will disconnect the motor from the line in case of a sustained motor overloadNot learned 1189. As shown in the illustrated two speed motor controller, what statement is true concerning the overload relaysNot learned 1190. Utilizing the instructions and data provided in the illustration, what size overload relay heater would be the proper selection for a motor with the nameplate data shown? Assume the motor operates at sea level and that the motor and its starter share the same ambient temperatureNot learned 1191. Utilizing the instructions and data provided in the illustration, what size overload relay heater would be the proper selection for a motor with the nameplate data shown? Assume the motor operates at sea level and that the motor and its starter share the same ambient temperatureNot learned 1192. Utilizing the instructions and data provided in the illustration, what size overload relay heater would be the proper selection for a motor with the nameplate data shown? Assume the motor operates at sea level and that the motor and its starter share the same ambient temperatureNot learned 1193. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what type of overload relay for motor protection is illustratedNot learned 1194. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, the self-test of the OCR performance is applied with a setting of 6 times the full load current and a trip time of 10 seconds is observed, which agrees with the manufacturers current/time characteristics. According to figure "C" of the illustration, under actual operation, how long would the trip time be if the motor was drawing 3 times the full load amperage due to a mechanical overloadNot learned 1195. As shown in the illustration, if the protected motor is rated at 15 amps at full load, what is the approximate threshold value where sustained currents below the value result in the overload relay tripping the motor off-line and where sustained currents above the value result in the fuse disconnecting the motor from lineNot learned 1196. As shown in the tripping curves of the illustration, what is the name of the value at which the OCR and fuse tripping curves crossNot learned 1197. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the purpose of the "test button"Not learned 1198. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the "reset button"Not learned 1199. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the "full-load amp adjustment"Not learned 1200. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what is the actual full-load current setting for the overload relay as picturedNot learned 1201. Which of the following pictures represents an overload relay assemblyNot learned 1202. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay, if the full load amp setting accurately represents the motor full load current of 6 amps and the trip class dip switch settings are for a trip class of 20, what statement is true assuming that the locked rotor current is 6 times the full load currentNot learned 1203. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay, if the full load amp setting accurately represents the motor full load current of 6 amps and the trip class dip switch settings are for a trip class of 20, what statement is true assuming that the locked rotor current is 6 times the full load currentNot learned 1204. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay, if the full load amp setting accurately represents the motor full load current of 4.5 amps and the definite time (D-time) setting is 25 sec. as shown, what statement is true assuming that the locked rotor current is 6 times the full load currentNot learned 1205. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay, if it is desired to connect the relay to a trip indicator for alarm purposes, what terminals would the trip alarm be associated with in completing the series circuitNot learned 1206. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay, if it is desired to connect the relay to the operating coil for tripping purposes, what terminals would the operating coil be associated with in completing the series circuitNot learned 1207. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay, if the external current transformers transform current on a basis of 100:1, what is the actual full load current setting as presently setNot learned 1208. In order to properly set up programmable motor protection, it is necessary to know the locked rotor current of a motor. Given the illustrated chart of code letters for locked-rotor kVA/HP and the necessary instructions, calculate the estimated locked rotor current for the motor represented by the illustrated motor nameplate using a mid-range value for the code letter, assuming the motor is to run at 440 VACNot learned 1209. What does the circuit shown in the illustration representNot learned 1210. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay circuit, what is the functional purpose of potentiometer "R6"Not learned 1211. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay circuit, what is the functional purpose of potentiometer "R6"Not learned 1212. As shown in the illustrated electronic overload relay circuit, what is the functional purpose of potentiometer "R6"Not learned 1213. What does the circuit shown in the illustration representNot learned 1214. How are fuses usually rated?Not learned 1215. How are fuses rated?Not learned 1216. How would a circuit with a blown fuse be described?Not learned 1217. Due to the operating characteristics of the system, time lag fuses (or dual-element fuses) are necessary for use in what types of circuits?Not learned 1218. For what purpose are time delayed or delayed action-type fuses used?Not learned 1219. A delayed-action fuse is most frequently used in which of the listed circuits?Not learned 1220. Compared to the fuse being replaced, what should be the characteristic of the replacement fuse for a fuse that blows often?Not learned 1221. Which of the following precautions should be taken when a blown fuse, rated at 10 amperes, is replaced?Not learned 1222. What is the characteristic that is associated with an "instantaneous-trip" single-element type fuse?Not learned 1223. In a single element cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for lighting and general power applications?Not learned 1224. Fuses are sometimes placed in series with a thermal trip-type circuit breaker. What is the purpose of a fuse used in this arrangement?Not learned 1225. In a dual element time-delay cartridge-type fuse, what type of protection is provided for motor applications?Not learned 1226. What is the proper technique for removing a tubular fuse from a fuse holder?Not learned 1227. When changing fuses, what safety precaution should be taken after ensuring that the circuit is dead?Not learned 1228. To check the three line fuses protecting a three-phase motor using a multimeter set up as a voltmeter, what should be done FIRST?Not learned 1229. When testing for blown fuses in a three-phase supply circuit to a motor, what would be an acceptable method?Not learned 1230. Which of the following actions must be carried out before a voltage tester can be used to test the three line fuses to a three-phase motor?Not learned 1231. In order to definitively determine whether or not fuse "1", shown in the illustration is blown using an on-line testing technique, across what points would you connect the voltmeter leadsNot learned 1232. In order to definitively determine whether or not fuse "3", shown in the illustration is blown using an on-line testing technique, across what points would you connect the voltmeter leadsNot learned 1233. In order to definitively determine whether or not fuse "3", shown in the illustration is blown using an on-line testing technique, across what points would you connect the voltmeter leadsNot learned 1234. To test fuses in an energized circuit, what testing apparatus or meter should be used?Not learned 1235. In addition to short circuits and sustained overloads, in what other situation are fuses likely to blow?Not learned 1236. What would cause a fuse to blow?Not learned 1237. What could cause a fuse to blow?Not learned 1238. If a fuse of correct size and type blows frequently, what should be done?Not learned 1239. When replacing a fuse with one of a ampere higher rating than the original, which of the following is true?Not learned 1240. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated motor protection schemes, what statement is true regarding the trigger type fusesNot learned 1241. According to 46 CFR 111.75-5, what would be the maximum amperage load on circuit No.2 (2L110) of the illustrated lighting panel board L110 of the illustrationNot learned 1242. A fuse is the most common type of protection against a short-circuit fault in LV distribution circuits, motor circuits and for portable appliances. What is a major drawback or deficiency with the use of fuse?Not learned 1243. A thermal-magnetic molded case circuit breaker for a 300 kW alternator is rated at 500 amperes at full continuous load. Which of the following conditions will MOST likely trip the breaker?Not learned 1244. By what means does a molded-case circuit breaker provide protection against short circuits?Not learned 1245. By what means does a molded-case circuit breaker provide protection against short circuits?Not learned 1246. By what means is protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case circuit breakers provided?Not learned 1247. What is the basic similarity between a circuit breaker and a fuse?Not learned 1248. How does a circuit breaker differ from a fuse?Not learned 1249. How will a molded-case circuit breaker with a thermal trip unit react immediately after it has tripped, as a result of an overloaded motor circuit?Not learned 1250. When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-position, what does this indicate?Not learned 1251. When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-position, what is the indication for the position of the circuit breaker?Not learned 1252. How can you determine if a circuit breaker has tripped?Not learned 1253. How can you determine if a circuit breaker has tripped?Not learned 1254. When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-position, what is the indication for the position of the circuit breaker?Not learned 1255. The arc resulting from the tripping of a circuit breaker is prevented from damaging the contacts. How is this done?Not learned 1256. By what means can electrical circuits be protected against overheating? Current limiting devices such as circuit breakers and fuses Thermal protectors or overload relaysNot learned 1257. How are electric circuits protected against overloads and short circuits?Not learned 1258. As shown in figures "E" and "F" of the pictured high voltage rack mounted circuit breaker, which figure represents the circuit breaker position when in the open or tripped positionNot learned 1259. As shown in figures "E" and "F" of the pictured high voltage rack mounted circuit breaker, what figure represents the circuit breaker position when in the test position for testing the various shunt tripsNot learned 1260. Why is it necessary to perform periodic testing of correctly rated and properly installed circuit breakers?Not learned 1261. What device can be used to check the calibration of a circuit breaker?Not learned 1262. In addition to testing the calibration of a circuit breaker, what additional maintenance should be routinely performed?Not learned 1263. What should be done when performing maintenance of circuit breaker contacts?Not learned 1264. If a circuit breaker that utilizes built-in, current limiting fuses (CLF's), cannot be closed or reset, what may be the problem? I. A blown current limiting fuse due to a short-circuit condition II. A missing current limiting fuseNot learned 1265. In figure "A" of the illustration, what is the position of the circuit breakerNot learned 1266. In figure "1" of the illustration, what type of circuit breaker trip element is featuredNot learned 1267. In figure "2" of the illustration, what are the trip characteristics associated with this type of circuit breakerNot learned 1268. In figure "1" of the illustration, what type of circuit breaker trip element is featuredNot learned 1269. In figure "2" of the illustration, what are the trip characteristics associated with this type of circuit breakerNot learned 1270. In figure "3" of the illustration, what type of circuit breaker trip element is featuredNot learned 1271. Overcurrent protection for steering gear systems circuits that power alternating current motors must have an instantaneous trip set at what rating?Not learned 1272. You are in the planning stages of setting the longtime overcurrent trip of a ship's service generator circuit breaker. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what statement is true regarding the criteria for the longtime overcurrent trip setpoint, assuming the generator is capable of being paralleled?Not learned 1273. In the illustration what is the component labeled "C"Not learned 1274. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the Time Delay (TR) coil in the circuitNot learned 1275. As shown in the illustration, what type of starter is illustratedNot learned 1276. Consider a three-phase squirrel cage induction motor rated at 450 VAC and 60 Hz. What would happen to the motor if the line frequency dropped from the normally supplied 60 Hz to 55 Hz and the voltage remained normal at 450 VAC.Not learned 1277. What does the symbol labeled "OL" represent as shown in the power circuit on lines T1 and T3 to the motor as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1278. In the illustrated motor controller, what do the contacts across terminals "3" and "4" of the control circuit representNot learned 1279. As shown in the illustrated motor controller, what type of motor control logic is usedNot learned 1280. If the supply voltage is 220 volts 60 Hz, what is the operating voltage of the motor controller control circuit illustrated in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1281. What statement is true in reference to reading electrical motor controller elementary diagrams?Not learned 1282. In general, what type of starter would be used to connect a three-phase induction motor to full line voltage at the instant of start-up?Not learned 1283. Autotransformer starters, sometimes called starting compensators, are sometimes used with larger polyphase induction motors. What function do they perform?Not learned 1284. What type of AC motor would use a rheostat in the rotor circuit to vary the speed of the motor?Not learned 1285. A three-phase, induction-type motor experiences an open in one phase. Which of the listed automatic protective devices will prevent the motor from being damaged?Not learned 1286. If the circuit shown in the illustration were energized and operating properly, which of the devices listed would be openNot learned 1287. As shown in the illustration of the elementary diagram of a three speed anchor windlass controller, which of the following contactor, relay, or timer coils operates with DC voltageNot learned 1288. As shown in the illustration, by what means are all the "MS" contacts opened and closedNot learned 1289. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which of the operations listed will happen when the 'jog button' is pushedNot learned 1290. When a motor is started by the controller shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what circuit components are in the holding current flow path through the control circuit while the motor is in operationNot learned 1291. When the motor shown in figure "A" of the illustration is running with jog-run switch in the run position and the stop button is pushed and then released, which of the following statements will hold trueNot learned 1292. What type of control circuit logic is featured in the electrical schematic diagram for the motor starting circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1293. What type of starter is represented in the electrical schematic shown in the illustrationNot learned 1294. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor "2S"Not learned 1295. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor "2S"Not learned 1296. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor "R"Not learned 1297. In the illustration shown, what would be the functional name for the coil represented as 'R'Not learned 1298. In the illustration shown, what would be the functional name for the coil represented as '1S'Not learned 1299. If a three-phase motor controlled by the control circuit illustrated in figure "B" of the illustration, is running in the forward direction, which of the following sequences must occur before the motor will reverse rotationNot learned 1300. In figure "B" of the illustrated control circuit schematic diagram, which of the listed devices prevents the forward and reversing coils from being energized simultaneouslyNot learned 1301. Referring to figure "B" of the illustrated control circuit schematic diagram, which of the following statements is true when the motor is running in the forward directionNot learned 1302. Which of the following statements is true concerning the manual motor starter diagram shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1303. Which of the following illustrated manual motor starters represents the wiring diagram illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1304. As shown in the illustration, assuming power is available at the control circuit, which listed action will occur FIRST when the "off-run" switch is placed in the "run" positionNot learned 1305. With what kind of starting equipment are most three-phase induction motors of five horsepower or less started?Not learned 1306. Most three-phase induction motors used for driving engine room auxiliaries are started by what means?Not learned 1307. What is the starting characteristic associated with across-the-line starters as used with AC motors?Not learned 1308. Which of the listed types of motor controllers and starters is illustratedNot learned 1309. As shown in the illustration, if the line voltage is 450 VAC, what would be the applied voltage to the motor at the instant of startup and through the acceleration periodNot learned 1310. As shown in the illustration, if the line voltage is 450 VAC, what would be the applied voltage to the motor after the acceleration period with the motor up to speedNot learned 1311. As shown in the illustration, in addition to mechanical interlocking of the contactors, how is simultaneous pulling in of both the "1S" and 'R" contactors preventedNot learned 1312. As shown in the illustration, which of the following conditions will occur as a result of a momentary loss of powerNot learned 1313. What is the primary functional purpose of the KM3 contactor as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1314. What is the primary functional purpose of the KM3 contactor as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1315. What is the primary functional purpose of the KM3 contactor as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1316. If the line voltage to the controller shown in the illustration is 440 volts, what voltage is applied across the motor when contacts "KM2" close, assuming that the U2, V2, and W2 connections are made at the 50% tap of the autotransformerNot learned 1317. If the line voltage to the controller shown in the illustration is 440 volts, what is applied across the control circuit assuming the control transformer has a 4:1 turns ratioNot learned 1318. Which of the following statements is true concerning the motor controller circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1319. Which of the following statements is true concerning the motor controller circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1320. As shown in the illustration, which listed action will occur when the push button "OL" reset is depressed immediately after the motor has tripped out on overloadNot learned 1321. As shown in the illustrated three-phase squirrel cage induction motor controller, what type of reduced voltage starter is usedNot learned 1322. As shown in the illustrated reduced voltage three phase squirrel cage induction motor controller, what is the functional purpose of the "M" contactorNot learned 1323. As shown in the illustrated reduced voltage three phase squirrel cage induction motor controller, what is the functional purpose of the "R" contactorNot learned 1324. As shown in the illustrated reduced voltage three phase squirrel cage induction motor controller, what is the functional purpose of the "R" contactorNot learned 1325. As shown in the illustrated reduced voltage three phase squirrel cage induction motor controller, what is the functional purpose of the "S2" contactorNot learned 1326. As shown in the illustrated reduced voltage three phase squirrel cage induction motor controller, what is the functional purpose of the "CR" relayNot learned 1327. As shown in the illustrated three phase squirrel cage induction motor controller, what starting method is usedNot learned 1328. As shown in the illustrated three phase squirrel cage induction motor controller, what is the functional purpose of the "S" contactorNot learned 1329. As shown in the illustrated three phase squirrel cage induction motor controller, what is the functional purpose of the "R" contactorNot learned 1330. As shown in the two-speed single winding three phase motor connection diagrams illustrated in figures "B", "C", and "D", what type of motor is shown in the motor controller circuit illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1331. As shown in the two-speed single winding three-phase motor connection diagrams illustrated in figure "B", what is the connection scheme associated with low-speed operationNot learned 1332. As shown in the two-speed single winding three-phase motor connection diagrams illustrated in figure "B", what is the connection scheme associated with low-speed operationNot learned 1333. As shown in the two-speed single winding three-phase motor connection diagrams illustrated in figure "B", what is the connection scheme associated with low-speed operationNot learned 1334. As shown in the two-speed single winding three-phase motor connection diagrams illustrated in figure "B", what is the connection scheme associated with low-speed operationNot learned 1335. What operational characteristic does an across-the-line starter provide?Not learned 1336. An across-the-line starter is typically used for which of the following applications?Not learned 1337. What is the functional name of an electrical device which prevents simultaneous energization of loads thereby preventing damage or injury?Not learned 1338. Why are motor controllers seldom troubled with grounds?Not learned 1339. A motor controller contains three selector push buttons labeled 'start', 'jog', and 'stop'. What will happen to the motor when the 'jog' button is depressed?Not learned 1340. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between an electromagnetic relay and an electromagnetic contactor as used in motor control and power circuits?Not learned 1341. What functionality does a low-voltage protection circuit as used in electric motor starting equipment provide?Not learned 1342. Low voltage release and low voltage protection both function to prevent motor damage due to low voltage conditions. What is the main difference between a motor control circuit containing low voltage protection as compared to low voltage release?Not learned 1343. What operational characteristic is associated with the illustrated manual starter circuit for a motor shown in figure "A"Not learned 1344. What is the main difference between a motor control circuit featuring low voltage protection and a motor control circuit featuring low voltage release?Not learned 1345. Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in voltage and automatically restart it when the voltage is restored to normal?Not learned 1346. Low Voltage Release (LVR) protection used in some shipboard motor starters and other control equipment will have which of the following characteristics?Not learned 1347. What is the name of the type of motor control circuit that will not permit automatic restarting after power is restored, following a power failure?Not learned 1348. What is one purpose of a motor under voltage protection device?Not learned 1349. Why are electric strip heaters used in motor controllers?Not learned 1350. Moisture damage, as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch master switches, can be reduced by the use of what installed equipment?Not learned 1351. Which device will stop the motor shown in the illustration in case of a short-circuit (high current) motor faultNot learned 1352. Which component will stop the motor shown in the illustration in case of a short-circuit fault overload in the control circuitNot learned 1353. Why are motor controllers seldom troubled by grounds?Not learned 1354. Concerning the illustrated motor controller circuit, where is the location of the motor "run" indicator lightNot learned 1355. Concerning the illustrated motor controller circuit, which statement is trueNot learned 1356. What is the purpose of having low voltage protection for an electric motor circuit?Not learned 1357. How can a motor be protected from overheating due to sustained motor overload?Not learned 1358. What is the function of the autotransformers used with autotransformer starters used on some large AC motors?Not learned 1359. As shown in the illustration, which of the following pieces of equipment is provided with a remote push button stationNot learned 1360. As shown in the illustration, which of the following pieces of equipment is most likely provided with an autotransformer starterNot learned 1361. When power is restored after a complete power failure, how will the steering gear pump motor which was on- line respond?Not learned 1362. As shown in the illustrated steering hydraulic pump motor controller, what statement is trueNot learned 1363. What type of motor is used in the AC hoist controller as shown in the illustrationNot learned 1364. What functionality do the 'MS 1' contacts of the master switch shown in the illustration provideNot learned 1365. What is the functional purpose of the "LSL" contacts for the hoist controller circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1366. What is the functional purpose of the "LSL" contacts for the hoist controller circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1367. What is the functional purpose of the "MS 2" contacts in the hoist controller circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 1368. As shown in the illustration, what is the functional purpose of the normally closed and normally open auxiliary contacts of the hoist and lower contactors respectivelyNot learned 1369. How is the direction of rotation of the winch shown in the illustration changedNot learned 1370. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what is the functional purpose of the normally open auxiliary contacts of the main contactorNot learned 1371. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what happens when the "man-stop-auto" switch is placed in the "man" positionNot learned 1372. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what will be the result of placing the "hand-auto" selector switch in the "hand" positionNot learned 1373. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what action is required to restart the compressor if the compressor drive motor trips out on overloadNot learned 1374. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 1375. In the illustration shown, what type of protection is provided to the potable pump drive motorNot learned 1376. As shown in the illustration, what type of motor and motor starter are featuredNot learned 1377. As shown in the illustration, under what conditions would the red indicator light be illuminatedNot learned 1378. As shown in the illustration, what type of motor and motor starter are featuredNot learned 1379. As shown in the illustration, during a normal start-to-run sequence, what would be the status of "SRLS" and "RRLS" respectivelyNot learned 1380. As shown in the illustration, which of the following would prevent simultaneously pulling in both the forward and reverse contactors (which if allowed to happen would insert a short directly across 4160 VAC line)Not learned 1381. As shown in the illustration, simultaneously pulling in of both the forward and reverse contactors is preventing by both mechanical and electrical means. What statement is true concerning the two means of electrical interlocking usedNot learned 1382. As shown in the illustration, what type of motor is controlled as depicted in both figure "A" and in figure "B"Not learned 1383. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated manual motor controller, what statement is true concerning the starting of the motorNot learned 1384. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated automatic secondary resistance motor controller, at how many operating speeds does the motor run from start-up to rated speedNot learned 1385. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated manual secondary resistance motor controller, at how many operating speeds does the motor run from start-up to rated speedNot learned 1386. As shown in the illustration, what type of motor is controlled as depicted in both figure "A" and in figure "B"Not learned 1387. As shown in the illustrated two speed motor controller, how is simultaneous energization of both contactors preventedNot learned 1388. As shown in the illustrated 4-speed, 3-phase motor controller, what contactors are mechanically interlockedNot learned 1389. As shown in the illustrated 4-speed, 3-phase motor controller, what contactors are mechanically interlockedNot learned 1390. As shown in the illustrated 4-speed, 3-phase motor controller, contactor "M1" is electrically interlocked with what other contactorsNot learned 1391. As shown in the illustrated 4-speed, 3-phase motor controller, contactor "M2" is electrically interlocked with what other contactorsNot learned 1392. As shown in the illustrated 4-speed, 3-phase motor controller, contactor "M3" is electrically interlocked with what other contactorsNot learned 1393. As shown in the illustrated 4-speed, 3-phase motor controller, contactor "M4" is electrically interlocked with what other contactorsNot learned 1394. As shown in the illustrated 4-speed, 3-phase motor controller, contactor "M6" is electrically interlocked with what other contactorsNot learned 1395. As shown in the illustrated 4-speed, 3-phase motor controller, contactor "M6" is electrically interlocked with what other contactorsNot learned 1396. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the door interlockNot learned 1397. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning the safety disconnect switchNot learned 1398. Which of the following pictures represents a magnetic reversing or two-speed motor starterNot learned 1399. Which of the following pictures represents a magnetic reversing or two-speed motor starterNot learned 1400. Using the illustrated catalog number selection chart, determine the correct catalog number for a motor starter that meets the following selection criteria: a 3-pole, vertically mounted, NEMA reversing starter with an open enclosure rated at 45 continuous amperes, fitted with an electronic overload relay with a ground fault feature set and an operating coil rated at 24 VAC/60HzNot learned 1401. Using the illustrated catalog number selection chart, determine the correct catalog number for a motor starter that meets the following selection criteria: a 3-pole, vertically mounted, NEMA non-reversing starter with an open enclosure rated at 90 continuous amperes, fitted with an electronic overload relay with a standard feature set and an operating coil rated at 120 VAC/60HzNot learned 1402. Using the illustrated catalog number selection chart, determine the correct catalog number for a motor starter that meets the following selection criteria: a 3-pole, vertically mounted, NEMA multi-speed starter with an open enclosure rated at 27 continuous amperes, fitted with a bimetallic overload relay and an operating coil rated at 240 VAC/60HzNot learned 1403. What is the proper name for the entire device, including all subassemblies, shown in the illustrationNot learned 1404. As shown in the illustrated combination starter, what statement is trueNot learned 1405. As shown in the illustrated combination starter, what statement is trueNot learned 1406. As shown in the illustrated combination starter, what statement is trueNot learned 1407. Which of the following illustrated circuit schematics provides phase failure protection for a three phase motor using load side voltage sensing technologyNot learned 1408. Which of the following illustrated circuit schematics provides phase failure protection for a three phase motor using voltage sensing technology interfacing with a circuit breakerNot learned 1409. Which of the following illustrated circuit schematics provides phase failure protection for a three phase motor using load side voltage sensing technologyNot learned 1410. A ships main propulsion electric drive power converter panel circuit breaker may fail to close due to the action of various electrical interlocks via shunt trips. What permissive circuit/electrical interlock would most likely be the cause?Not learned 1411. In the illustrated solid-state "soft" starter for a three phase induction motor as shown in figure "A", what is the name of the devices that are controlled by the gate control circuitsNot learned 1412. In the illustrated solid-state "soft" starter for a three phase induction motor as shown in figure "A", what is the characteristic of the voltage applied to the motor during the acceleration periodNot learned 1413. While standing watch underway at sea in the engine room, there is a complete loss of electrical power. When power is restored, the steering gear pump motor will _________.Not learned 1414. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what statement is true concerning "regenerating" operationNot learned 1415. What type of electrical diagram is shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1416. As shown in the illustration, what type of starter is illustratedNot learned 1417. What statement is true concerning the electrical diagrams for the motor controller shown in the illustrationNot learned 1418. What type of electrical diagram for the autotransformer type motor controller is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1419. After a black out onboard and once ships power has been restored, the engine room supply fans must be started manually. What characteristic of the electrical circuit for the supply fans cause this requirement?Not learned 1420. What is the advantage of using an auto-transformer starter?Not learned 1421. What is the advantage of using a star delta starter?Not learned 1422. If a motor is direct-on-line started with the stator winding star connected, it will only take a fraction of the starting current that it would take if the windings were delta connected. What is that fraction?Not learned 1423. As shown in the illustration, what type of motor and motor starter are featuredNot learned 1424. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the Time Delay (TR) coil in the circuitNot learned 1425. An accidental ground in a motor can be defined as an electrical connection between the wiring of the motor and what other aspect of the motor installation?Not learned 1426. Which of the listed instruments can be best used to locate a grounded stator coil in a synchronous motor onboard ship?Not learned 1427. To determine if a stator coil on a AC generator is grounded, you should use a/an __________.Not learned 1428. As a matter of convenience, the illustrated test in figure "A" is being performed to determine whether or not the motor windings are grounded. In order for this megger test to be effective in detecting a ground, what condition must be met prior to conducting the testNot learned 1429. Grounds occurring in electrical machinery as a result of insulation failure may result from deterioration over time and excessive heat. What could be another contributing cause?Not learned 1430. When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt field coil is grounded in a DC machine, what must you do?Not learned 1431. The final step in testing a circuit for a ground involves the use of a megohmmeter. If a switch or cable is grounded what will be the indication as revealed by a megohmmeter reading?Not learned 1432. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what phenomenon is illustrated with respect to electrical cables and groundNot learned 1433. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, due to the effect of distributed capacitance, what would be the voltage of each bus phase with respect to the common equipment grounding conductor (hull ground)Not learned 1434. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, due to the effect of distributed capacitance, what would be the voltage of bus phases "A" and "B" with respect to the common equipment grounding conductor (hull ground)Not learned 1435. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, due to the effect of distributed capacitance, what would be the voltage of bus phases "A" and "B" with respect to the common equipment grounding conductor (hull ground)Not learned 1436. As shown in the illustrated effect of intermittent grounds on distributive capacitance, what event is illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1437. As shown in the illustrated effect of intermittent grounds on distributive capacitance, what event is illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1438. As shown in the illustrated effect of intermittent grounds on distributive capacitance, what event is illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1439. As shown in the illustrated effect of intermittent grounds on distributive capacitance, what event is illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1440. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated ground fault occurring in a solidly grounded distribution system, what statement is true concerning the operation of the ground fault relayNot learned 1441. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration of the motors of the solidly grounded distribution system, assuming all three motors are running, what statement is true if the following current readings are taken with an AC clamp-on ammeter clamped around the entire cable rather than individual conductors of a cable? Common loop: 3 amps Motor #1 loop: 0 amps Motor #2 loop: 3 amps Motor #3 loop: 0 amps See illustration EL-0128.Not learned 1442. As shown in figure "A" of the ungrounded distribution system, under what conditions would an outage likely occur due to a ground fault (or faults) causing a circuit breaker to tripNot learned 1443. As shown in figure "A" of the ungrounded distribution system, under what conditions would an outage likely occur due to a ground fault (or faults) causing a circuit breaker to tripNot learned 1444. As shown in the illustrated motor controller, assuming that the distribution system is an ungrounded system (common equipment grounding conductor insulated from the source), what faulty controller operation could be the result of the two accidental grounds as shownNot learned 1445. As shown in the illustrated motor controller, assuming that the distribution system is an ungrounded system (common equipment grounding conductor insulated from the source), what faulty controller operation could be the result of the two accidental grounds as shownNot learned 1446. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what type of ground fault detection system is illustratedNot learned 1447. What statement is true concerning a ground in a 450 VAC electrical circuit outside the engine room?Not learned 1448. Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded electrical distribution system?Not learned 1449. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, with respect to the common equipment grounding conductor, what statement is trueNot learned 1450. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, with respect to the common equipment grounding conductor, what statement is trueNot learned 1451. A current-carrying conductor makes accidental contact with a wiring conduit. How will this be indicated on the switchboard, as compared to indications when the situation is normal, assuming that the distribution system is an ungrounded system?Not learned 1452. A current-carrying conductor making electrical contact with a wiring conduit will be indicated by a change on the switchboard from the norm. Assuming that the distribution system is an ungrounded system, what will change?Not learned 1453. What is the indication on the switchboard of a ground on a particular phase of an ungrounded three-phase low voltage distribution system?Not learned 1454. Assume that the circuit shown in figure "A" of the illustration represents a two-wire single phase AC ground detecting system. If a ground occurs on line "B" as illustrated, which of the lamps will burn the brightest, before the test pushbutton switch is depressedNot learned 1455. The circuit illustrated in figure "A" represents a ground detecting system for a single phase AC system. If bus B is grounded as indicated, what will be the indication of a groundNot learned 1456. With an accidental ground on leg B as shown in figure "A" of the illustration, which of the lamps would be brighter after the test pushbutton switch has been depressedNot learned 1457. With an accidental ground on leg C as shown in figure "B" of the illustration and the test pushbutton is not yet depressed, which of the lamps would be dimmestNot learned 1458. With an accidental ground on leg C as shown in figure "B" of the illustration and the test pushbutton has been depressed, what would be the indicationNot learned 1459. With an accidental ground on leg C as shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what would be the indicationNot learned 1460. After pushing the test pushbutton of the illustrated high voltage ground detection system, the ground lamps indicate as shown in example #3 where lamps A and B are brighter than normal and lamp C is darker than normal. What does this indicateNot learned 1461. After pushing the test pushbutton of the illustrated high voltage ground detection system, the ground lamps indicate as shown in example #3 where lamps A and B are brighter than normal and lamp C is darker than normal. What does this indicateNot learned 1462. After pushing the test pushbutton of the illustrated high voltage ground detection system, the ground lamps indicate as shown in example #3 where lamps A and B are brighter than normal and lamp C is darker than normal. What does this indicateNot learned 1463. On a main switchboard, if all three ground detection lamps burn with equal intensity before and after the test button is depressed, which of the listed conditions is indicated?Not learned 1464. If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal brilliance, whether the test button is depressed or released, what does this indicate?Not learned 1465. In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are provided. If all three lamps REMAIN at half-brilliance when the ground detecting test switch is operated, what does this indicate?Not learned 1466. On a main switchboard, if all three ground detection lamps burn with equal intensity before and after the test button is depressed, which of the listed conditions is indicated?Not learned 1467. In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are provided. One lamp goes dark and the others increase in brightness when the "ground test" button is pushed. What is indicated?Not learned 1468. A three-phase electrical system is equipped with ground detecting lamps. If one of the lamps is dark, and remains dark when the test switch is operated, what does this indicate?Not learned 1469. The ground indicating light on the main electrical switchboard is indicating a ground. What is the best procedure for locating the grounded circuit?Not learned 1470. Multiple grounds have developed and were initially indicated by the ground-detecting system as one ground. What is the FIRST step in locating the grounds?Not learned 1471. A ground is indicated by the ground-detecting system on the main electrical switchboard. What is the FIRST step in locating the actual ground?Not learned 1472. Why must accidental grounds in a shipboard electrical distribution system be repaired as soon as possible? Insulation damage may result if the ground is left unrepaired. Power outages may result if the ground is left unrepaired.Not learned 1473. Why must accidental grounds in a shipboard electrical system be repaired as soon as possible?Not learned 1474. As shown in figure "B" of the typical ground fault relay shown in the illustration, what statement concerning the leakage current setting adjustment is trueNot learned 1475. As shown in figure "C" of the illustrated typical ground fault sensor, what statement concerning its installation is trueNot learned 1476. As shown in the illustrated alternator protection scheme diagram, under what circumstances would an earth leakage relay (EL) be usedNot learned 1477. As shown in figure "B" of the typical ground fault relay shown in the illustration, what statement concerning the leakage current setting adjustment is trueNot learned 1478. As shown in figure "A" of the ungrounded distribution system, under what conditions would an outage likely occur due to a ground fault (or faults) causing a circuit breaker to tripNot learned 1479. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what is the appropriate action to takeNot learned 1480. On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. This should be checked with a millivolt meter and a jumper. With the millivolt meter connected between the shaft and the bedplate how should the jumper be used?Not learned 1481. Besides checking for grounds, for what other purpose can a megohmmeter be used on a DC motor?Not learned 1482. The "soft" insulation of practically all electrical machinery uses asphalt binders which reduces the potentially harmful effects of vibration. What property associated with this type of insulation must be kept in mind?Not learned 1483. What circumstance will cause electrical machinery insulation to break down more rapidly than would normally be the case?Not learned 1484. The life expectancy of electrical insulation, is approximately halved for an increased operating temperature of how many degrees Celsius?Not learned 1485. Which of the listed classes of electrical insulation is suited for the highest operating temperature?Not learned 1486. Which statement regarding moisture absorbed in the windings or condensed on the surface of electrical machinery insulation is true?Not learned 1487. The 'dielectric constant' is a numerical value indicating the effectiveness of a dielectric material in comparison to that of a standard. On what material is the standard based?Not learned 1488. Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators?Not learned 1489. Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators?Not learned 1490. Which of the following materials is a good insulator?Not learned 1491. Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator?Not learned 1492. Moisture accumulating in electric motors and generator windings having a cold insulation resistance greater than 50,000 ohms may be baked out with internal heat. What is the usual method for developing this heat to evaporate the moisture?Not learned 1493. An insulation resistance reading is taken at 20°C and found to be 10 megohms. What would you expect the resistance reading to be at 40°C?Not learned 1494. An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of electric equipment. In addition to the resistance reading and date of test, what information listed below should be entered in the electrical log?Not learned 1495. The electrician reports to you that he has obtained low (but above 1 megohm) megger readings on the windings of a deck winch motor. Upon checking the records of that motor, you find the readings have consistently been at that level for the last six years. What should be your recommendation?Not learned 1496. Which of the listed conditions could indicate the need for cleaning electrical insulation?Not learned 1497. Electrical failures in motors are caused by the breakdown of insulation, which is a function of the aging process. What is another contributing factor to insulation breakdown?Not learned 1498. Which of the conditions listed will indicate the need to clean the insulation on the windings of an electric motor?Not learned 1499. When using the test set-up shown in figure "A" of the illustration, besides the motor windings and the motor feeder cable, what circuit components are actually being meggeredNot learned 1500. In conducting a megger test as shown in figure "A" of the illustration, a ground is detected. For testing purposes, how can the motor itself be eliminated or confirmed as the source of the groundNot learned 1501. In conducting a megger test as shown in figure "A" of the illustration, a ground is detected. For testing purposes, how can the motor feeder cable itself be eliminated or confirmed as the source of the groundNot learned 1502. When insulation failure produces a low resistance current path between two conductors, the result is an electrical fault. What is this fault condition known as?Not learned 1503. On tank vessels with an electrically-driven capstan, the motor should be meggered periodically. What is being tested for when meggering?Not learned 1504. A generator has been exposed to water and needs to be checked before it can be operated safely. After performing the necessary procedures for drying the generator, what test needs to be performed before safe operation can resume?Not learned 1505. To perform an insulation resistance test of an individual electric motor winding, where should the megohmmeter leads be connected?Not learned 1506. Large machines undergoing a resistance insulation testing using a megohmmeter should be discharged to remove any accumulated electrostatic/capacitive/dielectric-absorption charge stored. When should this discharge be performed?Not learned 1507. When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter's pointer responding in a very unique way. What would be the response of the pointer?Not learned 1508. When using a megohmmeter to test the dielectric strength of wire insulation, a continuous series of slight downscale kicks by the pointer results. What does this indicate?Not learned 1509. When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter's pointer responding in a very unique way. What would be the response of the pointer?Not learned 1510. When a megohmmeter is used to test the insulation of a large motor, what causes the initial dip of the pointer toward 'zero'?Not learned 1511. When a megohmmeter is used to test the insulation of a large motor, what causes the initial dip of the pointer toward 'zero'?Not learned 1512. When a megohmmeter is being used on a alternating current machine, under certain conditions the meter pointer will dip toward 'zero' and then gradually rise to the true resistance value of the motor insulation. What does this indicate, in terms of the machine windings?Not learned 1513. When a megohmmeter is used to test the winding insulation of a large motor, what causes an initial dip of the pointer toward 'zero'?Not learned 1514. When a megohmmeter is used to test insulation, what condition causes the gradual rise of the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking?Not learned 1515. When using a megohmmeter to test insulation, what will be the indication of good insulation?Not learned 1516. A megger is being used to test the insulation of an AC generator. What will be the measured resistance value of a dry, clean winding?Not learned 1517. A megger is being used to test the insulation of an AC generator. What will be the measured resistance value of a dry, clean winding?Not learned 1518. In which of the situations listed will a megohmmeter give the most accurate readings?Not learned 1519. Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the test. Why is this procedure recommended?Not learned 1520. Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the test. Why is this procedure recommended?Not learned 1521. In preparing to take insulation resistance readings on a main generator, the windings should be grounded for about 15 minutes prior to the test. For what reason should this be done?Not learned 1522. What is the resistance reading at "1" on the megger scale illustrated in figure "A"Not learned 1523. What is the resistance reading at "2" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1524. What is the resistance reading at "3" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1525. The reading at "4" on the megger scale illustrated in figure "A" is what valueNot learned 1526. What is the resistance reading at "5" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1527. What is the resistance reading at "6" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1528. What is the resistance reading at "7" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1529. What is the resistance reading at "8" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1530. What is the resistance reading at "9" on the megger scale shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1531. A megohmmeter is connected to opposite ends of an individual motor winding. What would a low ohm reading indicate?Not learned 1532. When testing insulation resistance of electric equipment and machinery, ideally when should the insulation resistance be tested for the lowest normal insulation values?Not learned 1533. Which of the following statements represents the reading display of a hand-cranked megohmmeter when testing a capacitor start motor start capacitor in good condition that has been properly discharged prior to the test?Not learned 1534. When you are making a high potential test (insulation resistance) on the motor coils of repaired electrical machinery to ground, what would a low resistance reading indicate?Not learned 1535. What would be the indication of a grounded switch or cable as measured by a megohmmeter?Not learned 1536. As shown in the illustrated plots of uncorrected and temperature corrected insulation resistance readings for a particular piece of equipment, at what point in time should the equipment have been refurbished or replacedNot learned 1537. In performing the insulation resistance tests as indicated by figures "1" and "2", what conclusion may be drawnNot learned 1538. In performing the insulation resistance tests as indicated by figures "3" and "4", what conclusion may be drawnNot learned 1539. In performing the insulation resistance tests as indicated by figures "5" and "6", what conclusion may be drawnNot learned 1540. In testing a hand cranked megger prior to use, what statement is true?Not learned 1541. If the pointer fails to return to zero when a hand-cranked megger is disconnected, what does this indicate?Not learned 1542. In an ungrounded distribution system, as compared to a normal indication, what is the indication on a switchboard of a current carrying conductor making an accidental electrical contact with a wiring metal conduit?Not learned 1543. Using the temperature correction factor for the winding insulation temperature graph shown in the illustration, what would be the correction factor and the corrected temperature to 40 degrees C for a motor with an insulation resistance of 4 megohms measured at 50 degrees CNot learned 1544. Using the temperature correction factor for the winding insulation temperature graph shown in the illustration, what would be the correction factor and the corrected temperature to 40 degrees C for a motor with an insulation resistance of 4 megohms measured at 50 degrees CNot learned 1545. Using the temperature correction factor for the winding insulation temperature graph shown in the illustration, what would be the correction factor and the corrected temperature to 40 degrees C for a motor with an insulation resistance of 4 megohms measured at 50 degrees CNot learned 1546. Using the temperature correction factor for the winding insulation temperature graph shown in the illustration, what would be the correction factor and the corrected temperature to 40 degrees C for a motor with an insulation resistance of 4 megohms measured at 50 degrees CNot learned 1547. Which of the following is the only known perfect dielectric for the purpose of serving as electrical insulation?Not learned 1548. What property of a material is rated in voltage per millimeter (V/mm) of insulation thickness that the insulation can withstand without breaking down?Not learned 1549. What happens to the life expectancy of insulation for each 10°C rise in operating temperature?Not learned 1550. Suppose it is desired to determine the integrity of the insulation of a 4160 VAC motor. What type of insulation resistance tester (megger) would be suitable?Not learned 1551. For a motor rated at 3.3 kV, what would be a minimum accepted insulation resistance to hull ground as tested by an appropriate megger (insulation tester)?Not learned 1552. You direct the electrician to take quarterly insulation resistance reading of the ship's critical motors. What additional directions would you give to ensure accurate readings are taken that will allow for the logical comparison of prior and current readings?Not learned 1553. The electrical officer is about to check the insulation resistance. When advice should you give to him as to what temperature and or when he should check the motor insulation?Not learned 1554. Suppose it is desired to determine the integrity of the insulation of a 4160 VAC motor. What type of insulation resistance tester (megger) would be suitable?Not learned 1555. For a motor rated at 3.3 kV, what would be a minimum accepted insulation resistance to hull ground as tested by an appropriate megger (insulation tester)?Not learned 1556. When a high voltage system insulation test value is suspect or recorded during an annual survey, a polarization index test is performed. What is the polarization index?Not learned 1557. As shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is correct concerning the circuits in a sound- powered telephone systemNot learned 1558. The electrical energy necessary to transmit a person's voice over a sound-powered telephone circuit is obtained from what energy source?Not learned 1559. The electrical energy necessary to power a sound-powered telephone's small vibrating bell is obtained from what power source?Not learned 1560. The push button on the handset of a ship's sound-powered telephone must be depressed in order to do what?Not learned 1561. What type of equipment does the wiring diagram shown in the illustration representNot learned 1562. What does component labeled "C" shown in the illustration representNot learned 1563. What does the component labeled "B" shown in the illustration representNot learned 1564. What does the component labeled "D" shown in the illustration representNot learned 1565. What does the component labeled "A" shown in the illustration representNot learned 1566. In the system shown in the illustration, the engine room station is unable to signal any other station, nor is any other station able to signal the engine room station. The engine room station can, however, ring itself by proper positioning of its selector switch. What is the most probable cause of this problemNot learned 1567. All ships with periodically unattended machinery plants shall, in addition to the general alarm required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), be provided with a/an __________.Not learned 1568. What does the component labeled "B" shown in the illustration representNot learned 1569. To facilitate communication between the wheelhouse and the steering gear room in a steering emergency where no external source of power is required, what means of two-way communication would be provided?Not learned 1570. Which station's emergency loudspeaker must allow for two-way communication?Not learned 1571. Assuming the vessel has an engine control room, where is an engineers' assistance-needed alarm required to produce an audible signal?Not learned 1572. Referring to the sound-powered telephone circuit shown in the illustration, in what component are the sound-powered transmitter and receiver units locatedNot learned 1573. Referring to the sound-powered telephone circuit shown in illustration, what statement is true concerning the button on the handset as represented by the component labeled "A"Not learned 1574. Emergency lighting on small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons for lounge areas below the main deck shall be __________.Not learned 1575. Besides the fluorescent lamp itself and possibly a starter, which of the following components is included in a fluorescent lighting fixture?Not learned 1576. Which of the listed types of lighting fixtures does the diagram shown in figure "A" of the illustration representNot learned 1577. What is the purpose of the inner phosphor coating of the fluorescent tube as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 1578. What is the functional purpose of component "5" as shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1579. What is the functional purpose of component "3" of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1580. What is represented by the two parallel lines within components "3" and "5" of the circuit shown in figure "C" of the illustrationNot learned 1581. Incandescent lamps are classified according to the shape of the bulb and the type of service, as well as the size and style of the base. How are incandescent lamps rated?Not learned 1582. As shown in the illustration, which of the lighting fixtures represents an incandescent bulbNot learned 1583. A shown in the illustration, which lighting fixture represents a low pressure sodium lampNot learned 1584. A shown in the illustration, which lighting fixture represents a low pressure sodium lampNot learned 1585. As shown in the illustration, figure "A" represents what type of lighting fixtureNot learned 1586. As shown in the illustration, figure "A" represents what type of lighting fixtureNot learned 1587. As shown in the illustration, figure "A" represents what type of lighting fixtureNot learned 1588. As shown in the illustration, figure "A" represents what type of lighting fixtureNot learned 1589. When maintaining the circuits shown in figures "B" and "C" the illustration, other than the fact that the fluorescent tube glass fragments may cut a persons skin, what dangers are associated with component "4" should it become broken? The contained mercury vapor is highly toxic. The inside coating of phosphor is highly poisonousNot learned 1590. When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be replaced immediately. If not, what condition could the resultant flashing cause?Not learned 1591. When a fluorescent lamp fails to light and both ends of the tube are severely darkened, what must usually be replaced?Not learned 1592. What is indicated by gradual blackening at the ends of component "4" shown in figures "B" and "C" of the illustrationNot learned 1593. During the start-up of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration, it is noted that the ends of component "4" remain lighted but the tube does not illuminate. What is likely the cause of this problemNot learned 1594. During start-up of the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration, it is noted that the ends of component "4" alternately glow and become dark without the tube illuminating. What is the most probable cause for this conditionNot learned 1595. What type of circuit is represented by the diagram shown in the illustrationNot learned 1596. As shown in the illustration, what happens when the main feed switch is closed, the change-over switch for the masthead light is in position "2" and the masthead light "2" burns outNot learned 1597. As shown in the illustration, what event would give the same indication that would occur when a stern light circuit fuse blows openNot learned 1598. As shown in the illustration, what maintenance would be required of the circuit componentsNot learned 1599. As shown in the illustration of a vessels navigational lighting circuit, if port running light "1" burns out, the trouble buzzer will sound and the port running light trouble lamp will illuminate. Switching to port running light "2" clears the alarm. If port running light "1" is replaced with a light of a smaller wattage and the circuit is switched back to port running light "1", which of the following is trueNot learned 1600. As shown in the illustration, if one of the navigation running light bulbs on service burns out, the operator will receive an alarm. After renewing the burned out light bulb and restoring service to that running light bulb, it is found that the alarm still cannot be silenced. What is the probable cause for this condition in terms of the replacement componentNot learned 1601. As shown in the wiring diagram of the semi-automatic navigation lighting panel circuit, what would cause the buzzer to sound and for the indicator light to illuminate in the line section for a particular navigation running lightNot learned 1602. As shown in the wiring diagram of the semi-automatic navigation lighting panel circuit, what would cause the buzzer to sound and for the indicator light to illuminate in the line section for a particular navigation running lightNot learned 1603. What type of circuit is represented by the diagram shown in the illustrationNot learned 1604. As shown in the illustration, the change-over switch is what type of deviceNot learned 1605. As shown in the illustration, the change-over switch is what type of deviceNot learned 1606. What type of circuit is represented by the diagram shown in the illustrationNot learned 1607. As shown in the illustrated alternator protection scheme diagram, what function does the negative phase sequence relay (NPS) performNot learned 1608. In the diagram of the switchboard shown in the illustration, if one of the turbines should fail due to a throttle trip, what will happenNot learned 1609. What is the purpose of the device labeled "Man-Auto Sw." in the illustrated switchboardNot learned 1610. In the diagram of the switchboard shown in the illustration, what is the function of the device labeled "GenNot learned 1611. What is the purpose of the devices labeled "F SW" on the illustrated switchboard drawingNot learned 1612. In the illustrated switchboard, what is the purpose of the device labeled "AM SelNot learned 1613. As shown in the illustrated switchboard, what is the function of the switch labeled "PFM SelNot learned 1614. What application would the switchboard instrumentation panel shown in the illustration best be suited forNot learned 1615. By what means is the frequency of an alternator adjusted from the main switchboard?Not learned 1616. With what device is the RPM of an AC generator indirectly measured on a switchboard when operating singly (no other generator connected to the bus)?Not learned 1617. When would be the safest time to close the ship's main switchboard "shore power" circuit breaker?Not learned 1618. What is a bus disconnect link used to isolate?Not learned 1619. What is meant by a 'dead front' switchboard?Not learned 1620. In comparison to a main switchboard for a DC electrical distribution system, a main switchboard for an AC electrical distribution system requires the use of which of the following devices, whereas a DC main switchboard does not?Not learned 1621. A main switchboard for an AC electrical distribution system is different from a main switchboard for a DC distribution system in that it will be provided with which of the following meters?Not learned 1622. As shown in the illustrated alternator protection scheme diagram, what device provides input to the reverse power relay "RP", the under voltage/overvoltage relay "UV/OV", and the under frequency/over frequency relay "UF/OF"Not learned 1623. As shown in the illustrated alternator protection scheme diagram, what would cause the differential relay (DIFF) to trip the alternator circuit breakerNot learned 1624. Which of the following devices are protected from being motorized by a reverse-power relay?Not learned 1625. What is the purpose of a ship's service generator circuit breaker's reverse power trip?Not learned 1626. The purpose of the reverse power relay, provided on a ship's service alternator panel, is to trip the alternator circuit in the event of a very specific situation. What situation is this?Not learned 1627. By what means is an AC generator prevented from becoming motorized?Not learned 1628. By what mechanism does a reverse-power relay prevent AC generator motorization?Not learned 1629. The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized unless what condition is met?Not learned 1630. The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized unless what condition is met?Not learned 1631. As shown in the illustrated alternator protection scheme diagram, what function does the reverse power relay (RP) performNot learned 1632. As chief engineer, to prevent the motorization of an alternator what safety device would you have checked quarterly?Not learned 1633. What is the voltage potential between the neutral bus and the negative bus in a three-wire, 230/115 volt DC system?Not learned 1634. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, if the source voltage at the branch circuit breaker is 220 VAC, what would be the applied voltage to the loadNot learned 1635. Under what conditions is the shore power circuit breaker closed?Not learned 1636. What is the primary means by which the motor branch circuit is protected from a short-circuited motorNot learned 1637. What is the primary means by which the motor branch circuit is protected from an overloaded motorNot learned 1638. What is the name of the part of the shipboard electrical system used to control the distribution of power to the branch circuits?Not learned 1639. Under voltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard circuit breakers for what reason?Not learned 1640. As shown in the illustration, which of the following pieces of equipment is supplied with a circuit breaker providing both overload and short-circuit protectionNot learned 1641. As shown in the illustration, which of the following pieces of equipment is powered from circuit #3 of group control center No. 1 panel 404Not learned 1642. From the information given in the illustration, which of the following statements is correctNot learned 1643. From the information given in the illustration, which of the following statements is correctNot learned 1644. In the lighting distribution circuit shown in the illustrated lighting panel L110 of the illustration, if all circuit breakers are closed and due to a problem with the relevant feeder circuit breaker, there is a loss of power on the incoming phase A, which of the following statements is trueNot learned 1645. As shown in the illustrated feeder disconnect controller, what statement is trueNot learned 1646. What type of electrical diagram for the electrical distribution system is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1647. In the illustration of the one-line distribution system diagram, if at sea the 450 VAC section of the main switchboard experiences a complete loss of power, what statement is true concerning the operation of the emergency diesel-generatorNot learned 1648. Referring to the containership one-line distribution diagram shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the transformers providing power to the refrigerated container feeder busNot learned 1649. Referring to the containership one-line distribution diagram shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the feedback circuit breaker as used to bypass the automatic bus transfer deviceNot learned 1650. Referring to the containership one-line distribution diagram shown in the illustration, what statement is true concerning the battery chargerNot learned 1651. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering) regulations, receptacle outlets at or above what voltage are required to have grounding poles?Not learned 1652. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering) regulations, what is the minimum conductor size associated with a 25 or 30 ampere lighting branch circuit supplying a nonswitched cargo hold light fixture?Not learned 1653. For the purposes of safety and determining the shock hazard, nominal voltage is defined as the normal electrical system design voltage. This can be determined from what is displayed on nameplates, dataplates, schematics, or single-line diagrams. What does the nominal voltage represent?Not learned 1654. What is a purpose of the automatic bus transfer device shown in the illustrationNot learned 1655. Upon failure of the normal power supply, by what means is the emergency generator placed on the line and connected to the emergency bus?Not learned 1656. Upon failure of the ships normal electrical power supply, by means of what device does the emergency generator supply power to the emergency switchboard, but not the main switchboard?Not learned 1657. By what means is a diesel driven emergency generator prevented from being paralleled with the ship's service generators?Not learned 1658. Upon failure of the normal power supply, by what means is the emergency generator placed on the line and connected to the emergency bus?Not learned 1659. Which of the listed sections of an emergency switchboard is used to supply power for alarm signals under emergency conditions?Not learned 1660. The 24 volt DC bus on the emergency switchboard is used to supply power to what system or equipment?Not learned 1661. In the illustration of the one-line distribution system diagram, if at sea the 450 VAC section of the main switchboard experiences a complete loss of power, what statement is true concerning the operation of the emergency diesel-generatorNot learned 1662. As shown in the illustrated one-line diagram of a two-tiered emergency power system for a passenger ship, what statement is trueNot learned 1663. As shown in the illustrated one-line diagram of a two-tiered emergency power system for a passenger ship, what statement is trueNot learned 1664. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 112, a storage battery for an emergency lighting and power system must have the capacity to accomplish which of the following?Not learned 1665. While standing watch underway in the engine room, failure of the normal power supply will cause the emergency generator to provide power through __________.Not learned 1666. An emergency diesel generator should automatically shut down in the event of __________.Not learned 1667. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require emergency diesel generator sets, with forced lubrication systems, to be provided with a __________.Not learned 1668. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J, which of the listed starting aids is acceptable for use with the emergency diesel-generator?Not learned 1669. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that emergency diesel generator starting systems must have sufficient capacity to provide at least __________.Not learned 1670. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), how often shall internal combustion engine driven emergency generators be operated under load?Not learned 1671. According to U. S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), internal combustion engine driven emergency generators shall be operated under load for at least two hours at least once __________.Not learned 1672. Which of the listed failures, occurring in an automated diesel generator system, should cause an audible alarm at the engine room control station?Not learned 1673. Using the portable harmonic analyzer shown in figure "A", if the test leads are connected as shown in figure "D" of the illustration, what is being measuredNot learned 1674. Using the portable harmonic analyzer shown in figure "A", if the clamp-on test lead is connected as shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what is being measuredNot learned 1675. In analyzing the current waveforms as depicted in figure "B" of the illustration, what is responsible for producing the line current waveformNot learned 1676. As shown in the illustrated harmonic analysis diagram, which figure represents the third harmonicNot learned 1677. As shown in the illustrated harmonic analysis diagram, which figure represents the third harmonicNot learned 1678. As shown in the illustrated harmonic analysis diagram, which figure represents the third harmonicNot learned 1679. For the purposes of high voltage marine practice, what is the threshold voltage where all voltages below this value are considered low voltage?Not learned 1680. What is a disadvantage to the use of high voltage systems onboard ship?Not learned 1681. What is the most common and reliable type of circuit breaker used for high voltage practice aboard ship?Not learned 1682. Some shipboard high voltage systems have the neutral point of the generators bonded to the ship's hull with a neutral grounding resistor. What is the purpose of this resistor?Not learned 1683. In addition to high voltage circuit grounding with ground-connecting switching devices, for additional operator safety and confidence, portable grounding straps may be used. What is the proper procedure for connecting these portable grounding straps?Not learned 1684. When completing repairs on a high voltage circuit where portable grounding straps were used for increased operator safety and confidence, what is the proper procedure for disconnecting these grounding straps?Not learned 1685. What is the most common and reliable type of circuit breaker used for high voltage practice aboard ship?Not learned 1686. Some shipboard high voltage systems have the neutral point of the generators bonded to the ship's hull with a neutral grounding resistor. What is the purpose of this resistor?Not learned 1687. In addition to high voltage circuit grounding with ground-connecting switching devices, for additional operator safety and confidence, portable grounding straps may be used. What is the proper procedure for connecting these portable grounding straps?Not learned 1688. When completing repairs on a high voltage circuit where portable grounding straps were used for increased operator safety and confidence, what is the proper procedure for disconnecting these grounding straps?Not learned 1689. What should be performed as routine maintenance of lead acid batteries?Not learned 1690. What should be included when performing maintenance of alkaline batteries?Not learned 1691. If the cooling water system is isolated for repairs, but in an operational emergency, it is still desirable to run the alternator pictured in figure "A" of the illustration, what must be doneNot learned 1692. When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days, what should be ensured or manually accomplished?Not learned 1693. Which of the following statements, concerning the cleaning maintenance of a brushless generator, is correct?Not learned 1694. Which of the following materials is recommended for burnishing the slip rings of an alternator after grinding or turning?Not learned 1695. In performing routine maintenance of a ship's service alternator, what should be included?Not learned 1696. Why should rotor-to-stator air gap readings be taken periodically on electrical generation equipment?Not learned 1697. If rotor-to-stator air gap readings for an electrical generating machine have changed significantly from the last reading, what should be checked?Not learned 1698. Rotor-to-stator air gap readings for electrical generating equipment should be taken periodically. For what reason should these readings be taken? determine the condition of the bearings prevent damage to the rotor and statorNot learned 1699. Rotor-to-stator air gap readings should be taken on electrical generation machinery periodically. Why is this so? determine the need for cleaning check the condition of the bearingsNot learned 1700. Rotor-to-stator air gap readings should be taken on electrical generation equipment periodically. Why is this necessary? check machine efficiency determine the need for cleaningNot learned 1701. Rotor-to-stator air gap readings should be periodically taken for electrical generation equipment. What is the best tool to use to take these measurements?Not learned 1702. With regard to the maintenance of electrical generating machines with insulated pedestal bearings, what practice should be avoided?Not learned 1703. Suppose the bearings of an electrical generator are failing more frequently than expected and the lubricating oil is sludging. What should be done?Not learned 1704. What is being detected by checking the stator-to-rotor air gap clearance in an induction motor periodically with a feeler gage?Not learned 1705. The following stator-to-rotor air gap clearance readings were obtained from a horizontally mounted, bilge pump, induction motor, equipped with sleeve bearings: FWD END AFT END Top .045 .049 Right Side .045 .047 Left Side .045 .047 Bottom .045 .041 Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 1706. The following stator-to-rotor air gap clearance readings were obtained from a horizontally mounted, bilge pump, induction motor, equipped with sleeve bearings: FWD END AFT END Top .045 .049 Right Side .045 .047 Left Side .045 .047 Bottom .045 .041 Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 1707. What is detected by checking the stator-to-rotor air gap clearance of an induction motor periodically with a feeler gage?Not learned 1708. The stator-to-rotor air gap clearance in an induction motor should be periodically checked with a feeler gage. What is indicated if the gap clearance is excessive?Not learned 1709. Which of the following statements represents the FIRST step in seating new brushes on slip rings?Not learned 1710. When performing routine AC motor maintenance what should be included?Not learned 1711. Periodic testing using a special sensing device may be performed to detect potentially dangerous loose or corroded bus bar and controller connections. What is the name of this testing technology?Not learned 1712. Besides wrapping the rotor in canvas, what is the proper technique to protect the rotor of a wound rotor motor being disassembled for maintenance or overhaul?Not learned 1713. To protect the rotor of a motor disassembled for maintenance or overhaul, what should be done?Not learned 1714. When removing ball or roller bearings from the shaft of a motor, what tool should be used?Not learned 1715. What would be the best tool to use to remove a ball bearing from the shaft of an electric motor?Not learned 1716. What should be included in the routine periodic maintenance checks for electrical motors?Not learned 1717. Aboard ship, a grounded field coil in an AC synchronous motor can be determined by using a __________.Not learned 1718. What can clogged ventilation ducts in a D.C. motor lead to?Not learned 1719. What can cause premature failure of grease-lubricated ball bearings as used in electric motor applications?Not learned 1720. If a small electric motor is immersed in salt water, in addition to tending to bearing lubrication issues, what should be done prior to placing it back into operation? washed in fresh water dried in an ovenNot learned 1721. In addition to tending to bearing lubrication issues, if a small electric motor is immersed in salt water, what should be done before placing it back into operation? washed in fresh water and thoroughly dried initially started with reduced voltageNot learned 1722. If a small electric motor is immersed in salt water, what should be done in an attempt to salvage the motor? washed in fresh water thoroughly driedNot learned 1723. If a small electric motor has been immersed in salt water, what should be done? Thoroughly rinsed in fresh water and completely dried initially started with reduced voltageNot learned 1724. After draining the oil and flushing out the electric motor bearing as shown in figure "A" of the illustration, when adding clean oil, after reinstalling the drain plug, to what level should the oil be brought up to for optimal performanceNot learned 1725. When regreasing the electric motor bearing as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what practice should be avoidedNot learned 1726. As shown in the illustration, the cost of failure is inversely related to frequency of maintenance, whereas the cost of maintenance is directly related to frequency of maintenance. In this particular illustrated example, what frequency of maintenance would be the most efficient in controlling the total costNot learned 1727. With what material should the electrical leads and insulation on a motor be painted?Not learned 1728. Which of the listed procedures should be carried out to prevent moisture damage to electrical apparatus during extended periods of idleness?Not learned 1729. Which of the following procedures should be used to maintain a large electric motor during periods of inactivity?Not learned 1730. To repair a small electrical motor that has been submerged in saltwater, what should be done?Not learned 1731. If a small electric motor has been submerged in saltwater for a short period of time, what should be done?Not learned 1732. Besides isolating and tagging out the motor, and opening both ends, which of the listed precautions should be taken when cleaning the internals of a motor with compressed air?Not learned 1733. Which of the listed precautions should be observed prior to cleaning the insulation of an electric motor?Not learned 1734. With what tool should encrusted dirt accumulated inside a motor be removed?Not learned 1735. Unnecessary and frequent applications of insulating varnish to the generator stator windings to repair defective insulation may have what detrimental effect?Not learned 1736. When should cleaning of electrical insulation be accomplished?Not learned 1737. In terms of criteria, how is the need for insulation cleaning determined?Not learned 1738. Which of the following statements is true concerning the cleaning of electrical contacts?Not learned 1739. Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of silver-plated contacts?Not learned 1740. Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of silver-plated contacts?Not learned 1741. By what means should motor controller contacts be routinely cleaned?Not learned 1742. Grease coatings on electrical contact surfaces increase contact resistance. How should grease accumulations be removed?Not learned 1743. High-pressure compressed air should not be used to clean electric motors or controller equipment. Why not?Not learned 1744. What item (or items) constitute routine AC motor controller maintenance?Not learned 1745. Which of the following represents the accepted method of cleaning dust and foreign particles from electrical equipment while limiting damage to electric components?Not learned 1746. What should be in included in performing routine maintenance of dry-type transformers?Not learned 1747. What should be included in the performance of routine maintenance of dry-type transformers?Not learned 1748. What is the proper way to apply plastic electrical tape to an electric cable splice?Not learned 1749. Prior to performing any internal maintenance on a large DC main propulsion motor, what precaution or precautions should be taken? De-energize, lock-out, and tag-out the motor electrically Engage the shaft brakeNot learned 1750. The use of a high wattage soldering iron when soldering or desoldering components on a printed circuit board may cause which of the following faults to occur?Not learned 1751. Which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire connections for electronic components on printed circuit boards?Not learned 1752. Two contributors of electronic console failures are heat and vibration. To combat some of their effects, what should be included in performing preventive maintenance procedures?Not learned 1753. What should be done with a capacitor that is obviously discolored due to excessive heat?Not learned 1754. What should be done with a capacitor discolored due to excessive heat?Not learned 1755. Referring to the illustration of possible brush holder mounting configurations, which figure is the correct method of configuring the brushholders on a DC generatorNot learned 1756. What can be used to test for a suspected 'open' in a DC motor field winding?Not learned 1757. If an electric motor fails to start, what should you check FIRST?Not learned 1758. When an AC or a DC motor fails to start, besides checking for blown fuses or a tripped circuit breaker, what should be the FIRST step in troubleshooting the cause?Not learned 1759. What is the greatest single cause of electrical failures?Not learned 1760. As shown in the illustration of the elementary diagram of a three speed anchor windlass controller, if the windlass drive motor automatically stops due to a loss of supply voltage, what must be done to resume operations after the restoration of voltageNot learned 1761. If the motor shown in the illustration will not start when the "off-run" switch is placed in the run position, which of the listed components should be checked FIRSTNot learned 1762. As shown in the illustrated diagnostic setup for locating a shorted field coil of a ten-pole synchronous motor, if 240 VAC/60 Hz is applied across the brushes, what would be the individual voltage drops measured across each field coil assuming that none of the field coils are shortedNot learned 1763. As shown in the illustration of an electrically operated watertight door controller, what type of motor is used to open and close the watertight doorNot learned 1764. As shown in the illustrated electrically operated watertight door controller, how is the rotation direction of the door motor reversedNot learned 1765. As shown in the illustrated electrically operated watertight door controller, by what action are all the watertight doors automatically closed in an ordered sequence so as to not overload the emergency power supplyNot learned 1766. As shown in the illustrated electrically operated watertight door controller, by what action is the closing of the watertight door normally stopped when fully closedNot learned 1767. What can cause the pitting or welding of controller contacts?Not learned 1768. If the contacts of a motor starter or controller fail to drop out when the 'stop' button is depressed, what could be the cause?Not learned 1769. If many turns of an operating coil of an AC contactor become short-circuited, in terms of the coil, what is the likely result?Not learned 1770. If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become short circuited, what will happen to the coil?Not learned 1771. If a magnetic controller contactor fails to pick up when the coil voltage is applied to the contactor coil, what would likely be the cause?Not learned 1772. If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up when the operating coil is energized, what could be one possible cause?Not learned 1773. What may cause magnetic controller contacts to become welded together during operation?Not learned 1774. When troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the contacts are welded together. What is the most probable cause?Not learned 1775. What may cause magnetic controller contacts to become welded together during operation?Not learned 1776. Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during operating conditions as a result of what condition?Not learned 1777. Motor starter or controller contacts may become welded together under what condition?Not learned 1778. A loud buzzing noise coming from the contacts in a magnetic controller can be caused by what condition?Not learned 1779. A loud buzzing noise at the contacts of a magnetic controller could indicate what condition?Not learned 1780. Humming or buzzing of electric contacts is a symptom of what condition?Not learned 1781. What is the probable cause of a loud buzzing noise in an AC controller?Not learned 1782. When troubleshooting motor controllers, what is a shorted relay or contactor coil often indicated by?Not learned 1783. When troubleshooting a motor controller, all indications are that a relay coil should be energized. If there was no magnetic pull, with rated voltage measured across the coil, what would be the most probable cause?Not learned 1784. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, if in troubleshooting the control circuit using on-line techniques with a voltmeter with the start button depressed and the following readings are taken, what is the problem? "X1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "2" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; and "3" to "X2" reads 0 VACNot learned 1785. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, if in troubleshooting the control circuit using on-line techniques with a voltmeter with the start button depressed and the following readings are taken, what is the problem? "X1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "2" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; and "3" to "X2" reads 0 VACNot learned 1786. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, if in troubleshooting the control circuit using on-line techniques with a voltmeter with the start button depressed and the following readings are taken, what is the problem? "X1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "2" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; and "3" to "X2" reads 0 VACNot learned 1787. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, if in troubleshooting the control circuit using on-line techniques with a voltmeter with the start button depressed and the following readings are taken, what is the problem? "1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "2" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "3" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; and "4" to "X2" reads 115 VAC See illustration EL-0123.Not learned 1788. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, if in troubleshooting the control circuit using on-line techniques with a voltmeter with the start button depressed and the following readings are taken, what is the problem? "1" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "2" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; "3" to "X2" reads 115 VAC; and "4" to "X2" reads 115 VAC See illustration EL-0123.Not learned 1789. What can be the cause of excessive heat or burning contacts in an operating motor controller?Not learned 1790. If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a magnetic motor controller, what should you do?Not learned 1791. The motor fails to start on an attempted startup. With the start button depressed, a voltmeter reading between 1 and 5, as illustrated in figure "A", indicates line voltage available to the control circuit, what should be your next step in the troubleshooting processNot learned 1792. The motor starts when the start button in the illustration is pushed, but stops when the button is released. What is most likely the troubleNot learned 1793. If the motor of the illustrated circuit fails to start and gives a loud hum when the start button is pushed, what is most likely the problemNot learned 1794. The illustrated motor fails to start and gives a loud hum when the start button is depressed, what should then be your first actionNot learned 1795. As a general rule, what is the first troubleshooting action to be taken in checking inoperative electric circuits?Not learned 1796. Assuming that 450 VAC is the source voltage at the circuit breaker, if 450 volts AC were measured across the load as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would this indicateNot learned 1797. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, the potable water pump trips out on overload shortly after each start attempt. In an attempt to troubleshoot the problem, the following voltage readings are taken during the brief run period: At load side of disconnect: L1 to L2 is 230 VAC L2 to L3 is 230 VAC L3 to L1 is 230 VAC At load side of contactor: T1 to T2 is 105 VAC T2 to T3 is 106 VAC T3 to T1 is 229 VAC At load side of overloads: T1 to T2 is 100 VAC T2 to T3 is 101 VAC T3 to T1 is 223 VAC What is most likely the problemNot learned 1798. As shown in figure "A" and "B" of the illustration, the potable water pump is short-cycling by the action of the pressure switch as a result of an unusually high level in the potable water hydro- pneumatic header tank. What is most likely the causeNot learned 1799. When troubleshooting a console circuit card which is suspected of being faulty, what would be a logical first step?Not learned 1800. When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty, you should first check for proper voltages to the card. What should be done next?Not learned 1801. According to 46 CFR Part 111, each motor controller is required to have an elementary wiring schematic diagram to assist in troubleshooting. Assuming that a vessel is in complete compliance with this regulation, where would you expect to find this schematic?Not learned 1802. A 480/120 VAC step-down control transformer is configured as shown in figure "E" of the illustration. When 480 VAC is applied to the primary winding (across H1 and H2), an output of 89 VAC is produced across the secondary winding (across X1 and X2). What fault condition is indicatedNot learned 1803. As shown in the illustration of an electrically operated watertight door controller, what type of motor is used to open and close the watertight doorNot learned 1804. As shown in the illustration of an electrically operated watertight door controller, how is reversal of the direction of motor rotation achievedNot learned 1805. As shown in the illustration of an electrically operated watertight door controller, how is the motor stopped automatically when the door is wedged closedNot learned 1806. As shown in the illustration of an electrically operated watertight door controller, how is the motor stopped automatically when the door is wedged closedNot learned 1807. In the illustrated three phase galley oven circuit shown in figure "A", what would be the result of a 1 amp control fuse blowingNot learned 1808. In the illustrated three phase galley oven circuit shown in figure "A", what would be the result of a 1 amp control fuse blowingNot learned 1809. In the illustrated three phase galley oven circuit shown in figure "A", what would be the result of a 1 amp control fuse blowingNot learned 1810. In the illustrated three phase galley oven circuit shown in figure "A", what would be the result of a 1 amp control fuse blowingNot learned 1811. As shown in the illustrated diagnostic setup for locating a shorted field coil of a ten-pole salient pole alternator, if 240 VAC/60 Hz is applied across the brushes, what would be the voltage drop across field coil No.4 if that field coil had shorted turns and the other field coils were free of shortsNot learned 1812. An open occurring within the field rheostat of an AC generator can be detected by short circuiting its terminals and making specific observations. What should be checked for?Not learned 1813. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short circuits, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor coils through the collector rings. What would be the indication of a short-circuited coil?Not learned 1814. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short circuits, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor coils through the collector rings. What would be the indication of a short-circuited coil?Not learned 1815. Which of the following methods should be used to test for an 'open' stator winding coil in a wye-connected AC squirrel cage induction motor?Not learned 1816. A testing device called a 'growler' is being used to locate a shorted coil in the stator of an AC electrical machine. When the 'feeler' is moved over a slot containing the shorted coil, what would be the result?Not learned 1817. When troubleshooting AC motors, what can a portable growler be used to locate?Not learned 1818. In testing a three-phase delta-connected winding for an open circuit using an ohmmeter, what must be done?Not learned 1819. The leads from an ohmmeter are attached to the leads of the opposite ends of an AC induction motor stator coil. If a reading of infinity (OL) is obtained, what does this indicate?Not learned 1820. How can a shorted armature coil in a DC motor be detected?Not learned 1821. An open in the armature of a DC motor is suspected, but is not found by visual inspection of the commutator. What would be the next step in troubleshooting this problem?Not learned 1822. How is a short in the shunt field of a DC motor best located?Not learned 1823. Which of the listed conditions might contribute to very rapid wearing of a DC machine's commutator bars?Not learned 1824. Besides for checking for circuit continuity, what can an ohmmeter be used for in diagnosing a DC motor?Not learned 1825. Which of the listed procedures is the best way to tell if a motor has become overloaded?Not learned 1826. A capacitor is to be tested with a digital multimeter set up to measure ohms. If the meter is connected to a shorted capacitor, how would the meter display respond?Not learned 1827. A capacitor can be tested using a megohmmeter, an ohmmeter, or a digital multimeter. If a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter is connected to a shorted capacitor, what would the display indicate?Not learned 1828. If your multimeter set up to measure resistance gives a very low resistance reading in ohms when testing from opposite ends of each conductor of a three-conductor cable, what does this indicate?Not learned 1829. When testing a capacitor with a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter, what would be the indication on the display when testing an initially discharged capacitor in good condition?Not learned 1830. Which of the following conditions indicates a short circuited capacitor when checking its condition with a digital multimeter set up as an ohmmeter?Not learned 1831. In the circuit 'B' of the illustration, what would be the result of the upper heating element being burned out and open circuitedNot learned 1832. In using a portable growler for the purpose of locating a shorted stator coil in an AC motor as shown in the illustration, what statement is true as the feeler is moved from slot to slot around the statorNot learned 1833. In the illustrated motor controller, the motor fails to start. A voltmeter reading between 1 and 5 reads line voltage, while the voltmeter reading between 2 and 5 reads 0 VAC. What is most likely the problemNot learned 1834. With power available at the fuses and the motor disconnected from line, the following voltage readings are taken: Top of "Fu 1" to bottom of "Fu 2" reads 450 VAC Top of "Fu 1" to bottom of "Fu 3" reads 450 VAC Top of "Fu 2" to bottom of "Fu 1" reads 0 VAC Top of "Fu 3" to bottom of "Fu 1" reads 0 VAC What condition is indicatedNot learned 1835. With power available at the fuses and the motor disconnected from line, the following voltage readings are taken: Top of "Fu 1" to bottom of "Fu 2" reads 450 VAC Top of "Fu 1" to bottom of "Fu 3" reads 450 VAC Top of "Fu 2" to bottom of "Fu 1" reads 0 VAC Top of "Fu 3" to bottom of "Fu 1" reads 0 VAC What condition is indicatedNot learned 1836. With power available at the fuses and the motor disconnected from line, the following voltage readings are taken: Top of "Fu 1" to bottom of "Fu 2" reads 450 VAC Top of "Fu 1" to bottom of "Fu 3" reads 450 VAC Top of "Fu 2" to bottom of "Fu 1" reads 0 VAC Top of "Fu 3" to bottom of "Fu 1" reads 0 VAC What condition is indicatedNot learned 1837. With power available at the fuses and the motor disconnected from line, the following voltage readings are taken: Top of "Fu 1" to bottom of "Fu 2" reads 450 VAC Top of "Fu 1" to bottom of "Fu 3" reads 450 VAC Top of "Fu 2" to bottom of "Fu 1" reads 0 VAC Top of "Fu 3" to bottom of "Fu 1" reads 0 VAC What condition is indicatedNot learned 1838. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what would be displayed on the screen if the fuse being tested is not blown and has proper continuityNot learned 1839. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what would be displayed on the screen if the fuse being tested is not blown and has proper continuityNot learned 1840. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would be displayed on the screen if the single pole, single throw switch being tested is in the "off" position, but the internal switch contacts are welded togetherNot learned 1841. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would be displayed on the screen if the single pole, single throw switch being tested is in the "off" position, but the internal switch contacts are welded togetherNot learned 1842. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would be displayed on the screen if the single pole, single throw switch being tested is in the "off" position, but the internal switch contacts are welded togetherNot learned 1843. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would be displayed on the screen if the single pole, single throw switch being tested is in the "off" position, but the internal switch contacts are welded togetherNot learned 1844. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what would be displayed on the screen if the single pole, single throw switch being tested is in the "off" position, but the internal switch contacts are welded togetherNot learned 1845. An open primary coil in a voltage transformer (VT) will be indicated by which of the listed conditions?Not learned 1846. The FIRST requirement for logical troubleshooting of any system requires the troubleshooter to do what?Not learned 1847. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test an AC contactor coil, what would the display read if the coil is open-circuitedNot learned 1848. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test an AC contactor coil, what would the display read if the coil is open-circuitedNot learned 1849. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "B" of the illustration to test an AC solenoid valve coil, what would the display read if the coil is short-circuitedNot learned 1850. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "B" of the illustration to test an AC solenoid valve coil, what would the display read if the coil is short-circuitedNot learned 1851. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "B" of the illustration to test an AC solenoid valve coil, what would the display read if the coil is short-circuitedNot learned 1852. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test a capacitor, what would the display read if the capacitor is shortedNot learned 1853. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test a capacitor, what would the display read if the capacitor is shortedNot learned 1854. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "A" of the illustration to test a capacitor, what would the display read if the capacitor is shortedNot learned 1855. If a digital multimeter is set up as shown in figure "B" of the illustration to test a capacitor, what would the display read if the capacitor was functioning properlyNot learned 1856. When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, an unreliable high resistance "cold" solder joint can be located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once the problem has been located, what should be done?Not learned 1857. Normally, what is the FIRST step in troubleshooting a transistor mounted on a circuit card?Not learned 1858. What is an effective method of troubleshooting digital circuits in a console?Not learned 1859. When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty, you should first check for proper operating voltages, followed by cleaning the card. Then what should be done?Not learned 1860. When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty, what would be the last thing to do if all else fails to reveal the problem?Not learned 1861. If a solid-state circuit is inoperative; what should be the FIRST action taken?Not learned 1862. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, what should be the FIRST step taken before testing any circuit voltages?Not learned 1863. While on watch at sea with only one ship's service turbo-generator on line, the entire plant suddenly blacks out without warning. After restoring power, which of the following faults would most likely have attributed to this casualty?Not learned 1864. What is the name of the device shown in figure "2" of the illustrationNot learned 1865. A lightly loaded three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor, while running, begins to vibrate excessively but continues to run. After shutting down the motor, the motor will not restart, but makes growling noises, overheats, and smokes. What caused this?Not learned 1866. Which of the following statements concerning electrical cables is correct?Not learned 1867. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the spaces listed is defined as a 'location requiring an exceptional degree of protection' when considering the installation of shipboard electrical equipment?Not learned 1868. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what is another term for a motor enclosure which is considered to be waterproof?Not learned 1869. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following IEEE publications would be the best reference for general guidance on recommended practice for electrical installations aboard ship?Not learned 1870. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering). who must be notified before alterations or modifications can be performed to electrical installations that deviate from approved plans or that may effect the safety of the vessel?Not learned 1871. In interpreting 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what would be considered a 'corrosive location'?Not learned 1872. In interpreting 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), under what conditions must particular attention be paid when performing periodic inspections of electrical equipment?Not learned 1873. In interpreting 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what are the acceptable variations of steady state voltage and frequency for electrical equipment rated for values of 460 VAC and 60 Hz?Not learned 1874. In interpreting 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what should the ambient temperature rating be on a replacement electric motor to be installed in the engine room of a vessel, assuming that it cannot be proven that the temperature will not exceed 45°C in these spaces?Not learned 1875. In accordance with 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), a motor fitted with a heater to prevent condensation within the motor when the motor is idle must have a separate source of power and means of disconnect from the motor itself. Additionally a sign is required to warn the operator to open both devices before servicing. Where would you expect to find the heater disconnect device?Not learned 1876. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering) which of the following motor applications would be required to be continuous in terms of duty cycle?Not learned 1877. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), for the purposes of the installation of a new electric motor and its controller, which of the following applications would allow low voltage release to be used?Not learned 1878. According to the 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), for motor controller replacement purposes, which motor application would require low voltage release?Not learned 1879. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), electric motors operating in an engine room machinery space must be designed for an ambient temperature of what value?Not learned 1880. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the listed protection or release control logic schemes would require a motor controller to be manually re-started upon restoration of voltage following a power failure?Not learned 1881. Where automatic restart does not present a hazard after a power failure, according to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), it is required that motor controllers for auxiliaries vital to the propulsion equipment to be provided with what type of protection?Not learned 1882. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the type of control circuit logic associated with auxiliaries vital to the operation of propulsion equipment, where automatic restart after a voltage failure would not create a hazard, is termed what?Not learned 1883. According to the 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering) requires which of the listed features to open the power circuit to a motor due to low voltage and re-close automatically when the voltage is restored to normal?Not learned 1884. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which statement is true concerning a circuit breaker located in the machinery space and installed in a 440V AC distribution system?Not learned 1885. It is desired to replace the deck matting in front of a switchboard. According to the 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what would be a suitable replacement?Not learned 1886. You are in the process of replacing an ammeter in a generator control panel of an AC switchboard, and you notice that the current transformer secondary circuit is not fused. In accordance with 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what should be your action?Not learned 1887. You are in the planning stages of replacing a section of control wiring in an AC switchboard, with one end attached to a component on a hinged panel. In addition to using extra flexible wire, in accordance with 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what criteria must be met in terms of the replacement wire?Not learned 1888. In accordance with 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), panel boards are required to be numbered and have a circuit directory. What information is required for each circuit in the directory?Not learned 1889. You are in the planning stages of adding a circuit to an available spare in a distribution panel board. Assume that the circuit shall be protected with a 20 amp circuit breaker. In accordance with 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what would be the maximum load permitted if the load will be energized continuously for 3 hours or more and the branch circuit breaker to be used is NOT rated for continuous duty at 100% of its rating?Not learned 1890. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what statement is true concerning a 3 phase ungrounded electrical distribution system's ground detection system as illustrated in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 1891. As required by 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the illustrated ground detection system shown in figure "B" is appropriate for which type of electrical distribution systemNot learned 1892. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), when considering replacement, instrument and control wiring in a switchboard is to be of what minimum size?Not learned 1893. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what is the minimum conductor size allowed for use in making up a flexible electrical cord?Not learned 1894. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical engineering), regulations prohibit the use of portable electric cord or fixture wire aboard ship if that wire or cord is smaller than what size?Not learned 1895. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what statement is true concerning the use of twist-on connectors?Not learned 1896. According to CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following statements is true concerning flexible electric cord and cable used aboard ship?Not learned 1897. When portable cords are connected to devices such as portable tools, you must eliminate direct tension on the joints or terminals. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering) Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), how may this be provided for?Not learned 1898. You are in the planning stages of making up a portable cable to be used for transmitting power from a battery charger on a ship to a charging receptacle on a lifeboat. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following statements is true regarding the transmitting of power between receptacles?Not learned 1899. You are in the planning stages of installing an electrical receptacle on a lifeboat. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what statement is true concerning receptacle connections?Not learned 1900. You are in the planning stages of installing an electrical receptacle in a receptacle branch circuit. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), under what conditions do the regulations require that the electrical receptacle is to have a grounding pole?Not learned 1901. You are in the planning stages of making up a portable cord for use on a ship with 110 VAC, 220 VAC, and 110 VDC outlets. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what statement is true concerning receptacle outlets?Not learned 1902. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), regulations require that lighting fixture globes must be protected by guards if the fixtures are located in certain spaces. Which of the listed spaces would be an example?Not learned 1903. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 111) permit which of the listed types of fuses to be used in an interior lighting circuit?Not learned 1904. It is desired to add additional 120 VAC, 100 watt lighting fixtures in the accommodations, port side fed from circuit No.1 (1L110) as illustrated in the lighting panel L110 of the illustration. According to 46 CFR 111.75-5, what would be the maximum allowable additional lighting fixtures that could be installedNot learned 1905. It is desired to add additional 120 VAC, 100 watt lighting fixtures in the accommodations, port side fed from circuit No.1 (1L110) as illustrated in the lighting panel L110 of the illustration. According to 46 CFR 111.75-5, what would be the maximum allowable additional lighting fixtures that could be installedNot learned 1906. According to 46 CFR 111.75-5, what would be the maximum amperage load on circuit No.2 (2L110) of the illustrated lighting panel board L110 of the illustrationNot learned 1907. You are in the planning stages of replacing a battery charger, where an exact duplicate of the charger to be replaced is not available. Obviously the charger must be suitable for the battery to be charged. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following is a true statement concerning battery chargers?Not learned 1908. You are in the planning stages of replacing a battery room ventilation fan drive motor located outside of but within 5 feet of the end of the exhaust duct. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what type of motor in terms of enclosure type must be used as a replacement?Not learned 1909. In accordance with 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), each diesel engine driven generator prime mover must have an over speed device, independent of the normal operating governor. If in testing the over speed device, what should be the trip point setting in terms of rated speed?Not learned 1910. You are in the planning stages of setting the instantaneous trip of a ship's service generator circuit breaker. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what statement is true regarding the criteria for the instantaneous trip set point, assuming the generator is capable of being paralleled?Not learned 1911. There are very specific rules that govern the testing of generators found in the appropriate publication incorporated by reference. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which agency publishes the rules for the construction and testing of generators?Not learned 1912. According to its nameplate, a power transformer has Class F insulation and is rated for 40°C ambient temperature. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering) what would be the maximum winding temperature allowable as taken by the resistance method?Not learned 1913. Belt drives used in hazardous locations may potentially present an explosion hazard due to the build up of static electricity. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), how are belt drives used in hazardous locations required to be equipped?Not learned 1914. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), with respect to acceptable voltage variations for electrical equipment which statement is true if the equipment rated voltage is 450 VAC?Not learned 1915. Suppose a cargo vessel of 1600 gross tons or more is fitted with emergency storage batteries for the purpose of supplying emergency lighting and power. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the capacity of the storage batteries is such that they should be able to successfully power the emergency loads for a period of 18 hours. Beginning with fully charged batteries, what is the minimum allowable voltage of the batteries after the 18 hour discharge period assuming a nominal voltage rating of 24 VDC and operating at rated capacity.Not learned 1916. Relay-controlled emergency lanterns have an internal storage battery that is maintained in a charged state when normal power is available. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), upon a loss of normal power, what is the minimum time the internal battery should be capable of providing light?Not learned 1917. Suppose a cargo vessel of 1600 gross tons or more is fitted with emergency storage batteries for the purpose of supplying emergency lighting and power. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the capacity of the storage batteries is such that they should be able to successfully power the emergency loads for a period of 18 hours. What is the maximum initial voltage of the batteries allowable at the beginning of the 18 hour discharge period assuming a nominal voltage rating of 24 VDC.Not learned 1918. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), when supplying emergency lighting loads, the storage battery initial voltage must not exceed the standard system voltage by more than what percentage?Not learned 1919. Suppose a cargo vessel of 1600 gross tons or more is fitted with emergency storage batteries for the purpose of supplying emergency lighting and power. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the capacity of the storage batteries is such that they should be able to successfully power the emergency loads for a period of 18 hours. Beginning with fully charged batteries, what is the minimum allowable percentage of the voltage rating of the batteries after the 18 hour discharge period assuming a nominal voltage rating of 24 VDC and operating at rated capacity.Not learned 1920. Emergency generators are required to automatically start upon a loss of normal supply voltage, according to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering). In conducting a test of the emergency generator automatic start function, if the normal system supply voltage is 450 VAC, to what value would the normal supply voltage have to drop to trigger the automatic starting of the emergency generator?Not learned 1921. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), on vessels equipped with both temporary and final emergency power sources, emergency generators are required to automatically start upon a loss of normal supply voltage. In conducting a test of the emergency generator automatic transfer of load function, if the normal system supply voltage is 450 VAC, to what value would the emergency generator output voltage have to rise to trigger the automatic transfer of emergency loads to the emergency generator?Not learned 1922. Emergency generators are required to automatically start upon a loss of normal supply voltage, according to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering). In conducting a test of the emergency generator automatic transfer of load function, what is the maximum amount of time allowed for the automatic transfer of load to the emergency generator?Not learned 1923. Emergency generators are required to automatically start upon a loss of normal supply voltage, according to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering). In conducting a test of the emergency generator capacity function, the emergency generator fuel tank on an ocean going cargo vessel of 1600 GT or more must be capable of supplying fuel to a fully loaded engine for a time period of at least how many hours?Not learned 1924. Emergency generators are required to automatically start upon a loss of normal supply voltage, according to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering). In conducting a test of the emergency generator automatic transfer of load function, if the normal system supply voltage is 480 VAC, to what value would the normal source output voltage have to rise to trigger the automatic transfer of emergency loads back to the normal power source?Not learned 1925. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), emergency generators are required to have specific safety shutdowns, including prime mover over speed. If a direct coupled emergency diesel generator's rated rpm is 1200, what is the maximum setting of the over speed trip device allowed?Not learned 1926. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following starting aids is the ONLY method allowed to ease the starting of emergency diesel-generator engines?Not learned 1927. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), for emergency power and lighting systems, which of the listed items is the only permissible starting aid for the emergency diesel generator engine?Not learned 1928. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), in response to a loss of normal power or a simulated test, when will the emergency loads automatically be transferred to the emergency diesel generator?Not learned 1929. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), emergency diesel engine starting systems are required to have sufficient capacity to provide power for at least how many consecutive starts?Not learned 1930. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering) what is, the minimum number of consecutive cranking cycles an emergency diesel generator starting system must be capable of providing?Not learned 1931. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what type of vessel is required to have a temporary emergency power source AND a final emergency power source?Not learned 1932. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what type of vessel is required to have emergency lighting provided by automatically connected or manually controlled battery; automatically or manually started generator; or relay-controlled battery-operated lanterns?Not learned 1933. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what is the required minimum capacity in terms of hours of operation required of the emergency power sources for passenger vessels certified for ocean, Great Lakes, coastwise, and international voyage service?Not learned 1934. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what is the required minimum capacity in terms of hours of operation required of the emergency power sources for cargo vessels certified for all waters and 1600 GT or more?Not learned 1935. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what is the required minimum capacity in terms of hours of operation required of the emergency power sources for passenger vessels certified for other than ocean, Great Lakes, coastwise, and international voyage service?Not learned 1936. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what is the required minimum capacity in terms of hours of operation required of the emergency power sources for passenger vessels certified for other than ocean, Great Lakes, coastwise, and international voyage service?Not learned 1937. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), what is the required minimum capacity in terms of hours of operation required of the emergency power sources for cargo vessels of 500 GT or more certified for ocean, Great Lakes, coastwise, and international voyage service or for cargo vessels of 1600 GT operating on any waters?Not learned 1938. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), general emergency alarm system power supplies are required to have over current protection from a fused switch or circuit breaker. If the general emergency alarm system load when connected is 15 amps, what is the minimum required fuse rating if a fused switch is used for over current protection?Not learned 1939. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), the capacity of a general emergency alarm system feeder fuse must be at least what ampere value?Not learned 1940. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), a steering failure alarm system must give audible and visual indication of the failure of the steering gear when the actual rudder position differs from the ordered rudder angle by the follow-up control system by more than 5° within a certain time period for certain changes in ordered rudder position. What is the alarm point in seconds when the ordered rudder change is 35 degrees?Not learned 1941. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), a steering failure alarm system must give audible and visual indication of the failure of the steering gear when the actual rudder position differs from the ordered rudder angle by the follow-up control system by more than 5° within a certain time period for certain changes in ordered rudder position. What is the alarm point in seconds when the ordered rudder change is 35 degrees?Not learned 1942. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), in terms of conductor size, the capacity of each branch circuit providing power to a fire detection or alarm system must not be less than what percent of the maximum load?Not learned 1943. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), a steering failure alarm system must give audible and visual indication of the failure of the steering gear when the actual rudder position differs from the ordered rudder angle by the follow-up control system by more than 5° within a certain time period for certain changes in ordered rudder position. What is the alarm point in seconds when the ordered rudder change is 35 degrees?Not learned 1944. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), what statement is true concerning the operation and inspection of emergency lighting and power systems?Not learned 1945. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), it is required that storage batteries to be tested for a specified period of time to demonstrate their ability to properly supply the required emergency load. What statement is true concerning the time interval between load tests?Not learned 1946. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), it is required that internal combustion driven emergency generators be periodically tested for a specified period of time to demonstrate their ability to properly supply the required emergency load. What statement is true concerning the time interval between tests and the duration of the test?Not learned 1947. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), emergency lighting and power systems and the associated emergency power sources must be operated, inspected, and tested at prescribed intervals under certain conditions and that the results of these tests be properly documented. Where are the test results required to be recorded?Not learned 1948. According to 46 CFR, Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), on vessels making a voyage of more than 48 hours of duration, what statement is true concerning the examination and testing of steering gear, whistle, and means of communication?Not learned 1949. The electric winch drive motor on one of your ship's lifeboat davits needs to be replaced. What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?Not learned 1950. The electric drive motor on one of your ship's electro-mechanically driven deck winches needs to be replaced. What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?Not learned 1951. One of your ship's indirect-drive steering gear drive motors needs to be replaced. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J, what minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?Not learned 1952. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following electrical repairs is permitted?Not learned 1953. The prime mover of an AC two pole main propulsion generator drives the generator at 3600 RPM. If the main propulsion motor has 80 poles, what will be the propeller speed?Not learned 1954. A four pole turbo generator is used in conjunction with a 160 pole propulsion motor. If the generator is turning at 3,200 RPM, what is the current speed of the propeller?Not learned 1955. What is the shape of the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier used in an analog circuit?Not learned 1956. How may temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil be made, allowing continued operation until permanent repairs can be made?Not learned 1957. Besides a condition of overload, what could be a cause of an open armature connection in a DC propulsion motor?Not learned 1958. When rolling over a DC main propulsion motor in local emergency mode or throttle bypass mode, what must be done with the variable rheostat in terms of turning the handle?Not learned 1959. When energizing a DC propulsion motor using "local override manual control", what statement best describes how the variable rheostat should be turned?Not learned 1960. Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of modern marine electric drive DC propulsion motors?Not learned 1961. Which of the listed devices is most likely to be installed on a large modern diesel-electric alternating current propulsion generator for commercial ship propulsion for the purposes of fire suppression?Not learned 1962. How is the speed of the propeller shaft directly coupled to an AC synchronous drive motor changed when powered by either a dedicated or integrated constant frequency alternator in an AC diesel- electric drive system?Not learned 1963. How is the direction of propeller shaft rotation changed when directly coupled to an AC synchronous motor when driven by a variable frequency alternator in an AC turbo-electric drive system?Not learned 1964. On DC diesel-electric drives, how is the speed of the DC propulsion motor primarily controlled?Not learned 1965. In a diesel-electric plant, raising the generator's field excitation current will have what effect on the DC propulsion motor speed?Not learned 1966. In a rectified DC diesel electric plant, raising the AC generator's field excitation current will have what effect on the DC propulsion motor?Not learned 1967. Ships requiring extremely rapid maneuvering response using propeller shaft speed and direction as the sole means of controlling propeller thrust are most likely to use what type of drive system?Not learned 1968. What is one major advantage of a diesel-electric propulsion plant?Not learned 1969. How is the main propeller shaft rotation of a rectified DC diesel-electric drive normally reversed?Not learned 1970. While standing an "at sea watch" onboard a modern rectified DC diesel-electric drive ship you notice the transformer core temperature slowly rising. What should be your FIRST action?Not learned 1971. While standing an "at sea watch" onboard a modern rectified DC diesel-electric drive ship you notice the transformer core temperature slowly rising. What should be your FIRST action?Not learned 1972. While underway onboard a DC diesel-electric drive ship, you notice excessive sparking of the brushes on the main propulsion motor. What should be your FIRST action?Not learned 1973. What is one major advantage of a diesel-electric propulsion plant?Not learned 1974. For what purpose are thermal strip heaters provided in DC main propulsion motors?Not learned 1975. An AC diesel-electric propulsion system requires less maintenance than a DC diesel-electric system. Which system component requires less maintenance?Not learned 1976. How is the main shaft rotation on an AC diesel-electric propulsion vessel normally reversed?Not learned 1977. By what common means is the speed of the AC propulsion motor on a diesel-electric propulsion ship controlled?Not learned 1978. By what common means is the speed of the AC propulsion motor on a diesel-electric propulsion ship controlled?Not learned 1979. On electric propulsion drive ships, Silicon-Controlled Rectifiers can be used to control which of the following? DC propulsion motors AC propulsion motorsNot learned 1980. Which of the following is a disadvantage of electric drive propulsion systems?Not learned 1981. Which of the following precautions should you take when securing propulsion generators and motors for an extended period of time?Not learned 1982. On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the following conditions would indicate that the propulsion motor had dropped out of synchronization with the propulsion generator?Not learned 1983. The turbine of a turbo-electric drive should be secured by __________.Not learned 1984. The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator of a diesel electric drive vessel is usually a __________.Not learned 1985. Which statement is TRUE concerning electric propulsion drives?Not learned 1986. An electric propulsion drive system in which the propulsion generator supplies power to both the propulsion motor and ship service loads is referred to as what type of system?Not learned 1987. An electric propulsion drive system in which the propulsion generator supplies power to both the propulsion motor and ship service loads is referred to as what type of system?Not learned 1988. What equipment for modern SCR rectified DC propulsion drive systems is usually included in the package?Not learned 1989. How is speed control of a DC propulsion motor accomplished?Not learned 1990. How is the direction of rotation of the main propulsion motor in a modern AC propulsion drive system reversed?Not learned 1991. The propulsion motor most often utilized in an AC drive system operating in the moderate to high power range is of what type?Not learned 1992. What statement is TRUE concerning the Azipod propulsion system?Not learned 1993. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning Azipod propulsion systems?Not learned 1994. As shown in the illustration of a DC diesel-electric propulsion drive system, what would be the set up contactor configurations if #1 M/E is to be secured, so that only #2 M/E diesel-generator is set up to supply both propulsion motorsNot learned 1995. As shown in the illustration of a DC diesel-electric propulsion drive system, what would be the set up contactor configurations if #1 M/E is to be secured, so that only #2 M/E diesel-generator is set up to supply both propulsion motorsNot learned 1996. As shown in the illustration of a DC diesel-electric propulsion drive system, what would be the set-up contactor configurations if both #1and #2 M/E are to be secured, so that only the gas turbine generator is set up to supply both propulsion motors and the auxiliary diesel generator set up to supply the bow thruster motorNot learned 1997. As shown in the illustration of a turbo-electric propulsion drive system, what type of propulsion motor is usedNot learned 1998. As shown in the illustration of a turbo-electric propulsion drive system, in terms of the operating characteristics of the propulsion motor, what statement is trueNot learned 1999. As shown in the illustration of a turbo-electric propulsion drive system, in terms of motor speed and direction control, what statement is trueNot learned 2000. What type of electric propulsion system converter is shown in the illustrationNot learned 2001. As shown in the illustration of a cycloconverter for an AC synchronous propulsion motor, what statement is true concerning the stator winding connectionsNot learned 2002. As shown in the illustration of a cycloconverter for an AC synchronous propulsion motor, what statement is true concerning the operating motor frequencyNot learned 2003. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the primary reason that the propulsion transformers are configured differently so as to produce a 30-degree phase shift in the pulses between the two synchro converters supplying separate stator windingsNot learned 2004. As shown in in the illustration, what type of electric propulsion drive system is featuredNot learned 2005. As shown in the illustration, if the port propulsion motor field excitation circuit experienced a failure of an individual component, of the following listed field excitation circuit components, the failure of which component would allow the use of the standby excitation transformer and field controller to resume normal operationNot learned 2006. As shown in the illustration, if one of the port propulsion motor synchroconverters experienced a failure while underway, how would the system be configured to resume the voyageNot learned 2007. As shown in the illustrated electric propulsion control scheme for a twin screw vessel, when the two shaft speeds are within 5% of each other, the bridge may select "shaft synchro-phasing mode". What statement is true regarding the purpose of this operating modeNot learned 2008. Refer to the diagram of the AC turbo-electric drive system as shown in the illustration. The propulsion motor operates from maneuvering speed to full ahead speed in the ahead direction. The propulsion motor will not operate at any speed in the astern direction. What is most likely the problemNot learned 2009. Refer to the simplified diagram of the AC synchronous electric motor drive system as shown in the illustration. The propulsion motor operates from maneuvering speed to full ahead speed in the ahead direction. The propulsion motor will not operate at any speed in the astern direction. What is most likely the problemNot learned 2010. In a podded azimuthing propulsion system, how is three-phase, frequency and voltage-controlled power delivered to the synchronous propulsion motor stator windings?Not learned 2011. In an azipod propulsion system, how is direct current delivered to the synchronous propulsion motor rotor for synchronous operation?Not learned 2012. In an azipod propulsion system, how is the azipod unit itself rotated for the purposes of directing the thrust in accordance with steering commands from the bridge?Not learned 2013. As shown in the illustration of a cycloconverter for an AC synchronous propulsion motor, what statement is true concerning the operating motor frequencyNot learned 2014. Which of the figures shown in the illustration is a toroidal electromagnetic coilNot learned 2015. Which of the figures shown in the illustration is an air choke coilNot learned 2016. Which figure represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "2"Not learned 2017. The device shown in figure "C" of the illustration is represented by which schematic symbolNot learned 2018. Which of the electronic schematic symbols represents the capacitor illustrated in figure 4 of the illustrationNot learned 2019. Which of the electronic schematic symbols represents the capacitor illustrated in figure 4 of the illustrationNot learned 2020. Which of the electronic schematic symbols represents the capacitor illustrated in figure 4 of the illustrationNot learned 2021. Which of the electronic schematic symbols represents the capacitor illustrated in figure 4 of the illustrationNot learned 2022. As shown in the alternator protection scheme diagram, what device provides the input to the overcurrent inverse time relay "OCIT", the overcurrent instantaneous trip "OC (inst.)", and the negative phase sequence relay "NPS"Not learned 2023. As shown in the illustrated alternator protection scheme diagram, what function does the over current inverse time relay "OCIT" performNot learned 2024. As shown in the illustrated alternator protection scheme diagram, what function does the over current inverse time relay "OCIT" performNot learned 2025. Which of the illustrated resistors represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "B"Not learned 2026. Which of the illustrated resistors represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "C"Not learned 2027. Which of the illustrated resistors represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "C"Not learned 2028. Which of the illustrated resistors represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "C"Not learned 2029. Which of the illustrated resistors represents the schematic symbol shown in figure "B"Not learned 2030. What is another name for the a.c-d.c thyristor controller as shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 2031. Which of the following statements concerning figure "6" of the illustration is trueNot learned 2032. Which of the illustrated schematic symbols represents the type of switch pictured in figure "F" of the illustrationNot learned 2033. Which of the illustrated schematic symbols represents the type of switch pictured in figure "C" of the illustrationNot learned 2034. Which of the schematic symbols shown in the illustration represents a normally closed float level switchNot learned 2035. Which of the schematic symbols shown in the illustration represents a normally open float level switchNot learned 2036. Which of the schematic symbols shown in the illustration represents the device shown in figure "F" of the illustrationNot learned 2037. Which of the following electrical schematic symbols represents the device illustrated in figure "E"Not learned 2038. Which electrical schematic symbol represents a normally closed thermostatNot learned 2039. Which electrical schematic symbol represents a normally open thermostatNot learned 2040. Which electrical schematic symbol represents the device shown in figure "D"Not learned 2041. Which of the electrical schematic symbols shown in the illustration represents a normally closed limit switchNot learned 2042. Which of the electrical schematic symbols represents a normally open limit switchNot learned 2043. Which of the electrical schematic symbols represents a normally open, held closed limit switchNot learned 2044. Which of the electrical schematic symbols represents a normally open, held closed limit switchNot learned 2045. Which of the electrical schematic symbols represents the device shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 2046. What is the name of the semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature?Not learned 2047. As shown in the illustration, which electrical symbol represents an SCR silicon controlled rectifierNot learned 2048. As shown in the illustration, which electrical symbol represents a triac thyristorNot learned 2049. Which of the pictured solid state electronic semiconductor devices is an integrated circuit (IC) chipNot learned 2050. What does the symbol in figure "1" shown in the illustration representNot learned 2051. The characteristics of the device shown in figure "8" of the illustration includes a stable voltage and low current while operating. Because of this, it can be suitably used in what type of circuitNot learned 2052. What does the symbol in figure "1" shown in the illustration representNot learned 2053. What does the symbol in figure "1" shown in the illustration representNot learned 2054. What does the symbol in figure "1" shown in the illustration representNot learned 2055. What does the electronic symbol of figure "9" representNot learned 2056. What does the electronic symbol of figure "9" representNot learned 2057. What does the electronic symbol of figure "9" representNot learned 2058. What does the electronic symbol of figure "9" representNot learned 2059. A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a solid state device used for what functional purpose?Not learned 2060. (1.1.11.1.3-12) A triac thyristor functions as a control device and can be thought of to function similarly as which of the following circuits?Not learned 2061. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, under what conditions will the thyristor conductNot learned 2062. In the regulated DC power supply illustrated, what is the function of section "B"Not learned 2063. Which section of the circuit shown in the illustration smooth's out highest degree of pulsationsNot learned 2064. Which of the listed devices may be used as a digital device?Not learned 2065. On a digital numerical display readout, what would be the minimum number of LED segments required to form and display any digit 0 through 9?Not learned 2066. What is the main difference between a vacuum tube and a semiconductor device?Not learned 2067. Tightly knit metal braid wire can be used with a printed circuit board under what conditions?Not learned 2068. In the regulated DC power supply illustrated, what is the function of section "B"Not learned 2069. What is the function of section "D" of the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2070. Which section of the circuit shown in the illustration smooth's out highest degree of pulsationsNot learned 2071. Which pair of safety disconnect switches shown in the illustration represents the exterior and interior views of a double-throw switchNot learned 2072. Which of the following figures shown in the illustration represents incandescent lightingNot learned 2073. What does the symbol in figure "1" shown in the illustration representNot learned 2074. What does the circuit shown in the illustration representNot learned 2075. In referring to the graphs shown in the illustration, which of the following figures represents a bandpass filterNot learned 2076. In referring to figure "A" of the illustration, what type of active filter circuit is shownNot learned 2077. Referring to the illustration pertaining to an alternator protection and alarm system, what statement is true concerning the component labeled "LO"Not learned 2078. What does section "C" of the circuit shown in the illustration function asNot learned 2079. According to the liquid crystal data display for the depth sounder shown in the illustration, what is the instantaneous depth currently being displayedNot learned 2080. In viewing the liquid crystal display for the illustrated depth sounder data display unit, what should be done if the graphic display of the ocean bottom is no longer visible on the screenNot learned 2081. The process, whereby electrons gain sufficient energy to be released from the surface of a thin, heated metal plate, is known as what type of emission?Not learned 2082. When a solid-state component of an electronic circuit is mounted to a metallic mass, what is the general purpose of that mass?Not learned 2083. Which of the listed conditions describes the effect on intrinsic semiconductor operation as a result of a temperature increase?Not learned 2084. Capacitors are commonly used on DC power supply circuits for engine room automation consoles. For what functional purpose are they primarily used in this application?Not learned 2085. In the illustrated circuit, what is one advantage of the RC coupling over a direct couplingNot learned 2086. Which of the following statements describes the significance of ambient temperature in relation to the service life of electronic components?Not learned 2087. In electronic circuitry, what does the abbreviation "PCB" commonly represent?Not learned 2088. Which of the following statements concerning analog and digital devices is correct?Not learned 2089. Which of the wave shapes shown in the illustration is termed a sinusoidal waveNot learned 2090. Which of the wave shapes shown in the illustration is termed a ramp or sawtooth waveNot learned 2091. Which of the wave shapes shown in the illustration is termed a square waveNot learned 2092. Which line in figure "B" shown in the illustration represents the trailing edge of the waveNot learned 2093. Which line in figure "B" shown in the illustration represents the interval that the pulse has a positive voltageNot learned 2094. Which line in figure "B" shown in the illustration represents the interval that the pulse has a positive voltageNot learned 2095. Tightly knit metal braid wire can be used on a printed circuit board under what repair conditions?Not learned 2096. Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering iron when soldering or desoldering components on a printed circuit board?Not learned 2097. When soldering a printed circuit board component, what should be done to help prevent damage?Not learned 2098. If a delicate component must be soldered into a circuit, how can the component be protected from the heat of the soldering process?Not learned 2099. What is the name for the device shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 2100. Referring to the illustration pertaining to the semi-automatic navigation light panel circuit, if the buzzer sounds and the masthead indicator light comes on, what statement is true concerning acknowledging and responding to the alarm while minimizing the danger to navigationNot learned 2101. As shown in the illustration, which electrical symbol represents a diac trigger diodeNot learned 2102. Which of the pictured solid state semiconductor devices is a light-emitting diodeNot learned 2103. Which of the pictured solid state electronic semiconductor devices is a rectifier diodeNot learned 2104. What is the name of the component labeled CR1 as shown in section "D" of the regulated DC power supply illustratedNot learned 2105. Using the analogy of a piping system, what piping system component is similar in function to a rectifier diode?Not learned 2106. Silicon diodes which are designed for a specific reverse breakdown voltage, and are most often used as electronic power supply voltage regulators, are specifically what type of diode?Not learned 2107. In comparing a semiconductor diode to a vacuum tube diode, what statement is true?Not learned 2108. In comparing a semiconductor diode to a vacuum tube diode, which statement is true?Not learned 2109. In what applications are semiconductor diodes commonly used?Not learned 2110. You have installed a Zener diode in parallel with a load. While measuring the voltage across the Zener diode it is found that it does not change as the current through the load increases. In terms of Zener diode operation, what does this mean?Not learned 2111. What would be the indication of a burned-out LED?Not learned 2112. When using an ohmmeter to test a semiconductor diode, you find a low resistance in both the forward and reverse bias directions. What condition does this indicate?Not learned 2113. While testing a semi-conductor diode with an ohmmeter, both the forward and reverse readings are almost in the infinity range. What would this indicate?Not learned 2114. An ohmmeter used to test for front-to-back resistance of a PN junction diode should produce roughly what ratio?Not learned 2115. What is the name of the device shown in figure "2" of the illustrationNot learned 2116. What is the name of the device shown in figure "2" of the illustrationNot learned 2117. What is the name of the device shown in figure "4" of the illustrationNot learned 2118. What is the name of the device shown in figure "4" of the illustrationNot learned 2119. What is the name of the device shown in figure "7" of the illustrationNot learned 2120. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what is the status of the silicon diode if the display reads 4.7 ohms when configured as in figure "A" and reads 490 ohms when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 2121. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what is the status of the silicon diode if the display reads 4.7 ohms when configured as in figure "A" and reads 490 ohms when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 2122. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration, what is the status of the silicon diode if the display reads 4.7 ohms when configured as in figure "A" and reads 490 ohms when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 2123. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" to test a silicon diode, what is the status of the diode if the screen displays 0.70 V when configured as in figure "A" and displays OL V when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 2124. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" to test a silicon diode, what is the status of the diode if the screen displays 0.70 V when configured as in figure "A" and displays OL V when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 2125. If a digital multimeter is setup as shown in figures "A" and "B" to test a silicon diode, what is the status of the diode if the screen displays 0.70 V when configured as in figure "A" and displays OL V when configured as in figure "B"Not learned 2126. What is the functional purpose of a heat sink, as frequently used with transistors?Not learned 2127. As shown in the illustration, which electrical symbol represents a PNP type bipolar junction transistorNot learned 2128. As shown in the illustration, which electrical symbol represents a PNP type bipolar junction transistorNot learned 2129. As shown in the illustration, which electrical symbol represents a JFET junction field effect transistorNot learned 2130. Which of the following statements correctly applies to bipolar junction transistors?Not learned 2131. Which of the pictured solid state electronic semiconductor devices is a bipolar junction transistor (BJT)Not learned 2132. A common-emitter circuit has an input voltage of 0.1 volt, an output voltage of 2.0 volts, an input current of 0.5 milliamps, and an output current of 10 milliamps. What is the power gain?Not learned 2133. The transistors in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit are connected using what type of couplingNot learned 2134. The transistors in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit are connected using what type of couplingNot learned 2135. The transistors in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit are connected using what type of couplingNot learned 2136. The transistors in figure "A" of the illustrated circuit are connected using what type of couplingNot learned 2137. In figure "A" of the illustration, the battery Vbb and resistor Rb are in the circuit for what purposeNot learned 2138. In figure "A" of the illustration, the battery Vcc and the resistor RL are in the circuit for what functional purposeNot learned 2139. In the illustrated amplifiers in all three figures, in terms of doping, the base of the silicon semiconductor transistor is what type of materialNot learned 2140. In figure "A" of the illustrated circuit, what is the main purpose of the bias resistor RbNot learned 2141. What is the name of the process used to produce electron emission in most vacuum tubes?Not learned 2142. When replacing a power transistor fitted with a heat sink in a circuit, a coating of silicone grease is applied between the transistor case and the heat sink. Why is this done?Not learned 2143. In order to check the performance of a transistor removed from its circuit, what meter or tester should be used?Not learned 2144. Which of the following actions can be carried out in order to prevent thermal runaway in a transistor?Not learned 2145. Which of the procedures or conditions listed could result in damaging a transistor beyond repair?Not learned 2146. To conduct an in-circuit test of a transistor, what meter or tester should be used?Not learned 2147. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what type of timer is representedNot learned 2148. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what type of timer is representedNot learned 2149. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is true concerning the illustrated frequency response curveNot learned 2150. As shown in the illustration, in terms of frequency response characteristics, the various filter circuits illustrated represent what type of filterNot learned 2151. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is true concerning the illustrated frequency response curveNot learned 2152. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is true concerning the illustrated frequency response curveNot learned 2153. What does section "C" of the circuit shown in the illustration function asNot learned 2154. What is the function of section "D" of the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2155. What is the functional name of section "B" of the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2156. What is the correct term for the fluctuation of voltages in figure "H" shown in the illustrationNot learned 2157. Which of the illustrated figures uses an LC choke-input filterNot learned 2158. What type of filtering does the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration representNot learned 2159. Which of the illustrated figures uses an LC choke-input filterNot learned 2160. What type of filtering does the circuit shown in figure "B" of the illustration representNot learned 2161. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a digitized echo sounding system, what statement is true concerning the function of the transducerNot learned 2162. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a digitized echo sounding system, what statement is true concerning the transmission and reception of acoustical energyNot learned 2163. As shown in the illustrated echo sounding display unit and control panel and pertinent operating characteristic tables, what situation would require increasing the unit gainNot learned 2164. If the clock frequency input to the circuit shown in the illustration were 2 kHz, what would be indicated at the output of "FF-3" at the Q3 outputNot learned 2165. If the clock input frequency to the circuit shown in the illustration were 100 kHz, what would be indicated at the output of 'FF-3'Not learned 2166. If a frequency of 16.8 kHz were measured at the output of 'FF-3' of the circuit shown in the illustration, what would be the input clock frequency at 'FF-0'Not learned 2167. If a frequency of 2.5 kHz were measured at the output of 'FF-3' in the circuit shown in the illustration, what would be the input clock frequency at 'FF-0"Not learned 2168. What is the name of the device shown in figure "5" of the illustrationNot learned 2169. In referring to the frequency response filters shown in the illustration, what determines the band pass or band stop frequencies as appropriateNot learned 2170. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what type of timer is representedNot learned 2171. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the configuration of the operational amplifierNot learned 2172. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the configuration of the operational amplifierNot learned 2173. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the configuration of the operational amplifierNot learned 2174. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", "D" and "E" of the illustration pertaining to various diagrams specific to a PLC controlled temperature control system using a thermistor and operational amplifier, which statement is trueNot learned 2175. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", "D" and "E" of the illustration pertaining to various diagrams specific to a PLC controlled temperature control system using a thermistor and operational amplifier, which statement is trueNot learned 2176. A signal derived from a device output and returned to the device input is called what type of signal?Not learned 2177. The simple amplifier shown in figure "4" of the illustration is configured for what class of operationNot learned 2178. The amplifier as shown in figure "B" of the illustration has what type of feedback networkNot learned 2179. The simple amplifier shown in figure "4" of the illustration is configured for what class of operationNot learned 2180. The amplifier as shown in figure "B" of the illustration has what type of feedback networkNot learned 2181. The simple amplifier shown in figure "4" of the illustration is configured for what class of operationNot learned 2182. The simple amplifier shown in figure "4" of the illustration is configured for what class of operationNot learned 2183. In the circuit illustrated in figure "A", the amplifier is connected in what basic configurationNot learned 2184. In the circuit illustrated in figure "A", the amplifier is connected in what basic configurationNot learned 2185. In the circuit illustrated in figure "A", the amplifier is connected in what basic configurationNot learned 2186. In figure "A" of the illustrated circuit, the amplifier is connected in what basic configurationNot learned 2187. What type of feedback is featured in the transistor amplifier shown in figure "B" of the illustration assuming that the phase relationship between input and output is identical to the transistor amplifier shown in figure "A"Not learned 2188. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what are the purposes of the coupling capacitor Cc and the bypass capacitor Cbp respectivelyNot learned 2189. A voltage amplifier has a calculated voltage gain of 5. Which statement is true concerning input and output voltages?Not learned 2190. A voltage amplifier has a calculated voltage gain of 10. Which statement correctly states the gain?Not learned 2191. How are operational amplifiers, used primarily in analog circuits, characterized?Not learned 2192. To provide its unique characteristics to analog circuits, the operational amplifier is made up of certain amplifier sections. Which of the following sequences represents the proper sequence of amplifier sections?Not learned 2193. What part of an operational amplifier functions to provide basic operating characteristics of the operational amplifier such as gain and stability?Not learned 2194. What are some common basic applications for the operational amplifier?Not learned 2195. As shown in figures "A", "B", and "C" of the illustration, what is the purpose of the differential amplifier segment of the 741 operational amplifierNot learned 2196. As shown in figures "A", "B", and "C" of the illustration, what is an important characteristic of the differential amplifier segment of the operational amplifierNot learned 2197. As shown in figures "A", "B", and "C" of the illustration, what is the purpose of the voltage amplifier segment of the 741 operational amplifierNot learned 2198. As shown in figures "A", "B", and "C" of the illustration, if the negative DC signal voltage is more negative at the inverting input than at the non-inverting input, what will be the characteristic of the outputNot learned 2199. When evaluating a functional amplifier, you measure an output of 30 volts. If the voltage gain of the amplifier is 2, what must the input voltage be for the amplifier to work properly?Not learned 2200. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated proportional analog controller circuit, what is the primary purpose of operational amplifier "U2"Not learned 2201. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated proportional analog controller circuit, what is the primary purpose of operational amplifier "U3"Not learned 2202. Some electrical schematics use "binary values" (Base 2), to represent and identify automation alarm addresses. Which of the following represents the "binary value" for the decimal number 7 (Base 10)?Not learned 2203. As shown in all four diagrams included in the illustration, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2204. As shown in all four diagrams included in the illustration, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2205. As shown in the illustrated diagrams, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2206. As shown in the illustrated diagrams, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2207. As shown in the illustrated diagrams, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2208. As shown in the illustrated diagrams, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2209. In a logic circuit, how does a NOT gate function?Not learned 2210. How many possible states does a binary logic circuit have?Not learned 2211. In a logic circuit, what statement is true concerning how the NOR and NAND logic gates function?Not learned 2212. What is the name of the digital logic gate represented by figure "3" of the illustrationNot learned 2213. What is the name of the digital logic gate represented by figure "7" of the illustrationNot learned 2214. What is the name of the digital logic gate represented by figure "3" of the illustrationNot learned 2215. What is the name of the digital logic gate represented by figure "3" of the illustrationNot learned 2216. What is the name of the digital logic gate represented by figure "1" of the illustrationNot learned 2217. What is the name of the digital logic gate represented by figure "7" of the illustrationNot learned 2218. What is the name of the digital logic gate represented by figure "7" of the illustrationNot learned 2219. What type of logic gate is indicated by the truth table shown in figure "A" the illustrationNot learned 2220. What type of logic gate is indicated by the truth table shown in figure "A" the illustrationNot learned 2221. What type of logic gate is indicated by the truth table shown in figure "A" the illustrationNot learned 2222. What type of logic gate is indicated by the truth table shown in figure "A" the illustrationNot learned 2223. What type of logic gate is indicated by the truth table shown in figure "E" of the illustrationNot learned 2224. Which of the listed logic gates are considered to be the BASIC building blocks (basic logic gates) used in logic diagrams?Not learned 2225. If the inputs to the diagram shown in figure "2" of the illustration were A=0 and B=0, what logic levels would be indicated at points "C", "D", "E", and "F" respectivelyNot learned 2226. If the inputs to the diagram shown in figure "2" of the illustration were A=0 and B=0, what logic levels would be indicated at points "C", "D", "E", and "F" respectivelyNot learned 2227. If the inputs to the diagram shown in figure "2" of the illustration were A=0 and B=0, what logic levels would be indicated at points "C", "D", "E", and "F" respectivelyNot learned 2228. If the inputs to the diagram shown in figure "2" of the illustration were A=0 and B=0, what logic levels would be indicated at points "C", "D", "E", and "F" respectivelyNot learned 2229. As shown in figure "1" of the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 2230. As shown in figure "3" of the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 2231. As shown in figure "3" of the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 2232. As shown in all four diagrams included in the illustration, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2233. As shown in all four diagrams included in the illustration, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2234. As shown in all four diagrams included in the illustration, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2235. As shown in all four diagrams included in the illustration, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2236. As shown in all four diagrams included in the illustration, what type of logic circuit is representedNot learned 2237. Referring to figure "3" of the illustration, what type of logic gate is symbolizedNot learned 2238. Referring to figure "3" of the illustration, what type of logic gate is symbolizedNot learned 2239. Referring to figure "3" of the illustration, what type of logic gate is symbolizedNot learned 2240. Referring to figure "3" of the illustration, what type of logic gate is symbolizedNot learned 2241. Referring to figure "3" of the illustration, what type of logic gate is symbolizedNot learned 2242. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 2243. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what causes the Boolean output at "Q" to be set to 1Not learned 2244. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 2245. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what causes the Boolean output at "Q" to be set to 1Not learned 2246. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what causes the Boolean output at "Q" to be set to 1 if PV is set at 10Not learned 2247. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 2248. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what causes the Boolean output at "Q" to be set to 1Not learned 2249. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what type of converter unit is representedNot learned 2250. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what type of converter unit is representedNot learned 2251. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what would a "1" data bit signal level be during serial communicationsNot learned 2252. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration, what would a "1" data bit signal level be during serial communicationsNot learned 2253. What is the name of the four devices which make up the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2254. What is the function of the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2255. In comparing the composite waveforms as shown in figures "C" and "D", what are the essential differencesNot learned 2256. Given the circuit and input and output waveforms shown in figure "E" of the illustration, what function does the coupling transformer performNot learned 2257. Given the circuit and input and output waveforms shown in figure "E" of the illustration, what function does the coupling transformer performNot learned 2258. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the purpose of the thyristor controlNot learned 2259. What statement is true concerning SCR power converters as used on diesel-electric propulsion drive systems?Not learned 2260. Power conversion for use in DC propulsion drive motors is accomplished by what type of converter?Not learned 2261. What is the basic "control action" of a magnetic amplifier dependent upon?Not learned 2262. With what electronic circuit component are heat sinks most frequently associated with?Not learned 2263. A saturable-core reactor operates on the principle of controlling a load winding's inductance by changing the permeability of the core. How is this accomplished?Not learned 2264. Although saturable reactors are extremely useful in some applications, why is their gain low?Not learned 2265. Basically, a magnetic amplifier is a saturable-core reactor with the addition of what additional feature?Not learned 2266. Which of the pictured solid-state semiconductor devices in the illustration is a rectifier bridgeNot learned 2267. Which of the pictured solid state electronic semiconductor devices in the illustration is a silicon-controlled rectifierNot learned 2268. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what are the electrode/lead designations for "A", "K", and "G" respectively for the thyristor control, also known as a silicon-controlled rectifierNot learned 2269. What is the name of the component labeled Q1 as shown in section "D" of the regulated DC power supply illustratedNot learned 2270. When AC voltage of a fixed frequency and voltage as shown in figure "D' is applied to the input of the single phase controlled rectifier shown in figure "C", what determines the average DC current output value as controlled at any given timeNot learned 2271. What are the purposes of the inductor coil "L" and the capacitor "C" respectively of the three phase controlled rectifier as illustrated in figure "F" of the illustrationNot learned 2272. What is the functional purpose of the resistor 'RL" placed in parallel to the output of a DC power supply as shown in section "D" of the regulated DC power supplyNot learned 2273. Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled rectifier?Not learned 2274. The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit, will have what functional purpose?Not learned 2275. All of the schematic diagrams shown in the illustration represent which of the listed solid-state circuitsNot learned 2276. What is the name for the device shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 2277. What is the name for the device shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 2278. What is the name for the device shown in figure "A" of the illustrationNot learned 2279. Which of the following expresses the relationship of the AC input frequency and DC ripple output frequency in a full wave rectifier?Not learned 2280. When three-phase AC power is supplied to the device shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what is the characteristic of the outputNot learned 2281. What does the drawing in the illustrated circuit representNot learned 2282. In which section of the 24 VDC power supply circuit illustrated does the greatest change in voltage level take place when fed from 120 VAC ship's powerNot learned 2283. Which section of the circuit shown in the illustration changes AC to DCNot learned 2284. Which section of the circuit is responsible for maintaining a nearly constant voltage for all loads within its operating rangeNot learned 2285. Assuming a standard 60 Hz input to the circuit shown in the illustration, what would be the ripple frequencyNot learned 2286. Which of the referenced wave shapes would appear at test point 5 (TP5) with respect to ground referring to the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2287. Which of the referenced wave shapes would appear at test point 5 (TP5) with respect to ground referring to the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2288. Which of the referenced wave shapes would appear across test points 1 and 2 (TP1 and TP2) referring to the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2289. Which of the referenced wave shapes would appear at test point 5 (TP5) with respect to ground referring to the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2290. What is the polarity of voltage at test point 5 (TP5) with respect to ground referring to the circuit shown in the illustrationNot learned 2291. The component labeled "CR1" in the circuit shown in the illustration serves what functional purposeNot learned 2292. In the illustrated silicon controlled rectifier as shown in illustration "B", which labeled lead of the SCR represents the gateNot learned 2293. In the illustrated silicon controlled rectifier as shown in illustration "B", which labeled lead of the SCR represents the gateNot learned 2294. In the illustrated silicon controlled rectifier as shown in illustration "B", which labeled lead of the SCR represents the gateNot learned 2295. On vessels with AC distribution systems, which of the following statements represents the most difficult problem involved in obtaining a DC potential suitable for use by computer components?Not learned 2296. A full-wave rectifier has one diode burned out in an open condition, what will be the output characteristic of the device?Not learned 2297. One diode of a single phase, center tap, full-wave rectifier has burned out in a shorted condition. Therefore, what would the output condition be?Not learned 2298. The conversion of constant frequency power into adjustable frequency power in a modern AC propulsion drive system is commonly achieved through the use of what electronic system components?Not learned 2299. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what is the purpose of the synchronous compensatorNot learned 2300. What does the drawing in the illustrated circuit representNot learned 2301. Which illustrated device would be best suited for measuring the flow rate of wet gases using a primary, differential pressure, flow elementNot learned 2302. The device shown in the illustration is an example of a simple __________Not learned 2303. Which of the following elements is common to all indicating instruments?Not learned 2304. Devices, such as a pressure gage, that are subject to continuous expansion and contraction are affected by hysteresis. This is a natural process that __________.Not learned 2305. A rotameter, when used to indicate the rate of fluid flow in distilling plants, is essentially an area meter consisting of a __________.Not learned 2306. A primary element used with flow measurement devices highly suitable for liquids containing solids in suspension, is a __________.Not learned 2307. Which of the listed characteristics is typical of a strip chart graphic recorder?Not learned 2308. The adapter for the tachometer shown in the illustration is designed for reading shaft RPM as long as the shaft is accessible __________Not learned 2309. The function of the device illustrated is to __________Not learned 2310. If it is desired to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what thermocouple wiring technique can be used to generate an emf proportional to the average temperature?Not learned 2311. Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as platinum, where the resistance varies directly with temperature?Not learned 2312. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic temperature indicator has a calibrated scale of -40 to +40°F, what would be the actual measured temperature if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?Not learned 2313. What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as opposed to an instantaneous flow rate?Not learned 2314. With a constriction type, differential head flow meter, which of the following would be an example of a primary device?Not learned 2315. Which of the following flowmeter primary devices works on the constriction type, differential head principle?Not learned 2316. What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?Not learned 2317. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic instantaneous flow indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 gpm, what would be the actual measured instantaneous flow rate if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?Not learned 2318. Suppose the photodetector of an optical tachometer detects a time interval of 0.05 seconds between the leading edges of the pulses created by the reflective stripe during shaft rotation. What is the rpm of the shaft?Not learned 2319. If an oil-in-water content monitor uses a lamp emitting light in the visible spectra in conjunction with a reference photocell and a sampling photocell, what is the operating principle upon which this oil-in-water content monitor works?Not learned 2320. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what is a common industry standard for pneumatic signal pressure range?Not learned 2321. For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what is a common industry standard for electronic signal current range?Not learned 2322. If an 8-bit digital to analog converter (DAC) produces an analog output voltage with a range of 10 volts (0-9 volts), what is the smallest incremental step in voltage that can be generated at the output?Not learned 2323. If an 8-bit digital to analog converter (DAC) produces an analog output voltage with a range of 10 volts (0-9 volts), what is the smallest incremental step in voltage that can be generated at the output?Not learned 2324. In mounting a transducer for a depth sounding system, what would represent an ideal location?Not learned 2325. What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity transmitter as used for indicating the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?Not learned 2326. In pressure measurement, absolute pressure is defined as the difference in pressure between __________.Not learned 2327. The difference between the pressure at a point being measured and that of a perfect vacuum is known as __________.Not learned 2328. A pressure reading of 00.0 psig is theoretically equal to __________.Not learned 2329. A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 8 inches of water. This corresponds to a pressure of __________.Not learned 2330. A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 6 inches of water. This corresponds to a pressure of __________.Not learned 2331. According to the illustrated water filled U-tube draft gage, what is the converted draft reading in pounds per square inchNot learned 2332. The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the __________.Not learned 2333. The gage most commonly used aboard ship to measure high pressures is the __________.Not learned 2334. A compound gage is typically installed on the __________.Not learned 2335. A compound Bourdon tube gage is capable of measuring pressure and __________.Not learned 2336. A compound gage is used to measure __________.Not learned 2337. A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gage is capable of measuring __________.Not learned 2338. At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure gage most likely be located?Not learned 2339. Which of the gage types listed is shown in the illustrationNot learned 2340. A Bourdon tube pressure gage is protected from the effects of the steam entering the pressure element by a/an __________.Not learned 2341. Pigtails, or siphons, are used to protect Bourdon tube-type gages from the direct exposure to steam by __________.Not learned 2342. A Bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon loop to prevent damage from the direct effects of __________.Not learned 2343. A bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon loop to prevent damage from __________.Not learned 2344. When pressure is applied to a Bourdon tube-type pressure gage, it will begin to unbend. The reason for this action is that the __________Not learned 2345. The Bourdon tube-type pressure gage will begin to straighten out when pressure is applied due to the __________Not learned 2346. The working components of a Bourdon tube pressure gage are shown in the illustration. When pressure is applied, the tube element will __________Not learned 2347. In order to accurately measure very low positive pressures, which of the instruments listed should be used?Not learned 2348. When the pressure applied to a Bourdon tube-type pressure gage is reduced to atmospheric pressure, the tube will begin to 'bend' towards the center of arc. Small variations develop preventing the tube from returning to its exact original shape due to the process known as __________.Not learned 2349. The pressure indicated by the U-tube manometer shown in the illustration is equal to __________Not learned 2350. When the pressure on a compound gage is released, the gage pointer is returned to zero psig by action of the __________.Not learned 2351. When pressure is applied to the Bourdon tube gage shown in the illustration, the __________Not learned 2352. Differential pressures can be measured with the use of a __________.Not learned 2353. As shown in the illustration, the gage labeled "C" contains mercury and both devices "B" and "D" indicate 'zero' units when exposed to atmospheric pressure. If the pressure indicated on "A" is 16.2 psia, the corresponding readings of the gages "B", and "D", and the height "H" for device "C" should be __________Not learned 2354. The pressure applied to the instruments via port "A", as shown in the illustration, is 16 psia. What will be the equivalent pressure readings for "B" and "D"Not learned 2355. If "A" were open to the atmosphere, as shown in the illustration, the pressure gage would read zero and the levels in the "U" tube would be equalized. If "D" is manufactured to indicate inches of water, what will be indicated reading of the diaphragm gage if the atmospheric pressure is 14Not learned 2356. The differential height of the left hand side of the tube from the zero mark to the open end for device "C" is 4.4". If the barometric pressure is 14.7 psia, and the "U" tube contains mercury, what minimum pressure applied to "A" would just force the liquid out of the tubeNot learned 2357. A pressure gage, similar to device "D" shown in the illustration, is installed on the vessel's ventilation system. The gage is indicating 30 inches of water (7.465 kPa), but the accuracy of the gage is in doubt. Using a piece of clear hose, you construct a simple U tube mercury manometer, similar to device "C" illustrated. Once installed, the distance between the levels is 12.7 centimeters. How inaccurate is the existing draft gageNot learned 2358. When pressure is released from a Bourdon tube-type pressure gage, it will begin to recoil. The reason for this action is due to the __________Not learned 2359. The zero set point adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by __________.Not learned 2360. While calibrating a bourdon tube pressure gage, all readings are found to be 10 pounds higher throughout its entire range. An adjustment should be made by __________.Not learned 2361. A proportional band, or range adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by __________.Not learned 2362. When a bourdon tube pressure gage is tested and found to be inaccurate, adjustment must be made to obtain the correct readings. The distance between the pointer spindle and the link connection to the sector gear will be changed when the __________.Not learned 2363. A set point adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by __________. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum adjusting the pointer position relative to the pinion shaft upon which it is mountedNot learned 2364. The following results were obtained when an uncalibrated bourdon tube pressure gage was compared to a test pressure gage. Which adjustment(s) is/are necessary? True Pressure Indicated Pressure 20 35 30 45 40 55 50 65 set point adjustment proportional band (range) adjustmentNot learned 2365. A pressure gage pointer responding sluggishly to changes in pressure should be repaired by __________.Not learned 2366. If you suspect that a gage is sticking and giving an inaccurate reading, you should __________.Not learned 2367. The main condenser is losing 2" Hg vacuum every 5 minutes. In an hour, the absolute pressure will have increased by approximately __________.Not learned 2368. The most common instrument used to measure diesel engine exhaust pressure is the __________.Not learned 2369. Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within what percent?Not learned 2370. Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within what percent?Not learned 2371. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying both positive and negative pressures?Not learned 2372. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and displaying two pressures simultaneously?Not learned 2373. Which of the following direct reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two pressures and displaying the difference between the two?Not learned 2374. Which of the following direct-reading gauges would most likely be used in the application of a pump suction pressure gauge?Not learned 2375. If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?Not learned 2376. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.Not learned 2377. Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring pressures very close to atmospheric pressure such as boiler furnace draft pressure?Not learned 2378. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?Not learned 2379. For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an analog pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 30 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted analog signal current to the indicator is 12 mA, assuming the industry standard of 4 to 20 mA is used for instrument current?Not learned 2380. For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 5000 psig, what would be the actual measured pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 6 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?Not learned 2381. Which of the following pressure sensing mechanisms in a linear-scaled pneumatic indicator is generally used to sense pneumatic pressure as received from a pneumatic pressure transmitter?Not learned 2382. In which of the following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used with a pressure measuring instrument?Not learned 2383. Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring extremely high pressures up to 80,000 psig?Not learned 2384. Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately used for measuring most pressures, typically above 10 psig and is by far the most common type?Not learned 2385. What is used to protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from contact with steam?Not learned 2386. If the temperature in a hot air manifold were found to be 122°F, what will be the equivalent reading on the centigrade scale?Not learned 2387. At what temperature would the reading on the Fahrenheit scale and the Centigrade scale be identical?Not learned 2388. A temperature reading of 72 degrees on the Fahrenheit scale would correspond to what temperature on the centigrade scale?Not learned 2389. What common practice is used to reduce the response time for a bearing thermometer using a protective well?Not learned 2390. To avoid corrosion and/or oxidation of the element, a thermometer bulb is often protected by a 'well' or casing. In addition to protecting the element, the 'well' will also __________.Not learned 2391. A pyrometer is generally used to measure __________.Not learned 2392. A pyrometer is capable of producing a voltage by __________.Not learned 2393. Electric motors intended for use outside the engine room and boiler room are frequently rated to run at a designed ambient temperature of 40°C. What is the equivalent temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?Not learned 2394. A pyrometer is an instrument commonly used to measure __________.Not learned 2395. A pyrometer is an instrument used to measure the temperature of the diesel engine __________.Not learned 2396. Thermocouple pyrometers are used on large, main propulsion diesel engines to indicate the temperature of the __________.Not learned 2397. Pyrometers commonly found on diesel engine exhaust systems consist of __________.Not learned 2398. Which of the general advantages listed does the electrical pyrometer have over the mechanical pyrometer?Not learned 2399. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of thermal volumetric expansion of a liquid as the temperature rises and features a linear scale?Not learned 2400. What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?Not learned 2401. What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a thermocouple pyrometer?Not learned 2402. If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be done to correct this situation?Not learned 2403. What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a thermocouple pyrometer?Not learned 2404. A pyrometer indicating system such as that used for measuring diesel engine exhaust system temperatures uses what technology?Not learned 2405. A bearing temperature monitoring system such as that used for measuring selected propulsion plant bearings uses what technology?Not learned 2406. On tank vessels using an automatic tape well for gaging tanks, the hand clutch is used to __________.Not learned 2407. On tank vessels using an automatic tape wells, free movement of the tape is normally checked by __________.Not learned 2408. A pneumercator is used to indicate fuel oil __________.Not learned 2409. A pneumercator is useful in measuring __________.Not learned 2410. A pneumercator is an instrument used to indicate __________.Not learned 2411. The instrument used to indicate the level of a fluid in a tank is called a __________.Not learned 2412. The illustrated device is normally used to __________Not learned 2413. A pneumercator tank gage utilizes __________.Not learned 2414. The illustrated device operates on the principle that the height of the column is __________Not learned 2415. The illustrated device operates on the principle that the height of the liquid in gage "C" is __________Not learned 2416. A pneumercator measures the liquid level in a tank by sensing __________. head pressure liquid densityNot learned 2417. To ensure an accurate tank level pneumercator reading, you should __________.Not learned 2418. A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate reading if the __________.Not learned 2419. While attempting to read a tank level indicator, the mercury column drops rapidly. This may indicate __________.Not learned 2420. In checking the level of a tank, three pneumercator readings have been taken. If each reading is higher than the last, this indicates that __________.Not learned 2421. When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a pneumercator, the initial reading obtained can be quickly verified by __________.Not learned 2422. The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the __________.Not learned 2423. Remote water level indicators, operate on the principle of __________.Not learned 2424. Steam drum water level indicators must be calibrated to compensate for density differences between the indicated drum water level, and the actual drum water level. If no compensation is made, the indicator will show a __________.Not learned 2425. The distilled water tank has been determined to be 75% full. The tank connection to the pneumercator has been disconnected for a maintenance check. If the pneumercator operates correctly, the gage should indicate __________.Not learned 2426. Why is it occasionally necessary to verify the accuracy of the distilled water make-up feed tank remote level indicator?Not learned 2427. According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene?Not learned 2428. Ullages are measured from __________.Not learned 2429. On tankers ullages are measured from what point?Not learned 2430. Ullage measurements are taken from the top of the liquid to which of the following points?Not learned 2431. What is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank top in a cargo tank called?Not learned 2432. Which refers to the depth of a petroleum product in a tank?Not learned 2433. Which refers to the depth of a petroleum product in a tank?Not learned 2434. What is litmus paste is used to determine?Not learned 2435. All of the following are acceptable means to measure a liquid level in a cyrogenic cargo tank except __________.Not learned 2436. What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?Not learned 2437. What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?Not learned 2438. What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank soundings?Not learned 2439. When determining the level of a potable water hydro pneumatic header tank fitted with a tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?Not learned 2440. What statement is true concerning the operating principle of a liquid level sensing and transmitting system of the capacitance type?Not learned 2441. For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an electronic level indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1800 mm, what would be the actual measured liquid level of the tank if the transmitted signal current is 12 mA, assuming the industry standard of 4 to 20 mA is used for instrument current?Not learned 2442. What type of liquid level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a supply of compressed air?Not learned 2443. Which of the following level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for discrete-level detection as opposed to continuous-level detection?Not learned 2444. A pure transducer utilizes __________.Not learned 2445. What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for measuring oil- fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?Not learned 2446. Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?Not learned 2447. Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the liquid level in a pressure vessel, such as a water-tube boiler steam drum?Not learned 2448. Suppose a temperature transmitter has an input range from 0 to 100 degrees Celsius and an output range of 4 to 20 milliamps. Assuming that the transmitter has a linear response pattern, what is the output current in milliamps if the input temperature is 40 degrees Celsius?Not learned 2449. While calibrating an electronic 4-20 mA or 3-15 PSI pneumatic controller, what is the value of 'Live Zero'?Not learned 2450. While calibrating a 4-20 mA electronic, or a 3-15 psi pneumatic controller, with a process output of 50-250 psi, what is the controller span/range you are dealing with?Not learned 2451. In order to increase the set point of the control valve illustrated to regulate the controlled temperature at the bulb (J), the part labeled __________.Not learned 2452. Automatic thermostatic control valves are used in steam-heated heavy fuel oil service systems for what purpose?Not learned 2453. The purpose of the vertical 'grooves' machined on the main valve "G", in the spring loaded temperature regulating valve shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 2454. With regards to process control, the operation of the device shown in the illustration can be characterized by the term __________Not learned 2455. The illustrated control valve would be more suitable for __________Not learned 2456. With regards to the steam regulating valve shown in the illustration, the maximum amount of steam pressure at the valve outlet is primarily determined by the __________Not learned 2457. In order for the reducing valve, shown in the illustration, to properly function, a control port is utilized between __________Not learned 2458. With regards to the diaphragm controlled, internally piloted, steam pressure reducing valve illustrated, as the __________Not learned 2459. If you turn the adjusting screw clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal pilot, pressure reducing valve, you will __________.Not learned 2460. If you turn the adjusting screw clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal pilot, pressure reducing valve, you will __________.Not learned 2461. Regarding the reducing valve shown in the illustration, the spring force generated as a result of compression from turning the hand wheel, is balanced by the __________Not learned 2462. In the spring-loaded, steam pressure, reducing valve shown in the illustration, if the downstream pressure falls below a preset value __________Not learned 2463. In the spring-loaded, steam pressure, reducing valve shown in the illustration, the high pressure steam ______Not learned 2464. In the illustrated steam pressure reducing valve, the purpose of the item labeled "C" is to __________Not learned 2465. In the illustration shown, the operating piston "H" in the valve has a larger surface area than the main valve disc to allow __________Not learned 2466. The valve shown in the illustration uses port "J" to __________Not learned 2467. The position of the controlling diaphragm "E", shown in the illustration of the spring-loaded reducing valve, is determined by the __________Not learned 2468. In the spring-loaded pressure reducing valve illustrated, the auxiliary valve "D" is closed by __________Not learned 2469. In the spring-loaded pressure reducing valve illustrated, what would cause the auxiliary valve "D" to closeNot learned 2470. The outlet steam pressure operating range of the regulator shown in the illustration is manually adjusted by the part labeled '________Not learned 2471. If the controlled system temperature downstream of the valve shown in the illustration, decreases below the set point, which of the listed actions will occurNot learned 2472. In order to adjust the temperature set point of the temperature regulating valve illustrated, you should adjust the device indicated by the letter __________Not learned 2473. The dual pressure-temperature regulator, shown in the illustration, is adjusted by turning the stem "L" clockwise (as viewed from the top) and the adjusting ring "B" counterclockwise (as viewed from the top). This will result in __________Not learned 2474. In order to decrease the set point of the control valve as illustrated, used to regulate the output temperature of a refrigeration condenser, the part labeled __________Not learned 2475. In order to decrease the set point of the control valve as illustrated, used to regulate the output temperature of a refrigeration condenser, the part labeled __________Not learned 2476. In order to decrease the set point of the control valve as illustrated, used to regulate the output temperature of a refrigeration condenser, the part labeled __________Not learned 2477. In order to decrease the set point of the control valve as illustrated, used to regulate the output temperature of a refrigeration condenser, the part labeled __________Not learned 2478. When replacing a steam pressure reducing valve, what information is required for the selection?Not learned 2479. Automatic pressure control valves for steam service require periodic maintenance inspections because they __________.Not learned 2480. Failure of the steam pressure reducing valve to deliver proper steam pressure could be caused by __________Not learned 2481. According to the illustration shown, which of the following statements is/are trueNot learned 2482. According to the illustration shown, which of the following statements is/are trueNot learned 2483. If the high pressure port became plugged in the spring-loaded, internal pilot, self-operated, steam pressure reducing valve illustrated, which of the following problems would probably occurNot learned 2484. Which of the problems listed will occur if diaphragm "E", in the illustration shown, develops a significantly large holeNot learned 2485. The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically controlled steam pressure reducing valve is __________.Not learned 2486. How would the pressure setting of the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure-reducer be reduced to a lower setpointNot learned 2487. Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure-reducing valve is part of a 600-to-150 psig reducing station. If there was an increase in demand for steam downstream, what statement correctly represents how the valve would initially respondNot learned 2488. In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure-reducing valve, what statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the control diaphragmNot learned 2489. In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve, what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valvesNot learned 2490. Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve is part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater for a steam boiler. If there was an increase in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement correctly represents how the valve would initially respondNot learned 2491. Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station?Not learned 2492. Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station?Not learned 2493. The valve shown in the illustration is typically used for temperature control of a liquid being heated. Which of the following changes to this unit would be useful in converting the valve for use in controlling the temperature of a cooling systemNot learned 2494. With regards to the device shown in the illustration, the parts labeled "D" and "I" function together to __________Not learned 2495. An automatic temperature controller, with a net output pressure of 15 psi and a full scale range of 15°F, would have a sensitivity ratio of __________.Not learned 2496. Why must an operator pay particular attention to an auto/manual valve controller when it is placed in manual mode?Not learned 2497. As shown in the illustration, the pneumatic force balance unit could be used for a __________Not learned 2498. If the signal input to 'P4' is 48psi, and the supply pressure is 50 psi, the output pressure at 'P1', as shown in the illustration, will be equal to __________Not learned 2499. If the input signal at 'P4' is 51 psi, and the supply pressure is 50 psi, then the output pressure at 'P1', shown in the illustration will be __________Not learned 2500. With regards to pilot controlled pneumatic regulating valves, the spring force of the regulating valve should be adjusted to __________Not learned 2501. The two most common gases used in pneumatic systems are __________.Not learned 2502. Referring to the device shown in the illustration, the port labeled "F" would be connected to __________Not learned 2503. Referring to the device shown in the illustration, if a reversed output were desired from a comparable unit as the system pressure increased, the necessary physical changes to the unit would be __________Not learned 2504. The device shown in the illustration is typically designed to operate in conjunction with a pneumatically controlled valve in order to maintain __________Not learned 2505. Referring to the device shown in the illustration, the coiled sensing lines "A" and "B", are used simultaneously when the pilot is used __________Not learned 2506. The response line installed in a pneumatic proportional action controller functions to __________.Not learned 2507. In order to change the set point of the system using the illustrated device, you must __________Not learned 2508. With regards to a direct acting air pilot relay shown in the illustration, an increase in pressure at "B" will cause the __________Not learned 2509. Which of the following adjustments will cause the illustrated valve, to close at a lower loading pressureNot learned 2510. Double seated, pneumatically controlled, regulating valves exhibit good balancing characteristics essential for low-sensitivity applications because __________.Not learned 2511. The power necessary to close the diaphragm control valve, as used in a pneumatic control system, is supplied by the __________Not learned 2512. In a spring opposed, diaphragm-type, pneumatic power unit shown in the illustration, the force exerted on the spring is equal to the air pressure multiplied by the __________Not learned 2513. Any restriction in the instrument air piping of a pneumatic control system will __________.Not learned 2514. Restrictions occurring in the small orifices of pneumatic control system components can be caused by __________.Not learned 2515. If a leak occurs between the areas labeled "B" and "J" of the control valve shown in the illustration, which of the following problems is most likely to occurNot learned 2516. Over tightening of the valve stem packing to a pneumatically controlled final control element, shown in the illustration, will cause __________Not learned 2517. With regards to fluid flow control, an advantage of pneumatic control systems over electrical control systems is __________.Not learned 2518. In a pneumatic automation system, a unit producing a signal to govern the position of the controller of the measured variable, relative to the value of the measured variable, is said to have __________.Not learned 2519. In an automation system, increasing or decreasing the loading pressure by a set amount is known as __________.Not learned 2520. Biasing, in a pneumatic automated combustion control system, refers to a set amount of increase or decrease in the __________.Not learned 2521. The difference between the setpoint and the measured parameter in an automatic flow controller is called:Not learned 2522. The range of values around a setpoint of a measured variable where "no action" occurs in an automatic flow controller is called:Not learned 2523. In an automatic flow controller, the factor by which the magnitude of the flow error signal has been increased to drive the final valve controller is referred to as _________.Not learned 2524. In a proportional controller, the term "offset" refers to the difference between the________________.Not learned 2525. The return signal from a valve as sensed by an automatic flow controller that is proportional to the actual valve position is referred to as:Not learned 2526. The difference between the set point in an automatic controller and the steady-state value of the measured parameter is called ___________.Not learned 2527. A two-position single-point action controller has been adjusted to minimize cycling and would only be suitable for __________.Not learned 2528. In an automated control system, which of the following statements would apply to any type of closed loop system?Not learned 2529. A controller with floating action has a controlled variable where the range of values produces no motion of the final control element. This range of values is called the __________.Not learned 2530. The range of values through which the input can be varied without initiating an output response is known as __________.Not learned 2531. When a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a change in this adjustment results in a change of the __________.Not learned 2532. Which of the following control actions, when combined with proportional-position action, will eliminate manual repositioning of the set point for each load change to produce an automatic reset action?Not learned 2533. A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the length of time the controlled variable has been away from the set point, is known as __________.Not learned 2534. Increasing the 'reset rate' of a proportional-plus-reset controller __________.Not learned 2535. Which of the following statements expresses the function of proportional-plus-reset action?Not learned 2536. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller, the proportional action __________. opposes the reset action during decreasing error transients aids the reset action during increasing error transientsNot learned 2537. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller, the proportional action __________. aids the reset action during increasing error transients and the reset action are completely independent of one anotherNot learned 2538. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller, the proportional action __________. and the reset action are completely independent of one another opposes reset action during decreasing error transientsNot learned 2539. The controller set point of an automatic control system is 150°F (65.5°C). The valve closes when the output temperature reaches 160°F (71.1°C), and reopens when the temperature falls below 140°F (60°C).The type of positioning action in this controller is known as __________.Not learned 2540. The steady state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable, corresponding with the set point, is known as __________.Not learned 2541. Which of the following definitions can be used to define the term 'offset' as a characteristic of controller action?Not learned 2542. Offset' is an inherent characteristic of which of the following types of control modes?Not learned 2543. One disadvantage of proportional-position action is that __________.Not learned 2544. The characteristic of 'offset' is inherent with which mode of control? proportional control reset controlNot learned 2545. The quantity or condition which is measured and controlled is known as the __________.Not learned 2546. A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the speed at which the controlled variable is changing is known as __________.Not learned 2547. Which of the following control modes is generally not used by itself?Not learned 2548. The control mode that is generally not used by itself is __________.Not learned 2549. The amount of change of a controlled variable that is necessary to cause a specific change in the position of the final control element depends upon the __________.Not learned 2550. A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that __________.Not learned 2551. Which of the following proportional band values most closely approaches 'ON-OFF' control?Not learned 2552. The mandatory operating characteristic of a pure amplifier is the __________. form of the input and output energy must be the same ratio of the output change to input change must be a value greater than 1 (one)Not learned 2553. When 'reset' action is added to proportional action, the proportional action __________.Not learned 2554. When 'reset' action is added to proportional action __________.Not learned 2555. Reset control is also referred to as __________.Not learned 2556. Reset control is also referred to as __________.Not learned 2557. The effect of 'reset', when added to a proportional controller is to __________.Not learned 2558. The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain, is known as __________.Not learned 2559. When a controller with proportional position action is used to control a process, a load change will cause the controlled variable to stabilize at some value other than the set point value. The new point at which the controlled variable stabilizes is called __________.Not learned 2560. The ratio of output response to a specified change in the input is known as __________.Not learned 2561. Which of the following definitions best describes sensitivity as a characteristic of controller action?Not learned 2562. The vessel's steering gear is a classic example of a positioner type automation system. The variable input is provided through the steering wheel, and the rudder position is fed back to the operating mechanism. The difference between the input signal and the follow-up signal, until matched and cancelled, is the __________.Not learned 2563. When the vessel's steering wheel on the navigation bridge is turned, the difference existing between the position of the wheel and that of the rudder is known as __________.Not learned 2564. In an automation system, the effect of a control action sensed by a controller is known as __________.Not learned 2565. A proportional band, or range adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by __________.Not learned 2566. Which of the listed devices is used to sense a physical input quantity (such as pressure) and convert it to a corresponding electrical voltage signal?Not learned 2567. In process control terminology, continuously variable values which change without distinct increments, such as temperature, pressure, or level are correctly referred to as what type of values?Not learned 2568. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result?Not learned 2569. In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?Not learned 2570. In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function of the error detector within the controller?Not learned 2571. The device shown in the illustration is an example of which of the listed modes of controlNot learned 2572. The control mode where the position of the final control element has a linear relationship with the position or value of the controlled variable, is known as __________.Not learned 2573. Reset control is considered to be the same as __________. proportional speed floating control integral controlNot learned 2574. The reset process control mode is also considered to be the same as __________. proportional speed floating control derivative controlNot learned 2575. The process control mode shown in the illustration is an example of which of the listed modes of controlNot learned 2576. A mode of control, whereby the speed of motion of the final control element is linearly proportional to the deviation of the controlled variable from set point, is called __________.Not learned 2577. Which of the listed modes of controls will identify the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 2578. The meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship service refrigeration system, is an example of __________.Not learned 2579. The mode of control employed by a typical bilge alarm circuit is a __________.Not learned 2580. The control mode in which the final control element is moved from one of two fixed positions to the other is known as __________.Not learned 2581. The cylinder unloading mechanism used on low pressure air compressors is an example of which mode of control?Not learned 2582. A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control element is linearly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled variable, is called __________.Not learned 2583. What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses two-point control?Not learned 2584. Which of the following filled thermal systems used as a temperature transmitting/receiving system usually is associated with a display with a non-uniform scale?Not learned 2585. As a result of a load or setpoint change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of the error, what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control system?Not learned 2586. What process control system control mode is most likely to have steady-state error (also known as offset or residual error)?Not learned 2587. For a process control system using the proportional control mode, what statement is true?Not learned 2588. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of control?Not learned 2589. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component?Not learned 2590. Which of the listed central operating system types converts continuous analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control?Not learned 2591. As shown in the illustrated graph showing the effect of overshoot on steering system control stability, what statement is trueNot learned 2592. What type of auto-pilot control system is shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 2593. What type of auto-pilot control system is shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 2594. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which illustrates the effect of a applying a particular type of control, what type of control is appliedNot learned 2595. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which illustrates the effect of a applying a particular type of control, what type of control is appliedNot learned 2596. As shown in figure "B" of the illustration, which illustrates the effect of a applying a particular type of control, what type of control is appliedNot learned 2597. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated function block for a PLC PID controller, to what input is the actual analog signal of the measured value deliveredNot learned 2598. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated function block for a PLC PID controller, to what input is the value of the proportional control constant deliveredNot learned 2599. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated function block for a PLC PID controller, to what input is the value of the proportional control constant deliveredNot learned 2600. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated function block for a PLC PID controller, to what input is the value of the proportional control constant deliveredNot learned 2601. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated analog PID controller, what is the primary purpose of "U4"Not learned 2602. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated analog PID controller, what is the primary purpose of "U4"Not learned 2603. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated analog PID controller, what is the primary purpose of "U4"Not learned 2604. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated analog PID controller, what is the primary purpose of "U4"Not learned 2605. When tuning a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should know/understand the influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of a component is correct?Not learned 2606. As the engineer, it is necessary to tune a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) control loop. If the PID incorporates all three functions, which function(s) is/are dominant in the controller's performance?Not learned 2607. A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above and below the setpoint. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would you expect upon process changes vs. setpoint?Not learned 2608. What type of electrical diagram for the steering control systems is shown in the illustrationNot learned 2609. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a programmable logic controller system, in what functional component is the program developed and used to transfer the program to the processor module of the PLCNot learned 2610. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a programmable logic controller system, what functional component is used to receive and transmit data to and from other PLCs on the networkNot learned 2611. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a programmable logic controller system, what functional component is used to interpret inputs, carry out program instructions, and communicate decisions as action signals to outputsNot learned 2612. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a programmable logic controller system, what functional component is used to convert the mains AC supply voltage to a low voltage DCNot learned 2613. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a programmable logic controller system, what functional component is used to convey signals from switches, counters, and various sensors to the processorNot learned 2614. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a programmable logic controller system, what functional component is used to convey signals from the processor to motor starter coils, valve solenoids, and other such devicesNot learned 2615. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated PLC output unit, what switching technology is used to control the output load either being energized or de-energized as appropriateNot learned 2616. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated PLC output unit, what switching technology is used to control the output load either being energized or de-energized as appropriateNot learned 2617. As shown in figure "C" of the illustrated PLC output unit, what switching technology is used to control the output load either being energized or de-energized as appropriateNot learned 2618. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated PLC sub-circuit, what type of circuit is depictedNot learned 2619. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated PLC sub-circuit, what type of circuit is depictedNot learned 2620. Assuming the wiring diagram of figure "A" and the corresponding PLC ladder diagram of figure "B" represents a simple PLC lamp controller, what statement is trueNot learned 2621. Assuming the wiring diagram of figure "A" and the corresponding PLC ladder diagram of figure "B" represents a simple PLC lamp controller, what statement is trueNot learned 2622. Concerning figure "A" of the illustration, if the illustrated PLC ladder diagram is for a simple motor controller, what does "Input A" representNot learned 2623. Concerning figure "A" of the illustration, if the illustrated PLC ladder diagram is for a simple motor controller, what does "Input A" representNot learned 2624. Concerning figure "A" of the illustration, if the illustrated PLC ladder diagram is for a simple motor controller, what do the "Output" load and contacts representNot learned 2625. Concerning figure "A" of the illustration, if the illustrated PLC ladder diagram is for a simple motor controller, what do the "Output" load and contacts representNot learned 2626. Concerning figure "B" of the illustration, if the illustrated PLC ladder diagram is for a simple motor controller, what does "Input 2" representNot learned 2627. Concerning figure "A" of the illustration, if the illustrated PLC ladder diagram is for a simple motor controller, what does "Input A" representNot learned 2628. Concerning figure "A" of the illustration, if the illustrated PLC ladder diagram is for a simple motor controller, what do the "Output" load and contacts representNot learned 2629. Concerning figure "B" of the illustration, if the illustrated PLC ladder diagram is for a simple motor controller, what do the "Internal relay 1" load and contacts representNot learned 2630. As shown in the illustrated ladder diagram for a programmable logic controller used to control a motor, what statement is trueNot learned 2631. As shown in the illustrated PLC ladder diagram and its associated input/output diagram, what type of logic is usedNot learned 2632. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what input conditions are required to produce an outputNot learned 2633. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what input conditions are required to produce an outputNot learned 2634. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated ladder diagram for a programmable logic controller, what statement is trueNot learned 2635. As shown in "A" of the illustration, what type of PLC computer connectivity wiring topography is representedNot learned 2636. As shown in "B" of the illustration, what type of computer connectivity wiring or network topography is representedNot learned 2637. As shown in figure "C" of the illustration with multiple PLC control units, what is the PLC connectivity wiring or network configurationNot learned 2638. As shown in the figures "A" and "C" of the illustration, two PLC ladder diagrams are presented that are used for timer controlled on/off cycling using on-delay timers. The timing diagram illustrated in figure "B" is associated with which ladder diagramNot learned 2639. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustrated PLC ladder and input/output timing diagrams, the application of the on-delay timer is used to produce what effectNot learned 2640. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustrated PLC ladder and input/output timing diagrams, the application of the on-delay timer is used to produce what effectNot learned 2641. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustrated PLC ladder and input/output timing diagrams, what statement is trueNot learned 2642. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration which represent PLC ladder and input/output diagrams of an SR bistable latch function block, what statement is trueNot learned 2643. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration which represent PLC ladder and input/output diagrams of an SR bistable latch function block, what statement is trueNot learned 2644. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration which represent PLC ladder and input/output diagrams of an SR bistable latch function block, what statement is trueNot learned 2645. As shown in figures "A" and "B" of the illustration which represent PLC ladder and input/output diagrams of an SR bistable latch function block, what statement is trueNot learned 2646. If the illustrated SR bistable latch function block PLC ladder diagram represents a subroutine used for a fire alarm system, which statement is trueNot learned 2647. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, concerning the signal conditioning circuit for programmable logic controller as illustrated, which statement is trueNot learned 2648. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, concerning the signal conditioning circuit for programmable logic controller as illustrated, which statement is trueNot learned 2649. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C" and "D" of the illustration pertaining to various diagrams specific to a PLC controlled temperature control system using a bimetallic thermostat, which statement is trueNot learned 2650. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C" and "D" of the illustration pertaining to various diagrams specific to a PLC controlled temperature control system using a bimetallic thermostat, which statement is trueNot learned 2651. As shown in figures "A", "B", and "C" of the illustrated PLC controlled temperature control system featuring dead band, what statement is trueNot learned 2652. As shown in figures "A", "B", and "C" of the illustrated PLC controlled temperature control system featuring dead band, what statement is trueNot learned 2653. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", and "D" of the illustrated PLC controlled heating system, in addition to the clock timer, run and stop contacts all being closed, what other input requirements must be met for the boiler to be firingNot learned 2654. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", and "D" of the illustrated PLC controlled heating system, what input requirements must be met for the circulating pump #2 to be runningNot learned 2655. As shown in figures "A", "B", "C", and "D" of the illustrated PLC controlled heating system, what input requirements must be met for the circulating pump #2 to be runningNot learned 2656. Assuming the ladder diagram of figure "1" and the corresponding input/output diagram of figure "2" represents a simple PLC motor controller, what statement is trueNot learned 2657. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, assuming that the external manual "trimmer" is not fitted, what is the operational status of the comparator in terms of inputs and outputsNot learned 2658. Where is the power necessary to energize the howler "relay" coil at the engine room station as shown in the illustrationNot learned 2659. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 2660. The conversion of the throttle command voltage to the signal necessary to achieve the desired shaft RPM is accomplished by what circuit?Not learned 2661. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL OUTPUT" representNot learned 2662. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL OUTPUT" representNot learned 2663. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT" representNot learned 2664. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT" representNot learned 2665. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of the signal processing flow path, what does the block "TRANSDUCER" representNot learned 2666. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of the signal processing flow path, what does the block "FILTER" representNot learned 2667. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the workstations labeled "LOS" associated with the port power management systemNot learned 2668. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the data communication pathways labeled "Dual CAN"Not learned 2669. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the units labeled "WCU" in the accommodationsNot learned 2670. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating system workstationsNot learned 2671. As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what statement is true concerning the area networksNot learned 2672. Which of the following illustrations represents the proper method of circuit grounding for a low level analog signal cableNot learned 2673. As shown in figure "A" of the block diagram illustrated and where the central operating system is configured for advisory control, what does the block "MAN" representNot learned 2674. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission of analog signals for a measured variableNot learned 2675. As shown in figure "B" in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG (A-D MUX)"Not learned 2676. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for supervisory control, which statement is true concerning the block "COMPUTER" with respect to closed-loop control processesNot learned 2677. What is the name of the device which prints out a permanent record of the plant operating parameters and conditions?Not learned 2678. When a console indicating lamp burns out, attempts to renew it should not be made while maneuvering. Why is this so?Not learned 2679. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is responsible for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is unattended. How often should these machinery space rounds be performed by the duty engineer?Not learned 2680. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is responsible for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is unattended. Between machinery space rounds, what is the responsibility of the duty engineer?Not learned 2681. On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, under what conditions must the propulsion console be continuously manned?Not learned 2682. In the illustrated solid-state "soft" starter for a three phase induction motor as shown in figure "A", what is the name of the devices that are controlled by the gate control circuitsNot learned 2683. Every automated machinery plant must have an 'engineer's assistance' alarm. Power for this alarm should be taken from the __________.Not learned 2684. Which of the listed systems related to an engineer's signal alarm panel is required to be indicated by a continuously illuminated light while in operation?Not learned 2685. Which of the following statements is true concerning the instrumentation or alarms provided at the main control station for an automated main propulsion plant?Not learned 2686. Main engine room control console alarms are usually designed to be of the self monitoring type, meaning that an open circuit to a particular alarm circuit will __________.Not learned 2687. Which of the following statements describes the function of an alarm annunciator on an engine room alarm panel?Not learned 2688. Information from a data-logger can be helpful in determining the long term probability of machinery failure if you __________.Not learned 2689. Under which of the listed conditions can the engine room retake the throttle control from the bridge of an automated vessel?Not learned 2690. If both the 'high level' and 'low level' alarms come on for the same address of a centralized control console, what is the most likely failure?Not learned 2691. On an automatically fired boiler, the loss of forced draft fan will result in which of the listed actions to be carried out?Not learned 2692. While trying to light off a burner on a semi-automated boiler, you note that the fuel oil solenoid valve at the burner will not stay open. Which of the following conditions could cause this problem?Not learned 2693. All ships with periodically unattended machinery plants shall, in addition to the general alarm required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), be provided with a/an __________.Not learned 2694. Engineering Control Centers for minimally attended machinery plants shall, in addition to the general alarm required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), be provided with a/an __________.Not learned 2695. Engineering Control Centers for minimally attended machinery plants shall, in addition to the general alarm required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), be provided with a/an __________.Not learned 2696. Engineering Control Centers for minimally attended machinery plants shall, in addition to the general alarm required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), be provided with a/an __________.Not learned 2697. On an fully automated vessel steaming at sea speed, which of the following engine room responses will automatically be actuated when the bridge throttle control is changed from full ahead to slow ahead?Not learned 2698. Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow engineers to describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the illustrationNot learned 2699. As shown in the illustration, what statement is true concerning each of the system gatewaysNot learned 2700. As shown in the illustration, what statement is true concerning each of the system hubsNot learned 2701. As shown in the figures "A" and "B" of the illustrated RS-232 Synchronous Serial DB-25 connector, what pin is used as the output data pin during serial communicationsNot learned 2702. As shown in the figures "A" and "B" of the illustrated RS-232 Synchronous Serial DB-25 connector, what pin is used as the input data pin during serial communicationsNot learned 2703. As shown in the figures "A" and "B" of the illustrated RS-232 Synchronous Serial DB-25 connector, what pin is used as the common signal return path pin during serial communicationsNot learned 2704. What statement is true concerning read only memory (ROM)?Not learned 2705. What statement is true concerning random access memory (RAM)?Not learned 2706. Which of the following devices represents primary storage, where the processor is able to directly read instructions and data and directly return results of its computation in fetch/execute cycles?Not learned 2707. Which of the following data communication cable types offers the greatest immunity to electromagnetic "noise"?Not learned 2708. What type of local area network physical topology features point-to-point interconnection between all communicating devices and is the least vulnerable to a break in communication?Not learned 2709. Modern ships use multiple computers arranged in a client/server network to perform various shipboard functions. What type of computer network would most likely be used aboard ship?Not learned 2710. What Ethernet cabling technology supports the greatest data transfer speeds?Not learned 2711. If a computer display is flickering, how may this be remedied?Not learned 2712. What statement is true concerning read only memory (ROM)?Not learned 2713. What statement is true concerning random access memory (RAM)?Not learned 2714. Which of the following devices represents primary storage, where the processor is able to directly read instructions and data and directly return results of its computation in fetch/execute cycles?Not learned 2715. Which of the following data communication cable types offers the greatest immunity to electromagnetic "noise"?Not learned 2716. What type of local area network physical topology features point-to-point interconnection between all communicating devices and is the least vulnerable to a break in communication?Not learned 2717. Modern ships use multiple computers arranged in a client/server network to perform various shipboard functions. What type of computer network would most likely be used aboard ship?Not learned 2718. What Ethernet cabling technology supports the greatest data transfer speeds?Not learned 2719. If a computer display is flickering, how may this be remedied?Not learned