Q130 - Navigation and Deck General/Safety, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. If you find a victim that is unconscious. What vital signs is an immediate threat to life?Not learned 2. Which of the following is the pipe used to connect two separate piping systems on a tank vessel?Not learned 3. Which of the following is equivalent to a "barrel", which is a unit of liquid measure?Not learned 4. What is the standard net barrel for petroleum products?Not learned 5. On tankers using manually operated tank valves, what does the deck hand wheel indicator register?Not learned 6. On tankers with manually operated tank valves, which of the following is the type of valve most commonly used?Not learned 7. Which of the following procedures would ensure proper seating of the valve when closing?Not learned 8. On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge?Not learned 9. What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump?Not learned 10. What type of valve is usually on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel?Not learned 11. The cargo pump relief valve is usually piped to which of the following components?Not learned 12. Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid?Not learned 13. What is NOT an advantage of centrifugal pumps over reciprocating pumps?Not learned 14. What is a characteristic of all centrifugal cargo pumps?Not learned 15. Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tankers?Not learned 16. Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo pumps is correct?Not learned 17. The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the U.S. regulations as ballast water introduced into which of the following?Not learned 18. In controlling pollution, which action should be taken after all dirty ballast has been transferred to the slop tank and prior to discharge through the oily water separator?Not learned 19. The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent explosions by which of the following?Not learned 20. What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?Not learned 21. Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.Not learned 22. Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.Not learned 23. In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.Not learned 24. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.Not learned 25. What is a cofferdam?Not learned 26. Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?Not learned 27. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) define several acceptable means of closure for ballast and fuel oil tank vents. One of the acceptable means is by the use of a/an __________.Not learned 28. Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by __________.Not learned 29. What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves?Not learned 30. What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective use of a crude oil washing system?Not learned 31. You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be taken with the source tank for the washing machines?Not learned 32. You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on your tankship. What is required to prevent electrostatic buildup in the tanks?Not learned 33. The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel will be found in the __________.Not learned 34. Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, what position must the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at?Not learned 35. You have completed a crude oil wash. What action should be taken with the oil in the lines running to the washing machines?Not learned 36. You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed machines. What should you do before using portable machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the fixed machine by structural members?Not learned 37. Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank?Not learned 38. When tank cleaning with a portable machine, how is the weight of the machine is suspended?Not learned 39. To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility, __________.Not learned 40. The term "load on top" is the name of a method used on many crude oil carriers for the purpose of __________.Not learned 41. Which of the following must be included in the "oil transfer procedures" required by U.S Pollution Prevention Regulations?Not learned 42. When loading a petroleum cargo which is below average ambient temperatures, You must do which of the following?Not learned 43. Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a __________.Not learned 44. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), when loading, or discharging oil in bulk at a dock, which of the following signals must be displayed?Not learned 45. Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the day while bunkering?Not learned 46. To prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to expansion, you should top off __________.Not learned 47. According to U.S. regulations, when a tank vessel is discharging cargo, each sea suction valve connected to the vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be which of the following?Not learned 48. According to U.S. regulations what is the maximum allowable working pressure (MAWP) for each hose assembly used for transferring oil?Not learned 49. According to U.S. regulations, how much hose should you use in transferring oil in bulk?Not learned 50. U.S. regulations require that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following criteria are met?Not learned 51. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) requires an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operations. The emergency means must be operable from the __________.Not learned 52. When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels is transferring oil to a facility, U.S. regulations require an emergency means to stopping the flow of oil. Where must these emergency means be operable from?Not learned 53. U.S. regulations require an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil or LNG during transfer operations. The emergency means may be which of the following?Not learned 54. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST?Not learned 55. For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in which the vessel's designated person in charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. Which of the following choices will accomplish this task as required by 33 CFR?Not learned 56. A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that the vessel __________.Not learned 57. U.S. regulations require which of the following upon completion of oil transfer operations?Not learned 58. According to U.S. regulations, no person may connect or disconnect an oil transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil transfer operation on a tank vessel unless which of the following is met?Not learned 59. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), when may a person serve as the person-in-charge of both a vessel and a facility during oil transfer operations?Not learned 60. U.S. regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following conditions is met?Not learned 61. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the __________.Not learned 62. Prior to transfer of fuel, the Declaration of Inspection required by Coast Guard Regulation (33 CFR) __________.Not learned 63. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?Not learned 64. According to the U.S. regulations, what must be agreed upon by the person-in-charge of transfer operations, both ashore and on the vessel?Not learned 65. What information is NOT required to be included in the oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil?Not learned 66. Where are the transfer procedures for oil products required to be posted or available during transfer operations?Not learned 67. Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within what percent?Not learned 68. During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?Not learned 69. Who has the authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations?Not learned 70. Where should an application for a waiver of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations be submitted?Not learned 71. How far in advance must applications for waivers of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations be submitted?Not learned 72. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), no person may serve as the person in charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.Not learned 73. What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo?Not learned 74. Who must supervise functions aboard a tanker or tank barge such as connecting, disconnecting, and topping off?Not learned 75. Which of the following does not require cargo transfer operations on a tank vessel to be stopped?Not learned 76. When planning the loading or discharging of a VLCC (100,000 DWT+) what is the most important consideration?Not learned 77. Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference?Not learned 78. When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open?Not learned 79. Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a cold day due to which of the following?Not learned 80. Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. Which of the following actions would reduce the excessive trim?Not learned 81. Your tank vessel is fully loaded, and you find that she is down slightly by the head. To adjust the trim, you may __________.Not learned 82. Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of dissimilar products through the same piping system aboard a tanker?Not learned 83. What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off?Not learned 84. A vessel loads edible oil in a deep tank through a manhole at the mid-length of the tank. In order to fill the tank to maximum capacity, what trim should the vessel have?Not learned 85. When stripping a tank, what is caused by excessive air in the suction line?Not learned 86. While discharging a cargo, the stripping of the tanks falls behind schedule. This would indicate the __________.Not learned 87. What should be the first consideration when discharging an oil cargo?Not learned 88. Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient?Not learned 89. You are on a tankship discharging oil. what happens to the remaining oil when all of the oil that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped out of a tank?Not learned 90. When measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, check it __________.Not learned 91. What type of information is found in 33 CFR part 156?Not learned 92. Who is responsible for the final inspection, ensuring a tank barge is provided with the required equipment and has fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo?Not learned 93. The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?Not learned 94. Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer?Not learned 95. Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?Not learned 96. Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo?Not learned 97. How should pinching of the cargo hose between the vessel and the dock be prevented?Not learned 98. According to U.S. regulations, which of the following conditions would disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil?Not learned 99. When hooking up a cargo hose to your vessel's manifold, you should use a(n) _________.Not learned 100. Which statement is TRUE concerning insulating flanges?Not learned 101. Insulating flanges minimize the dangers arising from which of the following?Not learned 102. What is the maximum allowable oxygen content within the ships cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system?Not learned 103. Which of the following describes the fresh air intake of the inert gas system?Not learned 104. With reference to liquefied gas operations, what is the term "rollover" used to describe?Not learned 105. The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by which organization?Not learned 106. AMVER is a system which provides __________.Not learned 107. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 108. While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams open, what is the first action you should take?Not learned 109. A centrifugal ballast pump has a capacity of 200 gpm. If suction is taken on a ballast tank containing 200 long tons of seawater, how much water will be remain in the tank after discharging for one hour?Not learned 110. Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.Not learned 111. You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200 you find that you have loaded 218,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________.Not learned 112. You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200, you find that you have loaded 219,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________.Not learned 113. You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 April, you find that you have loaded 202,000 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. When will you complete loading if you continue at the same rate?Not learned 114. A tank holds 400 tons of sea water when filled. How many tons of liquid of specific gravity 0.9300 will it hold when filled to 90% capacity?Not learned 115. The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?Not learned 116. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?Not learned 117. According to the regulations, what fire safety control feature is required in quick-closing shut off valves?Not learned 118. When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?Not learned 119. While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.Not learned 120. What is the signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats?Not learned 121. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.Not learned 122. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 123. When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed at __________.Not learned 124. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?Not learned 125. Which signaling device(s) is/are required on inflatable liferafts?Not learned 126. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 127. Fires are grouped into what categories?Not learned 128. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.Not learned 129. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 130. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.Not learned 131. How are fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium classified?Not learned 132. Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?Not learned 133. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 134. Which defines the "flammable limits" of an atmosphere?Not learned 135. A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its ability to __________.Not learned 136. Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.Not learned 137. When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will __________.Not learned 138. Which is one of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent?Not learned 139. Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored __________.Not learned 140. Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.Not learned 141. A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively fought using __________.Not learned 142. There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, which is the other?Not learned 143. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?Not learned 144. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?Not learned 145. Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?Not learned 146. Any firefighting equipment carried in addition to the minimum requirements on a MODU must __________.Not learned 147. Fire extinguishers designated as size III, IV, and V are considered __________.Not learned 148. Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?Not learned 149. After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.Not learned 150. A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.Not learned 151. When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?Not learned 152. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.Not learned 153. In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?Not learned 154. On a MODU, a fire extinguisher charged with 15 pounds of CO₂ or 10 pounds of dry chemical is a size __________.Not learned 155. Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.Not learned 156. On a MODU, size "III", 'IV', and "V" fire extinguishers are considered __________.Not learned 157. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.Not learned 158. How can the spread of fire be prevented?Not learned 159. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 160. Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.Not learned 161. Convection spreads a fire by __________.Not learned 162. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 163. Fire may be spread by which means?Not learned 164. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.Not learned 165. Control of fire on a MODU should be addressed __________.Not learned 166. Which is the best method of extinguishing a class A fire?Not learned 167. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 168. Under normal firefighting conditions, approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach when the hose pressure is 100 PSI?Not learned 169. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.Not learned 170. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 171. Which is the BEST method of applying foam to a fire?Not learned 172. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by which action?Not learned 173. The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting nozzle should always be __________.Not learned 174. The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.Not learned 175. No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.Not learned 176. The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to __________.Not learned 177. Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?Not learned 178. On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.Not learned 179. CO₂ cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads will discharge automatically when __________.Not learned 180. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.Not learned 181. In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating __________.Not learned 182. Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push- buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 183. What would be the most probable cause for a high-pressure alarm to be activated in a low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 184. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?Not learned 185. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for manually releasing the CO2 at which location?Not learned 186. When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, how many pilot cylinders are required?Not learned 187. Spaces protected by a fixed CO₂ system must be equipped with an alarm which is to sound __________.Not learned 188. A safety outlet is provided on the CO₂ discharge piping to prevent __________.Not learned 189. CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?Not learned 190. According to U.S. regulations, how many emergency outfits are required to be carried onboard all tankships over 1,000 gross tons?Not learned 191. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?Not learned 192. Which statement is TRUE to safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system?Not learned 193. On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must __________.Not learned 194. The condition of asphyxia arises from which of the following?Not learned 195. You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 196. What is the minimum required protective clothing that must be worn while sampling hazardous cargo on a tankship?Not learned 197. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________.Not learned 198. Which defines the flash point of a liquid?Not learned 199. Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?Not learned 200. Which term defines the lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition?Not learned 201. Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?Not learned 202. You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?Not learned 203. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR 30), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8-1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below, is a grade __________.Not learned 204. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.Not learned 205. A petroleum liquid has a flash point of 85°F. This is a grade __________.Not learned 206. Which of the following would be classified as grade "C" petroleum product?Not learned 207. What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air?Not learned 208. Which of the following describes (auto) ignition temperature?Not learned 209. With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids __________.Not learned 210. What do the designations A, B, C, D, and E grades of cargo define?Not learned 211. Most crude oils are classified as grade __________.Not learned 212. For the purpose of regulating tank vessels, which defines the term flammable liquids?Not learned 213. The heat value of a fuel is best described as __________.Not learned 214. Which of the following terms best defines the spontaneous mixing of a tank's liquid contents when a heavier layer forms above a less dense lower layer?Not learned 215. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.Not learned 216. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.Not learned 217. Where would spontaneous combustion most likely occur?Not learned 218. Which of the following is the chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard tankers?Not learned 219. Which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous combustion?Not learned 220. Which may ignite fuel vapors?Not learned 221. What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?Not learned 222. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 223. The primary danger in helicopter fires on a MODU is __________.Not learned 224. The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the __________.Not learned 225. Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.Not learned 226. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?Not learned 227. Tankers that are in service carrying "sour crudes" are faced with additional problems for their safe operation. One such problem is called "polyphoric oxidation" and results in ________.Not learned 228. The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________.Not learned 229. When providing first aid to a victim of gas poisoning, what is the MOST important symptom to check for?Not learned 230. Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?Not learned 231. What type of gas detection device is used to determine when gassing up is complete?Not learned 232. Asphyxia is generally limited to enclosed spaces, and the deficiency of breathable air in an enclosed space can occur with any of the following conditions. Indicate the condition that will NOT cause asphyxia.Not learned 233. Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a tanker?Not learned 234. If a repair team is to enter a confined space for repair work, what minimum level of oxygen should be present?Not learned 235. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?Not learned 236. Which ship must maintain Part II (Cargo/Ballast Operations) of the Oil Record Book?Not learned 237. When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must _________.Not learned 238. While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a sheen on the water. What action should you take?Not learned 239. What causes the most frequent incidents of pollution during tanker operations?Not learned 240. Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt from mandatory requirements on ballast water management for control of non-indigenous species in waters of the United States?Not learned 241. According to U.S. regulations which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment around loading manifolds?Not learned 242. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) require that all oil spills in United States waters be reported immediately to the __________.Not learned 243. According to U.S. regulations, tank vessels with greater than 250 barrels capacity are required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device does which of the following?Not learned 244. What is the FIRST action to take if you detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging petroleum products?Not learned 245. While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the water around the vessel. What should you do FIRST?Not learned 246. Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shoreside facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?Not learned 247. Which of the following is considered "discharge" as it applies to the pollution regulations?Not learned 248. International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificates are required for each U.S. oil tanker at or above how many gross registered tons?Not learned 249. According to U.S. regulations, which of the following describes the declaration of inspection?Not learned 250. A oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless which of the following conditions is present?Not learned 251. U.S. regulations require all tankships of 150 GT and above and all other ships of 400 GT and above, to prepare and maintain which of the following?Not learned 252. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?Not learned 253. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 254. Which of the following is required to have a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 255. According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires after __________.Not learned 256. Which statement is TRUE when reviewing a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 257. Which of the following describes heavy fuel oils when they have been spilled?Not learned 258. Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water pollution laws?Not learned 259. What does the MARPOL 73/78 convention deal with?Not learned 260. A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the nearest land is at least __________.Not learned 261. Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 262. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when off-loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and which of the following?Not learned 263. U.S. regulations require any tankship making a voyage of over 48 hours duration to conduct certain tests not more than 12 hours prior to leaving port. Which of the following must be tested to meet this requirement?Not learned 264. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them __________.Not learned 265. According to U.S. regulations, how often are you are required to test cargo discharge piping?Not learned 266. Who will certify the vessel to be gas free before entering the shipyard?Not learned 267. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.Not learned 268. Where should muster lists be posted?Not learned 269. What information must be entered on the MODU Muster List ("Station Bill")?Not learned 270. A re-inspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?Not learned 271. What certificate verifies that a liquefied gas tanker complies with the requirements with regard to their structure, equipment, fittings, arrangements, and materials?Not learned 272. According to 46 CFR, when estimating the cost of collision damage to a tank vessel after a marine accident, which of the following should NOT be included in the repair cost estimate?Not learned 273. What accident situation is considered a Serious Marine Incident?Not learned 274. Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner involved in the incident is prohibited from consuming alcohol until after being tested or which time frame?Not learned 275. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?Not learned 276. A person who observes an individual fall overboard should do which of the following?Not learned 277. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.Not learned 278. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 279. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?Not learned 280. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make __________.Not learned 281. A man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat. In a mild breeze how should the boat approach the person in the water?Not learned 282. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?Not learned 283. If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is important for the crew members to __________.Not learned 284. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be in which position?Not learned 285. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.Not learned 286. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, which action should they take?Not learned 287. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.Not learned 288. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?Not learned 289. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours __________.Not learned 290. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?Not learned 291. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 292. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?Not learned 293. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?Not learned 294. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?Not learned 295. Each emergency light must be marked with __________.Not learned 296. How shall Lifesaving equipment be stowed?Not learned 297. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 298. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 299. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?Not learned 300. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 301. On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?Not learned 302. Life jackets should be marked with which item?Not learned 303. Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests__________.Not learned 304. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.Not learned 305. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, which action should you take?Not learned 306. Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to accomplish which task?Not learned 307. What is the purpose of rigging frapping lines on lifeboat falls?Not learned 308. Which of the following persons may command a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 309. Which of the following is NOT a function of the pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat?Not learned 310. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?Not learned 311. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 312. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 313. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.Not learned 314. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the following colors?Not learned 315. A magnetic compass card is marked in how many degrees?Not learned 316. The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?Not learned 317. What does the lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicate?Not learned 318. A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________.Not learned 319. A vessel heading NE is on which course?Not learned 320. A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.Not learned 321. A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.Not learned 322. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?Not learned 323. You will find a limit switch on which type of davit?Not learned 324. Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.Not learned 325. After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.Not learned 326. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 327. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on which item?Not learned 328. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 329. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.Not learned 330. Which item is a feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people inside the raft stationary in rough weather?Not learned 331. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 332. Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?Not learned 333. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?Not learned 334. The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.Not learned 335. Inflatable liferafts are provided with which item?Not learned 336. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.Not learned 337. How should an inflatable liferaft be manually released from its cradle?Not learned 338. An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.Not learned 339. Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?Not learned 340. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.Not learned 341. Which is TRUE concerning a hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft?Not learned 342. Under normal conditions, how is a liferaft released from its cradle?Not learned 343. Where are the lifelines connected to the liferaft?Not learned 344. The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.Not learned 345. To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.Not learned 346. After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.Not learned 347. After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, how is the liferaft inflated?Not learned 348. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?Not learned 349. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 350. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.Not learned 351. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which action will aid in your rescue?Not learned 352. Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship which item(s) would you use?Not learned 353. How is the inside light in an inflatable liferaft activated?Not learned 354. You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?Not learned 355. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?Not learned 356. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 357. What is the function of the hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 358. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?Not learned 359. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.Not learned 360. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 361. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF which condition exists?Not learned 362. How is the "off-load" release system on a survival craft designed to be activated?Not learned 363. When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should take which action?Not learned 364. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 365. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.Not learned 366. A sea anchor is __________.Not learned 367. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using which item(s)?Not learned 368. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.Not learned 369. When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.Not learned 370. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?Not learned 371. Initial stability is indicated by __________.Not learned 372. The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known as the __________.Not learned 373. Which term is used for the horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces?Not learned 374. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.Not learned 375. Which term defines the upward pressure of displaced water of a vessel?Not learned 376. At all angles of inclination, the metacenter is __________.Not learned 377. Initial stability refers to stability __________.Not learned 378. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.Not learned 379. Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel. These points are the center of buoyancy and the __________.Not learned 380. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.Not learned 381. The important initial stability parameter, GM, is which of the following?Not learned 382. The abbreviation 'GM' is used to represent the __________.Not learned 383. When a vessel is floating upright, which term is used to define the distance from the keel to the metacenter of a vessel?Not learned 384. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is __________.Not learned 385. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.Not learned 386. At all angles of inclination, which is the true measure of a vessel's stability?Not learned 387. Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as __________.Not learned 388. Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 389. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 390. The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after a change in load has occurred is known as __________.Not learned 391. Which term defines the difference between the forward and aft drafts?Not learned 392. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.Not learned 393. Which term is given to the difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely in the vessel?Not learned 394. The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.Not learned 395. What does reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduce?Not learned 396. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.Not learned 397. For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.Not learned 398. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.Not learned 399. A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.Not learned 400. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.Not learned 401. When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.Not learned 402. If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.Not learned 403. A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.Not learned 404. Forces within a vessel may cause a difference between the starboard and port drafts. What is this difference called?Not learned 405. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.Not learned 406. When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.Not learned 407. When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.Not learned 408. The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.Not learned 409. During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. Which action should you take?Not learned 410. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed?Not learned 411. The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.Not learned 412. Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a MODU must be made at intervals not exceeding __________.Not learned 413. Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.Not learned 414. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 415. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 416. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 417. A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.Not learned 418. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.Not learned 419. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.Not learned 420. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces which threat?Not learned 421. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.Not learned 422. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.Not learned 423. Which is the best action to take when plugging holes below the waterline for the safety of the vessel?Not learned 424. Which term describes the strengthening of damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel?Not learned 425. In plugging submerged holes; why are rags, wedges, and other materials used in conjunction with plugs?Not learned 426. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.Not learned 427. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?Not learned 428. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?Not learned 429. How should a patient suffering from heat exhaustion be treated?Not learned 430. Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?Not learned 431. As a last resort, what can a tourniquet be used for?Not learned 432. Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear __________.Not learned 433. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb, what procedure should you use to remove it?Not learned 434. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?Not learned 435. What is the appropriate first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?Not learned 436. Ordinarily, bleeding from a vein may be controlled by what method?Not learned 437. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?Not learned 438. What is the primary purpose of a splint when applied in first aid treatment?Not learned 439. How should you FIRST treat a simple fracture?Not learned 440. Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and what action is taken?Not learned 441. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?Not learned 442. Which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock?Not learned 443. Why should a person being treated for shock be wrapped in warm coverings?Not learned 444. After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?Not learned 445. Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?Not learned 446. In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which of the following treatments would you AVOID using?Not learned 447. A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what kind of burn?Not learned 448. A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology what type of burn is this?Not learned 449. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, what type of burn is this?Not learned 450. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to __________.Not learned 451. For small, first-degree burns, what is the quickest method to relieve pain?Not learned 452. A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper first aid treatment for this injury?Not learned 453. What should you do if a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm?Not learned 454. What can be caused by severe airway burns?Not learned 455. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.Not learned 456. When treating a chemical burn, what is the minimum amount of time you should flood the burned area?Not learned 457. Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with what substance(s)?Not learned 458. Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?Not learned 459. If a person is unconscious from electric shock, the first action is to remove him from the electrical source. What is the secondary action?Not learned 460. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, what is the FIRST medical indicator to check for?Not learned 461. Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to __________.Not learned 462. If a patient has an electrical burn, you would check for breathing, pulse, and _______.Not learned 463. What causes heat exhaustion?Not learned 464. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?Not learned 465. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?Not learned 466. What are the symptoms of sugar diabetes?Not learned 467. A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injury. What symptoms would indicate the onset of a diabetic coma?Not learned 468. If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.Not learned 469. Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________.Not learned 470. What should you do if a crew member is having an epileptic convulsion?Not learned 471. What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?Not learned 472. How should the pain be relieved when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis?Not learned 473. When giving first aid, in addition to conducting primary and secondary surveys, what should you be familiar with?Not learned 474. What are the symptoms of seasickness?Not learned 475. What is an effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board?Not learned 476. What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?Not learned 477. What is it called when you sort accident victims according to the severity of their injuries?Not learned 478. Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 479. What must the rescuer be able to do in managing a situation involving multiple injuries?Not learned 480. What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?Not learned 481. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.Not learned 482. Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?Not learned 483. What is the most useful drug to reduce a high fever?Not learned 484. Which procedure should NOT be done for a person whom has fainted?Not learned 485. What should a observer do if a victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway?Not learned 486. While providing assistant to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.Not learned 487. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.Not learned 488. Which of the following medical conditions has symptoms of: burning pain with redness of the skin, an irritating rash, blistering or loss of skin and or toxic poisoning?Not learned 489. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.Not learned 490. What action must be taken if a shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?Not learned 491. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?Not learned 492. What should you do before CPR is started?Not learned 493. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 494. While carrying out artificial respiration how should rescuers be changed out?Not learned 495. Which is TRUE concerning the vapor pressure of a substance?Not learned 496. Which of the following describes intrinsically safe equipment?Not learned 497. According to the regulations, what type of gauging is required for a cargo of butadiene?Not learned 498. Ullages are measured from __________.Not learned 499. On tankers ullages are measured from what point?Not learned 500. Ullage measurements are taken from the top of the liquid to which of the following points?Not learned 501. Which refers to the depth of a petroleum product in a tank?Not learned 502. What is litmus paste is used to determine?Not learned 503. Your 100 gross tons non-oceangoing vessel is required to have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What is required at each outlet of this system?Not learned 504. A 100-GT vessel, constructed before July 1, 1974, is loading diesel fuel. What is the minimum capacity of the portable container required for placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and fill pipe?Not learned 505. You are on a 120,000 DWT loaded bulk carrier. When anchoring without the aid of tugs, your maximum speed should not exceed how many feet per second?Not learned 506. You are on a 120,000 DWT loaded bulk carrier. What is the maximum safe docking speed when coming alongside?Not learned 507. You are 15 feet off a pier and docking a vessel using only a bow breast line and stern breast line. Once the slack is out of both lines you begin to haul in on the bow breast line. What is the effect on the vessel?Not learned 508. The 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in the illustration D047DG can lift a maximum weight of how many tons in the single mode?Not learned 509. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 510. Under which circumstance is a 30,000 DWT tankship required to have an IOPP certificate?Not learned 511. 46 CFR directs the location of fuel oil sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels. Where can the tubes be located?Not learned 512. A 6x12, two-inch wire rope has __________.Not learned 513. Why is 6X19 class wire rope more commonly used for cargo runners than the more flexible 6X37 wire rope?Not learned 514. A 6x19 wire rope would be which of the following?Not learned 515. Aboard a cargo vessel, the carbon dioxide supply used in a fixed extinguishing system MUST at least be sufficient for what space(s)?Not learned 516. Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.Not learned 517. You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is put full astern and the rudder hard left. What will the bow do?Not learned 518. You are aboard a single-screw vessel (right-hand propeller) going full ahead with good headway. The engine is put astern and the rudder is placed hard left. The stern of the vessel will swing to __________.Not learned 519. You are aboard vessel "A" in a narrow channel and the pilot is approaching vessel "B" as shown in illustration D037RR below. Which of the following is the reason he has not previously changed course to the starboard side of the channel?Not learned 520. You are aboard a vessel which is near a platform engaged in oil exploration. Under U.S. pollution regulations, you may NOT discharge garbage if you are within __________.Not learned 521. What is acceptable flame screening?Not learned 522. What is NOT accepted as the required shipping papers on a manned and loaded tank barge?Not learned 523. What will be accepted as the shipping papers for an unmanned tank barge but will not be accepted if the tank barge is manned?Not learned 524. An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than __________.Not learned 525. In accordance with regulations, ethylene oxide shall be loaded below what temperature?Not learned 526. In accordance with U.S. regulations for cargo vessels, what is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?Not learned 527. In accordance with U.S regulations, your cargo vessel must have which of the following?Not learned 528. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 2.3 substance?Not learned 529. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 4.1 substance?Not learned 530. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 4.3 substance?Not learned 531. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 5.1 substance?Not learned 532. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 5.2 substance?Not learned 533. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 6.1 substance?Not learned 534. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is the proper label name for a class 6.2 substance?Not learned 535. In accordance with U.S. regulations, a freight container that is to be loaded with Class 1 explosive materials must be in serviceable condition. Which of the following would prevent a container from being considered serviceable?Not learned 536. In accordance with U.S. regulations, what natural phenomena would require you to stop cargo operations involving Class 1 explosive materials and secure hatches?Not learned 537. In accordance with U.S. regulations, where are the signs prohibiting smoking required to be posted while the vessel is loading Class 1 explosive materials?Not learned 538. In accordance with U.S. regulations which signal is required to be displayed during hours of darkness if a vessel is handling Class 1 explosive materials?Not learned 539. In accordance with U.S. regulations which statement is true concerning packages containing Class 1 explosive material?Not learned 540. In accordance with U.S. regulations on the transportation of hazardous materials, which of the following is true concerning a transport unit with fabric sides or tops?Not learned 541. In accordance with U.S regulations vessels transporting hazardous materials are required to have a Dangerous Cargo Manifest. Where is this document to be kept?Not learned 542. According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing plastic is permitted to be disposed of by __________.Not learned 543. According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________.Not learned 544. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33CFR), who is required to sign the entry in the Oil Record Book after every designated operation?Not learned 545. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33CFR), each completed page in the Oil Record Book is to be signed by ________.Not learned 546. According to U.S. regulations, if a cargo hose shows a small leak in its fabric, when may it be used to transfer oil?Not learned 547. According to U.S. regulations, which conditions would not disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil?Not learned 548. According to U.S. regulations, which of the following does not qualify as a discharge of oil?Not learned 549. According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard?Not learned 550. Which act would be considered barratry?Not learned 551. What action should the helmsman take when hearing the command "ease the rudder"?Not learned 552. Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations?Not learned 553. Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations?Not learned 554. Which action must be taken for uncleared crew curios remaining on board during a domestic coastwise voyage after returning from foreign?Not learned 555. Which action(s) should the operator of a pedestal crane take if crane control is lost?Not learned 556. Which action reduces the yawing of a vessel in a following sea?Not learned 557. Which action should you take FIRST when preparing to hoist the anchor?Not learned 558. Which action will take place if a crew member is replaced in a U.S. port after foreign articles have been signed, and the ship proceeds foreign?Not learned 559. Adding the FSCL to KG yields __________.Not learned 560. In addition to the load lines indicated in illustration D003DG below, some vessels have a Winter North Atlantic line. Which statement about this load line mark is TRUE?Not learned 561. What is an advantage of the 6X19 class of wire rope over the 6X37 class of wire rope of the same diameter?Not learned 562. What is NOT an advantage of containership operations over conventional break-bulk operations?Not learned 563. What is NOT an advantage of filler cargo?Not learned 564. What is an advantage of a gate valve over a butterfly valve?Not learned 565. Which is an advantage of nylon rope over manila rope?Not learned 566. What is the advantage of the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when operating cargo?Not learned 567. What is an advantage of having wire rope with a fiber core over that of a wire rope of the same size with a wire core?Not learned 568. What affect does shallow water have on a vessel's stopping distance?Not learned 569. Which agency assigns Load lines for U.S. vessels?Not learned 570. Which agency is authorized to assist the Coast Guard in the inspection of vessels for the suitability of loading hazardous materials?Not learned 571. Which agency deals with stowaways?Not learned 572. If an alien stowaway is discovered aboard your vessel, which action should you take?Not learned 573. If an alien stowaway is discovered aboard your vessel, his name must be placed on the __________.Not learned 574. To allow for the rise or fall in tide and for change in draft of a tankship during cargo transfer, cargo hoses must be suspended with __________.Not learned 575. The American Consul has asked the Master of a vessel bound for a port in the U.S. to transport a destitute seaman back to the U.S. Which action may the Master take?Not learned 576. The American Consul has asked the Master of a vessel bound for a port in the U.S. to transport a destitute seaman back to the U.S. Which action may the Master take?Not learned 577. The anchors on the bow are known as __________.Not learned 578. When the anchor is brought to and holding, the horizontal component of anchor cable tensions should equal the __________.Not learned 579. Why should the anchor chain be kept moderately taut during a Mediterranean moor?Not learned 580. How is the anchor chain marked for 30 fathoms?Not learned 581. The anchor chain has one entire shot of chain painted red. What is the bitter end of this shot attached to?Not learned 582. The anchor chain has one entire shot of chain painted yellow. What does this indicate on a merchant vessel?Not learned 583. The anchor chain has one entire shot painted red. What would that indicate on a merchant vessel?Not learned 584. Anchors are prevented from running out when secured by the __________.Not learned 585. You are on anchor watch. As an aid to preventing thievery on the vessel you should __________.Not learned 586. On an anchor windlass, the wheel over which the anchor chain passes is called a __________.Not learned 587. When anchored, increasing the scope of the anchor chain normally serves to __________.Not learned 588. You have anchored in a mud and clay bottom. The anchor appears to be dragging in a storm. What action should you take?Not learned 589. You are anchoring in 16 fathoms of water. On a small to medium size vessel, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 590. When anchoring in calm water, it is best to __________.Not learned 591. When anchoring in a clay bottom, what is one hazard that may cause the anchor to drag?Not learned 592. What is the rule of thumb for the length of chain required to anchor a vessel under normal conditions?Not learned 593. When anchoring in a current, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 594. When anchoring, good practice requires 5 to 7 fathoms of chain for each fathom of depth. Which is TRUE when anchoring in deep water?Not learned 595. When anchoring, what results from having the proper scope of anchor chain in line with the shank of the anchor?Not learned 596. You are anchoring in a river where the current is from one direction only. Which is the BEST way to lay out two anchors?Not learned 597. When anchoring a vessel, it is best to release the anchor when __________.Not learned 598. While anchoring your vessel, when is the best time to let go the anchor?Not learned 599. When anchoring a vessel under normal conditions, which scope of chain is recommended?Not learned 600. The angle at which the fluke penetrates the soil is called the __________.Not learned 601. If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, which of the following cannot be discharged anywhere at sea?Not learned 602. Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of which item?Not learned 603. Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, food garbage discharged from vessels outside a special area, that are located between 3 and 6 nautical miles from nearest land must be ground to less than which of the following dimensions?Not learned 604. During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static liquid pressure. Which defines the minimum test pressure?Not learned 605. What is another description for a tandem crane lift?Not learned 606. What is another name for the boom of a crane?Not learned 607. Another name for coal naphtha that would appear on a dangerous cargo manifest is __________.Not learned 608. Anyone voluntarily surrendering their Merchant Mariner Credential to a U.S. Coast Guard investigating officer signs a statement indicating which of the following?Not learned 609. Apparent wind speed blowing across a MODU under tow can be measured by a(n) __________.Not learned 610. You are approaching a pier and intend to use the port anchor to assist in docking port side to. You would NOT use the anchor if __________.Not learned 611. You are approaching the pilot station with the wind fine on the starboard bow and making about 3 knots. You can help to calm the seas by taking what action just before the pilot boat comes along on the port side?Not learned 612. In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT when used as described in which choice?Not learned 613. Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 614. How is Argon classified?Not learned 615. Because of the arrangement of the cell guides, which is the MOST important factor while loading containers?Not learned 616. You have arrived at your anchorage location. You have put the engines astern prior to letting go the anchor. How will you know when the vessel has stopped making way?Not learned 617. Before arriving at the first U.S. port from foreign, you must fill out a Crewman's Landing Permit. Which crewmember(s) require(s) this permit?Not learned 618. You are arriving in port and are assigned to anchor in anchorage circle B-4. It has a diameter of 500 yards and your vessel's LOA is 484 feet. If you anchor in 8 fathoms at the center of the circle, what is the maximum number of shots of chain you can use and still remain in the circle?Not learned 619. You are arriving in port and are assigned to anchor in anchorage circle B-4. It has a diameter of 600 yards and your vessel's LOA is 525 feet. If you anchor in 10 fathoms at the center of the circle, what is the maximum number of shots of chain you can use and still remain in the circle?Not learned 620. While assigned to a 106 GRT vessel, you are required to sign "foreign" articles on a voyage from San Francisco to which port?Not learned 621. While assigned to a 90 GRT vessel, you are required to sign "foreign" articles on a voyage from Philadelphia to which port?Not learned 622. If an attempt is made to hoist a load that exceeds the capacity of an electric winch, an overload safety device causes a circuit breaker to cut off the current to the winch motor __________.Not learned 623. When attempting to free an anchor jammed in the hawsepipe, the simplest method of freeing it may be __________.Not learned 624. When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would __________.Not learned 625. When an azimuth of the Sun has been taken and the deviation of the standard magnetic compass computed, the watch officer should record the results __________.Not learned 626. A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________.Not learned 627. When backing down with sternway, where will the pivot point of a vessel be located?Not learned 628. In bad weather, what length of chain should be used with a single anchor?Not learned 629. A ballasted vessel sinks enroute to a dry dock. Under these circumstances, the vessel's owner can claim which loss?Not learned 630. You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea?Not learned 631. Battens are fitted in cargo holds across the frames of the vessel from the turn of the bilge upward. What is the main purpose of these cargo battens?Not learned 632. Which bend or knot is used to tie a small line to a larger one?Not learned 633. You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo from your barge. You must complete topside repairs on the barge involving hot-work before sailing. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 634. You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot-work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?Not learned 635. You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo?Not learned 636. Besides the chemical testing of a mariner's breath for alcohol, what other specimen testing for alcohol is acceptable that can be taken onboard the vessel after a Serious Marine Incident?Not learned 637. Which best describes an anchor buoy?Not learned 638. What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?Not learned 639. Which BEST describes a wildcat?Not learned 640. What is the best guide for determining the proper scope of anchor chain to use for anchoring in normal conditions?Not learned 641. Which is the BEST holding ground for conventional anchors?Not learned 642. The BEST holding ground for conventional anchors is __________.Not learned 643. Which is the best method of protecting that portion of a fiber anchor line nearest the anchor from chafing on the bottom?Not learned 644. Which is the best method to stop a vessel from dragging anchor in a sand bottom?Not learned 645. What is the best splice for repairing a parted synthetic fiber mooring line?Not learned 646. The best time to work a boat into a slip is __________.Not learned 647. The best way to determine if a load is within maximum lift limits is to use __________.Not learned 648. The best way to lift many small articles aboard your vessel is with a __________.Not learned 649. The BEST way to steer a twin-screw vessel if you lose your rudder is by using __________.Not learned 650. Which is the BEST way for a twin-screw vessel to clear the inboard propeller and maneuver off a pier?Not learned 651. Which is the BETTER holding ground, for a conventional anchor?Not learned 652. Bilge soundings indicate __________.Not learned 653. Which is the proper name given to a block that can be opened at the hook or shackle end to receive a bight of the line?Not learned 654. A block and tackle is "rove to advantage". What does this mean?Not learned 655. Who must you report a "T-Boat" accident resulting in loss of life, serious injury or more than $25,000 property damage to?Not learned 656. The boom indicator tells the operator at what angle the boom is compared to the __________.Not learned 657. The boom stops on a pedestal crane prevent the boom from __________.Not learned 658. You are bound from port A, governed by the summer load line mark, to port B, also governed by the summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the winter mark. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 659. What is the breaking strain of steel wire rope with a 5/8" diameter?Not learned 660. A breeches buoy is being rigged from the shore to a stranded vessel. The initial shot line passed to the vessel is normally made fast to a __________.Not learned 661. Buckler plates are __________.Not learned 662. When bunkering at anchorage which of the following signals must be displayed?Not learned 663. If you are bunkering and you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________.Not learned 664. When bunkering is complete, which is the correct procedure concerning the bunker hoses?Not learned 665. When bunkering at a dock which of the following signals must be displayed?Not learned 666. Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.Not learned 667. Butadiene, inhibited, is labeled as a __________.Not learned 668. With the buttress securing system, where can containers of different heights be stowed?Not learned 669. Who cannot commit the crime of barratry?Not learned 670. You cannot operate a VHF or SSB radiotelephone aboard a rig unless that station is licensed. Which of the following organizations issues the license?Not learned 671. A cargo of 10,000 barrels of gasoline is loaded at a temperature of 90°F, and a cargo temperature of 55°F, is expected on this voyage. It has a coefficient of expansion of .0006. How many barrels would you expect to discharge at your destination?Not learned 672. When a cargo boom or crane is rated at varying capacities, there will be a table at the controls which relates safe working load to __________.Not learned 673. A cargo exception would appear on __________.Not learned 674. A cargo of fuel oil is loaded whose temperature is 66? F. API gravity is 36?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. A cargo temperature of 80? F is expected at the discharge port. If 9,000 barrels were loaded, how many barrels would you expect to unload?Not learned 675. A cargo of fuel oil is loaded whose temperature is 66°F. API gravity is 36°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. A cargo temperature of 80°F is expected at the discharge port. If 9,000 barrels were loaded, how many gallons would you expect to unload?Not learned 676. Cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargo is known as a(n) __________.Not learned 677. Which term defines cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from odorous cargo?Not learned 678. Cargo hose carried on tank vessels must be designed to withstand the pressure of the shutoff head of the cargo pump or pump relief valve setting, but in no case should it be less than __________.Not learned 679. Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least how many psi?Not learned 680. On the cargo manifest, which defines the term gross weight?Not learned 681. On the cargo manifest, which term is used to describe the weight of the cargo inside a box?Not learned 682. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?Not learned 683. A cargo of oil has a coefficient of expansion of .0005 per degree F. If this cargo is loaded at 70°F, and a cargo temperature of 90°F is expected at the discharge port, how many barrels would you expect to unload if you loaded 10,000 barrels?Not learned 684. Cargo pump relief valves are piped to the __________.Not learned 685. Which cargoes require strips of common building lathe as dunnage in order to carry away heat generated by the cargo?Not learned 686. A cargo that has a stowage factor over 40 is known as a __________.Not learned 687. How should cargo tank hatches be protected when the ullage opening is open and the tank NOT gas free?Not learned 688. You are on a cargo vessel carrying portable tanks of dangerous cargoes in bulk. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 689. You are on a cargo vessel carrying toluol in bulk in portable tanks. Which is a requirement for pumping the toluol?Not learned 690. On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed within what time period?Not learned 691. On a cargo vessels which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable?Not learned 692. Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at which interval?Not learned 693. While on cargo watch, you notice one of the containers of Class 1 explosive materials has been damaged and some of the contents has leaked onto the deck. In accordance with U.S. regulations what actions must be taken?Not learned 694. Which cargo would require a dangerous cargo manifest?Not learned 695. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, which of the following will make a vessel liable if there is damage to the cargo?Not learned 696. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises out of which event?Not learned 697. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises from which situation?Not learned 698. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises out of which situation?Not learned 699. What is a "carrick bend" is used for?Not learned 700. If you carry packaged hazardous cargoes on a break bulk vessel bound foreign, you must __________.Not learned 701. When carrying a cargo of asphalt or molten sulfur, which are carried at temperatures of over 300°F, one of the biggest dangers is __________.Not learned 702. You are carrying cargoes of crotonaldehyde, phosphoric acid, and morpholine on your multiple-product tankship. Which of the following statements is TRUE?Not learned 703. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter?Not learned 704. In which case is the IOPP Certificate of an inspected vessel NOT invalidated?Not learned 705. In most cases, when a large merchant vessel enters shallow water at high speed the __________.Not learned 706. In most cases, when large tankers or bulk carriers enter shallow water at high speed which situation can be expected?Not learned 707. A case received for shipment is marked as shown in illustration D043DG below. Which of the following is the portion of the symbol indicated by the letter A?Not learned 708. After casting off moorings at a mooring buoy in calm weather, which action should you take?Not learned 709. In which casualty case is it UNNECESSARY to notify the local Coast Guard Marine Safety Office?Not learned 710. In which casualty case is it UNNECESSARY to notify the local Coast Guard Marine Safety Office?Not learned 711. What is the cause of most minor spills of oil products?Not learned 712. Which will cause a wire rope to fail?Not learned 713. The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.Not learned 714. Centrifugal pumps have what advantage(s) over reciprocating pumps?Not learned 715. Certain cargoes must be segregated because of their __________.Not learned 716. The Certificate of Freeboard is the __________.Not learned 717. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Certificate of Inspection for a containership?Not learned 718. The Certificate of Inspection of a damaged tank barge has expired. What certificate authorizes the barge to move to a repair facility for repair and inspection?Not learned 719. The Certificate of Inspection on a passenger vessel of over 100 gross tons must be posted __________.Not learned 720. The Certificate of Inspection for your tankship authorizes the carriage of grade A and lower products. Which chemical may NOT be carried unless it is specifically endorsed on the Certificate of Inspection?Not learned 721. Which certificate is issued by the American Bureau of Shipping?Not learned 722. Which certificate is NOT issued by the Coast Guard?Not learned 723. A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.Not learned 724. Who certifies the safe working load of cargo booms on a vessel?Not learned 725. Chafing gear __________.Not learned 726. A change of a documented vessel's name can only be made by which organization?Not learned 727. Which characteristic is an advantage of a butterfly valve as compared to a gate valve?Not learned 728. Which characteristic is a disadvantage of a controllable- pitch propeller as compared to a fixed-pitch propeller?Not learned 729. Which is characteristic of a "special cargo"?Not learned 730. You are in charge of a 225-gross ton tug preparing to depart from Houston, Texas, with a loaded 2500-gross ton tank barge bound for New York. Prior to departure, regulations require you to take which action?Not learned 731. You are in charge of a towing vessel that operates exclusively on inland waters. You regularly tow barges that provide services (cargo lighters, fuel barges, etc.) to foreign flag vessels in port. What will be accepted as proper credentials for you and your crew?Not learned 732. The charterer has completed loading the vessel in 3 days instead of the 5 days agreed to in the charter party. Which action may be a result of this?Not learned 733. Which should you check before letting the anchor go?Not learned 734. As Chief Officer of a vessel underway, it comes to your attention that the vessel is, in some manner, unseaworthy. Under such circumstances the Master is required to take action upon receiving __________.Not learned 735. Chinese stoppers are widely used on merchant vessels because they are safe, and easy to apply. What additional values are attributed to these stoppers?Not learned 736. The citizenship of a crew member of a vessel in a U.S. port is determined solely by the __________.Not learned 737. A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if such damage is the result of failure of the ship's officers to take which action?Not learned 738. When cleaning cargo tanks with portable machines, how is the machine grounded?Not learned 739. In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a __________.Not learned 740. When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator before using which of the following?Not learned 741. When cleaning a tank by the Butterworth process, you should begin to pump out the slops __________.Not learned 742. When clearing customs for a foreign voyage, which of the following is processed at the custom's house and returned to the vessel?Not learned 743. When clearing a vessel for a foreign voyage, the original crew list is duly certified by proper authority. In a U.S. port, this authority is the U.S. __________.Not learned 744. Close link chain of not less the 3/4" (or the wire rope equivalent) is required for lashing deck cargoes of timber. What size flexible wire rope would provide the strength equivalent to 3/4" chain, using a safety factor of 5?Not learned 745. Closed freight containers and closed cargo units are used in the shipment of freight. Which of the following defines these terms?Not learned 746. CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must __________.Not learned 747. A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by __________.Not learned 748. How can the Coast Guard determine that a crew member is "able to understand any order spoken by the officers"?Not learned 749. Coiling new rope against the lay, bringing the lower end up through the center of the coil, then coiling with the lay, in order to remove the kinks, is known as __________.Not learned 750. A combustible liquid is defined as any liquid having a flash point above what temperature?Not learned 751. Combustible liquids are divided into how many grades?Not learned 752. A combustible liquid with a flash point of 90° F would be grade __________.Not learned 753. You are coming to anchor in 8 fathoms of water. In this case, how should the anchor be deployed?Not learned 754. What does the command "Hard right rudder" mean?Not learned 755. When commencing cargo operations on a container ship, one cell at a hatch is generally discharged completely (to the bottom of the ship) before removing any containers from the adjoining cells to __________.Not learned 756. Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels?Not learned 757. A common class of wire rope is the 6X37 class. What does the 37 represent?Not learned 758. Which is a common occurrence when a vessel is running into shallow water?Not learned 759. Which statement is TRUE when comparing manila line, size for size, to nylon?Not learned 760. When comparing twin screw tug to single-screw tugs, which statement about a twin-screw tug is FALSE?Not learned 761. A complaint of unseaworthiness by a majority of crew members to the American Consul is found to be justified after a survey is completed. Who must pay the cost of the survey?Not learned 762. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes loaded on board. It should be kept in a conspicuous location __________.Not learned 763. What is the computed breaking strength of a 4-inch manila line?Not learned 764. Conditions for crossing a rough bar are usually best at __________.Not learned 765. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?Not learned 766. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?Not learned 767. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?Not learned 768. A condition where two currents meet at the downstream end of a middle bar can be determined by observing which situation?Not learned 769. Under which condition(s) can the wages due a seaman be attached by the court?Not learned 770. Which condition would NOT entitle a vessel to carry goods on deck?Not learned 771. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 45°Not learned 772. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 75Not learned 773. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light with the results as shown. Based on this information, what is the advance for a turn of 90°Not learned 774. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 180°?Not learned 775. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 45°?Not learned 776. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn you take the ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 75°?Not learned 777. You are conducting trials to determine the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel. While making a turn, you take ranges and bearings of an isolated light. The results are shown in illustration D034DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 90°?Not learned 778. You have the "conn" at the time the helmsman who is steering by hand reports that the rudder is not responding to the wheel. Which would be your FIRST action?Not learned 779. The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.Not learned 780. You are conning a twin-screw vessel going ahead with rudders amidships. How will the vessel respond if the port screw stops turning?Not learned 781. What is NOT considered maritime property in a salvage claim?Not learned 782. What is NOT considered maritime property in a salvage claim?Not learned 783. What is considered a Serious Marine Incident?Not learned 784. Containers of flammable solids should be conspicuously labeled by the shipper with a __________.Not learned 785. You are on a container vessel. What concerning the handling and stowage of containerized hazardous materials is TRUE?Not learned 786. Container vessels are required to maintain an Oil Record Book when the vessel is __________?Not learned 787. You are on a containership. The cargo includes a container of small arms ammunition, a container of lead-acid storage batteries and a container of methyl acetylene bottles. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 788. You are on a containership carrying a tank container that had been filled with sodium hydroxide solution. The container is empty but has not been cleaned. Which, if any, placard is required?Not learned 789. Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2199 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo?Not learned 790. Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2206 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo?Not learned 791. Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2224 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo?Not learned 792. Your containership has a container displaying a hazardous cargo placard. The placard has the number 2282 on it. This indicates that it is carrying what cargo?Not learned 793. You are on a containership. Which statement about the stowage of hazardous materials in containers is TRUE?Not learned 794. In the context of shiphandling, what would be the definition of shallow water?Not learned 795. A contract of affreightment is a __________.Not learned 796. A copy of the Articles of Agreement, less the signatures, is required to be posted. What is this document called?Not learned 797. Which is the correct procedure for anchoring a small to medium size vessel in deep water?Not learned 798. What is a CORRECT reply to a pilot's request, "How's your head"?Not learned 799. Which is the correct way to make an eye in a wire rope with clips?Not learned 800. Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of label?Not learned 801. How is Cottonseed oil classed?Not learned 802. How could lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels be stowed when not in use?Not learned 803. You are on a course of 000°T and put the rudder right 30°. In which direction will the transfer be measured?Not learned 804. When should a crane boom-up so high that the boom hits the stops?Not learned 805. The crane manufacturer's operating tables are posted near the __________.Not learned 806. A credential for apprentice mate (steersman) of towing vessels shall be renewed within what time period before or after the expiration date?Not learned 807. Which credential enables a person to serve as person in charge of a tank barge which is transferring cargo?Not learned 808. You are the credentialed Master of a 100 GT towing vessel sailing coastwise. What percentage of the deck crew must be able to understand any order spoken by the officers?Not learned 809. You are the credentialed Master of a 199 GT uninspected towing vessel making a 500 mile coastwise trip. You carry a deck crew of six (6). Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 810. A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the Captain of which towing vessel?Not learned 811. A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the person in charge of which towing vessel?Not learned 812. You are the credentialed Master of a towing vessel operating between New York and Tampa, FL. If you carry four deckhands onboard, how many must be able seamen?Not learned 813. You are the credentialed operator of a 100 GT towing vessel making coastwise runs. Which of the following must you do whenever a crew member is discharged from your vessel?Not learned 814. A crew has signed on for a 3-month voyage. Fourteen days into the voyage a seaman is improperly discharged at the first port of call. How much pay is he entitled to receive?Not learned 815. Each crewmember has an assigned firefighting station. This assignment is shown on the __________.Not learned 816. "Cribbing" is __________.Not learned 817. What is the critical point in nylon line elongation?Not learned 818. When cutting regular-lay wire rope, what is the minimum number of seizings to be placed on each side of the cut?Not learned 819. When cutting wire rope, seizings are put on each side of the cut. The seizings prevent the wire from unlaying and also __________.Not learned 820. Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as __________.Not learned 821. The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible?Not learned 822. A Danforth lightweight anchor usually skips along and does NOT hold well in which bottom?Not learned 823. The dangerous cargo manifest does NOT include which item of information?Not learned 824. A "dangerous cargo manifest" is needed for you to carry a combustible cargo. You should obtain the shipping papers to make this "manifest" from the __________.Not learned 825. Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?Not learned 826. When a deck cargo is secured with chain or wire lashings and grab (pear) links, which statement is FALSE?Not learned 827. Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank vessels built after January 1, 1975, must have a supply of foam-producing material to operate the system at its designed rate of foam production for __________.Not learned 828. The declaration made by the Master when he anticipates hull and/or cargo damage due to unusual weather conditions is a __________.Not learned 829. A declaration made by the Master before a U.S. Consul, giving particulars regarding heavy weather or other incidents which may have caused damage to the vessel or cargo, through no fault of the vessel, her officers, or crew is a(n) __________.Not learned 830. Which is TRUE when a deep draft VLCC (100,000 DWT+) is navigating in a narrow channel or canal?Not learned 831. Where can the deepest water when rounding a bend in a river be located?Not learned 832. A deepwell pump is a type of __________.Not learned 833. As defined in the regulations governing marine casualties a "marine employer" may be the __________.Not learned 834. Which defines a hygroscopic cargo?Not learned 835. Which defines the pitch of a propeller on a merchant vessel?Not learned 836. Which defines the process of "Block stowage"?Not learned 837. Which defines serving a wire rope?Not learned 838. Which term defines the delivery of a vessel to a charterer?Not learned 839. Which is described as a wedge of water building up between the bow and the nearer bank which forces the bow out and away?Not learned 840. Which describes how flanking rudders effect a vessel's heading when going astern?Not learned 841. Which describes the "lay" of a line?Not learned 842. What describes a tandem crane lift?Not learned 843. A design modification of an anchor chain which prevents kinking is the __________.Not learned 844. How can you determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is permitted to carry?Not learned 845. To determine the number of able seamen required on an inspected vessel, you should check which document?Not learned 846. To determine the number of inflatable liferafts required on a vessel, you should check which document?Not learned 847. To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on an inspected vessel, you should check which document?Not learned 848. To determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold, which reference would you refer to?Not learned 849. You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space?Not learned 850. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are listed in illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 30°Not learned 851. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are listed in illustration D035DG. Based on this data what is the tactical diameter of the turning circle?Not learned 852. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as shown. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 60Not learned 853. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as shown. Based on this data what is the advance for a turn of 90°Not learned 854. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 180°?Not learned 855. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 30°?Not learned 856. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 60°?Not learned 857. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are shown in illustration D035DG below. What is the transfer for a turn of 90°?Not learned 858. In determining the scope of cable to be used when anchoring, what would NOT be considered?Not learned 859. Which device is designed to automatically hold the load if power should fail to an electric winch?Not learned 860. A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics is called a flame __________.Not learned 861. What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?Not learned 862. In what direction should you coil a right hand laid rope?Not learned 863. What is the disadvantage of using self-tension winches in automatic mode when the vessel is moored?Not learned 864. You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your vessel's position as required, you must include __________.Not learned 865. When discharging cargo from a tank barge, in which case may the cargo pass through or over the towing vessel?Not learned 866. When discharging a tanker, how can list be controlled?Not learned 867. Which term is sometimes used to refer to a disk with a horizontal line through its center, equivalent to the summer load line on a vessel?Not learned 868. Disregarding friction, what is the mechanical advantage of a twofold purchase when rove to disadvantage?Not learned 869. Which term defines the distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there is no slip?Not learned 870. At what distance from shore may plastic material be thrown overboard from a vessel?Not learned 871. Which term describes the distance a vessel moves in the direction of the original course from the point where the rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle?Not learned 872. Which term is used to describe the distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed?Not learned 873. Which term describes the distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full astern until the vessel is dead in the water?Not learned 874. You are docking an oceangoing single-screw vessel under normal circumstances with a single tug. Which is the usual function of the tug?Not learned 875. You are docking a ship with a single-screw tug assisting on your starboard bow. How should the tug be tied up if you are anticipating that she will have to hold your bow off while you stem the current?Not learned 876. You are docking a vessel in a slip which has its entrance athwart the tide. You land the ship across the end of the pier, stemming the tide, preparatory to breaking the ship around the corner. You have one tug to assist. Where would you generally tie up the tug?Not learned 877. You are docking a vessel starboard side to with the assistance of two tugs. You are attempting to hold the vessel off by operating both tugs at right angles to the vessel and at full power. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 878. You are docking a vessel. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 879. You are docking a vessel. When are the wind and current most favorable in this situation?Not learned 880. Which document establishes the facts of a casualty and is the prima facie relief from liability for the damage?Not learned 881. Which document lists all the lifesaving equipment required for a vessel?Not learned 882. Which document has a list of names, birthplaces, and residences of persons employed on a merchant vessel bound from a U.S. port on a foreign voyage and is required at every port?Not learned 883. The document that the Master uses to attest to the truth of the manifest of cargo is called __________.Not learned 884. Which document is NOT required by law to be posted aboard a vessel?Not learned 885. Which document shows details of a tank vessel, cargoes it may carry, manning and safety equipment required?Not learned 886. Which document shows the minimum required crew a vessel must have to navigate from one port in the United States to another?Not learned 887. Which document shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage?Not learned 888. Which document is used to indicate suspected cargo damage caused by rough weather?Not learned 889. The document on a vessel, annually endorsed by an American Bureau of Shipping surveyor, is called the __________.Not learned 890. What can be done to prevent small oil spills on deck from going overboard?Not learned 891. You are drifting in a locale where there is no current. As a rule, your vessel will lie __________.Not learned 892. If a drill required by regulations is not completed, the Master or person in charge must __________.Not learned 893. When dropping anchor, you are stationed at the windlass brake. Which is the most important piece(s) of personnel protection equipment?Not learned 894. Due to the nature of a vessel's construction for a particular trade, it does not fully comply with the provisions of SOLAS. Where will this be indicated?Not learned 895. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage from which of the following items?Not learned 896. While on duty as a look-out, which other duty may you perform?Not learned 897. Which is the easiest way to dock a right-hand, single-screw vessel?Not learned 898. What effect does bank cushion have on the hull of a vessel in shallow water?Not learned 899. What effect will bank suction have on a vessel?Not learned 900. The effect known as "bank cushion" acts in which of the following ways on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel?Not learned 901. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel?Not learned 902. What effect does lifting the shank of a Stockless anchor that is set on the bottom have?Not learned 903. Which effect does speed through the water have on a vessel which is underway in shallow water?Not learned 904. When is the effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel most noticeable?Not learned 905. Which is the most effective method for towing and maneuvering on rivers and other restricted waters where wave action is limited?Not learned 906. Electric cargo winches have an overload safety device which normally cuts the current to the winch motor __________.Not learned 907. If an electric cargo winch is being used to lift a draft of cargo and the engine room loses all power, which will occur?Not learned 908. The electrical components for each single crane are installed in its __________.Not learned 909. What is an enclosure which will withstand ignition of a flammable gas, and which will prevent the transmission of any flame able to ignite a flammable gas, which may be present in the surrounding atmosphere called?Not learned 910. When you "end for end" a wire rope, you __________.Not learned 911. Which ending is NOT acceptable in a wire rope that is free to rotate when hoisting?Not learned 912. Who enforces the U.S. pollution regulations that apply to ships?Not learned 913. Your enrolled vessel is bound from Baltimore, MD, to Norfolk, VA, via Chesapeake Bay. Which statement about the required Pilot is TRUE?Not learned 914. Which statement is TRUE to ensure the best results during the Mediterranean moor?Not learned 915. When you enter shallow water, which describes your vessel's rudder response and speed variations?Not learned 916. Before entering an ice area, how should a ship be trimmed?Not learned 917. Which entry on a dangerous cargo manifest concerning the classification of a cargo is correct?Not learned 918. All entries in the Official Logbook must be signed by the Master and if required, who else?Not learned 919. All entries in the Official Logbook must be signed by the Master and which other person?Not learned 920. Which entry is NOT required in the Official Logbook?Not learned 921. Each EPIRB required on a MODU shall be stowed in a manner which will permit __________.Not learned 922. Each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.Not learned 923. What equipment is customarily used when seamen are working on a stage rigged over the side of a vessel?Not learned 924. What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?Not learned 925. The equipment required to remove an on-deck oil spill on a barge transferring oil must either be carried on board or __________.Not learned 926. In the event of an oil spill a report must be made to which of the following entities?Not learned 927. Every entry required to be made in the Official Logbook shall be signed. Who is required to sign this logbook?Not learned 928. The exact and complete identification of all cargo on board must be found on the __________.Not learned 929. If, after examination by the Quarantine Officer, your vessel is found to have a specific deficiency, you may be issued which document?Not learned 930. Which is an example of an anchor which has a stock?Not learned 931. Which is an example of cargo damage caused by inherent vice?Not learned 932. Which is an example of failure to exercise due diligence?Not learned 933. What is an example of a fundamental objective of cargo stowage?Not learned 934. Which is an example of a messenger?Not learned 935. What is an example of the term "Restraint of Rulers, Princes, or Peoples" in a marine insurance policy?Not learned 936. Which is an explosion hazard when exposed to flame?Not learned 937. To facilitate passing the end of a large rope through a block, you could use which line?Not learned 938. Which factor does NOT affect the required freeboard of a cargo vessel?Not learned 939. Which factor has the GREATEST influence on the squat of a vessel in shallow water?Not learned 940. Which factor is most likely to impair the strength and durability of synthetic line?Not learned 941. If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, how long may you be imprisoned for?Not learned 942. Faking a line means to __________.Not learned 943. Under federal regulations, what minimum level of Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) constitutes a violation of the laws prohibiting Boating Under the Influence of Alcohol (BUI) on commercial vessels?Not learned 944. Fiber tails on mooring wires deteriorate more quickly than the wires themselves. What percentage of strength should the fiber tails have?Not learned 945. Fiber tails on mooring wires deteriorate more rapidly than the wires themselves. What preventive maintenance should be done to the fiber tails?Not learned 946. A "figure eight" knot is used to __________.Not learned 947. To find the distance the strands should be unlaid for a Liverpool eye splice, multiply the diameter of the wire in inches by which factor?Not learned 948. A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter loaded with general cargo. How would this claim be handled?Not learned 949. Firefighting equipment requirements for a particular vessel may be found on which document?Not learned 950. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. Which is the minimum height of the letters and figures required by regulation?Not learned 951. Fire protection and manning regulations for towing vessels state that the Master or person in charge must ensure that all crew members who have not participated in the drills or received the safety orientation must do which of the following?Not learned 952. A fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.Not learned 953. Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gauge located at __________.Not learned 954. What is the proper name for the fitting that allows a boom to move freely both vertically and laterally?Not learned 955. The fitting at the end of a cargo line in a tank that allows suction to be taken close to the bottom of a tank is a __________.Not learned 956. A flame screen __________.Not learned 957. What are flame screens used for?Not learned 958. Flammable liquid means any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below __________.Not learned 959. The flash point of vinyl chloride is __________.Not learned 960. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.Not learned 961. Which of the following is not an acceptable unit of measure to be used consistently throughout an Oil Record Book?Not learned 962. Which of the following actions is not considered to have the potential for generating static electricity?Not learned 963. Which of the following best describes the requirement of the emergency pump control when used as the emergency shutdown on tank vessels?Not learned 964. Which of the following is a characteristic of Methane gas?Not learned 965. Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident under which circumstances?Not learned 966. Which of the following is the compliment of the stern line?Not learned 967. Which of the following conditions will cause a combustible gas indicator to become inoperative or give erroneous readings?Not learned 968. Which of the following is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher?Not learned 969. Which of the following describes the difference between a closed freight container and an open freight container?Not learned 970. Which of the following describes a fid?Not learned 971. Which of the following describes why topside icing, which is usually off-center, decreases vessel stability?Not learned 972. Which of the following grade classifications is assigned to Camphor oil?Not learned 973. Which of the following is a hook that will release quickly?Not learned 974. Which of the following is an inherent advantage possessed by a twin-screw vessel in opposition to a single- screw vessel?Not learned 975. Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG?Not learned 976. Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG?Not learned 977. Which of the following is/are the optional component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG?Not learned 978. Which of the following is a knot used to join two lines of different diameters?Not learned 979. Which of the following lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be stowed when not in use?Not learned 980. Which of the following is the primary function of the screens that are fitted to the fuel oil tank vents?Not learned 981. In which of the following publications can the requirements for shipment of hazardous materials by water be found?Not learned 982. All of the following records are usually maintained by the watch-standing officers aboard a vessel EXCEPT the __________.Not learned 983. Which of the following reduces the holding capacity of a mooring winch brake?Not learned 984. Which of the following represents an emergency procedure used to stop the oil flow aboard tank vessels, of 250 tons or greater, as required by U.S. regulations?Not learned 985. Which of the following is a requirement of the lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit?Not learned 986. Which of the following is a rope ladder with wooden rungs?Not learned 987. With a following sea, a vessel will tend to __________.Not learned 988. In a following sea, a wave has overtaken your vessel and thrown the stern to starboard. To continue along your original course, which action should you take?Not learned 989. Following a serious marine incident, who can administer use of the device that tests an individuals breath?Not learned 990. Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner directly involved in the incident is required to submit a urine specimen for drug testing within which time frame?Not learned 991. Which of the following statements concerning the rigging of bosuns' chairs and their use is TRUE?Not learned 992. Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE regarding a twin pedestal crane set?Not learned 993. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE concerning cranes being installed on the centerline of vessels?Not learned 994. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?Not learned 995. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"?Not learned 996. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?Not learned 997. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?Not learned 998. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?Not learned 999. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding a twin pedestal crane set?Not learned 1000. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding crane operations?Not learned 1001. All of the following steps are taken in starting a centrifugal pump, EXCEPT to __________.Not learned 1002. Which of the following is the strongest of the natural fibers?Not learned 1003. Which of the following is the strongest way to join the ends of two ropes?Not learned 1004. Which of the following terms best describes the amount of product in a tank measured from the tank top to the level of liquid?Not learned 1005. Which of the following is utilized to aid in the transfer of a synthetic mooring line from the gypsy head to the bitts?Not learned 1006. Which of the following would cause an increase in a vessel's draft?Not learned 1007. The force acting on a single cargo runner which is vertically lifting or lowering a load is greatest when __________.Not learned 1008. Which term describes the force exerted by a propeller which tends to throw the stern right or left?Not learned 1009. Form 2692 (Notice of Marine Casualty), when required, must be filed to the U.S. Coast Guard within how many days?Not learned 1010. What form of ice is of land origin?Not learned 1011. On which form do you provide a written report of Marine Casualty to the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office?Not learned 1012. What form of venting of cargo tanks is allowed for a tank barge certificated to carry grade B petroleum products?Not learned 1013. What will NOT be found on the Certificate of Inspection of an oceangoing tankship?Not learned 1014. How can fracture damage to the end links of the anchor cable, or to the anchor ring be eliminated?Not learned 1015. "Free pratique" means that __________.Not learned 1016. What will cause the free surface effects of a partially full tank on a vessel in motion to increase?Not learned 1017. Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed __________.Not learned 1018. When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the most frequent cause of its being infected at the discharge port is __________.Not learned 1019. Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks forward of a collision bulkhead if which condition is met?Not learned 1020. Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil?Not learned 1021. On the fully containerized ship, approximately one-third or more of the cargo is on deck above the rolling center. Top stowed containers are subject to __________.Not learned 1022. Which is the function of the "Port-Off-Stbd" selector switch on an autopilot steering stand?Not learned 1023. What is the function of the "rudder adjustment" control on an autopilot steering stand?Not learned 1024. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. Which of the following would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection?Not learned 1025. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection?Not learned 1026. Galvanizing would not be suitable for protecting wire rope which is used for __________.Not learned 1027. A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n) __________.Not learned 1028. In general, a reinforced vessel can safely navigate in ice provided the concentration does not exceed how many tenths?Not learned 1029. As a general rule, how will your vessel lie when it is drifting in a locale where there is no current?Not learned 1030. In general, an un-reinforced vessel can safely navigate in ice provided the concentration does not exceed how many tenths?Not learned 1031. It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________.Not learned 1032. Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has __________.Not learned 1033. If given equal care, nylon line should last how many times longer than manila line?Not learned 1034. With a given load on the cargo hook, tension in a single span topping lift __________.Not learned 1035. With a given load on the cargo hook, the thrust on a cargo boom __________.Not learned 1036. What should be given, as a minimum, to personnel who are involved in crane cargo handling?Not learned 1037. For any given pedestal crane, when the boom is lengthened, the lifting capacity is __________.Not learned 1038. For a given weight of cargo, the stress on the heel block of a cargo boom __________.Not learned 1039. You are going ahead on twin engines when you want to make a quick turn to port. Which actions will turn your boat the fastest?Not learned 1040. You are going astern (single-screw, right-handed propeller) with the anchor down at a scope of twice the depth of the water. As the anchor dredges, how should you expect the vessel to react?Not learned 1041. Grade D combustible liquids have a maximum flash point of __________.Not learned 1042. What grade are most crude oils are classified as?Not learned 1043. Grade E combustible liquids have a flash point of __________.Not learned 1044. What is a grapnel?Not learned 1045. The greatest horizontal stress between the heads of the booms in the yard and stay rig occurs when the load is in such a position that the __________.Not learned 1046. The greatest strain, when lifting a load with the jumbo purchase, is on __________.Not learned 1047. The grooved wheel inside a block is called a __________.Not learned 1048. What is the group of markings shown in illustration D003DG below called?Not learned 1049. If you are guilty of failure to properly perform your duties as Master of Uninspected Towing Vessels, which of the following actions may NOT be taken?Not learned 1050. When the gyro-pilot is used for steering, what control is adjusted to compensate for varying sea conditions?Not learned 1051. A half-height container is used __________.Not learned 1052. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.Not learned 1053. In handling break bulk hazardous materials, it is forbidden to use __________.Not learned 1054. When handling cargo, the majority of cargo gear breakdowns is due to __________.Not learned 1055. All handling and stowage of packaged hazardous materials on board a domestic vessel engaged in foreign trade shall be done under the supervision of __________.Not learned 1056. Where is the head block located on a boom?Not learned 1057. You are heading into the sea during rough weather. What may happen if there is too much weight forward in your small boat?Not learned 1058. Where is the heel block located on a boom?Not learned 1059. What does the helm command "Check her" mean?Not learned 1060. What does the helm command "Left twenty" mean?Not learned 1061. What does the helm command "meet her" mean?Not learned 1062. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean?Not learned 1063. What does the helm command "Steady as you go" mean?Not learned 1064. When a helmsman receives the command "Right 15 degrees rudder," what should the helmsman's immediate reply be?Not learned 1065. "Herringbone" is a term associated with which activity?Not learned 1066. A high cube container is designed specifically to accomplish which task?Not learned 1067. A high cube container would most likely be used to stow which cargoes?Not learned 1068. The hitch used to secure the standing part of a gantline to the horns of a stage is a __________.Not learned 1069. As you hold a piece of manila line vertically in front of you, the strands run from the lower left to the upper right. Which type of line is this?Not learned 1070. As you hold a piece of manila line vertically in front of you, the strands run from the lower right to the upper left. Which type of line is this?Not learned 1071. A holder of a credential as Master of towing vessels may work each 24 hours for a period not to exceed how many hours?Not learned 1072. The holding capabilities of an anchor are determined PRIMARILY by the __________.Not learned 1073. Which indicates the holding capability of an anchor?Not learned 1074. The holding capacity of a mooring winch can be reduced by moisture on the break lines. What procedure can be used to remove moisture?Not learned 1075. The holding power of an anchor at a given scope of cable increases when which occurs?Not learned 1076. Who must inspect and test hoses used for cargo transfer operations, at specified intervals?Not learned 1077. No hot work shall be performed on board a vessel with hazardous materials as cargo unless the work is approved by the __________.Not learned 1078. When hugging a bank in a narrow channel, you should take precautions against __________.Not learned 1079. If a hydraulic pump on a winch accidentally stops while hoisting, the load will stay suspended because __________.Not learned 1080. "Ice blink" is __________.Not learned 1081. Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice corresponds to 1- 3 tenths?Not learned 1082. Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice corresponds to "Close Pack"?Not learned 1083. Ice concentration is measured in tenths. What concentration range of ice corresponds to "Open Pack"?Not learned 1084. You are on an ice-reinforced vessel about to enter pack ice. Which action should you take?Not learned 1085. Under identical load conditions, nylon, when compared with natural fiber line, will respond in which manner?Not learned 1086. In illustration D038DG below, the crown of the anchor is indicated by which letter?Not learned 1087. In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the anchor shackle?Not learned 1088. In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the pea?Not learned 1089. In illustration D038DG below, which letter indicates the tripping palm?Not learned 1090. In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "I"?Not learned 1091. In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "H"?Not learned 1092. In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "J"?Not learned 1093. In illustration D038DG below, what part of the anchor is indicated by the letter "K"?Not learned 1094. In illustration D038DG below, what type of anchor is depicted?Not learned 1095. In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "C" called?Not learned 1096. In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "A" called?Not learned 1097. In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "F" called?Not learned 1098. In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "H" called?Not learned 1099. The Immigration and Naturalization Service is concerned with which document on a vessel making preliminary entry into a U.S. port from a foreign port?Not learned 1100. When improperly tied, which knot shown in illustration D030DG below is called a granny or thief's knot?Not learned 1101. What will NOT increase friction of a liquid flowing in a pipe and cause a loss of suction head?Not learned 1102. What is NOT an indication that pack ice may be nearby?Not learned 1103. What information must be included in the Notice of Marine Casualty?Not learned 1104. An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove an on-deck oil spill. What size spill is this equipment required to control and remove?Not learned 1105. What should you inspect to be sure that it is safe to go aloft in a bosun's chair?Not learned 1106. On inspected cargo vessels, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of __________.Not learned 1107. All inspected vessels on unrestricted ocean routes must have equipment on board for testing an individual's __________.Not learned 1108. When inspecting ground tackle, where are fractures most frequently found?Not learned 1109. You are inspecting the nonmetallic oil transfer hoses on the vessel you operate. The maximum allowable pressure of the hose is 70 psi. Your inspection confirms the hose did not burst, bulge, leak or abnormally distort under the required static liquid. Which pressure was used for this test?Not learned 1110. When inspecting a tank barge to see that it has all the required fire extinguishers and other safety items aboard, which of the following is the best source for determining what is required?Not learned 1111. When inspecting wire rope before a hoisting operation, what must one look for?Not learned 1112. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. Which is TRUE when complying with regulations?Not learned 1113. Instead of whipping an end of a line, which knot can be used as a temporary means of preventing the line from unraveling?Not learned 1114. When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, how should you instruct him/her?Not learned 1115. Instructions to the crew in the use of all the ship's fire-extinguishing and lifesaving equipment shall be completed within which time frame?Not learned 1116. Insufficient space between the hull and bottom in shallow water will prevent normal screw currents resulting in __________.Not learned 1117. For insurance purposes, which is a requirement for a general average act?Not learned 1118. In insurance terms, which describes the term Particular Average?Not learned 1119. The intakes for an air compressor on a tank vessel carrying grade A cargo may be located in which of the following areas?Not learned 1120. You intend to discharge medical or hazardous wastes ashore. MARPOL Annex V requires you to notify a receiving port or terminal in advance. How much advance notice is required?Not learned 1121. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel. As you approach the other vessel's stern __________.Not learned 1122. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside faces of the cargo battens, the lower side of the deck beams, and the top of the tank top ceiling is known as the __________.Not learned 1123. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside of the side shell, the underside of the deck, and the tank top is known as the __________.Not learned 1124. Which international body is responsible for drafting the MARPOL convention prohibiting marine pollution?Not learned 1125. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 1 substances?Not learned 1126. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 3 substances?Not learned 1127. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 5 substances?Not learned 1128. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 7 substances?Not learned 1129. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes for dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 8 substances?Not learned 1130. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns classes to dangerous goods. What is the proper nomenclature for class 9 substances?Not learned 1131. The International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code assigns dangerous goods into classes. How many main classes are there?Not learned 1132. The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.Not learned 1133. An International Tonnage Certificate will be issued to a vessel when it meets several requirements. Which is one of the requirements?Not learned 1134. On an international voyage, a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or more operating two fire pumps simultaneously is required to have a minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets. What is the minimum required pressure?Not learned 1135. On an international voyage, how many fire axes is a cargo vessel of 14,000 GT required to carry?Not learned 1136. An IOPP Certificate on an inspected vessel is valid for what period of time?Not learned 1137. After an IOPP Certificate is issued to an inspected vessel, how many other surveys of the vessel's pollution prevention equipment are conducted during the period of validity of the certificate?Not learned 1138. What is the "iron mike"?Not learned 1139. What is the MOST irritating to the skin?Not learned 1140. What is/are the advantage(s) of cranes over conventional cargo booms?Not learned 1141. What does item "C" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1142. Which item is designed to be a safety stopper that prevents the anchor cable from running free if the cable jumps the wildcat?Not learned 1143. What does item "E" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1144. What does item "G" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1145. Which item is a journal kept by the officer of the watch in which day to day happenings are recorded regarding the deck department?Not learned 1146. What does item "K" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1147. Which item may be substituted for, in the fireman's outfit, on a cargo vessel?Not learned 1148. Which item must be entered in the official log?Not learned 1149. What does item "A" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1150. What does item "D" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1151. Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?Not learned 1152. Which item shall the Master insure regarding the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB)?Not learned 1153. For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.Not learned 1154. What does a jib refer to on a crane?Not learned 1155. You should keep clear of __________.Not learned 1156. Keeping the draft at or below the load line mark will ensure that the vessel has which of the following?Not learned 1157. You are keeping the required garbage disposal records. How must the amount of garbage disposed of be stated?Not learned 1158. Which kind of hitch should you use to secure a spar?Not learned 1159. If kinking results while wire rope is being coiled clockwise, you should __________.Not learned 1160. Which of the knots, bends, or hitches shown in illustration D030DG below would you use to properly secure a bosun's chair to a gantline?Not learned 1161. What is the knot at the end of the heaving line used to pass the towing hawser called?Not learned 1162. Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a bowline?Not learned 1163. Which knot in illustration D030DG represents a carrick bend?Not learned 1164. Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a double blackwall hitch?Not learned 1165. Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a double sheet bend?Not learned 1166. Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a half hitch?Not learned 1167. Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a single becket bend?Not learned 1168. Which knot in illustration D030DG below represents a timber hitch?Not learned 1169. Which knot in illustration D030DG below is secure only when there is a strain on the line?Not learned 1170. Which knot in illustration D030DG below should be used to secure a line to a spar when the pull is parallel to the spar?Not learned 1171. Which knot in illustration D030DG below should be used to secure a line to a spar when the pull is perpendicular to the spar?Not learned 1172. Which knot reduces the strength of a line by the LEAST amount?Not learned 1173. Which knot shown in illustration D030DG below is a French bowline?Not learned 1174. Which knot shown in illustration D030DG below represents a square knot?Not learned 1175. Which knot is suitable for hoisting an unconscious person?Not learned 1176. Which knot is typically used to join two large lines or hawsers together?Not learned 1177. Which knot is used to attach two different sized lines together?Not learned 1178. Which knot/bend is used to form the bridle at the standing part of a gantline rigged to a stage?Not learned 1179. Which knot should be used to send a man over the side when he may have to use both hands?Not learned 1180. Which knot would best serve as a safety sling in an emergency for a person working over the side?Not learned 1181. The label required on containers carrying barium oxide in an international shipment must read __________.Not learned 1182. The label required for magnesium scrap is __________.Not learned 1183. You are landing a single-screw vessel with a left-handed propeller, starboard side to the dock. As you approach the dock you back your engine with your rudder amidships. You would expect the vessel to __________.Not learned 1184. You are landing a single-screw vessel, with a right-hand propeller, starboard side to the dock. When you have approached the berth and back the engine, how would you expect the vessel to respond?Not learned 1185. Most very large ocean going vessels, such as bulk carriers and large tankers, tend to squat __________.Not learned 1186. A large vessel is equipped with a controllable pitch propeller. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1187. You are on a large vessel fitted with a right-handed controllable-pitch propeller. When making large speed changes while decreasing pitch, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1188. You are on a large vessel fitted with a right-handed controllable-pitch propeller set at maximum forward pitch. Which statement about reversing is TRUE?Not learned 1189. How are the larger sizes of manila line measured?Not learned 1190. What is the largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a hospital space?Not learned 1191. Which lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be painted or soaked in oil when not in use?Not learned 1192. The lashings on a stack of containers with interlocking fittings restrain the forces that cause __________.Not learned 1193. Which color is the last shot of an anchor cable usually painted?Not learned 1194. The latch of a safety hook __________.Not learned 1195. By law, the maximum penalty for failing (without reasonable cause) to give aid in the case of collision is __________.Not learned 1196. By law, a user of marijuana shall be subject to which of the following?Not learned 1197. Which term is given to laying out a line in successive circles flat on deck with the bitter end in the center?Not learned 1198. What is LEAST likely to be used to strip a cargo tank?Not learned 1199. Who is the legal owner of the Oil Record Book for a fixed or floating drilling rig?Not learned 1200. Which letter in illustration D030DG below represents a bowline on a bight?Not learned 1201. Which letter in illustration D030DG below represents a plain whipping?Not learned 1202. What do the letter and number symbols, such as B-II, used to classify portable fire extinguishers indicate?Not learned 1203. Which letter shown in illustration D030DG below represents a clove hitch?Not learned 1204. What does "level-luffing" accomplish during crane operations?Not learned 1205. Which lien against a vessel would be settled FIRST?Not learned 1206. Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.Not learned 1207. You are lifting a 3 ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom.Not learned 1208. You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 20° to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom.Not learned 1209. You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 60? to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom?Not learned 1210. Which term describes the process of lifting the anchor from the bottom?Not learned 1211. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is true?Not learned 1212. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses in the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1213. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1214. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1215. Which will most likely occur when your vessel enters shallow water?Not learned 1216. The most likely time for oil pollution while bunkering is when __________.Not learned 1217. What limits the maximum theoretical stress that can be developed on a guy in a yard and stay rig?Not learned 1218. Line is called "small stuff" if its circumference is less than __________.Not learned 1219. Which line cannot be spliced?Not learned 1220. "Line Displacement" is a procedure that is followed at an oil terminal facility, when there is a change of which of the following?Not learned 1221. Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.Not learned 1222. When a line is laid down in loose, looping figure-eights, it is said to be __________.Not learned 1223. What should you do to a line to prevent fraying where it passes over the side of the vessel?Not learned 1224. Which lines primary function is to reduce the fore and aft motion of a docked vessel?Not learned 1225. When a line is spirally coiled about its end and lying flat on deck, it is said to be __________.Not learned 1226. When a line is subject to wear where it passes through a mooring chock, it should be __________.Not learned 1227. Which line is two-stranded, left-handed small stuff?Not learned 1228. Which line would be least likely to kink?Not learned 1229. The load chart of a crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________.Not learned 1230. You will load class 1.2 commercial explosives and need to construct a portable magazine. The magazine MUST __________.Not learned 1231. Your load line certificate expires on 27 May 1988. The vessel is surveyed on that date and is found satisfactory. You are sailing foreign the same day. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1232. A load line certificate is valid for how many years?Not learned 1233. The load line regulations are administered by the __________.Not learned 1234. Load lines for U.S. vessels are assigned by __________.Not learned 1235. You are to load styrene in bulk, which is subject to self-polymerization. In accordance with 46 CFR Table 153 what are you required to do?Not learned 1236. You have loaded dangerous cargo on your vessel and must fill out a Dangerous Cargo Manifest. In which publication would you find the requirements to complete this form?Not learned 1237. You are loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0900 you find that you have loaded 207,000 barrels. At 1030 you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________.Not learned 1238. You are loading 475,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0800 on 8 July, you find that you have loaded 174,000 barrels. At 1000, you find that you have loaded 192,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________.Not learned 1239. You are loading a cargo that includes cylinders of acetylene aboard your break bulk vessel. Which statement is true?Not learned 1240. You are loading a cargo tank on your container ship. The tank displays the red label as shown in illustration D023DG below. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1241. When loading containers into the cell guides in the hold of a container ship, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1242. When loading a container vessel, the operation is basically that of vertical loading. The important factors to be considered when loading containers are the port of discharge, and which of the following?Not learned 1243. If you are loading fruit in reefer spaces and you notice that the fruit is beginning to mold, which action should you take?Not learned 1244. You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1245. You are loading in a port governed by the tropical load line mark for a voyage to a port governed by the winter mark. The freshwater allowance is 5 inches, and the hydrometer reads 1.005. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1246. Which statement is TRUE when loading a tanker?Not learned 1247. You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)Not learned 1248. What secures the locking pin, that joins the parts of a detachable link, in position?Not learned 1249. Which log includes a statement of the conduct, ability, and character of each crew member on the completion of a voyage?Not learned 1250. Which logbook is required to be submitted to the Coast Guard?Not learned 1251. How long is a credential issued by the U.S. Coast Guard for apprentice mate (steersman) of Towing Vessels valid for?Not learned 1252. How long is a credential issued by the U.S. Coast Guard for Master of Towing Vessels valid for?Not learned 1253. How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on board?Not learned 1254. How long must the operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel oil transfer operation keep a signed copy of the declaration of inspection for?Not learned 1255. How long are the records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems required to be kept on board?Not learned 1256. How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the transferring of oil to other vessels keep the Declaration of Inspection of those transfers?Not learned 1257. A long splice in a line __________.Not learned 1258. How long is the standard container used to measure equivalent units?Not learned 1259. A look-out at the bow sights an object on your port side. How many bell strokes should he sound?Not learned 1260. What should look-outs report?Not learned 1261. A look-out should report objects sighted using __________.Not learned 1262. When is a lookout permitted to leave his station?Not learned 1263. When lowering manropes alongside a stage rigged over the side of a vessel, they should be allowed to trail in the water __________.Not learned 1264. What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air in the presence of an ignition source?Not learned 1265. What is the lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame?Not learned 1266. The machinery associated with heaving in and running out anchor chain is the __________.Not learned 1267. What is the main advantage and chief characteristic of a Steulchen boom?Not learned 1268. What is the main advantage of a Chinese stopper over the one-line stopper?Not learned 1269. What is the main function of the center stud in an anchor chain?Not learned 1270. What is the main function of the core of a wire rope?Not learned 1271. The main function of a stripping system is to __________.Not learned 1272. What is the main reason to lubricate a wire rope?Not learned 1273. How is the main underdeck pipeline on a tankship connected to individual tanks?Not learned 1274. What is the MAIN use of the knot lettered M in illustration D030DG?Not learned 1275. What is a major consideration when determining the scope of anchor line to pay out when anchoring a small boat?Not learned 1276. A majority of the crew requests a survey from the American Consul to determine a vessel's seaworthiness. The vessel is found unfit to continue her intended voyage. The Consul allows the vessel to sail to another port where deficiencies can be corrected. The crew must __________.Not learned 1277. You are making mooring lines fast to bitts, stern to, as in some Mediterranean ports. A swell is liable to make the vessel surge. How should you tie up?Not learned 1278. After making the required notification that a large oil spill into the water has occurred, what is the Next action that should be taken?Not learned 1279. You are making a sharp turn in a channel and using a buoy four points on the bow to gauge your rate of turn. If you observe the buoy moving aft relative to you, what should you do?Not learned 1280. You are making a sharp turn in a channel and using a buoy four points on the bow to gauge your rate of turn. If you observe the buoy moving forward relative to you, what should you do?Not learned 1281. When making a short splice in wire rope __________.Not learned 1282. When making way in heavy seas you notice that your vessel's screw is being lifted clear of the water and racing. Which action will correct the situation?Not learned 1283. The maneuvering information required to be posted in the wheelhouse must be based on certain conditions. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?Not learned 1284. When maneuvering in restricted waters the effect of squat on a vessel varies proportionally to the speed. Which factor is utilized for general calculations?Not learned 1285. How should manila lines in which the strands are right-hand laid be coiled?Not learned 1286. On a manned vessel carrying packaged hazardous cargo, the hazardous materials shall be inspected __________.Not learned 1287. On a manned vessel transporting hazardous materials what is the frequency of required inspections of cargo holds where the materials are stowed?Not learned 1288. In the manufacture of line, plant fibers are twisted together to form __________.Not learned 1289. During the manufacture of line, yarns are twisted together in the __________.Not learned 1290. In the manufacture of wire rope, if the wires are shaped to conform to the curvature of the finished rope before they are laid up, the rope is called __________.Not learned 1291. What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporarily connected standard ANSI (American National Standards Institute) 8-bolt flange for the transfer of cargo oil?Not learned 1292. Many dangerous cargoes are stowed on deck because of the __________.Not learned 1293. How many fathoms are in a shot of anchor cable?Not learned 1294. How many fire axes should be carried by a 700 GT cargo vessel, navigating the Great Lakes?Not learned 1295. How many feet are there in 2 shots of anchor chain?Not learned 1296. How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the weather decks of a tankship?Not learned 1297. How many turns of wire normally mark either side of the detachable link 45 fathoms from the anchor?Not learned 1298. A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is certified by which organization?Not learned 1299. A maritime lien may be placed against which item(s)?Not learned 1300. Which describes Marline?Not learned 1301. You are the Master of a 500-gross ton passenger vessel operating on rivers. Your vessel accidentally runs aground. Under the regulations for passenger vessels, you must notify the __________.Not learned 1302. A Master should file a marine note of protest if __________.Not learned 1303. The Master may have his/her Merchant Mariner Credential suspended or revoked for which of the following?Not learned 1304. The Master may require part of the crew to work when needed for which function?Not learned 1305. If a Master must jettison a container loaded with hazardous material, he must, as soon as possible, notify the __________.Not learned 1306. The Master must maintain the Oil Record Book on board for which duration?Not learned 1307. How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard?Not learned 1308. The Master of a passenger vessel which is not required to maintain an Official Logbook must keep a record of the number of passengers received and delivered from day to day. This record must be available for a period of __________.Not learned 1309. As Master or person in charge, you must notify the U.S. Coast Guard if an injury leaves a crewman unfit to perform routine duties for more than which of the following time periods?Not learned 1310. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.Not learned 1311. If the Master of a US-flag towing vessel replaces any crew member with a non-US citizen, he/she must ensure which of the following?Not learned 1312. You are Master of a U.S. flag vessel which was dry docked for bottom cleaning in Rotterdam, Netherlands. Upon return to a U.S. port, which action is required?Not learned 1313. The Master of any vessel bound on a voyage must apply to a district court when an allegation of unseaworthiness has been made to the Master by __________.Not learned 1314. You are Master of a vessel that is sold in a foreign country after discharge of cargo. What is your responsibility to the crew in regards to return to the United States?Not learned 1315. When does the Master of a vessel tender a Notice of Readiness to the charterer?Not learned 1316. Matches and lighters are prohibited on vessels handling Class 1 explosive materials except in a designated area. In accordance with U.S. regulations who may designate this area on the vessel?Not learned 1317. You are the mate on watch during cargo operations and are conducting the inspection of a hold containing class 3 substances. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is TRUE of any hand flashlight you may be using?Not learned 1318. What material may be substituted for zinc when making a poured metal socket ending to a wire rope?Not learned 1319. Which material should NOT be used to secure cargo on deck for a voyage?Not learned 1320. The maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________.Not learned 1321. What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel?Not learned 1322. What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D049DG can lift in the twin mode?Not learned 1323. What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D051DG can lift when married together in twin with the other pair of cranes at the opposite end of the hatch?Not learned 1324. You may be able to avoid loss of suction in a pump by __________.Not learned 1325. You may BEST turn a twin-screw vessel about, to the right, in a narrow channel by using __________.Not learned 1326. Where may a crewmember find information on the fire and abandon ship stations and his/her assigned duties?Not learned 1327. Which may indicate the proximity of pack ice?Not learned 1328. When may a seaman on a vessel engaged in foreign trade be paid before earning the wages?Not learned 1329. Who may serve as the "person in charge" of loading and discharge operations aboard a tankship?Not learned 1330. What does it mean to "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo?Not learned 1331. What is meant by "spotting the boom"?Not learned 1332. What is meant by the term "broaching to"?Not learned 1333. What is meant by the term "level-luffing" a crane?Not learned 1334. What is meant by the term "luffing the boom" of a crane?Not learned 1335. What is meant by the term "topping the boom"?Not learned 1336. What is meant by the term "two-blocked"?Not learned 1337. What is meant by veering the anchor chain?Not learned 1338. Which measure should NOT be taken to reduce the pounding of a vessel in a head sea?Not learned 1339. What is the mechanical advantage, neglecting friction, of tackle number 5 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1340. What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 1 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1341. What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 10 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1342. What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 11 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1343. What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 2 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1344. What is the mechanical advantage of a threefold purchase when rove to disadvantage and neglecting friction?Not learned 1345. When should a "Mediterranean moor" be used?Not learned 1346. A metal eye spliced into a wire is called a __________.Not learned 1347. Which is the name given to a metal ring on the bottom of a block, to which the standing part of a tackle is spliced?Not learned 1348. What is the name of the metal, teardrop-shaped object sometimes used within an eyesplice?Not learned 1349. Which method of adjusting mooring lines is MOST useful for leaving a boat free to rise and fall with the tide?Not learned 1350. Which method is used to detect rot in manila lines?Not learned 1351. Which is a method used to make an eye in a bight of line where it cannot be spliced?Not learned 1352. Which method should be used to warm up the pump turbines prior to discharge?Not learned 1353. How is the minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly determined?Not learned 1354. What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?Not learned 1355. What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed for a 100 gross ton vessel constructed after June 30,1974?Not learned 1356. What is the minimum number of bolts required in a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling?Not learned 1357. What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary bolted flange oil hose coupling that meets American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standard flange requirements?Not learned 1358. What is the minimum number of fire axes required on a vessel of 900 GT?Not learned 1359. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT?Not learned 1360. What minimum size manila line is required to hold a weight of 932 pounds, if you use a safety factor of six?Not learned 1361. What is the minimum size required before a vessel can be documented?Not learned 1362. What is the minimum standard for making an eye splice in a wire to be used as cargo gear?Not learned 1363. Which of the following terms defines the minimum temperature required to ignite gas or vapor without a spark or flame being present?Not learned 1364. The "Mode" selector switch can be positioned and select all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 1365. What mode of transportation does the IMDGC cover?Not learned 1366. In moderate wind and current what should be the length of chain with a single anchor?Not learned 1367. You are aboard a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is dead in the water and the rudder is amidships. If you reverse your engine how would you expect your vessel to respond?Not learned 1368. When anyone voluntarily deposits his/her Merchant Mariner Credential with a Coast Guard investigating officer, which of the following is TRUE?Not learned 1369. What is a bench hook is used for?Not learned 1370. Which is the BEST action to take if your vessel is dragging her anchor in a strong wind?Not learned 1371. Which is the BEST method of determining if a vessel is dragging anchor?Not learned 1372. What does the boom indicator on a crane indicate?Not learned 1373. A cargo hose is marked with which of the following?Not learned 1374. You are in charge of a U.S. documented vessel. Under title 46 of the United States Code, if you fail to report a complaint of a sexual offense, which action(s) may be taken against you?Not learned 1375. A Chinese stopper (two lines) will hold best when you take which action?Not learned 1376. When chipping rust on a vessel, which is the most important piece(s) of personnel protection equipment?Not learned 1377. You are cleaning the tanks after carrying a cargo of crude oil. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1378. During the course of a voyage, a seaman falls on the main deck and injures his ankle. The Master should submit a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death under which circumstance?Not learned 1379. If there is a discrepancy in the cargo totals, between the cargo onboard the vessel and the cargo listed in the cargo manifest, the more accurate account of cargo totals can be found in which item?Not learned 1380. How does a drift lead indicate that the vessel is dragging anchor?Not learned 1381. Which expresses the term leeway?Not learned 1382. Which of the following is true of a stopper that is attached to a bitt utilizing an overhand knot?Not learned 1383. How is forty-five fathoms marked on the anchor chain?Not learned 1384. Galvanizing would be suitable for protecting wire rope. Which wire would normally be galvanized?Not learned 1385. An individual must be which of the following to serve as the person in charge of oil cargo transfer operations onboard a self-propelled tank vessel?Not learned 1386. If you intend to land tulip bulbs from Holland in a U.S. port, who must inspect the bulbs?Not learned 1387. You are landing a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller port side to a dock. As you approach the dock, you back down on your engine with rudder amidships. How would you expect the vessel to respond?Not learned 1388. Which is the length of a standard "shot" of anchor chain?Not learned 1389. The lookout sights a vessel dead ahead. How would this be reported on the bell?Not learned 1390. Maritime Administration personnel may be allowed in the pilothouse and on the navigation bridge. Who is responsible for these personnel while in these areas of the vessel?Not learned 1391. You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has no tugs available. You decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. How much chain should you out?Not learned 1392. What is the meaning of the term tare weight?Not learned 1393. What is the mechanical advantage, neglecting friction, of tackle number 12 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1394. What is the mechanical advantage, neglecting friction, of tackle number 4 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1395. What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 3 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1396. What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 6 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1397. What is the mechanical advantage of tackle number 7 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1398. You are mooring to a buoy. How should you make your approach?Not learned 1399. Which mooring line checks forward motion of a vessel at a pier?Not learned 1400. What is the name of tackle number 11 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1401. What is the name of tackle number 12 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1402. What is the name of tackle number 2 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1403. What is the name of tackle number 3 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1404. What is the name of tackle number 4 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1405. What is the name of tackle number 5 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1406. What is the name of tackle number 6 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1407. What is the name of tackle number 7 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1408. What is the name of tackle number 8 as shown in illustration D029DG?Not learned 1409. What is the name of tackle number 9 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1410. Which is the nomenclature for the metal plates that cover the top of the hawsepipe on a vessel?Not learned 1411. Where can the number of certificated lifeboatmen required for a vessel be found?Not learned 1412. You observe a V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream in a river. What may this indicate?Not learned 1413. The Officers Competency Certificates Convention of 1936 applies to all of these vessels operating seaward of the boundary line. Which vessel is exempt?Not learned 1414. Official proof of an American vessel's nationality is contained in which document?Not learned 1415. When oil is accidentally discharged overboard, an entry is required to be made in which log?Not learned 1416. The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships is the property of the ________.Not learned 1417. What is one of the main purposes of dunnage?Not learned 1418. You are operating an ocean-going vessel of 322 gross tons. If your vessel does NOT have an oily-water separator then she must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily ballast to a shore facility. This system must include which item(s)?Not learned 1419. After each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture, when shall an entry be recorded in the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1420. You are the operator of an uninspected vessel which is involved in an accident. Under which circumstance are you not required to assist people affected by the accident?Not learned 1421. In order to pay out or slack a mooring line which is under strain, you should take which action?Not learned 1422. Which is NOT a part of an anchor?Not learned 1423. Which part of a windlass physically engages the chain during hauling or paying out?Not learned 1424. On a passenger vessel over 400 gross tons, in which section are the routine entries recorded in the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1425. When paying off seamen in a foreign port, where a United States consul is not available, the release must be executed by the seamen and which other person?Not learned 1426. A person is found operating a recreational vessel while under the influence of alcohol. He/she is liable for which penalty?Not learned 1427. When picking up your mooring at the buoy, which is the correct method?Not learned 1428. You are planning to anchor in an area where several anchors have been lost due to fouling. What precaution should you take?Not learned 1429. What do pollution regulations require of each scupper and/or drain that is located in an enclosed deck area?Not learned 1430. You are proceeding along the right bank of a narrow channel aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel. The vessel starts to sheer due to bank suction/cushion effect. Which action should you take?Not learned 1431. Which term describes the process of lowering a boom to a horizontal position and onto its deck support?Not learned 1432. If your propeller is racing in rough weather, which action should you take?Not learned 1433. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the propeller blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and vibration. Which term defines this effect?Not learned 1434. Which is the proper procedure to reeve a right-angle threefold purchase?Not learned 1435. Which is the proper term for a band or collar on the top end of a boom to which the topping lift, midships guy, and outboard guys are secured?Not learned 1436. Which is the proper term given to a stopper used in securing the ground tackle for sea that consists of a grab attached to a turnbuckle?Not learned 1437. Which is the proper term used for keeping certain cargoes separated because of their inherent characteristics?Not learned 1438. Which is the proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook?Not learned 1439. Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw packing materials that will float into the sea to be in compliance with MARPOL Regulations?Not learned 1440. Providing you are not in a special area, such as the Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea?Not learned 1441. Which is a requirement of a vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast?Not learned 1442. Who is responsible for the preparation of muster lists and signing of same?Not learned 1443. When rigging a bosun's chair, a tail block or lizard is used to perform which function?Not learned 1444. As a rule, ships of most configurations, when drifting in calm water with negligible current, will lie in which orientation?Not learned 1445. When running before a heavy sea, what will moving weights aft on the vessel accomplish?Not learned 1446. For safety reasons, a stage should only be rigged in which location?Not learned 1447. You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX V of MARPOL. What is the minimum distance in nautical miles from land must you be to discharge ground food garbage that will pass through a one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea?Not learned 1448. A seaman assaults the Second Mate and injures him with a beer bottle while the ship is at sea. The incident is logged in the Official Logbook. In subsequent suspension and revocation proceedings against the seaman, according to the regulations, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1449. Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's speed past its "critical speed"?Not learned 1450. You are shifting a gas free tank barge to dry dock for repairs. The barge must have onboard which document?Not learned 1451. As a ship moves through the water, it causes a wake, which is also moving forward relative to the sea. In addition to a fore and aft motion, which direction will the wake flow?Not learned 1452. As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. Which term defines the ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed?Not learned 1453. A shipper of cargo aboard your vessel offers a letter of indemnity for the cargo. This is done in order to obtain which document?Not learned 1454. If you shorten the scope of anchor cable, what is the effect of your anchor's holding power?Not learned 1455. Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left, depending on rotation. Which causes this force?Not learned 1456. As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbor, what must they do FIRST?Not learned 1457. After splicing an eye in a piece of wire rope, why should the splice be parceled and served?Not learned 1458. You are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master gives you a rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. What should you do?Not learned 1459. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1460. Which statement is TRUE when amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, and the revisions have been submitted to the Coast Guard?Not learned 1461. Which statement is TRUE when mousing a cargo hook with marline or small line?Not learned 1462. Which statement is TRUE when using the anchor to steady the bow while approaching a dock?Not learned 1463. The stowage factor for a cargo is based cubic feet and which other item?Not learned 1464. Which is the proper term used to describe a stream of water immediately surrounding a moving vessel's hull, flowing in the same direction as the vessel?Not learned 1465. A survey of refrigerated cargo, to certify that proper methods of stowage were utilized, can be conducted by which organization?Not learned 1466. You are taking the bow line from the port bow of a large vessel that is underway when the stern of your tug comes in contact with the vessel. The forward motion of both vessels causes your tug to be turned toward the other vessel and contact the stem thereby being "stemmed". Which action should you take?Not learned 1467. A Temporary Certificate of Inspection is effective until which time period?Not learned 1468. Which term defines when a boat turns broadside to heavy seas and winds, thus exposing the boat to the danger of capsizing?Not learned 1469. Which term defines "An electronic or electric device that indicates the rate of turn of a vessel"?Not learned 1470. Which term defines the process of dividing the total volume of the ship in cubic feet (after omission of exempted spaces) by 100?Not learned 1471. Which term defines when a vessel is swinging from side to side off course due to quartering seas?Not learned 1472. Which term describes Cargoes that might leak from containers?Not learned 1473. Which term describes damage to cargo caused by fumes or vapors from liquids, gases, or solids?Not learned 1474. Which term describes the time allowed for loading and discharging cargo in a charter party?Not learned 1475. Which is the term given to the opening in the deck beneath the anchor windlass that leads to the chain locker?Not learned 1476. Which term is given to the placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook?Not learned 1477. You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. Who is required to sign the Dangerous Cargo Manifest acknowledging the correctness of the document?Not learned 1478. Which it TRUE concerning the cheek length of a block in inches?Not learned 1479. Which is TRUE for a vessel's Certificate of Documentation?Not learned 1480. If a tug equipped with flanking rudders is to be turned in a confined circle, when going astern, which is the best action to take to make the stern move to port?Not learned 1481. When a tug makes up to a large vessel, why should the spring line be led from as far forward as possible on the tug?Not learned 1482. A twin screw vessel, making headway with both engines turning ahead, will turn more readily to starboard if you take which action?Not learned 1483. What type of knot in illustration D030DG is indicated by the Letter "P"?Not learned 1484. All U.S. Flag vessels engaged in foreign trade are required to be which of the following?Not learned 1485. You are underway in heavy weather and your bow is into the seas. Which action should you take to prevent pounding?Not learned 1486. In the United States, which organization sets the load line markings?Not learned 1487. You should NOT use a power tool if which condition exists?Not learned 1488. What is used to power most modern pedestal cranes on cargo vessels?Not learned 1489. What should be used when temporarily securing a hook to the end of a wire rope?Not learned 1490. Using illustration D058DG below, which of the figures protects the stress bearing end of a wire rope from being crushed while forming a temporary eye splice using wire rope clips?Not learned 1491. When using two tugs to assist in mooring a large, deeply laden ship, where is the most powerful tug usually placed?Not learned 1492. A vessel arrives in San Francisco from a foreign voyage. When MUST the Master make formal entry?Not learned 1493. Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. How can you reduce the danger of capsizing?Not learned 1494. Your vessel is in Charleston, S.C. Which situation does NOT require you to clear Customs?Not learned 1495. Your vessel is chartered under a time charter party. Under this type of charter party, what is your responsibility as Master?Not learned 1496. Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a temporary certificate. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1497. When a vessel is entering or leaving a port, where is the record of engine speeds kept?Not learned 1498. Your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow. How will the vessel respond in calm weather, with the engines ahead and hard left rudder?Not learned 1499. A vessel reduces speed without backing. Which item is the primary factor that determines the rate that her speed through the water decreases?Not learned 1500. Your vessel is a single-screw ship with a right-hand propeller. There is no current. Which is the easiest way to make a landing?Not learned 1501. When is a vessel tide rode?Not learned 1502. Why is a VLCC (100,000 DWT+) with a 30,000 Shaft Horsepower Steam Turbine slow to respond to engine movements, and has less stopping power than normal ships?Not learned 1503. You want to double the strength of a mooring line by using two lines. To accomplish this, which is TRUE of the second line?Not learned 1504. You are on watch and the Pilot has the conn. The Master has temporarily gone below. The Pilot orders a course change which you are certain will put the vessel into imminent danger. Which should be your initial response?Not learned 1505. You are on watch at sea at night and a fire breaks out in #3 hold. What should be done IMMEDIATELY?Not learned 1506. You are on watch while your vessel is entering port with a pilot conning. The pilot gives a steering command to the helmsman who fails to acknowledge it by repeating the command. You should immediately take which action?Not learned 1507. Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or declared as which of the following?Not learned 1508. What does a whipping on a fiber line accomplish?Not learned 1509. What would be the amount of strain on each runner of a married fall system lifting 2000 lbs. when the angle made by the legs is 90°?Not learned 1510. When would a U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service NOT subject to the requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 1511. What do the York-Antwerp Rules relate to?Not learned 1512. On a MODU, where MUST the fire control plan be posted?Not learned 1513. Which molten substance is poured into the basket of a wire rope socket being fitted to the end of a wire rope?Not learned 1514. A monkey fist is found on which of the following?Not learned 1515. When moored with a Mediterranean moor, the ship should be secured to the pier by having __________.Not learned 1516. Mooring lines constructed of different material have variable elasticity. Which of the following is true concerning their combined use for mooring a vessel?Not learned 1517. A mooring line is described as being 6x24, 1-3/4 inch wire rope. What do the above numbers refer to?Not learned 1518. Mooring with two bow anchors has which major advantage over anchoring with one bow anchor?Not learned 1519. When mooring a vessel the breast lines should lead as far away as possible. What does the additional length help facilitate?Not learned 1520. A mooring winch is designed to have a specific number of layers of wire on the drum for optimum brake capacity. How many layers are recommended?Not learned 1521. Mooring wire fiber tails should be inspected on a regular basis. Which of the following would be included in the inspection?Not learned 1522. Mooring wires used to tie up a vessel may undergo dynamic shock from passing ships. What safety measures can be taken to prevent damage to the wires?Not learned 1523. Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.Not learned 1524. How much foam does an A B-III foam extinguisher contain?Not learned 1525. How much force would be required to lift a weight of 200 lbs. using a gun tackle rigged to disadvantage (do not consider friction)?Not learned 1526. How much weight can you lift by applying 100 lbs. of force to a twofold purchase rigged to disadvantage (do not consider friction)?Not learned 1527. Multi-year ice is the hardest sea ice and should be avoided if possible. It is recognizable because of what tone to its surface color?Not learned 1528. Multiple factors will have an effect on your vessel when it is maneuvering in restricted waters. Which of the following factors is the combination of sinkage and trim of the vessel?Not learned 1529. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of allyl alcohol, benzene, and propanolamine. Which of the following is true?Not learned 1530. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of butyric acid, propylene oxide, and octyl alcohol. Which statement is true?Not learned 1531. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of ethanolamine, methyl acrylate, and glycerine. Which statement is true?Not learned 1532. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker and will carry cargoes of isophorone, ethylenediamine, and creosote. Which of the following is TRUE?Not learned 1533. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker. The loading plan includes cargoes of diethylenetriamine and formamide. Which statement concerning the stowage of these cargoes is TRUE?Not learned 1534. You are on a multiple-product chemical tanker with orders to load diethylamine. What is NOT a requirement for transporting this cargo?Not learned 1535. You are on a multiple product tankship and carrying methyl acrylate, diethanolamine, and triethylamine. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1536. You are on a multiple-product tankship and scheduled to load a cargo classed as an aromatic amine. This cargo is incompatible with cargoes classed as __________.Not learned 1537. Who must approve the vessel's trim and stability booklet?Not learned 1538. Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly?Not learned 1539. What must Inland vessels of 100 GT and over be fitted with for oily mixtures?Not learned 1540. When must the Master of a vessel log the position of load line marks in relation to the surface of the water in the Official Logbook?Not learned 1541. What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT to 400 GT be fitted with for oily mixtures?Not learned 1542. When must a proper look-out be kept?Not learned 1543. If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you should pump only __________.Not learned 1544. Who must sign the Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer operations?Not learned 1545. The muster list must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.Not learned 1546. Which is the requirement for the name and hailing port of a documented commercial vessel?Not learned 1547. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter B in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1548. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter E in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1549. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter D in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1550. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter A in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1551. What is the name of tackle number 1 as shown in illustration D029DG below?Not learned 1552. A natural fiber rope can be ruined by dampness because it may __________.Not learned 1553. In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) __________.Not learned 1554. Which is a negotiable document?Not learned 1555. A new coil of nylon line should be opened by __________.Not learned 1556. A new crewman reports on board. He must be trained in the use of the ship's lifesaving appliances within what time period?Not learned 1557. You are approaching a ship that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, which action should you take?Not learned 1558. One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY take which action?Not learned 1559. For small angles of inclination, if the KG were equal to the KM, then the vessel would have __________.Not learned 1560. The time required to incline from bow down to stern down and return to bow down again is called __________.Not learned 1561. Which is TRUE when you pay out more anchor cable?Not learned 1562. Vessels subject to SOLAS are required to have which of the following items onboard to aid in SAR communications?Not learned 1563. Which color is the next-to-last shot of an anchor cable usually painted?Not learned 1564. Under normal operating conditions aboard a ship, who has the overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book?Not learned 1565. What is a normal safe working load for used nylon rope in good condition?Not learned 1566. Which is the normal and safest way for a sailor in a bosun's chair to be raised aloft?Not learned 1567. The normal and safest way for a sailor to be lowered in a bosun's chair when descending vertically is __________.Not learned 1568. Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a stack of containers with twist locks, lashings are required when the tier exceeds what height?Not learned 1569. Which is normally used to hold wire rope for splicing?Not learned 1570. You are in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side?Not learned 1571. When you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel, what should your first action be?Not learned 1572. You notice that your speed has decreased, the stern of your vessel has settled into the water, and your rudder is sluggish in responding. The MOST likely cause is __________.Not learned 1573. Who should be notified prior to starting up a crane?Not learned 1574. The number of able seamen required on board a vessel can be found in which document?Not learned 1575. The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a MODU is stated in the __________.Not learned 1576. The number of certificated able seamen and lifeboatmen required on a vessel is determined by which organization?Not learned 1577. The number or name of a tank barge shall be __________.Not learned 1578. How is the number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel computed?Not learned 1579. Nylon line can be dangerous because it __________.Not learned 1580. A nylon line is rated at 15,000 lbs. breaking strain. Using a safety factor of 5, what is the safe working load (SWL)?Not learned 1581. Nylon line is NOT suitable for __________.Not learned 1582. When observed, which item indicates a snag or other underwater obstruction in a river?Not learned 1583. In observing rig motion while under tow, the period of roll is the time difference between __________.Not learned 1584. Your oceangoing vessel has medical waste to be disposed of ashore. How many hours advance notice must you give the port or terminal?Not learned 1585. Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for __________.Not learned 1586. Odorous cargoes are those that __________.Not learned 1587. You are the officer on watch and have taken the final drafts of your vessel prior to getting underway. The vessel takes departure and proceeds outbound in a narrow channel. As the vessel increases speed and gains momentum, what will be the effect on the mean draft?Not learned 1588. The official identification of a vessel is found in which document?Not learned 1589. The official logbook is filed with the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection. When does this action take place?Not learned 1590. When an Official logbook is not required, an unofficial logbook is required to be kept aboard for review by a marine inspector for __________.Not learned 1591. An Official Logbook is required on which vessel?Not learned 1592. Which is TRUE concerning the official number of a documented vessel?Not learned 1593. On Offshore Drilling units, in addition to the life jackets stowed at each berth location, life jackets must be stowed at each work station and __________.Not learned 1594. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge?Not learned 1595. The oil record book is required to be carried aboard __________.Not learned 1596. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for not less than __________.Not learned 1597. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry must be made in which log?Not learned 1598. One shot of anchor chain is equal to how many feet (meters)?Not learned 1599. Which term describes the opening in the deck that leads the anchor cable outside the hull?Not learned 1600. You operate a harbor craft on inland waters exclusively. If you regularly service or contact foreign flag vessels in the course of business, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1601. You are operating a 1,000 GT non-oceangoing tankship. It must be equipped with __________.Not learned 1602. You are operating a 150 GT towing vessel. What is NOT required on the vessel?Not learned 1603. When operating in an area where sea ice and icebergs are present, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1604. If you are operating on the Inland Waters of the United States, which of the following may you discharge overboard?Not learned 1605. You are operating a non-ocean-going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board?Not learned 1606. Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100 gross tons it must have a fixed piping system to discharge oily mixtures ashore. What other item must this system include?Not learned 1607. While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. When should these entries be made?Not learned 1608. You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You are NOT permitted to carry oil or hazardous materials in a(n) __________.Not learned 1609. You are operating a twin-screw vessel and lose your port engine. You continue to operate on your starboard engine only. Which action would you take to move your vessel ahead in a straight line?Not learned 1610. For operations in pack ice, a vessel should __________.Not learned 1611. As operator of a 199 GT towing vessel sailing foreign, it shall be your duty to enter in the Official Logbook or other permanent record which entry?Not learned 1612. You are operator of a towing vessel which collides with a buoy and drags it off station. What should you do if the damage to your vessel is not serious?Not learned 1613. When are Operators of Uninspected Passenger Vessels required to keep their Coast Guard credential aboard their vessel?Not learned 1614. The operator of an uninspected vessel MUST assist people affected by an accident if he or she can do so without __________.Not learned 1615. The operator of an uninspected vessel MUST assist people affected by an accident if he or she can do so without __________.Not learned 1616. The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of which item?Not learned 1617. The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall keep a written record available for inspection by the COPT or OCMI. What will this record contain?Not learned 1618. Which statement is TRUE to back a right-handed, single-screw vessel in a straight line?Not learned 1619. In order to correctly open a new coil of manila line, which procedure should you follow?Not learned 1620. In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be which of the following?Not learned 1621. In order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while loading petroleum products, you should __________.Not learned 1622. You are ordering a new block to use with a 3-inch circumference manila line. Which represents a proper size block for this line?Not learned 1623. You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer commodities. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1624. You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1625. You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1626. You are ordering hazardous ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1627. The organization that certifies the safe working load of cargo cranes on a vessel is the __________.Not learned 1628. Which organization would conduct a survey of the insulation in a reefer compartment prior to loading cargo?Not learned 1629. The original Bill of Lading, once signed by the Master, is NOT __________.Not learned 1630. Overcarriage is best prevented by __________.Not learned 1631. A package contains nitric acid solution and is radioactive. The radiation level at the package surface is .36 millirems per hour. How should this package be labeled?Not learned 1632. Which part of an anchor actually digs into the bottom?Not learned 1633. The part of an anchor which takes hold on the bottom is the __________.Not learned 1634. Which part of a cargo boom has the greatest diameter?Not learned 1635. Which part of a conventional cargo gear rig provides for vertical control and positioning of a boom?Not learned 1636. Which is part of the ground tackle?Not learned 1637. What part of the ground tackle is the most likely to develop fractures due to extensive anchor use?Not learned 1638. Which part of the patent anchor performs the same function as the stock of an old-fashioned anchor; that is, forces the flukes to dig in?Not learned 1639. Particular average is __________.Not learned 1640. If you were to pass a stopper on a wire rope, what should the stopper be made of?Not learned 1641. A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes?Not learned 1642. Which passenger vessel is required to permanently exhibit a fire control plan?Not learned 1643. When passing a hawser to the dock you would first use which line?Not learned 1644. When patching holes in the hull, how can pillows, bedding, and other soft materials be used?Not learned 1645. Which term defines the payment of penalty for a ship's delay after the expiration of lay days due to some fault of the charterer or his agent?Not learned 1646. Peck and Hale gear is used most commonly for securing __________.Not learned 1647. Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function?Not learned 1648. Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function?Not learned 1649. Most pedestal crane power is provided by __________.Not learned 1650. A pelican hook __________.Not learned 1651. What is the penalty for desertion?Not learned 1652. What is the penalty for willfully damaging cargo?Not learned 1653. When the period of beam seas equals the natural rolling period of a vessel, what will most likely occur?Not learned 1654. What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate?Not learned 1655. What is the period of validity of a Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate?Not learned 1656. What is the period of validity of a Safety Management Certificate?Not learned 1657. What is the period of validity of the SOLAS required Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate?Not learned 1658. During a period of "whiteout", you should expect which of the following?Not learned 1659. A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition?Not learned 1660. The periodic weight testing of a vessel's cargo booms may be performed by which organization?Not learned 1661. It is permissible to place an eye splice in wire rope used as cargo gear providing the splice is made using __________.Not learned 1662. A Permit to Proceed is issued by which organization?Not learned 1663. No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage of any type when __________.Not learned 1664. You are the person in charge of a vessel involved in a marine casualty. You must notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Inspection Office if the property damage is in excess of which amount?Not learned 1665. A person may operate an air compressor in which of the following areas on board a tank barge?Not learned 1666. Which piece(s) of equipment is/are required to "twin-up" 30-ton pedestal cranes aboard a crane vessel?Not learned 1667. Which term describes a piece of small stuff (small line) secured to an object to prevent it from going adrift?Not learned 1668. While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the primary responsibility of the watch officer?Not learned 1669. You are piloting your vessel in a narrow channel. How will the vessel react to a steep bank on your starboard side?Not learned 1670. When piloting a vessel, how are visual references used to establish a constant rate of turn?Not learned 1671. The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold directly to a cargo tank and serves only one tank is known as a __________.Not learned 1672. The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold to underdeck pipelines is known as a __________.Not learned 1673. Where is the pivoting point located on a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed?Not learned 1674. What is the placement requirement for the number or name of a tank barge?Not learned 1675. You are planning the stowage of two incompatible products on your multiple-product tankship. What will NOT provide the minimum required segregation?Not learned 1676. The Plimsoll mark on a vessel is used to __________.Not learned 1677. In polar regions you should NOT expect to see __________.Not learned 1678. The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U. S. flag vessels __________.Not learned 1679. Under the Pollution Regulations, which action is required when you dump food wastes in the sea?Not learned 1680. Under the Pollution Regulations, how long must garbage disposal records be retained onboard for?Not learned 1681. Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of which item(s)?Not learned 1682. Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?Not learned 1683. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.Not learned 1684. Portable fire extinguishers must be provided for the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge __________.Not learned 1685. Which position shown in illustration D019DG below is the most dangerous when tying up?Not learned 1686. It is possible, and sometimes necessary, to strengthen the deck of a vessel for carriage of deck cargo by __________.Not learned 1687. Which is NOT a potential hazard of approaching close to an iceberg?Not learned 1688. Which is a precaution you should take before bunkering?Not learned 1689. Which is a predictable result of a vessel nearing a bank or edge of a steep banked channel?Not learned 1690. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are) __________.Not learned 1691. In preparation for receiving chilled reefer cargo, the reefer space has been precooled for over twenty-four hours. Loading may begin when the space has been cooled to a temperature between __________.Not learned 1692. You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 150 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.Not learned 1693. You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 1,600 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, you must check that the fuel oil tank vents __________.Not learned 1694. You are preparing to load fuel oil on a vessel of 300 gross tons constructed after June 30, 1974. Before loading, which statement is TRUE concerning fuel oil tank vents?Not learned 1695. You are preparing to load a heavy cargo with abnormal physical dimensions onboard your vessel. Which of the following is of primary importance when planning the load?Not learned 1696. You are preparing to moor your cargo vessel. What concerns should you have with regard to the placement of an off-shore bow line?Not learned 1697. You are preparing to moor your vessel starboard side to, bow in. Which line is customarily put out first?Not learned 1698. You are preparing to relieve the mate on watch while underway at sea. Under which situation should the watch NOT be transferred?Not learned 1699. You are preparing to slush a stay on your vessel by lowering yourself down the stay in a bosun's chair. The proper way to do this is to ride down the stay on a riding shackle in which configuration?Not learned 1700. What pressure shall cargo hoses carried on tank vessels be able to withstand?Not learned 1701. Which can be prevented only by segregating two lots of cargo into separate holds?Not learned 1702. The primary function of which line(s) is to hold the vessel snuggly to the dock?Not learned 1703. What is the primary purpose of a load line?Not learned 1704. The primary purpose of a load line is to establish required __________.Not learned 1705. The primary purpose of the stud is to prevent the anchor chain from __________.Not learned 1706. Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master must __________.Not learned 1707. Prior to handling Class 1 explosive materials, which signal(s) is/are required to be displayed by the vessel?Not learned 1708. Where is the most probable location of the remote shutdown station for cargo pumps on a tank barge carrying oil?Not learned 1709. You are proceeding in a channel; your vessel is requiring a significant amount of right rudder and your bow is still falling off to port. What can you conclude from this information?Not learned 1710. You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, which would be the BEST action to take?Not learned 1711. What produces the MOST dangerous vapors?Not learned 1712. What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?Not learned 1713. What product is considered a noxious liquid substance for regulatory purposes?Not learned 1714. Which product is most likely to accumulate static electricity?Not learned 1715. What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate?Not learned 1716. What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?Not learned 1717. What is the proper term for the mooring line that runs through the bullnose leading forward?Not learned 1718. To properly rig the downhaul to your stage for lowering, you must __________.Not learned 1719. What provides little or no indication that a vessel is dragging anchor?Not learned 1720. What provides little or no indication that a vessel is dragging anchor?Not learned 1721. What provides the majority of strength to an aluminum-sided container?Not learned 1722. Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles, rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea?Not learned 1723. After having been pulled aloft in a bosun's chair on a mast, you must now make yourself fast in the chair prior to painting the mast. You should first __________.Not learned 1724. You have been pulled aloft in a bosun's chair rigged to a mast that you intend to paint. You are now supporting your weight by seizing the hauling part and the standing part of the gantline in one hand. What is the next action you should take in securing the bosun's chair?Not learned 1725. Which pump must always be primed?Not learned 1726. What purpose does a bridge fitting serve when lashing containers?Not learned 1727. For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of __________.Not learned 1728. What is the purpose of a check valve?Not learned 1729. What is the purpose of a devil's claw?Not learned 1730. What is the purpose of the equalizing beam aboard a crane vessel?Not learned 1731. What is the purpose of pressure-vacuum relief valves?Not learned 1732. What is the purpose of Sluicing or slushing wire rope?Not learned 1733. The purpose of the stripping bar on an anchor windlass is to __________.Not learned 1734. What is the purpose for whipping the bitter end of a fiber rope?Not learned 1735. What should be readily available on deck while seamen are working over the side on a stage?Not learned 1736. You receive a package, for shipment aboard your vessel, containing Class 1 explosives. The package is damp, moldy and stained. Which action are you required to take?Not learned 1737. The recessed areas on a wildcat are called __________.Not learned 1738. Which is NOT a recommended practice when handling nylon line?Not learned 1739. What are reef points used for?Not learned 1740. If reefer spaces are not properly cleaned prior to loading cargo, it will most likely cause __________.Not learned 1741. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.Not learned 1742. Regardless of local requirements, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to which of the following agencies?Not learned 1743. Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman's outfits?Not learned 1744. Regulations concerning the stowage, lashing, and securing of timber deck cargoes aboard general cargo vessels may be found in the __________.Not learned 1745. By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected towing vessel must be which of the following?Not learned 1746. The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on which waters?Not learned 1747. What is Reid Vapor Pressure?Not learned 1748. In relation to cargo gear, what does "SWL" mean?Not learned 1749. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, which describes the term "kick"?Not learned 1750. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, which defines the term "transfer"?Not learned 1751. In relation to the turning of a vessel, which describes the term "advance"?Not learned 1752. A relief valve for a cargo pump is generally installed __________.Not learned 1753. When being relieved of the helm, the new helmsman would find it handy to know which of the following?Not learned 1754. What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer procedures?Not learned 1755. What is required to be entered into the Official Logbook?Not learned 1756. Which is NOT a required entry in the ship's Official Logbook?Not learned 1757. Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if __________.Not learned 1758. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried, in the vicinity of the radio room exit, on a tank vessel on an international voyage?Not learned 1759. What is required to be posted in the pilothouse of a vessel?Not learned 1760. What is required to be posted in the pilothouse of a vessel?Not learned 1761. What is NOT required as special safety equipment on a tankship carrying hazardous cargoes in bulk?Not learned 1762. When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure?Not learned 1763. What is required to be stenciled at the heel of a cargo boom?Not learned 1764. You are required to stop off a conventional mooring wire to transfer the load to a set of bitts. Which of the following stoppers should be used?Not learned 1765. Which is NOT required on a tankship carrying hazardous liquid cargoes in bulk?Not learned 1766. What is NOT required on an uninspected towing vessel?Not learned 1767. What is NOT a requirement for the preparation of used, gasoline-propelled cars if they are to be carried as ordinary cargo and not as hazardous cargo?Not learned 1768. What is a requirement for remote manual shutdown stations for internal combustion engine driven cargo pumps on tank barges?Not learned 1769. What is NOT a requirement for a salvage claim?Not learned 1770. What is NOT a requirement for storage batteries on tank barges?Not learned 1771. What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death?Not learned 1772. You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard?Not learned 1773. It is the responsibility of the crane operator to, at all times, be aware of the location of the __________.Not learned 1774. The responsibility for maintaining the Official Logbook on voyages between the Atlantic and Pacific coasts of the United States rests with the __________.Not learned 1775. It is the responsibility of the Master to ensure that __________.Not learned 1776. What is NOT a responsibility of the tankerman in charge of loading an unmanned tank barge?Not learned 1777. Who is responsible for establishing watches aboard a U.S. vessel?Not learned 1778. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used following a serious marine incident?Not learned 1779. The riding pawl is __________.Not learned 1780. You are riding to a single anchor. The vessel is yawing excessively. Which action should be taken to reduce the yawing?Not learned 1781. When rigging a stage, the standing part should be fastened to the horns of a stage with which of the following hitches?Not learned 1782. You are rigging a stage over the vessel's side and are securing the downhaul with lowering turns at your end of the stage. When finished, what should be done with the remainder of the line?Not learned 1783. Right-laid line should be coiled __________.Not learned 1784. River currents tend to __________.Not learned 1785. The "rolling hitch" could be used to accomplish which task?Not learned 1786. What can a rolling hitch be used for?Not learned 1787. A rope made of a combination of wire and fiber is known as __________.Not learned 1788. The rope which is rove from the truck to be used with a Bosun's chair is called a __________.Not learned 1789. Roundline is a __________.Not learned 1790. With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving ahead on the port screw and backing on the starboard screw will __________.Not learned 1791. With rudders amidships and negligible wind, a twin-screw vessel moving astern with both engines backing will back __________.Not learned 1792. The rudders are amidships and both screws are going ahead. What will happen if the starboard screw is stopped?Not learned 1793. The S.S. Hollowpoint has a charter party in which the charterer assumes no responsibility for the operation of the vessel but pays stevedoring expenses. What is the name of the charter party?Not learned 1794. The S.S. Ossel Hitch arrives in Capetown, South Africa, and the Master affects a note of protest with the U.S. Consul. Why would the Master affect this document?Not learned 1795. The S.S. Sheet Bend arrives in New York after encountering heavy weather on a voyage from Cape Town. Who will note the maritime protest for the Master?Not learned 1796. The safe working load for the assembled cargo gear and the minimum angle to the horizontal for which the gear is designed shall be marked on the __________.Not learned 1797. The safe working load (SWL) of wire rope with a safety factor of 6 is what percent of its strength?Not learned 1798. To safely anchor a vessel there must be sufficient "scope" in the anchor cable. Which BEST defines the term scope?Not learned 1799. Safety equipment on board vessels must be approved by the __________.Not learned 1800. The Safety Equipment Certificate shows that the vessel conforms to the standards of which organization?Not learned 1801. Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn during which task?Not learned 1802. Safety is increased if __________.Not learned 1803. Which safety precaution(s) should be observed during crane operations?Not learned 1804. What is a sailmaker's hook used for?Not learned 1805. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time a small oil spill occurs on deck from a leaking dresser coupler. After shutting down the transfer, the engine room should first be informed, and then which action should be taken?Not learned 1806. A seaman deserts the vessel in a foreign port. What should the Master do with any of the deserter's personal effects remaining on board?Not learned 1807. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1808. A seaman you have just discharged from an Oceanographic Research Vessel has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1809. After a seaman is discharged, at the end of the voyage, the final payment of wages due must be made, whichever is earliest, either within 24 hours after the cargo has been discharged, or what other time frame?Not learned 1810. A seaman dies during a voyage. What is NOT required to be entered into the Official Log?Not learned 1811. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when which situation has occurred?Not learned 1812. A seaman leaves a vessel before it sails from a foreign port. He informs the Chief Officer that he won't return. After the vessel sails, the Chief Officer finds the seaman's work clothes in his locker. How should the Master handle this matter?Not learned 1813. A seaman may not make an allotment to which relation?Not learned 1814. A seaman may have all or part of his wages deposited by allotment to a bank or savings institution. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for this type of allotment?Not learned 1815. Securing cargo by running timbers from an upper support down to the cargo, either vertically or at an angle, is called __________.Not learned 1816. The securing systems for containers were developed to prevent container movement during which ship motion?Not learned 1817. What is NOT a securing system used on a containership?Not learned 1818. Seeing that all hands are familiar with their duties, as specified in the muster list, is the responsibility of the __________.Not learned 1819. Segregation of cargoes refers to __________.Not learned 1820. When selecting the fuel oil tanks for the "burn-out" of bunkers during a voyage consideration of all of the following must be taken with the EXCEPTION of __________.Not learned 1821. All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?Not learned 1822. Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.Not learned 1823. Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.Not learned 1824. Which term is given to the process of separating both blocks of a tackle to prepare it for reuse?Not learned 1825. To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must hold/be which of the following?Not learned 1826. What is a serving mallet used for?Not learned 1827. When several salvors are on-scene at the same time to assist a vessel that has not been abandoned, which principal governs the decision as to which one's services will be accepted?Not learned 1828. The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain which item?Not learned 1829. What size sheave diameter should be used with a 3-inch manila line?Not learned 1830. Your ship is carrying hazardous cargo. During a daily inspection, you notice that some of the cargo has shifted and several cases are broken. You should FIRST __________.Not learned 1831. On a ship's crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of the boom length and __________.Not learned 1832. Your ship departed Venezuela for New York, loaded with 10,000 barrels of crude oil, whose average cargo temperature was 30? C (86? F). API is 25?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .00045. If this cargo is heated to 100? F prior to discharge, how many barrels will you offload?Not learned 1833. Your ship departed Venezuela for New York, loaded with 10,000 barrels of crude oil, whose average cargo temperature was 30? C (86? F). API is 25?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .00045. If this cargo is heated to 100? F prior to discharge, how many gallons will you offload?Not learned 1834. Your ship has loaded 20,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for San Francisco. When loaded the cargo temperature was 96°F. API was 15°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 56°F at the discharge port, how many barrels will be offloaded?Not learned 1835. Your ship has loaded 20,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for San Francisco. When loaded the cargo temperature was 96? F. API was 15?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 56? F at the discharge port, how many gallons will be offloaded?Not learned 1836. Your ship has loaded 22,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for Panama. When loaded the cargo temperature was 90°F. API was 15°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 100°F at the discharge port, how many barrels will be offloaded?Not learned 1837. Your ship has loaded 22,000 barrels of crude oil, departing Valdez, Alaska for Panama. When loaded the cargo temperature was 90°F. API was 15°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0004. If the cargo temperature is expected to be 100°F at the discharge port, how many gallons will be offloaded?Not learned 1838. Your ship has loaded 6,000 barrels of gasoline, at a cargo temperature of 50°F, departing New Jersey bound for Florida. API gravity is 55°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 90°F at the discharge port?Not learned 1839. Your ship has loaded 6,000 barrels of gasoline, at a cargo temperature of 50°F, departing New Jersey bound for Florida. API gravity is 55°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 90°F at the discharge port?Not learned 1840. Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 36? C (97? F). API gravity is 54?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. You are bound for New Jersey from Ecuador. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55? F at the discharge port?Not learned 1841. Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 36°C (97°F). API gravity is 54°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. You are bound for New Jersey from Ecuador. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55°F at the discharge port?Not learned 1842. Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 85? F, departing Aruba bound for New Jersey. API gravity is 55?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 50? F at the discharge port?Not learned 1843. Your ship has loaded 8,000 barrels of gasoline at a cargo temperature of 85? F, departing Aruba bound for New Jersey. API gravity is 55?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0006. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 50? F at the discharge port?Not learned 1844. Your ship has loaded 9,000 barrels of fuel oil at a cargo temperature of 35°C (95° F). API gravity is 44°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. You are bound to New Jersey from Venezuela. How many barrels would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55°F at the discharge port?Not learned 1845. Your ship has loaded 9,000 barrels of fuel oil at a cargo temperature of 35? C (95? F). API gravity is 44?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. You are bound for New Jersey from Venezuela. How many gallons would you expect to unload if the cargo temperature is 55? F at the discharge port?Not learned 1846. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?Not learned 1847. Your ship is steaming at night with the gyro-pilot engaged when you notice that the vessel's course is slowly changing to the right. What action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1848. A ship that, at any time, operates seaward of the outermost boundary of the territorial sea is required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________.Not learned 1849. The shipping papers for the products being carried in your tankship are NOT required to contain which information?Not learned 1850. A shore is a piece of securing dunnage that __________.Not learned 1851. A short splice in a line __________.Not learned 1852. The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer should state which of the following?Not learned 1853. How should you signal the crane operator to dog everything?Not learned 1854. How should you signal the crane operator to hoist?Not learned 1855. How should you signal the crane operator to lower?Not learned 1856. How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom?Not learned 1857. How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom and raise the load?Not learned 1858. How should you signal the crane operator to move slowly?Not learned 1859. How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom?Not learned 1860. How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom and lower the load?Not learned 1861. How should you signal the crane operator to stop?Not learned 1862. How should you signal the crane operator to stop in an emergency?Not learned 1863. How should you signal the crane operator to swing?Not learned 1864. How should you signal the crane operator to use the main hoist?Not learned 1865. Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed at night while bunkering at a dock?Not learned 1866. The signal man has both arms extended out, palms down, and is moving his arms back and forth. This is the signal for __________.Not learned 1867. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended downwards, forefinger pointing down, and moves his hand in small horizontal circles. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1868. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, his fingers closed, and his thumb pointing downward. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1869. The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended with his fingers closed and thumb pointing upward. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1870. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended with the palm down and holds this position rigidly. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1871. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended and is pointing his finger in the direction to move the boom. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1872. The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended, thumb pointing downwards, flexing fingers in and out. What does this signal mean?Not learned 1873. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, with the thumb pointing up, and is flexing his fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1874. The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps his elbow with one hand and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1875. The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps the top of his head with his fist and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1876. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his forearm vertical, forefinger pointing up, and moves his hand in a small horizontal circle. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1877. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his hands clasped in front of his body. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1878. The signal man assisting the crane operator has one hand occupied and one fist in front of his chest with the thumb pointing outward and is tapping his chest with the heel of his fist. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1879. The signal man assisting the crane operator uses one hand to give any motion signal and places the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1880. You are signing on crew members. The minimum number of people required aboard, and the qualifications of each, is listed on which document?Not learned 1881. You are signing on a crew. When they present their Merchant Mariner Credential, you should suspect a fraudulent document if it has which endorsement listed on it?Not learned 1882. You are signing on the Purser. He should present a Merchant Mariner Credential with which endorsement?Not learned 1883. A single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full flow passage of a liquid through the pipe is referred to as a __________.Not learned 1884. On a single-screw vessel, when coming port side to a pier and being set off the pier, which action should you take?Not learned 1885. A single-screw vessel going ahead tends to turn more rapidly to port because of propeller __________.Not learned 1886. You are on a single-screw vessel with a left-handed propeller making no way in the water. How will your vessel react when you apply right rudder?Not learned 1887. You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller, and you are making headway. What occurs when you enter shallow water?Not learned 1888. You are on a single-screw vessel with a right-handed propeller. The vessel is going full speed astern with full right rudder. The bow will swing __________.Not learned 1889. In which situation could a vessel most easily capsize?Not learned 1890. Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of marine casualty to the Coast Guard?Not learned 1891. A six-strand composite rope made up of alternate fiber and wire strands around a fiber core is called __________.Not learned 1892. What size block shell should be used with a 4-inch manila line?Not learned 1893. How is the size of chain determined?Not learned 1894. Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as __________.Not learned 1895. How is the size of wire rope determined?Not learned 1896. A sling is a device used in which operation?Not learned 1897. A sling is rigged on a piece of pipe weighing 1000 lbs. The angle between the sling legs is 140° and the legs are of equal length. What stress is exerted on each sling leg when the pipe is lifted?Not learned 1898. On a small boat, which knot is best suited for attaching a line to the ring of an anchor?Not learned 1899. When a small craft's anchor fouls in a rocky bottom, how should the first attempt to clear it be made?Not learned 1900. In small craft terminology, all of the anchor gear between a boat and her anchor is called the __________.Not learned 1901. Small floes of rough, hummocky sea ice are capable of damaging a vessel. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1902. What is the name of a small light tackle with blocks of steel or wood that is used for miscellaneous small jobs?Not learned 1903. What is the name given to a smooth, tapered pin, usually of wood, used to open up the strands of a rope for splicing?Not learned 1904. A snatch block is a __________.Not learned 1905. A snatch block would most likely be used as a __________.Not learned 1906. Snow has obliterated surface features and the sky is covered with uniform, altostratus clouds. There are no shadows and the horizon has disappeared. What is this condition called?Not learned 1907. SOLAS requires a lifesaving training manual be provided in each crew cabin or in which other location?Not learned 1908. Which is a solid at ambient temperature?Not learned 1909. Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels are permitted by U.S. regulations to be located in which of the listed spaces?Not learned 1910. Which space cannot be deducted from gross tonnage when calculating net tonnage?Not learned 1911. Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system?Not learned 1912. Why do spaces containing batteries require good ventilation?Not learned 1913. The space containing the cylinders for the carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguishing system must be designed to preclude an anticipated ambient temperature in excess of which temperature?Not learned 1914. Which space(s) is(are) exempt when measuring gross tonnage?Not learned 1915. Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?Not learned 1916. Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?Not learned 1917. Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?Not learned 1918. Which space(s) is(are) deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?Not learned 1919. Which space(s) is(are) NOT exempt when measuring gross tonnage?Not learned 1920. What speed do most bow thrusters generally become ineffective?Not learned 1921. What is a spill pipe?Not learned 1922. Which splice should you use in order to make a permanent loop in a line?Not learned 1923. Which splice is used to connect two separate lines together?Not learned 1924. A spreader bar is used to __________.Not learned 1925. The sprocket teeth on a wildcat are known as the __________.Not learned 1926. The sprocket wheel in a windlass, used for heaving in the anchor, is called a __________.Not learned 1927. Squat is a natural phenomenon as a ship moves through a restricted channel due to what basic principle?Not learned 1928. What is the standard unit of liquid volume used in the petroleum industry?Not learned 1929. While standing look-out at night, which is the BEST way to see a dim light on the horizon?Not learned 1930. The standing part of a tackle is __________.Not learned 1931. You are standing radio watch and monitoring VHF Channel 16 when you receive a call to your rig, TEXAS STAR, from a supply boat. What is the proper way to answer this call?Not learned 1932. You are standing the wheel watch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard starboard side". What immediate order would you expect to receive?Not learned 1933. You start a centrifugal cargo pump to discharge cargo. The pump works fine for a while and then loses suction. What could have caused this?Not learned 1934. Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked?Not learned 1935. Which statement about the carriage of solid hazardous materials in bulk is TRUE?Not learned 1936. Which statement about a centrifugal cargo pump is TRUE?Not learned 1937. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE?Not learned 1938. Which statement concerning the carriage of containers is TRUE?Not learned 1939. Which statement concerning castor oil is TRUE?Not learned 1940. Which statement concerning dual-tonnage vessels is TRUE?Not learned 1941. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?Not learned 1942. Which statement concerning the lashings of containers with solid bar or wire rope lashings is TRUE?Not learned 1943. Which statement concerning a short splice is TRUE?Not learned 1944. Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is TRUE?Not learned 1945. Which statement about the dangerous cargo manifest, carried on a ship, is TRUE?Not learned 1946. Which statement about the dangerous cargo manifest is FALSE?Not learned 1947. Which statement about the deck line is TRUE?Not learned 1948. Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?Not learned 1949. Which statement about entry into a space that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?Not learned 1950. Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?Not learned 1951. Which statement is FALSE regarding the operation of a crane?Not learned 1952. Which statement about general average is TRUE?Not learned 1953. Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE?Not learned 1954. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations?Not learned 1955. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations?Not learned 1956. Which statement(s) is (are) TRUE concerning wire rope?Not learned 1957. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding the operation of a crane?Not learned 1958. Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE?Not learned 1959. Which statement about splices is TRUE?Not learned 1960. Which statement about stopping a vessel is TRUE?Not learned 1961. Which statement is TRUE when the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of a vessel concerning oil transfer operations?Not learned 1962. Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tank vessels?Not learned 1963. Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?Not learned 1964. Which statement is TRUE concerning cargo hose on tank barges?Not learned 1965. Which statement is TRUE concerning deep well self-priming pumps?Not learned 1966. Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled "Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?Not learned 1967. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?Not learned 1968. Which statement is NOT true concerning the stowage of class 1 explosives?Not learned 1969. Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1970. Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1971. Which statement is TRUE concerning the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when completing a quad lift?Not learned 1972. Which statement is TRUE concerning toluene?Not learned 1973. Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream?Not learned 1974. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?Not learned 1975. Which statement is TRUE about hooks and shackles?Not learned 1976. Which statement is TRUE about nylon line?Not learned 1977. What statement is true regarding a Contract Salvage Agreement?Not learned 1978. Which statement is TRUE regarding the operation of a crane?Not learned 1979. Which statement is TRUE about the use of a "gob rope"?Not learned 1980. Which statement about tunnel bow thrusters fitted to large vessels is TRUE?Not learned 1981. Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE?Not learned 1982. Which statement about two lines spliced together is TRUE?Not learned 1983. Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE?Not learned 1984. Static electricity may be built up by the __________.Not learned 1985. When steaming through an anchorage, a shipmaster should __________.Not learned 1986. You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under most circumstances, how is this best accomplished?Not learned 1987. When steering on autopilot which of the following input conditions may NOT have an effect on the control of the steering gear?Not learned 1988. While steering by autopilot you notice that the vessel has deviated 15 degrees from course and there is no corrective rudder being applied. As a standard operating procedure you should first __________.Not learned 1989. When steering by hand, which of the following may be a functional input to the steering gear as a result of turning the wheel?Not learned 1990. What is a step in attaching a poured metal socket to a wire rope?Not learned 1991. You are stopped with no way upon your vessel at the pilot station. Your vessel is a large twin-screw ship. You must come around 180° to board your Pilot. How should you use the engines and rudder to turn the ship fastest in the least amount of space?Not learned 1992. In stopping distances of vessels, which defines the term "head reach"?Not learned 1993. In the stowage of deck cargo, "cribbing" is __________.Not learned 1994. When stowing hazardous materials on deck, lashing of such cargo is permitted if __________.Not learned 1995. The strictest load line regulations apply to which type of vessel?Not learned 1996. Which is the strongest method of forming an eye in wire rope?Not learned 1997. A structurally serviceable freight container loaded with Class 1 explosive materials cannot have a major defect in its strength components. Which of the following would make a container non- serviceable?Not learned 1998. Stuffer-braid rope has __________.Not learned 1999. What are submerged LNG pump bearings lubricated by?Not learned 2000. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations?Not learned 2001. Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.Not learned 2002. Sulfuric acid is a __________.Not learned 2003. The supplement to the IOPP Certificate contains what type of data?Not learned 2004. Which is supplied to the vessel by the U.S. Coast Guard?Not learned 2005. What is NOT surveyed at an annual load line survey?Not learned 2006. The system of valves and cargo lines in the bottom piping network of a tank vessel that connects one section of cargo tanks to another section is called a __________.Not learned 2007. Which tackle arrangement has the LEAST mechanical advantage?Not learned 2008. Which is the proper procedure when taking a length of new manila rope from the coil?Not learned 2009. When taking a Pilot from a pilot vessel in a seaway, which way should you head your vessel if the ladder is on the leeward side?Not learned 2010. When talking about wire rope, what does the lay of the wire refer to?Not learned 2011. Where should a tank barge's Certificate of Inspection be kept?Not learned 2012. A tank barge equipped with an internal-combustion engine-driven cargo pump on the weather deck shall be provided with a minimum of one remote manual shutdown station. What is the correct location of the shutdown station?Not learned 2013. The tank barge on which you are preparing to load petroleum is required to have on board one B-II fire extinguisher. What does NOT meet this requirement?Not learned 2014. Which tank barges require draft marks?Not learned 2015. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in which condition?Not learned 2016. When tank cleaning with a portable machine, the weight of the machine is suspended from __________.Not learned 2017. A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is 80°F (27°C), and it has a coefficient of expansion of .0008. The net amount of cargo loaded is __________.Not learned 2018. A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is 90°F (32°C), and it has a coefficient of expansion of .0008. What is the net amount of cargo loaded?Not learned 2019. On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of more than __________.Not learned 2020. Your tank vessel is fully loaded to the marks, and you find that she is down slightly by the head. Which of the following choices would be the best action to take to trim the vessel slightly by the stern?Not learned 2021. Your tank vessel is loading a hazardous cargo. The allowance for expansion is based on ambient temperatures of what maximum range?Not learned 2022. A tank vessel transferring non-flammable hazardous cargo in bulk must display warning signs. These signs must __________.Not learned 2023. A tanker is loaded with 12,000 barrels of #2 fuel oil. The temperature of the product is 88? F. API gravity is 39?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. The net amount of cargo in barrels, loaded is __________.Not learned 2024. A tanker is loaded with 12,000 barrels of #2 fuel oil. The temperature of the product is 88? F. API gravity is 39?. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. The net amount of cargo in gallons, loaded is __________.Not learned 2025. A tanker is loaded with 5,000 barrels of petroleum. The cargo was loaded at a temperature of 70°F, and the coefficient of expansion is .0004. What is the net amount in barrels of cargo loaded?Not learned 2026. A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The temperature of the cargo is 50° F. API gravity is 37°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net amount in barrels of cargo loaded?Not learned 2027. A tanker is loaded with 8,000 barrels of fuel oil. The temperature of the cargo is 50°F. API gravity is 37°. The volume correction factor (VCF) is .0005. What is the net amount in gallons of cargo loaded?Not learned 2028. A tankerman who permits or causes oil to go into a navigable waterway may be federally punished with which of the following?Not learned 2029. Your tankship is carrying a 30% solution of hydrogen peroxide. The cargo containment system must have a permanent inert gas system. While discharging this cargo the inert gas system must maintain a minimum pressure of __________.Not learned 2030. You are on a tankship carrying benzene in bulk. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2031. Your tankship is carrying a cargo of styrene. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for carriage of this cargo?Not learned 2032. You are on a tankship designed to carry molten sulfur. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2033. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0001 below. Use the salmon-colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.Not learned 2034. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0002 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.Not learned 2035. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0003 below. Use the salmon-colored pages in the Stability Data Reference to determine the sagging numeral.Not learned 2036. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0004 below. Use the salmon-colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.Not learned 2037. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0009 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.Not learned 2038. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0014 below. Use the salmon-colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.Not learned 2039. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0023 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.Not learned 2040. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0024 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.Not learned 2041. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0025 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability book to determine the hogging numeral.Not learned 2042. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0026 below. Use the salmon-colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.Not learned 2043. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0027 below. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.Not learned 2044. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown in table BL-0028 below. Use the salmon-colored pages in the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the sagging numeral.Not learned 2045. The temperature at which water vapor in an atmosphere condenses to a liquid is known as which of the following?Not learned 2046. Temporary seizings on wire rope are made with __________.Not learned 2047. A temporary wire eye splice made with three wire rope clamps will hold approximately what percentage of the total rope strength?Not learned 2048. What does the term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the Pollution Regulations, mean?Not learned 2049. Which term(s) are in the category of "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?Not learned 2050. What term is not considered a "discharge" as it applies to the U.S. pollution regulations?Not learned 2051. Which term defines the total weight of a box containing cargo?Not learned 2052. Which term describes goods having a stowage factor below 40?Not learned 2053. Which term describes a part of a natural fiber line?Not learned 2054. Which term describes a rope in which three right-handed strands are laid up left-handed?Not learned 2055. What does the term "head" mean when applied to a pump?Not learned 2056. Which defines the term "lee side"?Not learned 2057. The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR Subchapter O, means __________.Not learned 2058. The term used in levying customs duties when such are fixed at rates proportioned to estimated value of goods concerned is __________.Not learned 2059. In terms of vessel manning, which defines a watch?Not learned 2060. The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging operation. You start the discharge, and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a result of which of the following?Not learned 2061. Where are the test certificates, for wire rope used as cargo runners, and loose gear certificates usually maintained?Not learned 2062. What does Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention Regulations concern?Not learned 2063. Under title 46 of the United States Code, the person in charge of a documented vessel who fails to report a complaint of a sexual offense may be __________.Not learned 2064. Which tool is used to open the strands of fiber lines when making an eye splice?Not learned 2065. Topside icing decreases vessel stability because it increases __________.Not learned 2066. What is the total number of approved low-velocity water spray ("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship?Not learned 2067. You have a tow of chemical barges. The mate reports an ammonia smell around the head of the tow. You would suspect a leak in the barge carrying which substance?Not learned 2068. Your vessel is proceeding through a narrow channel. What actions can you take to avoid any sudden sheers of the vessel?Not learned 2069. You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. Regulations say that cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates may remain open without flame screens ONLY __________.Not learned 2070. You are pushing a 1,000 GT gasoline tank barge which is not gas free. By regulation, which is TRUE concerning cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge?Not learned 2071. For towing vessels over 100 gross tons that are permitted to maintain a two-watch system, what percentage of the deck crew must be able seafarers?Not learned 2072. While transiting a channel your vessel's bow swings away from the bank. What is the term for this effect?Not learned 2073. You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. You must inspect this cargo __________.Not learned 2074. You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. The regulations require you to __________.Not learned 2075. Tripping defects in anchors frequently occur in __________.Not learned 2076. You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with air-cooled fruit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the temperature rise and spoilage of the fruit?Not learned 2077. What is TRUE about hoisting operations?Not learned 2078. What is NOT true regarding a Lloyd's Open Form (LOF) Salvage Agreement?Not learned 2079. Which is TRUE when splicing nylon line?Not learned 2080. Which is a TRUE statement concerning the examining of cargo equipment at the time of a vessels Inspection for Certification?Not learned 2081. A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________.Not learned 2082. When a tug is pulling on a hawser at right angles to the ship, and the pilot wants to come ahead or astern on the ship's engine, care must be taken that the pilot __________.Not learned 2083. A tug would NOT assist a ship to steer if the tug is made up to the large vessel __________.Not learned 2084. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed by which item?Not learned 2085. The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the __________.Not learned 2086. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, which is the BEST action to take?Not learned 2087. When turning a vessel in shallow water, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2088. In twin-screw engine installations while going ahead, maneuvering qualities are most effective when the tops of the propeller blades both turn __________.Not learned 2089. A twin-screw ship going ahead on the starboard screw only tends to move __________.Not learned 2090. On a twin-screw, twin-rudder vessel, the most effective way to turn in your own water, with no way on, is to put __________.Not learned 2091. A twin-screw vessel is easier to maneuver than a single-screw vessel because the twin-screw vessel has which advantage?Not learned 2092. Your twin-screw vessel is moving ASTERN with rudders amidships. The starboard screw suddenly stops turning. Your vessel's head will __________.Not learned 2093. A twin-screw vessel with a single rudder is making headway. The engines are full speed ahead. There is no wind or current. Which statement is FALSE?Not learned 2094. If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common discharge line, the higher speed pump may cause the slower pump to do which of the following?Not learned 2095. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to take which action?Not learned 2096. If two falls are attached to lift a one-ton load, what angle between the falls will result in the stress on each fall being equal to the load being lifted?Not learned 2097. Two falls are supporting a 1.5 ton load. The port fall is at an angle of 40? from the vertical. The starboard fall is at an angle of 70? from the vertical. What is the stress on each fall?Not learned 2098. When a two-leg sling is used to lift a load, a sling 40 feet long is better than one of 30 feet because the __________.Not learned 2099. Two mooring lines may be placed on the same bollard and either one cast off first if which action is taken?Not learned 2100. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?Not learned 2101. Two vessels are abreast of each other and passing port to port in a confined waterway. What should you expect as your bow approaches the screws of the other vessel?Not learned 2102. Which type of bottom is best suited for holding an anchor of a small boat?Not learned 2103. Which type of bottom provides most anchors with the best holding ability?Not learned 2104. Which type of carrier accepts without discrimination all legal cargoes of a shipper?Not learned 2105. The type of carrier required to file a copy of freight tariffs would be the __________.Not learned 2106. Which type of chemical testing is NOT required of merchant marine personnel?Not learned 2107. What type of heat must be applied in order to raise the temperature of water from 60 degrees F to 180 degrees F?Not learned 2108. Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?Not learned 2109. Which type of ice is a hazard to navigation?Not learned 2110. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "O"?Not learned 2111. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "G"?Not learned 2112. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "J"?Not learned 2113. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "W"?Not learned 2114. Which type of line is best able to withstand sudden shock loads?Not learned 2115. Which type of line floats?Not learned 2116. What type of line melts easiest?Not learned 2117. Which type of line will stretch the most when under strain?Not learned 2118. Which type of line would have the LEAST resistance to mildew and rot?Not learned 2119. Which type of link is generally used to connect shots of anchor chain?Not learned 2120. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 2121. What are the type and number of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit?Not learned 2122. Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?Not learned 2123. Which type of power may a towing vessel use to drive the cargo pumps of a tank barge?Not learned 2124. On what type of pump would you find an impeller?Not learned 2125. Which type of rudder may lose its effectiveness at angles of 10 or more degrees?Not learned 2126. Which is NOT a type of seizing?Not learned 2127. Which type of stopper should be used to stop off wire rope?Not learned 2128. Which type of vessel shall be required to have an emergency towing arrangement fitted at both ends?Not learned 2129. Which U.S. agency assigns an official number to a vessel?Not learned 2130. Which U.S. agency issues a Certificate of Financial Responsibility?Not learned 2131. When can the US citizenship requirement for the Master of a US-flag uninspected towing vessel be waived?Not learned 2132. U.S. Customs, upon boarding a vessel desiring entry into a U.S. port, would inspect which document?Not learned 2133. On U.S. flag vessels, which certificate is always issued by the Coast Guard?Not learned 2134. Which U.S. Government agency can suspend or revoke a Merchant Mariner Credential for violating the load line act?Not learned 2135. Under U.S. law, what is the penalty for assaulting the Master?Not learned 2136. Where are the U.S. regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel found?Not learned 2137. Where can the U.S. regulations for the preparation of cargo holds prior to loading hazardous material be found?Not learned 2138. U.S. regulations require having a responsible person present at the hatches of spaces containing Class 1 explosive materials. When does the requirement apply during cargo operations?Not learned 2139. U.S. regulations require a responsible person to be present at all times when the hatches of spaces containing Class 1 explosive materials are open. When is the responsible person released from the duty of attendance?Not learned 2140. Your U.S. tankship is designed to carry anhydrous ammonia in bulk. The keel was laid in 1980. Which statement concerning the carriage of this cargo is TRUE?Not learned 2141. You are on a US vessel loading explosives for the military and will be sailing foreign. Who is required to supervise the loading and stowage of the cargo?Not learned 2142. The ultimate or maximum strength of a wire rope is referred to as the __________.Not learned 2143. Uncleared crew curios remaining on board during a domestic coastwise voyage after returning from foreign should be __________.Not learned 2144. While underway, part of your cargo is damaged by fire. In marine insurance terms, which describes this partial loss?Not learned 2145. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends to __________.Not learned 2146. When underway with a tow, you are required to immediately notify the Coast Guard in which marine casualty situation?Not learned 2147. While underway and towing an unmanned tank barge which action are you required to take?Not learned 2148. An underwriter is liable for __________.Not learned 2149. Uninspected vessels must have one approved ring life buoy on board if the vessel length is over how many feet?Not learned 2150. Unless extremely flexible wire rope is used, the sheave diameter should always be as large as possible. Which is the Coast Guard rule for correct sheave diameter?Not learned 2151. Upon completion of a voyage, the official logbook shall be filed with the __________.Not learned 2152. U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be items of safety equipment and may be worn by members of the crew. When can crewmembers wear these work vests?Not learned 2153. The use of an anchor to assist in turning in restricted waters is __________.Not learned 2154. The use of portable electrical equipment in the pump room on tank barges is prohibited unless __________.Not learned 2155. The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is __________.Not learned 2156. What should NOT be used as an indicator that ice may be nearby?Not learned 2157. You are using the anchor to steady the bow while maneuvering. You have the proper scope of anchor cable when the __________.Not learned 2158. You are using an automatic tension winch by yourself. If you get caught in the turns of the line as they lead into the gypsyhead __________.Not learned 2159. When using or caring for natural-fiber rope, which of the following is NOT recommended?Not learned 2160. When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B tell you?Not learned 2161. You are using a hammer as part of an anchor chain inspection. During the inspection you hear a flat tone when striking one of the links. What does this tone indicate?Not learned 2162. When using a pneumatic chipping tool all of the following are TRUE except?Not learned 2163. Using a safety factor of 6, determine the safe working load of a line with a breaking strain of 30,000 pounds.Not learned 2164. Using a safety factor of 6, determine the safe working load of manila line with a breaking stress of 8 tons.Not learned 2165. Using a safety factor of five, determine what is the safe working load for 3-1/2-inch manila line with a breaking stress of 4.9 tons.Not learned 2166. Using a safety factor of five, determine the safe working load of a line with a breaking strain of 20,000 pounds.Not learned 2167. Using a scope of 5, determine how many feet of cable you should put out to anchor in 5 fathoms of water.Not learned 2168. Using a scope of 6, determine how many feet of anchor cable you should put out to anchor in 12 feet (3.7 meters) of water.Not learned 2169. Using a scope of 6, how much cable would have to be used in order to anchor in 24 feet of water?Not learned 2170. Using a scope of five, determine how many feet of chain you should put out to anchor in 12 fathoms of water.Not learned 2171. Using a scope of five, determine how many shots of chain you should put out to anchor in 5 fathoms of water?Not learned 2172. You are using tackle number 10 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 4. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig?Not learned 2173. You are using tackle number 12 shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 300 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight?Not learned 2174. You are using tackle number 12 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 2. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig?Not learned 2175. You are using tackle number 2 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 100 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight?Not learned 2176. You are using tackle number 3 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 120 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight?Not learned 2177. You are using tackle number 4 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook of tackle number 11. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig?Not learned 2178. You are using tackle number 4 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 10. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig?Not learned 2179. You are using tackle number 5 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 8. What is the mechanical advantage of this rig?Not learned 2180. You are using tackle number 6 as shown in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight. The hauling part of this tackle is bent to the weight hook (w) of tackle number 8. Disregarding friction, what is the mechanical advantage of this rig?Not learned 2181. You are using tackle number 7 in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 100 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight?Not learned 2182. You are using tackle number 8 in illustration D029DG below to lift a weight of 100 lbs. If you include 10 percent of the weight for each sheave for friction, what is the pull on the hauling part required to lift the weight?Not learned 2183. Which term is given to the usual method of arranging a line on deck so that it will run out easily without kinking or fouling?Not learned 2184. Usually the most gentle way of riding out a severe storm on a larger vessel is __________.Not learned 2185. On vessels over 100 gross tons, whose responsibility is it to ensure that all able seamen in the vessel's crew have the documents and qualifications required by law and regulation?Not learned 2186. On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) is the vessel required to maintain onboard?Not learned 2187. Your vessel (185 GT) is on a voyage between New York and San Francisco. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2188. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.Not learned 2189. A vessel has an amidships superstructure. Which location would be most suitable for main deck stowage of vehicles?Not learned 2190. The vessel's anchor chain consists of shots of chain connected by detachable links. What is the predominant piece that holds the detachable link together?Not learned 2191. Your vessel is anchored in an open roadstead with three shots of chain out on the port anchor. The wind freshens considerably, and the anchor begins to drag. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 2192. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is 24 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?Not learned 2193. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage is prohibited from being discharged?Not learned 2194. A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located in a MARPOL designated special area, 14 nautical miles from nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to be discharged?Not learned 2195. Vessels to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies may discharge garbage containing plastics __________.Not learned 2196. A vessel has arrived in a U.S. port from a foreign voyage. Preliminary entry has been made. Formal entry must be made within how many hours after arrival (Sundays and holidays excepted)?Not learned 2197. A vessel arrives in the port of Los Angeles from a foreign port and discharges some of its inward foreign cargo. What additional manifest is required?Not learned 2198. A vessel arrives at the port of San Francisco from Yokohama, Japan. The passengers fill out the Baggage Declaration and Entry form. A passenger has baggage arriving on another vessel. How must this baggage be handled for U.S. Customs purposes?Not learned 2199. When a vessel is on autopilot steering, the "weather " control is adjusted to compensate for which severe weather effect on a vessel?Not learned 2200. Your vessel is backing on the starboard screw, and going ahead on the port screw. How will the vessel react?Not learned 2201. You are on a vessel that carries liquefied gases in bulk. The person on watch is required to have what information about the cargo easily accessible?Not learned 2202. Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. What is the minimum capacity of the container around the loading manifold?Not learned 2203. Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container around the manifold must hold at a minimum how many barrels?Not learned 2204. You are on a vessel carrying liquefied butadiene in bulk. Which document is NOT required to be either in the wheelhouse or easily accessible to the person on watch while underway?Not learned 2205. A vessel has a charter party for one voyage to carry a full load of manganese from Durban, South Africa, to Baltimore, Maryland, at a stipulated rate per ton. Which type of contract is involved?Not learned 2206. A vessel's Classification Certificate is issued by which organization?Not learned 2207. A vessel has completed loading cargo in the port of San Francisco. What document is signed by the Master stating the terms that goods were delivered and received by the ship?Not learned 2208. A vessel has been damaged by fire. The survey shows the cost of repairs will exceed the value of the repaired vessel. How would this Marine Loss be classified?Not learned 2209. You are on a vessel designed to carry compressed gasses in bulk with a cargo of butadiene. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2210. Your vessel is disabled and in imminent danger of grounding on a lee shore. The Master agrees to salvage services using Lloyd's Open Form of Salvage Agreement. Which is TRUE?Not learned 2211. Your vessel is to dock bow in at a pier without the assistance of tugboats. Which line will be the most useful when maneuvering the vessel alongside the pier?Not learned 2212. While your vessel is docked port side to a wharf, a sudden gale force wind causes the vessel's bow lines to part. The bow begins to fall away from the dock, and no tugs are immediately available. Which measure(s) should you take FIRST?Not learned 2213. While your vessel is docked port side to a wharf, a sudden gale force wind causes the vessel's stern lines to part. The stern begins to fall away from the dock, and no tugs are immediately available. Which measure(s) should you take FIRST?Not learned 2214. A vessel is equipped with twin propellers, both turning outboard with the engines half ahead. If there is no wind or current and the rudders are amidships, what will happen?Not learned 2215. For vessels on international voyages fitted with cargo gear, an initial test of the units under a proof load shall be conducted. Subsequent tests and exams of the same nature shall be carried out at what time interval?Not learned 2216. A vessel is found to be seaworthy after a complaint in writing to the American Consul by the Chief and Second Mates. The cost of the survey is to be paid by the __________.Not learned 2217. Your vessel is handling Class 1 explosive material. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is true?Not learned 2218. Your vessel is handling Class 1 explosive materials in a US port. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is true?Not learned 2219. A vessel is involved in a casualty. The cost of property damage includes the __________.Not learned 2220. Your vessel is issued a load line certificate dated 27 May 1992. What is NOT an acceptable date for one of the surveys for endorsements?Not learned 2221. Your vessel is off a lee shore in heavy weather and laboring. Which action should you take?Not learned 2222. Which vessel is most likely to be loaded full but not down?Not learned 2223. A vessel loads 100 tons of glass jars. The mate on watch discovers that some of the cartons have been damaged and has an exception made on the Bill of Lading. What is this document called?Not learned 2224. A vessel loads 5000 tons of manganese ore. The railroad cars that brought the ore to the vessel were previously loaded with iron ore so the ore is contaminated. The agent requests the Master to sign a Clean Bill of Lading and in return the shipper will give him a Letter of Indemnity. What is the best procedure to follow?Not learned 2225. Your vessel has been loaded with Class 1 explosives and is secured for sea. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following is true?Not learned 2226. Once a vessel has loaded packaged hazardous cargo, the cargo spaces shall be inspected. The spaces shall also be inspected at least once in every 24 hours. The only exception to daily inspection is when __________.Not learned 2227. Your vessel is loading Class 1 explosives into hatch No. 2 when you observe an electrical storm approaching from the east. What actions should you take?Not learned 2228. Your vessel is loading Class 1 explosives using the vessel's cranes. What style of hook or shackle are you required to use to attach the lifting sling to the runner?Not learned 2229. Your vessel is loading Class 1G explosives. Which of the following statements is true concerning bunker operations?Not learned 2230. On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that __________.Not learned 2231. On which vessels may credentialed individuals be required to stand watch under the two-watch system, on voyages of more than 600 miles in length?Not learned 2232. No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose unless it meets certain requirements. Which of the following is NOT among those requirements?Not learned 2233. Your vessel is mooring port side to. The after gang has sent out a line that makes an angle with the dock and leads forward towards amidships. What is the proper term for this line?Not learned 2234. Your vessel must moor port side to a berth limited by vessels ahead and astern using a single tug. You are stemming a slight current and there is a light breeze off the dock. Where should the tug make up to the vessel?Not learned 2235. Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V of MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 2236. A vessel operating "in class" has met all the requirements of which group?Not learned 2237. A vessel operating on the Great Lakes, and whose position is southeast of an eastward-moving storm center, would NOT experience __________.Not learned 2238. Your vessel is preparing for cargo operations. Prior to handling various divisions of Class 1 explosives the responsible person must ensure which of the following?Not learned 2239. Your vessel is preparing to load Class 1 explosive material in a US port. In accordance with U.S. regulations which of the following best describes the procedure for rigging of the required tow wires?Not learned 2240. A vessel proceeding along the bank of a river or channel has the tendency to __________.Not learned 2241. Your vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel. The effect called bank cushion has which effect on the vessel?Not learned 2242. A vessel proceeding to London, England, from New York makes an unscheduled call at the port of Hamilton, Bermuda. What term is used to denote the voluntary departure from the usual course?Not learned 2243. Your vessel is proceeding up a narrow channel. What is the effect on squat if you meet another vessel on a reciprocal course?Not learned 2244. A vessel puts into the port of Kobe, Japan to discharge cargo. While awaiting completion of the cargo operation, the vessel contracts with a local shipyard to have the hull chipped, scaled, and painted. How is the cost of this maintenance handled with the Collector of Customs?Not learned 2245. A vessel puts into the port of Kobe, Japan, to discharge cargo. The vessel contracts a local shipyard to have the hull chipped and scaled. If the vessel provides the primer and paint, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2246. How does a vessel's rate of turn change when entering shallow water?Not learned 2247. Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard posted on board?Not learned 2248. Which vessel is required by regulations to have an Official Logbook?Not learned 2249. Your vessel is required to have a slop chest. Which of the following articles is NOT required by law to be carried in the slop chest?Not learned 2250. Your vessel is required to warp up the dock twenty feet for better crane alignment. Which lines are the most essential to move the vessel forward?Not learned 2251. A vessel sailing from Liverpool to New York puts into Boston, Mass. for emergency repairs. If no inward foreign cargo is to be discharged at that port, which of the following documents is required?Not learned 2252. While a vessel is at sea, the mate on watch discovers a fire in one of the hatches. Fire hoses are used to put the fire out and some of the cargo is damaged by water. In marine insurance terms, this partial loss by water is called __________.Not learned 2253. On a vessel with a single propeller, transverse force has the most effect on the vessel when the engine is put __________.Not learned 2254. When a vessel with a single right-hand propeller backs to port which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2255. How should a vessel spotted at 45° relative be reported?Not learned 2256. When will a vessel "squat" while underway?Not learned 2257. Most of your vessel's superstructure is forward. How will the vessel lie when drifting with no way on?Not learned 2258. Your vessel has the symbol shown in illustration D022DG below inscribed on the side. Which statement concerning this symbol is TRUE?Not learned 2259. Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________.Not learned 2260. A vessel transporting hazardous substances is required to have a Dangerous Cargo Manifest. Which organization requires this document?Not learned 2261. A vessel traveling down a narrow channel, especially if the draft is nearly equal to the depth of the water, may set off the nearer side. What is the name of this effect?Not learned 2262. A vessel is underway with a work stage rigged over the side. A seaman may work on the stage, but only when __________.Not learned 2263. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?Not learned 2264. When is a vessel wind rode?Not learned 2265. On your vessel, a wire rope for the cargo gear shows signs of excessive wear and must be replaced. In ordering a new wire for this 10-ton boom, what safety factor should you use?Not learned 2266. What does a Visaed Alien Crew List which is made and submitted to the U.S. Consul for visa show?Not learned 2267. Wages due a seaman may be attached by the court for which reason?Not learned 2268. Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer?Not learned 2269. You are on watch at night in clear visibility and the vessel has just been anchored. What is the first thing that you should do after the anchor has been let go?Not learned 2270. You are on watch and the pilot has just anchored the vessel. What is the next thing that you should do after the anchor has been let go?Not learned 2271. You are on watch at sea and find it prudent to call the Master to the bridge due to traffic congestion. The moment that the Master officially relieves you of the conn is whenever __________.Not learned 2272. While on watch at sea you must maintain a proper lookout at all times. You are on a 200-foot cargo vessel with an unobstructed view astern from the steering position. The vessel is being hand-steered during daylight hours in good visibility and clear of any navigational hazards. Who may be the lookout?Not learned 2273. While on watch at sea you must maintain a proper lookout at all times. On a 700-foot cargo vessel being hand-steered during daylight hours in good visibility and clear of any navigational hazards, who may be the lookout?Not learned 2274. You are on watch while your vessel is entering port with a pilot conning. The pilot gave a steering command to the helmsman who failed to acknowledge it by repeating the order. You have now enunciated the pilot's order to the helmsman and there is still no response. If the helmsman continues on the original course, you should immediately __________.Not learned 2275. You are a watchstanding mate and have come to the bridge to relieve the watch. After reviewing the chart and having been briefed by the off-going mate, you are now ready to affect the relief. Which of the following is exemplary of the statement that would officially transfer the watch?Not learned 2276. You are a watchstanding mate and have come to the bridge to relieve the watch. After reviewing the chart and having been briefed by the off-going mate, you are now ready to affect the relief. When is the watch officially transferred to you?Not learned 2277. You are a watchstanding mate and have come to the bridge to relieve the watch while underway at sea. The watch should not be transferred __________.Not learned 2278. Water may boil up around the stern of a vessel in a channel due to __________.Not learned 2279. Which weakens a line the LEAST?Not learned 2280. The "weather adjustment" control on an autopilot steering stand is used to __________.Not learned 2281. When a wedge of water builds up between the head of the barge and the bank it is referred to as __________.Not learned 2282. When weighing anchor in a rough sea, how would you avoid risk of damaging the bow plating?Not learned 2283. The weight of the container and its contents is supported on deck by what part(s)?Not learned 2284. Before welding in a tank barge that has carried petroleum products, who must certify the tank to be safe for hot work?Not learned 2285. What is a wet cargo?Not learned 2286. A "wet cargo" refers to __________.Not learned 2287. The wheel on the windlass with indentations for the anchor chain is the __________.Not learned 2288. "White Line" is made from __________.Not learned 2289. The wildcat is linked to the central drive shaft on most windlasses by __________.Not learned 2290. If the winch should fail while you are hauling in the anchor, what prevents the anchor cable from running out?Not learned 2291. Why would wire rope be galvanized?Not learned 2292. A wire rope that has been overstrained will show __________.Not learned 2293. Which wire rope purchase(s) is/are optional with a 30-Ton pedestal crane?Not learned 2294. Which wire rope purchases may be used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 2295. Wire rope should be renewed when which of the following occurs?Not learned 2296. A wire rope rove through two single blocks with two parts at the moving block is used for a boat fall. The weight of the 100-person boat is 5 tons. Compute the required breaking strain per davit (2 per boat). Safety Factor - 6, weight per person - 165 lbs., 10% friction per sheave (2 sheaves).Not learned 2297. The wire rope used for cargo handling on board your vessel has a safe working load of eight tons. It shall be able to withstand a breaking test load of __________.Not learned 2298. All wire rope used in shipboard cargo gear must be identified and described in a certificate. The certificate shall certify all of the following EXCEPT the __________.Not learned 2299. The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.Not learned 2300. When working on a tow, which is a good safety precaution?Not learned 2301. When working with wire rope, which must be considered?Not learned 2302. What would you consult to determine the number of persons required on duty while loading a cargo of leaded gasoline on your tanker?Not learned 2303. What would be prima facie evidence of unseaworthiness?Not learned 2304. You would properly secure a gantline to a bosun's chair with a __________.Not learned 2305. It would be prudent to perform which of the following actions prior to the commencement of bunkering?Not learned 2306. What would NOT require that a detailed report of the release of hazardous cargo be made to the Department of Transportation?Not learned 2307. What would you use to adjust the height of a cargo boom?Not learned 2308. Which would you NOT use to report the amount of anchor chain out? "Three shots __________."Not learned 2309. In writing up the logbook at the end of your watch, you make an error in writing an entry. What is the proper means of correcting this error?Not learned 2310. At 0000 you fix your position and change course to 090°T. At 0030 you again fix your position, and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2311. At 0000 you fix your position and change course to 270°T. At 0030 you again fix your position, and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2312. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your position, and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2313. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile west of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2314. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54° E longitude. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2315. 15° of latitude is equal to __________.Not learned 2316. 17 degrees of latitude is equal to __________.Not learned 2317. On 25 December you observe the Sun's lower limb. The sextant altitude (hs) is 4°06.9'. The height of eye is 47-feet and the index error is 1.6' on the arc. The temperature is 19°F and the barometer reads 1030.8 millibars. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?Not learned 2318. On 5 July, at 1200 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward. What is your local time?Not learned 2319. On 6 July, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward. What is your local time?Not learned 2320. 90° - Ho = __________.Not learned 2321. According to Buys Ballot's law, when an observer in the Northern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, where is the center of low pressure located?Not learned 2322. According to Buys Ballot's Law, when an observer in the Southern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, where is the center of the low pressure located?Not learned 2323. How can the accuracy of an azimuth circle be checked?Not learned 2324. For an accurate barometer check, you would __________.Not learned 2325. What will act to dissipate fog?Not learned 2326. Which action is the safest and most prudent procedure to follow while navigating in the vicinity of a tropical cyclone?Not learned 2327. Because the actual center of some planets may differ from the observed center, the navigator applies a correction. Which correction is applied?Not learned 2328. In addition to the National Weather Service, what agency provides plain-language radio weather advisories for the coastal waters of the United States?Not learned 2329. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made __________.Not learned 2330. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard vessels?Not learned 2331. What is NOT an advantage of the rhumb line track over a great circle track?Not learned 2332. Advection fog is most commonly caused by __________.Not learned 2333. You will be advised of any hazardous areas due to the fallout of a nuclear explosive by a message with which code word?Not learned 2334. Which agency maintains federal aids to navigation?Not learned 2335. Which agency publishes the Light Lists?Not learned 2336. What agency of the U.S. Government issues charts of U.S. waters and Coast Pilots?Not learned 2337. The agonic line on an isomagnetic chart indicates the __________.Not learned 2338. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?Not learned 2339. Air circulation is caused or affected by __________.Not learned 2340. An air mass that has moved down from Canada would most likely have which symbols?Not learned 2341. Air masses near the earth's surface __________.Not learned 2342. When is an air mass termed "warm"?Not learned 2343. Air temperature varies with __________.Not learned 2344. Altair is found in what constellation?Not learned 2345. Which is TRUE of an alternating light?Not learned 2346. The altitude at LAN may be observed by starting several minutes in advance and continuing until a maximum altitude occurs. When should this procedure NOT be used?Not learned 2347. How are altocumulus clouds defined?Not learned 2348. An amplitude of the Sun in high latitudes __________.Not learned 2349. You are anchored in the Aleutian Island chain and receive word that a tsunami is expected to strike the islands in six hours. What is the safest action?Not learned 2350. What is TRUE concerning an anemometer on a moving vessel?Not learned 2351. An aneroid barometer on a boat should always be __________.Not learned 2352. An aneroid barometer is an instrument __________.Not learned 2353. Aneroid barometers are usually calibrated to indicate atmospheric pressure in which units?Not learned 2354. At what angle to the isobars do surface winds blow over the open sea?Not learned 2355. Which term is the angle measured eastward from the vernal equinox along the celestial equator often expressed in time units?Not learned 2356. The angle measured from the observer's meridian, clockwise or counterclockwise up to 180°, to the vertical circle of the body is known by which term?Not learned 2357. Which term is given to the angle that is measured westward from the first point of Aries to the hour circle of the body along the celestial equator?Not learned 2358. The angle at the pole measured through 180° From the prime meridian to the meridian of a point is known as __________.Not learned 2359. Where can the annual change in variation for an area be found?Not learned 2360. How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart?Not learned 2361. Antares is found in what constellation?Not learned 2362. Which is a characteristic of anticyclones?Not learned 2363. Aphelion is the point where the Sun __________.Not learned 2364. Apparent altitude is sextant altitude corrected for __________.Not learned 2365. What is Apparent time based upon?Not learned 2366. The apparent wind's speed can be zero, but only when two conditions are present. One condition is that the true __________.Not learned 2367. The apparent wind is zero when the true wind is __________.Not learned 2368. The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at sea would be accompanied by which of the following conditions?Not learned 2369. What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water?Not learned 2370. When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs), you always subtract the dip because you are correcting __________.Not learned 2371. As it approaches, what will a typical warm front bring?Not learned 2372. You are approaching Chatham Strait from the south in foggy weather. You have Coronation Island and Hazy Islands on the radar. Suddenly the radar malfunctions. You then resort to using whistle echoes to determine your distance off Coronation Island. Your stopwatch reads 16.3 seconds for the echo to be heard. How far are you off Coronation Island?Not learned 2373. You are approaching a drawbridge and must pass through during a scheduled closure period. What signal should you sound?Not learned 2374. You are approaching a drawbridge and have sounded the proper whistle signal requesting it to open. You hear a signal of one prolonged and one short blast from the bridge. Which action should you take?Not learned 2375. You are approaching a drawbridge and have sounded the request-for-opening signal. The bridge has responded with five short blasts. How would you respond?Not learned 2376. You are approaching the first of two drawbridges that span a narrow channel. The second drawbridge is close to the first. Which signals should you sound?Not learned 2377. You are approaching a multiple-span bridge at night. How is the main navigational channel span indicated?Not learned 2378. You are approaching an open drawbridge and sound the proper signal. You receive no acknowledgment from the bridge. Which action should you take?Not learned 2379. When approaching a preferred-channel buoy, the best channel is NOT indicated by the __________.Not learned 2380. You are approaching a swing bridge at night. How do you know that the bridge is open for river traffic?Not learned 2381. You are approaching a vertical lift bridge. How do you know when the span is fully open?Not learned 2382. The approximate distance to a storm center can be determined by noting the hourly rate of fall of the barometer. If the rate of fall is 0.08 - 0.12 inches, what is the approximate distance to the storm center?Not learned 2383. What is the approximate geographic range of Fenwick Island Light, Delaware, if your height of eye is 37 feet (11.3 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".Not learned 2384. What is the approximate geographic range of Fenwick Island Light, Delaware, if your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".Not learned 2385. What is the approximate geographic range of Point Judith Light, Rhode Island, if your height of eye is 62 feet (18.9 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS". (use charted range of 20 miles as nominal range)Not learned 2386. What is the approximate geographic range of Race Rock Light, NY, if your height of eye is 27 feet (8.2 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".Not learned 2387. What is the approximate geographic range of Shinnecock Light, NY, if your height of eye is 24 feet (7.3 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".Not learned 2388. What is the approximate geographic range of Southwest Ledge Light, Connecticut, if your height of eye is 32 feet (9.8 meters)? Refer to "Reprints from the LIGHT LISTS AND COAST PILOTS".Not learned 2389. What is the approximate geographic visibility of an object with a height above the water of 70 feet, for an observer with a height of eye of 65 feet?Not learned 2390. The approximate mean position of the axis of the Gulf Stream east of Palm Beach, FL, is __________.Not learned 2391. The approximate positions of the stars are based on sidereal time, which is based upon rotation of the Earth relative to __________.Not learned 2392. Which term is given to the arc of an hour circle between the celestial equator and a point on the celestial sphere, measured northward or southward through 90°?Not learned 2393. What area of the earth cannot be shown on a standard Mercator chart?Not learned 2394. Which is an area of strong westerly winds occurring between 40°S and 60°S latitude?Not learned 2395. Your ARPA has automatic speed inputs from the log. Due to currents, the log is indicating a faster speed than the speed over the ground. What should you expect under these circumstances?Not learned 2396. Which ARPA data should you use in order to determine if a close quarters situation will develop with a target vessel?Not learned 2397. The ARPA may swap targets when automatically tracking if two targets are in which situation?Not learned 2398. Your ARPA has been tracking a target and has generated the targets course and speed. The radar did not receive a target echo on its last two scans due to the weather. What should you expect under these circumstances?Not learned 2399. Your ARPA has two guard zones. What is the purpose of the inner guard zone?Not learned 2400. Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of an important heat transmitting process in our atmosphere. Which term is given to this process?Not learned 2401. Which are associated with Cumulonimbus clouds?Not learned 2402. Astronomical refraction causes a celestial body to appear __________.Not learned 2403. On an Atlantic Ocean voyage from New York to Durban, South Africa, you should expect the Agulhas Current to present a strong __________.Not learned 2404. Which term describes the atmosphere in the vicinity of a high pressure area?Not learned 2405. Atmospheric pressure may be measured with a(n) __________.Not learned 2406. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to __________.Not learned 2407. You are attempting to locate your position relative to a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere. Where is your vessel located if the wind direction remains steady, but with diminishing velocity?Not learned 2408. The autumnal equinox is the point where the Sun is at __________.Not learned 2409. The average height of the surface of the sea for all stages of the tide over a 19 year period is known by which term?Not learned 2410. What is the average speed of the movement of a hurricane following the recurvature of its track?Not learned 2411. What is the average speed of movement of a hurricane prior to recurvature?Not learned 2412. To avoid error, how should you read the scale of an aneroid barometer?Not learned 2413. An azimuth angle for a body is measured from the __________.Not learned 2414. The azimuth angle of a sun sight is always measured from the __________.Not learned 2415. Barometers are calibrated at which standard temperature?Not learned 2416. What does a barometer measure?Not learned 2417. When your barometer reading changes from 30.25 to 30.05 in a 12-hour period it indicates __________.Not learned 2418. Barometer readings in weather reports are given in terms of pressure at which reference location?Not learned 2419. A barometer showing falling pressure indicates the approach of a __________.Not learned 2420. What is a barometric pressure reading of 29.92 inches of mercury is equivalent to?Not learned 2421. The bases of middle clouds are located at altitudes of between __________.Not learned 2422. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?Not learned 2423. In the Bay of Fundy, during twilight, you a take sight of Mars. The sextant altitude (hs) is 03° 35.5'. Your height of eye is 32 feet and there is no index error. The air temperature is -10° C and the barometer reads 1010 millibars. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?Not learned 2424. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots?Not learned 2425. The Beaufort scale is used to estimate which element of the weather?Not learned 2426. Bellatrix is found in what constellation?Not learned 2427. Which is the name given to the belt of light and variable winds between the westerly wind belt and the northeast trade winds?Not learned 2428. What benefit is a weather bulletin to a mariner?Not learned 2429. The Benguela Current flows in which direction?Not learned 2430. Which defines the height of tide?Not learned 2431. The best estimate of the wind direction at sea level can be obtained from observing the direction of the __________.Not learned 2432. A body can only be observed at lower transit when __________.Not learned 2433. The Brazil Current flows in which general direction?Not learned 2434. A bridge over a navigable waterway is being repaired. There is a traveler platform under the bridge's deck that significantly reduces the vertical clearance. If required by the CG district commander, how will this be indicated at night?Not learned 2435. Brief, violent showers frequently accompanied by thunder and lightning are usually associated with __________.Not learned 2436. What is the brightest navigational planet?Not learned 2437. What does a buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicate?Not learned 2438. Which buoy will NOT display white retroreflective material?Not learned 2439. Which of the buoys listed below could be used to mark an anchorage?Not learned 2440. When a buoy marks a channel bifurcation, the preferred channel is NOT indicated by __________.Not learned 2441. Buoys which mark dredging areas are painted which color?Not learned 2442. How are buoys which mark isolated dangers painted?Not learned 2443. Buoys which only mark the left or right side of the channel will never exhibit a light with which characteristic?Not learned 2444. Buoys are marked with reflective material to assist in their detection by searchlight. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2445. A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) __________.Not learned 2446. Which buoy may be even numbered?Not learned 2447. Which buoy may be odd numbered?Not learned 2448. Which buoy may be odd numbered?Not learned 2449. Which buoy is NOT numbered?Not learned 2450. When a buoy is in position only during a certain period of the year, where may the dates when the buoy is in position be found?Not learned 2451. A buoy having red and green horizontal bands would have which light characteristic?Not learned 2452. The buoy symbol printed on your chart is leaning to the northeast. What does this indicate?Not learned 2453. Which of the buoy symbols shown in illustration D032NG below indicates a safe water mark?Not learned 2454. You are in a buoyed channel at night and pass a lighted buoy with an irregular characteristic. Who should you report this to?Not learned 2455. Capella is found in what constellation?Not learned 2456. A cardinal mark showing an uninterrupted quick-flashing white light indicates the deepest water is located in which quadrant?Not learned 2457. Which cardinal quadrant is represented by the topmark in illustration D024NG below?Not learned 2458. In most cases, the direction of the apparent wind lies between the bow and which reference point?Not learned 2459. If you are caught in the left semicircle of a tropical storm, in the Southern Hemisphere, which action should you take?Not learned 2460. What will cause the ARPA to emit a visual alarm, audible alarm, or both?Not learned 2461. What causes compass deviation?Not learned 2462. Which causes the Earth's irregular heating?Not learned 2463. What causes the error of collimation with regards to the four adjustments to a sextant?Not learned 2464. Which is the cause of tropic tides?Not learned 2465. What causes variation in a compass?Not learned 2466. Which causes the wind flow from the horse latitudes to the doldrums to be deflected?Not learned 2467. A celestial body's complete orbit around another body is __________.Not learned 2468. A celestial body will cross the prime vertical circle when the latitude is numerically __________.Not learned 2469. What celestial body may sometimes be observed in daylight?Not learned 2470. The celestial coordinate of a star that is relatively constant in value is the __________.Not learned 2471. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on the terrestrial sphere?Not learned 2472. In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is equivalent to the colatitude of the Earth system of coordinates?Not learned 2473. In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is equivalent to the longitude of the Earth system of coordinates?Not learned 2474. In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is NOT equivalent to the longitude of the Earth system of coordinates?Not learned 2475. In the celestial equator system of coordinates what is the equivalent to the meridians of the Earth system of coordinates?Not learned 2476. The center of a circle of equal altitude, plotted on the surface of the Earth, is the __________.Not learned 2477. Which change in the condition of the seas could indicate the formation of a tropical storm or hurricane several hundred miles from your location?Not learned 2478. The change in the length of the day becomes greater as latitude increases because of the __________.Not learned 2479. When changing from a compass course to a true course, which should you apply?Not learned 2480. The channel under a bridge is marked with aids from the lateral system. The centerline of the channel is marked on the bridge with __________.Not learned 2481. The channel under a bridge is marked with lights of the lateral system. The centerline of the channel shall be marked on the bridge in which manner?Not learned 2482. You are in a channel inbound from sea. A daymark used to mark a channel junction when the preferred channel is to starboard will have the shape indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG below?Not learned 2483. What is a characteristic of cardinal marks?Not learned 2484. What is NOT a characteristic of cardinal marks?Not learned 2485. Which characteristic and color will a preferred-channel buoy show?Not learned 2486. What is characteristic of an isophase light?Not learned 2487. Which characteristics will a lighted buoy that is to be left to starboard, when entering a U.S. port from seaward have?Not learned 2488. Which of the following is a characteristic of a lighted cardinal mark?Not learned 2489. Which would be the characteristic of an occulting light?Not learned 2490. What is the characteristic of a quick flashing light?Not learned 2491. What is a characteristic of a rhumb line?Not learned 2492. What characteristics can be used to identify a lighthouse?Not learned 2493. Which is a characteristic of the weather preceding an approaching warm front?Not learned 2494. The chart of a beach area shows a very steep slope to the underwater beach bottom. Which type of breakers can be expected when trying to land a boat on this beach?Not learned 2495. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a red sector. Which is TRUE of the red sector?Not learned 2496. Charts should be corrected by using information published in which text?Not learned 2497. Chart correction information is NOT disseminated through the __________.Not learned 2498. A chart has extensive corrections to be made to it. When these are made and the chart is again printed, what term is given to this chart issue?Not learned 2499. If a chart indicates the depth of water to be 6 fathoms and your draft is 6.0 feet, what is the depth of the water under your keel? (Assume the actual depth and charted depth to be the same)Not learned 2500. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates the __________.Not learned 2501. The chart indicates the variation was 3°45'E in 1988, and the annual change is increasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply?Not learned 2502. The chart indicates the variation was 3°45'W in 1988, and the annual change is decreasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply?Not learned 2503. How are chart legends which indicate a conspicuous landmark printed?Not learned 2504. Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the associated landmark is __________.Not learned 2505. How is a chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 classified?Not learned 2506. A chart position enclosed by a semi-circle is a(n) __________.Not learned 2507. A chart position enclosed by a square is a(n) __________.Not learned 2508. Which chart has a scale of 1:45,000Not learned 2509. A chart with a scale of 1:80,000 would fall into which category?Not learned 2510. Charts showing the coast of Mexico are produced by the United States __________.Not learned 2511. On charts of U.S. waters, a magenta marking is NOT used for marking a __________.Not learned 2512. Which defines the term charted depth?Not learned 2513. Chronometer error may be found by __________.Not learned 2514. What are Cirrus clouds primarily composed of?Not learned 2515. Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July. Your DR position at that time is LAT 22° 16' N, LONG 150° 06' W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is TRUE?Not learned 2516. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December. Your DR position at that time is LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for morning sights is TRUE?Not learned 2517. Civil twilight starts at 1812 zone time on 26 August, your DR position at that time is LAT 21°06'S, LONG 14°56'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is TRUE?Not learned 2518. Which class of tide prevails in the greatest number of important harbors on the Atlantic Coast?Not learned 2519. What classification of tropical cyclone would have closed isobars, counter clockwise rotary circulation, and sustained winds between 34 and 63 knots?Not learned 2520. What do clear skies, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds indicate?Not learned 2521. On a clear, warm day, you notice the approach of a tall cumulus cloud. The cloud top has hard well-defined edges and rain is falling from the dark lower edge. What should you expect if this cloud passes directly overhead?Not learned 2522. What do clearance gauges at bridges indicate?Not learned 2523. The climate of the eastern coast of the Gulf of Mexico __________.Not learned 2524. The climate of the northern coast of the Gulf of Mexico is _________.Not learned 2525. Clouds are classified according to their __________.Not learned 2526. Which cloud commonly produces a halo about the Sun or Moon?Not learned 2527. Which clouds are described as high clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and often banded together to form a "mackerel sky"?Not learned 2528. Which cloud is described as a low, dark, sheet-like cloud which is associated with continuous precipitation for many hours?Not learned 2529. Which clouds are described as uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes?Not learned 2530. How are clouds formed?Not learned 2531. When would cloud formations be minimal?Not learned 2532. What is the name of a cloud of marked vertical development (often anvil-shaped) and produces showers?Not learned 2533. Clouds with the prefix "nimbo" in their name __________.Not learned 2534. A cloud sequence of cirrus, cirrostratus, and altostratus clouds followed by rain usually signifies the approach of which front?Not learned 2535. Which clouds is a thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails"?Not learned 2536. Which cloud type is normally associated with thunderstorms?Not learned 2537. The Coast Guard broadcasts urgent marine storm warning messages on which of the following frequencies?Not learned 2538. The Coast Guard Captain of the Port has excluded all traffic from a section of a port, while a regatta is taking place. Which describes the buoys marking this exclusion area?Not learned 2539. Coast Pilots and navigational charts are kept corrected and up-to-date by using the __________.Not learned 2540. A coastal chart could have a scale of __________.Not learned 2541. Which is TRUE of the term coastal current?Not learned 2542. When cold air displaces warm air you have a(n) __________.Not learned 2543. When a cold air mass and a warm air mass meet, and there is no horizontal motion of either air mass, it is called a(n) __________.Not learned 2544. A cold front moving in from the northwest can produce __________.Not learned 2545. As a cold front passes how do the pressure and the winds change?Not learned 2546. The cold ocean current which meets the warm Gulf Stream between latitudes 40° and 43° N to form the "cold wall" is called the __________.Not learned 2547. Cold water flowing southward through the western part of the Bering Strait between Alaska and Siberia is joined by water circulating counterclockwise in the Bering Sea to form the __________.Not learned 2548. What color lights do lighted information markers display?Not learned 2549. What are the colors of a mid-channel daymark?Not learned 2550. What is the color scheme of navigational marks used for informational or regulatory purposes?Not learned 2551. What is a common unit of measure for atmospheric pressure?Not learned 2552. Which is the most commonly encountered fog at sea?Not learned 2553. When compared to air temperature, which factor is most useful in predicting fog?Not learned 2554. Compared to a low pressure system, generally the air in a high is __________.Not learned 2555. What is the compass course of a vessel heading NNE?Not learned 2556. What is the compass course of a vessel heading ESE?Not learned 2557. What is the compass course of a vessel heading NNW?Not learned 2558. What is the compass course of a vessel heading NW?Not learned 2559. What is the compass course of a vessel heading WNW?Not learned 2560. What is the compass course of a vessel heading SW?Not learned 2561. The compass deviation changes as the vessel changes __________.Not learned 2562. Compass error is equal to the __________.Not learned 2563. The compass error of a magnetic compass that has no deviation is __________.Not learned 2564. Which is TRUE if the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same?Not learned 2565. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________.Not learned 2566. Which of the following compensates for errors introduced when a vessel heels over?Not learned 2567. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel?Not learned 2568. Complete information on weather broadcasts throughout the world is contained in __________.Not learned 2569. Concerning a celestial observation, the azimuth angle is measured from the principal vertical circle to the __________.Not learned 2570. What condition exists at apogee?Not learned 2571. Which condition exists in the eye of a hurricane?Not learned 2572. What condition exists at perigee?Not learned 2573. Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?Not learned 2574. Which condition indicates that you are in a hurricane's dangerous semicircle in the Northern hemisphere?Not learned 2575. Which condition(s) is(are) necessary for the formation of dew?Not learned 2576. Which condition will occur after a cold front passes?Not learned 2577. Which condition suggests that your present position lies in the navigable semicircle of a tropical storm?Not learned 2578. Which conditions should a vessel entering the eye of a hurricane expect?Not learned 2579. Which condition would NOT indicate the approach of a tropical storm?Not learned 2580. Which condition would most likely result in fog?Not learned 2581. Which conic projection chart features straight lines which closely approximate a great circle?Not learned 2582. Considering the general circulation of the atmosphere, the wind system between latitudes 30° N and 60° N is commonly called the __________.Not learned 2583. Which winds are consistent winds and blow from the horse latitudes to the doldrums?Not learned 2584. The constellation that contains the pointer stars is __________.Not learned 2585. By convention, what color is the south pole of a magnet painted?Not learned 2586. By convention, the Earth's south magnetic pole is which color?Not learned 2587. When correcting apparent altitude to observed altitude, you do NOT apply a correction for __________.Not learned 2588. When correcting the sextant altitude to apparent altitude you are correcting for inaccuracies in the reading and __________.Not learned 2589. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections for which celestial bodies?Not learned 2590. Which correction(s) must be applied to an aneroid barometer?Not learned 2591. The correction(s) which must be applied to an aneroid barometer reading include(s) __________.Not learned 2592. The correction tables in the front of the Nautical Almanac for use with sun sights do NOT include the effects of __________.Not learned 2593. The correction tables in the Nautical Almanac for use with Moon sights do NOT include the effects of __________.Not learned 2594. If you count 20 seconds between seeing lightning and hearing the thunder, how far is the storm away from you?Not learned 2595. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B Buoyage System?Not learned 2596. You are on course 027°T and take a relative bearing to a lighthouse of 220°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?Not learned 2597. You are on course 030°T. The relative bearing of a lighthouse is 45°. What is the true bearing?Not learned 2598. You are on course 042°T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 2599. You are on course 209°T. In order to check the longitude of your vessel, you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 2600. You are on course 090°T when you sight a flashing white light with a characteristic of VQ(9)10s. You immediately change course to 030°T. After one hour, you sight another flashing white light with the characteristic of VQ. You must pass well __________.Not learned 2601. You are on course 138°T. To check the latitude of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 2602. You are on course 312°T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 2603. You are on course 180°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 225°. What is the true bearing of the lighthouse?Not learned 2604. You are on course 222°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 025°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?Not learned 2605. You are on course 238°T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 2606. You are on course 277°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 045°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?Not learned 2607. You are on course 303°T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 2608. You are on course 344°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 090°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?Not learned 2609. You are on course 344°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 270°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?Not learned 2610. You are on course 355°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 275°. What is the true bearing of the lighthouse?Not learned 2611. You are on course 357°T and take a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 180°. What is the true bearing to the lighthouse?Not learned 2612. When crossing a front how do isobars tend to change?Not learned 2613. Which of the following should be done when crossing the magnetic equator?Not learned 2614. Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by __________.Not learned 2615. Cumulonimbus clouds are most likely to accompany a(n) __________.Not learned 2616. What do cumulus clouds that have undergone vertical development and have become cumulonimbus in form indicate?Not learned 2617. Which is TRUE when a current flows in the opposite direction to the waves?Not learned 2618. What current flows southward along the west coast of the United States and causes extensive fog in that area?Not learned 2619. Which current is in many respects, similar to the Gulf Stream?Not learned 2620. When does a current perpendicular to a vessel's track have the greatest effect on the vessel's course made good?Not learned 2621. Current refers to the __________.Not learned 2622. Which current is responsible for the movement of large quantities of ice into the North Atlantic shipping lanes?Not learned 2623. If the current and wind are in the same direction, the sea surface represents a wind speed __________.Not learned 2624. If the current and wind are in opposite directions, the sea surface represents __________.Not learned 2625. Which current would you encounter on a direct passage from London, England, to Cape Town, South Africa?Not learned 2626. Which current would you encounter on a direct passage from southern Africa to Argentina, South America?Not learned 2627. A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n) __________.Not learned 2628. In a cyclone, where is the lowest pressure found?Not learned 2629. Cyclones tend to move __________.Not learned 2630. Which is the only cylindrical chart projection widely used for navigation?Not learned 2631. The Daily Memorandum contains which information?Not learned 2632. The daily path of a celestial body that is parallel to the celestial equator is the __________.Not learned 2633. The daily recurring pattern of pressure changes most noticeable in low latitudes is the __________.Not learned 2634. The dangerous semicircle of a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere is that area of the storm __________.Not learned 2635. Where is the dangerous semicircle located on a hurricane in the Southern Hemisphere?Not learned 2636. The dangerous semicircle of a typhoon in the Southern Hemisphere is that area __________.Not learned 2637. Where can information about the direction and velocity of rotary tidal currents be found?Not learned 2638. The date is the same all over the world at __________.Not learned 2639. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is __________.Not learned 2640. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is the same as that used for the charts of the locality. The depression of the datum below mean sea level for Hampton Roads, Virginia is __________.Not learned 2641. Which datum is used for soundings on charts of the East Coast of the United States?Not learned 2642. During daylight hours black double-cone topmarks are the most important feature of cardinal marks. Which of the four topmarks shown in illustration D030NG below indicates the best navigable water lies to the west of the buoy?Not learned 2643. Daylight savings time is a form of zone time that adopts the time __________.Not learned 2644. When daylight savings time is kept, the times of tide and current calculations must be adjusted. How can this be accomplished?Not learned 2645. During daylight savings time the meridian used for determining the time is located farther __________.Not learned 2646. What daymark has NO lateral significance?Not learned 2647. Which daymark has no lateral significance?Not learned 2648. What daymark shape is used in the lateral system?Not learned 2649. A daymark used to indicate the safe water in a channel will have which of the shapes shown in illustration D045NG below?Not learned 2650. A daymark used to indicate the starboard side of the channel when approaching from seaward will have the shape indicated by what letter in illustration D045NG below?Not learned 2651. A daymark used as a special mark is indicated by which letter in illustration D045NG below?Not learned 2652. Daymarks marking the starboard side of the channel when going towards the sea are __________.Not learned 2653. Which is TRUE of a dead reckoning (DR) plot?Not learned 2654. A dead reckoning (DR) plot __________.Not learned 2655. When should your dead reckoning position be plotted?Not learned 2656. When the declination of the Moon is 0°12.5'S, you can expect some tidal currents in Gulf Coast ports to __________.Not learned 2657. A decrease in barometric pressure is associated with all of the following except __________.Not learned 2658. What defines a great circle?Not learned 2659. Which defines an isotherm?Not learned 2660. Which defines a light's luminous range?Not learned 2661. The range of tide is the __________.Not learned 2662. Which defines the shortest distance between any two points on earth?Not learned 2663. Which defines the term relative humidity?Not learned 2664. Which defines a wave's fetch?Not learned 2665. What is the definition of height of tide?Not learned 2666. Deneb is found in what constellation?Not learned 2667. Denebola is found in what constellation?Not learned 2668. The dense black cumulonimbus clouds surrounding the eye of a hurricane are called __________.Not learned 2669. The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. What does that depth convert to?Not learned 2670. The depth of the water is indicated on a chart as 32 meters. What is this equal to?Not learned 2671. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?Not learned 2672. The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water is the __________.Not learned 2673. Which describes a diurnal tide?Not learned 2674. What describes an ebb current?Not learned 2675. What describes a flood current?Not learned 2676. Which describes a light having characteristics which include color variations?Not learned 2677. Which describes a line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast?Not learned 2678. Which describes the precession of the equinoxes of the Earth?Not learned 2679. Which is TRUE concerning privately maintained aids to navigation included in the Light List?Not learned 2680. Which describes the visible range marked on charts for lights?Not learned 2681. Which describes the wind circulation around a high-pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere?Not learned 2682. What is the direction of rotation of tropical cyclones, tropical storms and hurricanes in the Northern Hemisphere?Not learned 2683. What does the description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart mean?Not learned 2684. It is desirable that a vessel encountering hurricane or typhoon conditions sends weather reports to the closest meteorological service at which time interval?Not learned 2685. Despite weather predictions for continued good weather, a prudent mariner should be alert for all of the following, EXCEPT a sudden __________.Not learned 2686. You can determine if your vessel's position is in the dangerous or navigable semicircle of a hurricane by __________.Not learned 2687. You determine your vessel's position by taking a range and bearing to a buoy. Your position will be plotted as a(n) __________.Not learned 2688. You have determined that you are in the right semicircle of a tropical cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere. What action should you take to avoid the storm?Not learned 2689. When determining compass error by an azimuth of Polaris, you enter the Nautical Almanac with the __________.Not learned 2690. Deviation is the angle between the __________.Not learned 2691. Deviation is caused by __________.Not learned 2692. Deviation in a compass is caused by which of the following?Not learned 2693. Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings may be removed by the __________.Not learned 2694. The dew point is reached when which condition occurs?Not learned 2695. Which is TRUE concerning the dew point temperature?Not learned 2696. The diameter of the Sun and Moon as seen from the Earth varies slightly but averages about __________.Not learned 2697. The difference in degrees between true north and magnetic north is called __________.Not learned 2698. Which is the difference between the DR position and a fix, both of which have the same time?Not learned 2699. The difference between the heights of low and high tide is the __________.Not learned 2700. The difference of latitude (l) between the geographic position (GP) of a celestial body and your position, at the time of upper transit, is represented by __________.Not learned 2701. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is indicated by the __________.Not learned 2702. What is the difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W?Not learned 2703. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the longitude of the observer is the __________.Not learned 2704. The direction of prevailing winds in the Northern hemisphere is caused by the __________.Not learned 2705. The direction of the southeast trade winds is a result of the __________.Not learned 2706. The direction of the surface wind is __________.Not learned 2707. The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the __________.Not learned 2708. The direction in which a vessel is steered is the course. The path actually followed is the __________.Not learned 2709. The direction in which a vessel should be steered between two points is known by which term?Not learned 2710. Which is TRUE for the directive force acting on a gyrocompass?Not learned 2711. Discounting slip, if your vessel is turning RPM for 10 knots and making good a speed of 10 knots, which is TRUE of the current?Not learned 2712. When displayed under a single-span fixed bridge, red lights indicate __________.Not learned 2713. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using which method?Not learned 2714. What is the distance from the bottom of a wave trough to the top of a wave crest?Not learned 2715. The distance in longitude from the intersection of a great circle and the equator to the lower vertex is how many degrees of longitude?Not learned 2716. Which term defines the distance in miles between the circle of equal altitude for the observed altitude (Ho) and the circle of equal altitude for the computed altitude (Hc)?Not learned 2717. The distance to the nearest vertex from any point on a great circle track cannot exceed __________.Not learned 2718. The distance between any two meridians measured along a parallel of latitude __________.Not learned 2719. The distance between any two meridians measured along a parallel of latitude and expressed in miles is the __________.Not learned 2720. Diurnal aberration is due to __________.Not learned 2721. The diurnal inequality of the tides is caused by __________.Not learned 2722. The diurnal pressure variation is most noticeable in the __________.Not learned 2723. The diurnal variation of pressure is most noticeable __________.Not learned 2724. The diurnal variation of pressure is not visible in the middle latitudes in winter because __________.Not learned 2725. Which is the dividing meridian between zone descriptions -10 and -11?Not learned 2726. The dividing meridian between zone descriptions -2 and -3 is __________.Not learned 2727. Which is the dividing meridian between zone descriptions -4 and -5?Not learned 2728. The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +4 and +5 is __________.Not learned 2729. The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +7 and +8 is __________.Not learned 2730. Which is the dividing meridian between zone descriptions -7 and -8?Not learned 2731. In the doldrums you will NOT have __________.Not learned 2732. How are the doldrums characterized?Not learned 2733. In the doldrums you can expect __________.Not learned 2734. What does a Doppler log in the bottom return mode indicate?Not learned 2735. A Doppler log in the volume reverberation mode indicates __________.Not learned 2736. A Doppler speed log indicates speed over ground __________.Not learned 2737. A Doppler speed log indicates speed through the water __________.Not learned 2738. A double star is a star that __________.Not learned 2739. How is the draw span of a floating drawbridge marked?Not learned 2740. Drawbridges equipped with radiotelephones display a __________.Not learned 2741. A drawbridge may use visual signals to acknowledge a vessel's request to open the draw. Which signal indicates that the draw will NOT be opened immediately?Not learned 2742. When drawing a weather map and an isobar crosses a front, the isobar is drawn __________.Not learned 2743. What does the drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to?Not learned 2744. The dry bulb temperature is 78°F and the wet bulb temperature is 62°F. What is the relative humidity?Not learned 2745. The dry-bulb temperature is 78°F (26°C) and the wet-bulb temperature is 68°F (20°C). What is the relative humidity?Not learned 2746. Early indications of the approach of a hurricane may be all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 2747. The Earth has the shape of a(n) __________.Not learned 2748. An easterly wave is located 200 miles due west of your position, which is north of the equator. Where will the wave be in 24 hours?Not learned 2749. What is an ebb current?Not learned 2750. All echo-sounders can measure the __________.Not learned 2751. The ecliptic is __________.Not learned 2752. The edge of a hurricane has overtaken your MODU in the Gulf of Mexico and the northwest wind of a few hours ago has shifted to the west. This is an indication that you are located in the __________.Not learned 2753. When does the effects of priming of the tides occur?Not learned 2754. Eight points of a compass are equal to how many degrees?Not learned 2755. An electronic depth finder operates on which principle?Not learned 2756. What enables you to estimate the bearing of a storm's center?Not learned 2757. You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh N'ly wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter __________.Not learned 2758. You are enroute from Puerto Rico to New York. A hurricane makes up and is approaching. What does it indicate if the wind veers steadily?Not learned 2759. As you enter a channel from seaward in a U.S. port, which is TRUE of the numbers on the starboard side buoys?Not learned 2760. As you enter a U.S. channel from seaward, which is TRUE concerning the numbers on the buoys?Not learned 2761. You are entering an African port and see ahead of you a red can-shaped buoy. What action should you take?Not learned 2762. When entering a channel from seaward, the numbers on buoys __________.Not learned 2763. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range lights as shown in illustration D047NG below, on your starboard beam. What action should you take?Not learned 2764. In IALA Region B, entering from sea, how would a daymark on the port side of the channel be indicated on a chart?Not learned 2765. When entering from seaward, what does a buoy displaying a composite group (2+1) flashing red light indicate?Not learned 2766. When entering from seaward, what does a buoy displaying a single-flashing red light indicate?Not learned 2767. On entering from seaward, which is TRUE of a starboard side daymark?Not learned 2768. Entering from seaward, what do triangular-shaped daymarks mark?Not learned 2769. The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the apparent Sun cross the meridian?Not learned 2770. The equation of time is 8m 00s. The mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are 2°W of the central meridian of your time zone, when will the apparent Sun cross your meridian?Not learned 2771. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at what time?Not learned 2772. The equation of time measures the __________.Not learned 2773. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in celestial navigation, what is it used to determine?Not learned 2774. Between the equator and the 46th parallel of latitude, there are 3099 meridional parts. How many degrees of equatorial longitude does 3099 meridional parts represent?Not learned 2775. The equator is __________.Not learned 2776. What is the equivalent of 0? 48' in time units?Not learned 2777. What is the equivalent of 0 min. 16 sec. in arc units?Not learned 2778. What is the equivalent of 1? 53' in time units?Not learned 2779. What is the equivalent of 10? 48' in time units?Not learned 2780. What is the equivalent of 10 min. 52 sec. in arc units?Not learned 2781. What is the equivalent of 2° 35' in time units?Not learned 2782. What is the equivalent of 2? 52' in time units?Not learned 2783. What is the equivalent of 23 min. 20 sec. in arc units?Not learned 2784. What is the equivalent of 37 min. 32 sec. in arc units?Not learned 2785. What is the equivalent of 4°36' in time units?Not learned 2786. What is the equivalent of 4 min. 04 sec. in arc units?Not learned 2787. What is the equivalent of 42 min. 48 sec. in arc units?Not learned 2788. What is the equivalent of 47 min. 20 sec. in arc units?Not learned 2789. What is the equivalent of 5? 54' in time units?Not learned 2790. What is the equivalent of 8 min. 56 sec. in arc units?Not learned 2791. What is the equivalent of 83°29.6' in time units?Not learned 2792. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix?Not learned 2793. The error in a sextant altitude caused by refraction is greatest when the celestial body is in which location?Not learned 2794. How can you estimate the position of a tropical storm's center?Not learned 2795. At evening stars, the last stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in what quadrant?Not learned 2796. Except for N-S courses, and E-W courses on the equator, a great circle track between two points, when compared to a rhumb line track between the same two points, will __________.Not learned 2797. What should you expect when you encounter a tsunami in the open ocean?Not learned 2798. You can expect frontal activity when two air masses collide and __________.Not learned 2799. What does the expression "the air is saturated" mean?Not learned 2800. The expression "first Magnitude" is usually used to refer only to bodies of which magnitude?Not learned 2801. The eye of a hurricane is surrounded by dense black cumulonimbus clouds which are called the __________.Not learned 2802. Your weather chart indicates that you will cross the cold front of a low-pressure system in about 24 hours. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2803. Which factor has the greatest effect on the amount of gain required to obtain a fathometer reading?Not learned 2804. Which factor(s) is/are used to develop the charted information of a lighthouse?Not learned 2805. What feature(s) of a daymark is (are) used to identify the beacon upon which it is mounted?Not learned 2806. Which is a feature of a special daymark?Not learned 2807. You will find daily information about the duration of slack water in a port on the Atlantic Coast in which publication?Not learned 2808. To find a magnetic compass course from a true course what must you apply?Not learned 2809. Where do you find the semidiameter correction to be used to correct sextant observations of the stars?Not learned 2810. To find the specific phase characteristic of a lighthouse on a sound of the United States you would use which reference?Not learned 2811. Which can you use to indicate the bearing of the center of a hurricane or tropical storm?Not learned 2812. The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________.Not learned 2813. Which is TRUE concerning a first magnitude star?Not learned 2814. The first point of Aries is the point where the Sun is at __________.Not learned 2815. The First Point of Aries is the position of the Sun on the celestial sphere on or about __________.Not learned 2816. What is the FIRST sign of the existence of a well-developed tropical cyclone?Not learned 2817. What is the first visible indication of the presence of a tropical cyclone or hurricane?Not learned 2818. What does the Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensate for?Not learned 2819. The Flinders bar and the quadrantal spheres should be tested for permanent magnetism at what interval?Not learned 2820. The flow of air around an anticyclone in the Southern Hemisphere is __________.Not learned 2821. Fog is most commonly associated with a(n) __________.Not learned 2822. Fog forms when which condition exists?Not learned 2823. Fog forms when the air temperature is at or below __________.Not learned 2824. Fog is formed when __________.Not learned 2825. Fog generally clears when the __________.Not learned 2826. Fog is likely to occur when there is little difference between the dew point and the __________.Not learned 2827. Which fog is produced by warm moist air passing over a cold surface?Not learned 2828. How can you follow the approach of a dangerous cyclonic storm?Not learned 2829. Which of the following is the most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway?Not learned 2830. In which of the following does the arc of a great circle pass through a body and the celestial poles?Not learned 2831. Which of the following is associated with consistently high barometric pressure?Not learned 2832. Which item is NOT associated with cumulonimbus clouds?Not learned 2833. Which of the following is a boundary between two air masses?Not learned 2834. Which of the following causes the development of an occluded front?Not learned 2835. Which of the following causes a frontal thunderstorm?Not learned 2836. Which of the following describes gyrocompass repeaters which reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass?Not learned 2837. Which of the following describes the principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment?Not learned 2838. Which of the following is NOT a form of precipitation?Not learned 2839. All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT information concerning which item?Not learned 2840. Which of the following represents the slope of a warm front?Not learned 2841. Which of the following is a standard correction applied to the reading of an aneroid barometer?Not learned 2842. Which of the following statements concerning frontal movements is TRUE?Not learned 2843. Which of the following statements is FALSE?Not learned 2844. Which of the following traits possessed by an articulated light makes it superior to other types of buoys?Not learned 2845. Which of the following typically happens to the barometric pressure after a cold front passes?Not learned 2846. Which of the following is the most useful factor for predicting weather?Not learned 2847. Fomalhaut is found in what constellation?Not learned 2848. The force resulting from the earth's rotation that causes winds to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere is called __________.Not learned 2849. Which form of cloud, that is often known as "mackerel sky", is generally associated with fair weather?Not learned 2850. Which form of navigation may be suspended without notice under defense planning?Not learned 2851. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?Not learned 2852. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index error?Not learned 2853. Of the four light characteristics shown in illustration D019NG below which one does NOT represent a safe water mark of the IALA Buoyage System?Not learned 2854. The four standard light colors used for lighted aids to navigation are red, green, white, and __________.Not learned 2855. Freezing salt water spray should be anticipated when the air temperature drops below what temperature?Not learned 2856. A gale is characterized by a wind speed of __________.Not learned 2857. A general chart could have a scale of __________.Not learned 2858. In general, the most effective period for observing stars and planets occurs during the darker limit of __________.Not learned 2859. General information on enroute weather and climate is found in __________.Not learned 2860. General information about the location, characteristics, facilities, and services for U.S. and foreign ports may be obtained from which publication?Not learned 2861. Which general weather conditions should you expect to find in a low-pressure system?Not learned 2862. A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) __________.Not learned 2863. What generally occurs when the land is cooler than the nearby water?Not learned 2864. Generally speaking, you should expect to find low atmospheric pressure prevailing in the earth's __________.Not learned 2865. Generally speaking, in the Northern Hemisphere, when winds are blowing from between SE and SW the barometric reading __________.Not learned 2866. Generally speaking, a ship steaming across the North Pacific from Japan to Seattle is likely to experience __________.Not learned 2867. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 215°15'?Not learned 2868. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?Not learned 2869. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is 150°. What is the right ascension of the planet?Not learned 2870. The GHA of a star __________.Not learned 2871. Given are the courses and speeds of 4 vessels. The navigator of which vessel would be required to know the actual time of meridian transit in order to take an accurate observation at LAN?Not learned 2872. The GMT is 0445 and your zone description is +1. What is your zone time?Not learned 2873. At about GMT 1436, on 3 December, the lower limb of the Moon is observed with a sextant having an index error of 2.5' on the arc. The height of eye is 32 feet. The sextant altitude (hs) is 3°38.8'. What is the observed altitude?Not learned 2874. If the GMT is 1500, the time at 75? E longitude is __________.Not learned 2875. On a gnomonic chart, a great circle track between Los Angeles and Brisbane will appear as a __________.Not learned 2876. Good weather is usually associated with a region of __________.Not learned 2877. Which government agency publishes the U.S. Coast Pilot?Not learned 2878. The GP of a body for a high altitude sight is determined from the Greenwich hour angle and the __________.Not learned 2879. What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle?Not learned 2880. Which term is given to the great circle of the celestial sphere that passes through the zenith, nadir, and the eastern point of the horizon?Not learned 2881. The great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through the zenith and the north and south poles is the __________.Not learned 2882. A great circle crosses the equator at 141°E. It will also cross the equator at what other longitude?Not learned 2883. A great circle will intersect the equator at how many degrees of longitude apart?Not learned 2884. In which situation does a great circle track provides the maximum saving in distance?Not learned 2885. The greater the pressure difference between a high and a low-pressure center, the __________.Not learned 2886. When is the greatest directive horizontal force exerted on the magnetic compass of a vessel?Not learned 2887. Red lights may appear on which buoys?Not learned 2888. A group of stars which appear close together and form a striking configuration such as a person or animal is a __________.Not learned 2889. If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to be made to gyrocompass headings to obtain true headings?Not learned 2890. What is the gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement in OTHER than an east-west direction?Not learned 2891. Which term is given to that half of the hurricane to the right-hand side of its track (as you face the same direction that the storm is moving) in the Northern Hemisphere?Not learned 2892. Which handheld instrument is used to measure distances between objects and the ship?Not learned 2893. What happens because of augmentation?Not learned 2894. What happens to the barometric pressure after a cold front passes?Not learned 2895. What happens to the intensity of a hurricane as it reaches higher latitudes and cooler waters?Not learned 2896. A harbor chart could have a scale of __________.Not learned 2897. How often is The Local Notice to Mariners updated?Not learned 2898. You are heading in a northerly direction when you come across an easterly current. Your vessel will respond in which manner?Not learned 2899. You are heading out to sea in a buoyed channel and see a quick flashing green light on a buoy ahead of you. In U.S. waters, how should you leave the buoy?Not learned 2900. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________.Not learned 2901. The height of a light is measured from which reference plane?Not learned 2902. The height of a wave is the vertical distance from which reference points?Not learned 2903. In high latitudes, celestial observations can be made over a horizon covered with pack ice by bringing the sun tangent to the ice and __________.Not learned 2904. In very high latitudes, the most practical chart projection is the __________.Not learned 2905. Most high pressure areas in the United States are accompanied by __________.Not learned 2906. As a high pressure system approaches, the barometer reading __________.Not learned 2907. Which is TRUE when a high pressure system is centered north of your vessel in the Northern Hemisphere?Not learned 2908. The highest frequency of tropical cyclones in the North Atlantic Ocean occurs during which time frame?Not learned 2909. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.Not learned 2910. In the horizon system of coordinates what is the equivalent to the celestial equator of the celestial equator system?Not learned 2911. In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the declination of the equator system?Not learned 2912. In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the equator on the Earth?Not learned 2913. In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to latitude on the Earth?Not learned 2914. In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the local hour angle of the celestial equator system?Not learned 2915. In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to longitude on the Earth?Not learned 2916. In the horizon system of coordinates what is the equivalent to the meridians on the Earth?Not learned 2917. In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the parallels of declination of the celestial equator system?Not learned 2918. In the horizon system of coordinates what is equivalent to the poles on the Earth?Not learned 2919. What is the term used for the horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line axis line of the magnetic compass?Not learned 2920. The horse latitudes are characterized by __________.Not learned 2921. The "horse latitudes" are regions of __________.Not learned 2922. Hot air can hold __________.Not learned 2923. The Humboldt Current flows in which direction?Not learned 2924. A hurricane is characterized by winds of which speed?Not learned 2925. Hurricanes may move in any direction. However, it is rare and generally of short duration when a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere moves in which direction?Not learned 2926. A hurricane moving northeast out of the Gulf passes west of your position. You could expect all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 2927. When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses its tropical characteristics, the storm becomes a(n) __________.Not learned 2928. The hurricane season in the North Atlantic Ocean reaches its peak during which month?Not learned 2929. If a hurricane several hundred miles away is moving in your general direction your barometer would __________.Not learned 2930. A HYDROLANT warning would normally be sent for all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 2931. A hygrometer is a device used for determining __________.Not learned 2932. Under the IALA-A and B Buoyage Systems, what does a buoy with alternating red and white vertical stripes indicate?Not learned 2933. Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, which is TRUE of a buoy displaying a red light?Not learned 2934. Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, a conical buoy will be __________.Not learned 2935. Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, a buoy that should be left to port will be which color?Not learned 2936. Under the IALA-B Buoyage System, when entering from seaward a lateral system buoy to be left to starboard may display which of the topmarks shown in illustration D046NG below?Not learned 2937. The IALA Buoyage Systems do NOT apply to __________.Not learned 2938. In the IALA Buoyage System, what do buoys with alternating red and green horizontal bands indicate?Not learned 2939. Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a buoy indicating that the preferred channel is to port when entering from seaward, can have a __________.Not learned 2940. Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a buoy indicating the preferred channel is to port would have __________.Not learned 2941. Under the IALA-A Buoyage system, a buoy marking the port hand of the channel when approaching from seaward may NOT have which feature?Not learned 2942. Under the IALA-A Buoyage system, a buoy marking the starboard side of the channel when approaching from seaward may have which feature?Not learned 2943. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not show which light characteristic?Not learned 2944. Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a cardinal mark may NOT be used to __________.Not learned 2945. Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, a buoy indicating the preferred channel is to starboard may have which of the following?Not learned 2946. Under the IALA-A Buoyage System, a green spar buoy with a triangular topmark would indicate that the buoy __________.Not learned 2947. In the IALA Buoyage System, preferred-channel-to-port or preferred-channel-to-starboard buoys, when fitted with lights, will show a __________.Not learned 2948. Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a safe water mark may NOT __________.Not learned 2949. Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, safe water marks may show a __________.Not learned 2950. Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, what does a lighted buoy with a spherical topmark mark indicate?Not learned 2951. Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, which is TRUE of the topmark of a red and white vertically-striped buoy?Not learned 2952. Under the IALA Buoyage System, which topmark shown in illustration D023NG below will be displayed on a safe watermark?Not learned 2953. Under the IALA Buoyage Systems, a yellow buoy may mark __________.Not learned 2954. Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with quick white light showing 3 flashes every 10 seconds indicates that the safest water in the area is in which location?Not learned 2955. Under the IALA cardinal system, what does a mark with a quick white light showing 6 flashes followed by one long flash indicate in relation to the location of the safest water?Not learned 2956. In the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, what is a red and white vertically-striped buoy used to indicate?Not learned 2957. Under ideal viewing conditions, the dimmest star that can be seen with the unaided eye is of what magnitude?Not learned 2958. In illustration D009NG below, your position X is at LAT 35° S. Which winds are you experiencing?Not learned 2959. In illustration D039NG below, which number indicates cirrus clouds?Not learned 2960. In illustration D039NG below, what type of cloud is indicated by the number five?Not learned 2961. In illustration D039NG below, what type of cloud is indicated by the number four?Not learned 2962. In illustration D039NG below, what type of cloud is indicated by the number one?Not learned 2963. In illustration D044NG below, a pillar buoy is indicated by which letter?Not learned 2964. In illustration D044NG below, what type of buoy is indicated by the letter A?Not learned 2965. In illustration D045NG below, a green-and-red banded daymark, with the uppermost band green, will have which of the following shapes?Not learned 2966. In illustration D045NG below, which shape is a daymark warning of danger?Not learned 2967. In illustration D045NG below, what two shapes shown are used to indicate a preferred channel?Not learned 2968. In illustration D051NG below what is indicated by the position labeled "C"?Not learned 2969. In illustration D051NG below, why was the position labeled "C" plotted?Not learned 2970. In illustration D051NG below, why was the position labeled "E" plotted?Not learned 2971. In illustration D051NG below, why was the position labeled "D" plotted?Not learned 2972. The immediate surroundings of what constellation contain the most first magnitude stars?Not learned 2973. The MOST important feature of the material used for making the binnacle of a standard magnetic compass is that it is __________.Not learned 2974. Which is the most important information to be obtained from a barometer?Not learned 2975. An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called the nodal period. How long is this cycle?Not learned 2976. What is the most important source of information to be used in correcting charts and keeping them up to date?Not learned 2977. If it is impossible to avoid a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere, which is the most favorable place to be when the storm passes?Not learned 2978. You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 040°T. You are steering 036°T. The range is in sight as shown in illustration D047NG below, and is closing. Which action should you take?Not learned 2979. You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 309°T. You are steering 306°T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D047NG below. The range continues to open. What action should you take?Not learned 2980. You are inbound in a channel marked by a range. The range line is 216°T. You are steering 213°T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D048NG below. Which action should you take?Not learned 2981. The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.Not learned 2982. What is the primary cause of index error of a sextant?Not learned 2983. When the index and horizon mirrors of a properly adjusted sextant are at an angle of 45° to each other, the arc reads __________.Not learned 2984. What indicates the arrival of a hurricane within 24 to 36 hours?Not learned 2985. What indicates a buoy that should be left to port when entering from seaward? (U.S. Aids to Navigation System)Not learned 2986. What indicates that a tropical cyclone may be within 500 to 1,000 miles of your position?Not learned 2987. Which indication on the barometer is most meaningful in forecasting weather?Not learned 2988. By what means are indications of the master gyrocompass sent to remote repeaters?Not learned 2989. What will NOT induce errors into a Doppler sonar log?Not learned 2990. Where is induced magnetism found?Not learned 2991. Inferior conjunction is possible for __________.Not learned 2992. Which is an inferior planet?Not learned 2993. Information about currents around Pacific Coast ports of the U.S. can be obtained in which publication?Not learned 2994. What information is found in the chart title?Not learned 2995. What information is NOT found in the chart title?Not learned 2996. Which information is found in the chart title?Not learned 2997. Which of the sources contains information on Northern Right Whales?Not learned 2998. Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart provide?Not learned 2999. Information about the pilotage available at Miami harbor may best be obtained from which publication?Not learned 3000. Which information is NOT required to be posted in or near the wheelhouse?Not learned 3001. Which text contains information on search and rescue procedures and special, local communications used in Mexican waters?Not learned 3002. Which item contains information about temporary, short-term changes affecting the safety of navigation in U.S. waters?Not learned 3003. Where can information for updating paper nautical charts primarily be found?Not learned 3004. How are you informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation?Not learned 3005. You have been informed that dredging operations may be underway in your vicinity. Which buoy indicates the dredging area?Not learned 3006. The initial great circle course angle between LAT 23°00'S, LONG 42°00'W and LAT 34°00'S, LONG 18°00'E is 063.8°. What is the true course?Not learned 3007. The instrument most commonly used to gather the data for determining the relative humidity is the __________.Not learned 3008. An instrument designed to maintain a continuous record of atmospheric pressure is a(n) __________.Not learned 3009. An instrument that indicates wind direction is known as a(n) __________.Not learned 3010. An instrument that maintains a continuous record of humidity changes is called a __________.Not learned 3011. An instrument which maintains a continuous record of temperature changes is called a __________.Not learned 3012. Which instrument may a towing vessel, engaged in towing exclusively on the Western Rivers, use in place of a magnetic compass?Not learned 3013. What is used to measure wind velocity?Not learned 3014. Which instrument is used to measure the relative humidity of the air?Not learned 3015. Which instrument is used to predict the approach of a low pressure system?Not learned 3016. An instrument useful in predicting fog is the __________.Not learned 3017. How is the intensity of a light expressed in the Light Lists?Not learned 3018. After inventorying the Naval Control of Shipping publications you find there is no copy of ATP-2, Volume II "Allied Control of Shipping Manual - Bridge Supplement". You should ask for a replacement from the __________.Not learned 3019. Isobars on a weather map are useful in predicting which element of the weather?Not learned 3020. Isogonic lines are lines on a chart indicating __________.Not learned 3021. On an isomagnetic chart, the line of zero variation is the __________.Not learned 3022. Which item in illustration D034NG below shows a flashing light?Not learned 3023. Which item in illustration D034NG below shows a MorseNot learned 3024. Which item in illustration D034NG below shows an occulting light?Not learned 3025. After an item of required safety equipment on a towing vessel fails, the owner or Master must consider numerous factors before continuing the voyage. Which factor should NOT be included in his/her decision?Not learned 3026. Which is TRUE of a katabatic wind?Not learned 3027. Which kind of conditions would you observe as the eye of a storm passes over your vessel's position?Not learned 3028. What kind of pressure systems travel in tropical waves?Not learned 3029. What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a tropical wave?Not learned 3030. A large automated navigational buoy, such as those that have replaced some lightships, would be shown on a chart by which symbol in illustration D015NG below?Not learned 3031. A large group of stars revolving around a center is known as a __________.Not learned 3032. The largest of the navigational planets is __________.Not learned 3033. The largest waves (heaviest chop) will usually develop where the wind blows __________.Not learned 3034. From LAT 07° 12' N, LONG 80° 00' W, to LAT 47° 12' S, LONG 169° 18' E, the initial great circle course angle is 137.25°. How would you name this course?Not learned 3035. Which is TRUE of a lateral system buoy displaying a quick flashing light?Not learned 3036. A latitude line will be obtained by observing a body __________.Not learned 3037. The latitude of the upper vertex of a great circle is 36°N. What is the latitude of the lower vertex?Not learned 3038. The left half of the storm is called the navigable semicircle because __________.Not learned 3039. What is the length of the lunar day?Not learned 3040. What is the length of a nautical mile?Not learned 3041. The length of a wave is the length __________.Not learned 3042. What level of development of a tropical cyclone has a hundred mile radius of circulation, gale force winds, less than 990 millibars of pressure and vertically formed cumulonimbus clouds?Not learned 3043. A very light breeze that causes ripples on a small area of still water is a known by which term?Not learned 3044. Which light characteristic may be used on a special mark?Not learned 3045. Which light characteristic may be used on a special purpose mark?Not learned 3046. Which light combination does NOT indicate a navigational channel passing under a fixed bridge?Not learned 3047. Which term describes a light, feathery deposit of ice by sublimation of water vapor directly into the crystalline form on objects whose temperatures are below freezing?Not learned 3048. When a light is first seen on the horizon it will disappear again if the height of eye is immediately lowered several feet. When the eye is raised to its former height the light will again be visible. Which term is given to this process?Not learned 3049. Which term is given to a light that has a light period shorter than its dark period?Not learned 3050. Which is TRUE concerning Light Lists for coastal waters?Not learned 3051. The Light List Does NOT contain information on __________.Not learned 3052. The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type KGW. You should take which action?Not learned 3053. The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type MR. You should take which action?Not learned 3054. The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type NB. You should __________.Not learned 3055. The Light List indicates that a dayboard is a type TR-SY. Which action should you take?Not learned 3056. The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 14 miles and is 26 feet high. If the visibility is 4 miles and your height of eye is 20 feet, at what approximate distance will you sight the light?Not learned 3057. The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 18 miles and is 38 feet high. If the visibility is 6 miles and your height of eye is 15 feet, at which distance will you sight the light?Not learned 3058. The Light List indicates that a light has a nominal range of 8 miles and is 48 feet(14.6 meters) high. If the visibility is 6 miles and your height of eye is 35 feet(10.7 meters), at what approximate distance will you sight the light?Not learned 3059. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 10 miles and a height above water of 38 feet (11.6 meters). Your height of eye is 52 feet (15.8 meters) and the visibility is 11.0 miles. At which approximate range will you first sight the light?Not learned 3060. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 12 miles and a height above water of 25 feet (7.6 meters). Your height of eye is 30 feet (9.1 meters) and the visibility is 0.5 mile. At what approximate range will you first sight the light?Not learned 3061. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 12 miles and a height above water of 25 feet (7.6 meters). Your height of eye is 38 feet (11.6 meters) and the visibility is 5.5 miles. At what approximate range will you FIRST sight the light?Not learned 3062. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 18 miles and a height above water of 22 feet (6.7 meters). Your height of eye is 16 feet (4.9 meters) and the visibility is 2.0 miles. At which approximate range will you first sight the light?Not learned 3063. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 19 miles and a height above water of 52 feet (15.8 meters). Your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8 meters) and the visibility is 10.0 miles. At what approximate range will you first sight the light?Not learned 3064. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 6 miles and a height above water of 18 feet (5.5 meters). Your height of eye is 47 feet (14.3 meters) and the visibility is 1.5 miles. At what approximate range will you first sight the light?Not learned 3065. What is the light phase characteristic of a lighted isolated-danger mark?Not learned 3066. The light rhythm of MorseNot learned 3067. Some lights used as aids to marine navigation have a red sector to indicate a danger area. The limits of a colored sector of a light are listed in the Light List in which of the following manners?Not learned 3068. Which would you expect to see on a lighted preferred-channel buoy?Not learned 3069. What is a lighted safe water mark fitted with to aid in its identification?Not learned 3070. Lighted white and orange buoys must show which color light?Not learned 3071. A lighthouse is 120 feet (36.6 meters) high and the light has a nominal range of 18 miles. Your height of eye is 42 feet (12.8). If the visibility is 11 miles, approximately how far off the light will you be when the light becomes visible?Not learned 3072. What is the name given to lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation?Not learned 3073. A line of clouds, sharp changes in wind direction, and squalls are most frequently associated with a(n) __________.Not learned 3074. The line connecting the points of the earth's surface where there is no dip is the __________.Not learned 3075. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a __________.Not learned 3076. The line which connects the points of zero magnetic dip is __________.Not learned 3077. Lines drawn through points on the Earth having the same atmospheric pressure are known by which term?Not learned 3078. A line on the Earth parallel to the equator is a __________.Not learned 3079. A line of position is __________.Not learned 3080. A line of position from a celestial observation is a segment of which choice?Not learned 3081. The line of position determined from a sight with an observed altitude (Ho) of 88°45.0' should be __________.Not learned 3082. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n) __________.Not learned 3083. Lines of position may be __________.Not learned 3084. The line of position should be plotted as a circle around the GP of the body when the Ho exceeds what minimum value?Not learned 3085. Which term is given to a line on a weather chart connecting places which have the same barometric pressure?Not learned 3086. Which list of clouds is in sequence, from highest to lowest in the sky?Not learned 3087. A List of Lights entry (L Fl) is a single flashing light which shows a long flash of not less than which duration?Not learned 3088. Which of the listed properties does warm air possess?Not learned 3089. Little or no change in the barometric reading over a twelve hour period indicates __________.Not learned 3090. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?Not learned 3091. The LMT of sunrise on the standard meridian is 0552. Your longitude is 99? 15' E. What is your ZT of sunrise?Not learned 3092. The Local mean time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73? 15' E. What time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?Not learned 3093. Local sidereal time is equal to the __________.Not learned 3094. A local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused by the different rates of warming of land and water is a __________.Not learned 3095. You are located within a stationary high pressure area. Your aneroid barometer is falling very slowly. This indicates a(n) __________.Not learned 3096. Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the Greenwich time and date if the zone time and date are 0152, 10 January?Not learned 3097. Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the zone time and date if the Greenwich time and date are 0152, 10 January?Not learned 3098. Some locations maintain a zone time of -13. What are the zone time and date if the Greenwich time and date are 2152, 10 January?Not learned 3099. Which location is a source for an air mass labeled mTw?Not learned 3100. You should log all barometer readings taken at sea __________.Not learned 3101. You are in LONG 144? E. The date is 6 February, and the zone time is 0800. The Greenwich date and time are __________.Not learned 3102. You are in LONG 165°E, zone time at 0400, 1 November. What is the zone time and date in LONG 165°W?Not learned 3103. How long would a steady wind need to blow in order to create a wind driven current?Not learned 3104. Your longitude is 124°E, and your local mean time is 0520 on the 5th of the month. Which is the mean time and date at Greenwich?Not learned 3105. Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m on the 4th day of the month. Six minutes later, your position is 179°59'E longitude. What is your LMT and date?Not learned 3106. What is the longitude of the geographical position of a body whose Greenwich hour angle is 210°30'?Not learned 3107. The longitude of the upper vertex of a great circle track is 169°E. What is the longitude of the lower vertex?Not learned 3108. Why are low altitude sun sights not generally used?Not learned 3109. In low latitudes, the full Moon will always rise at about __________.Not learned 3110. In low latitudes, the high(s) of the diurnal variation of pressure occur(s) at __________.Not learned 3111. In low latitudes, a last quarter moon will always rise at about __________.Not learned 3112. In low latitudes, the low(s) of the diurnal variation of pressure occur(s) at __________.Not learned 3113. In low latitudes, the new Moon will always rise at about __________.Not learned 3114. In low latitudes the range of the diurnal variation of pressure is up to __________.Not learned 3115. When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather generally __________.Not learned 3116. Low pressure disturbances, which travel along the intertropical convergence zone, are called __________.Not learned 3117. Which is a low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not resting on the ground?Not learned 3118. The lunar day is __________.Not learned 3119. The lunar day is also known as the __________.Not learned 3120. The lunar or tidal day is __________.Not learned 3121. Magnets in the binnacles of magnetic compasses are used to reduce which effect?Not learned 3122. What do the magnets placed in horizontal trays in the compass binnacle compensate for?Not learned 3123. Before a magnetic compass is adjusted certain correctors must be checked to ensure that they are free of permanent magnetism. Which are the correctors?Not learned 3124. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 3125. What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct for both permanent and induced effects of magnetism?Not learned 3126. Which is TRUE concerning magnetic compass deviation?Not learned 3127. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the Earth's total magnetic force. Where is this magnetic force the GREATEST?Not learned 3128. What is magnetic dip a measurement of?Not learned 3129. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron because __________.Not learned 3130. Magnetic information on a chart may be __________.Not learned 3131. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________.Not learned 3132. Which term is given to magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of an external field?Not learned 3133. The magnitude of three stars is indicated. Which star is the brightest?Not learned 3134. The magnitude of three stars is indicated. Which star is the brightest?Not learned 3135. If the main channel under a bridge is marked with lights of the lateral system how are the adjacent bridge piers marked?Not learned 3136. What is the major advantage of high altitude observations?Not learned 3137. A major advantage of the NAVTEX system when compared to other systems is that __________.Not learned 3138. What is the major advantage of a rhumb line track?Not learned 3139. What is the major limitation in using the Sight Reduction Tables for Air Navigation Volume I (Pub. No. 249) for star sights?Not learned 3140. The major problem with Moon sights is the __________.Not learned 3141. What is the major problem with taking high altitude sun observations?Not learned 3142. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach an entrance or strait at which time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current?Not learned 3143. When making landfall at night, how can you determine if a light is a major light or an offshore buoy?Not learned 3144. When making landfall at night, the light from a powerful lighthouse may sometimes be seen before the lantern breaks the horizon. Which term describes this light?Not learned 3145. In many areas "atoll" clouds (clouds of vertical development) are produced over small islands. What causes the development of these clouds?Not learned 3146. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?Not learned 3147. How many high waters usually occur each day on the East Coast of the United States?Not learned 3148. How many points are there in a compass card?Not learned 3149. How many slack tidal currents usually occur each day on the east coast of the United States?Not learned 3150. Mars is only seen at two phases, one of which __________.Not learned 3151. Mars will not be visible __________.Not learned 3152. On March 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming eastward to west longitude. What is your local time?Not learned 3153. A marine chronometer should be rewound once every __________.Not learned 3154. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the horizon forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated about the line of sight the images separate. The sextant has which error?Not learned 3155. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may be corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is __________.Not learned 3156. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to navigation by which means?Not learned 3157. Which maritime radio system, consisting of a series of coast stations, transmits coastal warnings?Not learned 3158. At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the __________.Not learned 3159. If you are the Master of a towing vessel who’s only working radar no longer functions, what must you do?Not learned 3160. What is the maximum difference between mean time and apparent time?Not learned 3161. Which term is used to express the maximum distance at which a light may be seen under existing visibility conditions?Not learned 3162. Mean high water is the average height of __________.Not learned 3163. What is the reference datum mean high water used to measure?Not learned 3164. Which measurement uses mean high water as the reference plane?Not learned 3165. Which is TRUE of mean high water?Not learned 3166. Mean low water is the average height of __________.Not learned 3167. Mean lower low water is the reference plane used for which measurements?Not learned 3168. The mean sun used to measure time moves __________.Not learned 3169. A mean sun is used as the reference for solar time for three reasons. Which reason is NOT a cause for use of a mean sun?Not learned 3170. To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT 34°30'N and LAT 31°30'N, which 30- mile scale should be used?Not learned 3171. The measurement of local time is based on the passage of the Sun over the __________.Not learned 3172. Which term is given to the mechanical lifting of air by the upslope slant of the terrain?Not learned 3173. On a Mercator chart, 1 nautical mile is equal to __________.Not learned 3174. Which type of projection is used to make a Mercator chart?Not learned 3175. As a Merchant Marine Officer you are expected to be able to do which of the following?Not learned 3176. If your mercurial barometer reads 30.50 inches (1033 millibars) and the temperature is 56°F (13°C), what is the correct reading at 55°N, 150°W?Not learned 3177. A mercurial barometer at sea is subject to rapid variations in height ("pumping") due to the pitch and roll of the vessel. To avoid this error, measurements of atmospheric pressure at sea are usually measured with a(n) __________.Not learned 3178. At meridian transit, the diagram used by a navigator to illustrate the angles involved is based on the __________.Not learned 3179. Which meteorological feature controls the climate of the Gulf of Mexico and the coastal area during late spring and summer?Not learned 3180. Miaplacidus is found in what constellation?Not learned 3181. In a microbarograph, when should the pen be checked and the inkwell filled?Not learned 3182. A microbarograph is a precision instrument that provides a __________.Not learned 3183. A mid-channel buoy, if lighted, will show a __________.Not learned 3184. In mid-ocean, the characteristics of a wave are determined by three factors. What is NOT one of these factors?Not learned 3185. On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by the __________.Not learned 3186. The Milky Way is an example of a __________.Not learned 3187. A millibar is a unit of __________.Not learned 3188. In modern fathometers the sonic or ultrasonic sound waves are produced electrically by means of a(n) __________.Not learned 3189. Which is TRUE of Monsoons?Not learned 3190. In which month will the equatorial counter current be strongest?Not learned 3191. During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________.Not learned 3192. When the Moon's declination is maximum north, which of the following will occur?Not learned 3193. The Moon is farthest from the Earth at __________.Not learned 3194. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides will occur?Not learned 3195. When is the Moon nearest to the Earth?Not learned 3196. When the moon is new or full, which type of tides occur?Not learned 3197. The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of the following is NOT one of these types of libration?Not learned 3198. The Moon is subject to four types of libration. Which of the following is NOT one of these types of libration?Not learned 3199. The Moon and Sun are in line over your meridian. Tomorrow when the Sun is over your meridian, where will the Moon be?Not learned 3200. A mooring buoy, if lighted, shows which color light?Not learned 3201. At morning stars, the last stars that should be observed are those with an azimuth in which quadrant?Not learned 3202. The motion of celestial bodies relative to other celestial bodies is known as __________.Not learned 3203. A mountain peak charted at 700 feet breaks the horizon, and your height of eye is 12 feet. What is your approximate distance off (choose closest answer)?Not learned 3204. The movement of water away from the shore or downstream is called a(n) __________.Not learned 3205. What must the owner or Master do if any of the towing vessel's required navigational safety equipment fails during a voyage?Not learned 3206. The nadir is the point on the celestial sphere that is __________.Not learned 3207. Which name is given to the pressure-sensitive element of an aneroid barometer?Not learned 3208. Which name is given to the prevailing winds in the band of latitude from approximately 5°N to 30°N?Not learned 3209. What is the name of the region of high pressure extending around the Earth at about 35°N latitude?Not learned 3210. The National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (formerly the National Imagery and Mapping Agency) would produce a chart of the coast of which area?Not learned 3211. The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration publishes which item?Not learned 3212. What natural feature is responsible for the rather even climate found on the Florida peninsula throughout the year?Not learned 3213. In the Nautical Almanac provided, when would Jupiter and Saturn be visible in temperate latitudes for both evening and morning stars?Not learned 3214. On a nautical chart, what does the inner ring of a compass rose indicate?Not learned 3215. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals?Not learned 3216. A nautical mile is a distance of approximately how much greater than or less than a statute mile?Not learned 3217. Naval Control of Shipping (NCS) publications should be __________.Not learned 3218. Which Naval Control of Shipping publication should be aboard your vessel?Not learned 3219. Which Naval Control of Shipping publication should be aboard your vessel?Not learned 3220. A NAVAREA warning carries the following number: 1986/87 (11). Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 3221. The navigable semicircle of a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere is that area of the storm measured __________.Not learned 3222. The navigable semicircle of a tropical storm in the South Indian Ocean is located on which side of the storm's track?Not learned 3223. The navigable semicircle of a typhoon in the Southern Hemisphere is the area __________.Not learned 3224. When navigating coastwise and hurricane warnings are received, you should __________.Not learned 3225. While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ships fog horn 2 1/2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?Not learned 3226. While navigating in fog off a coastline of steep cliffs, you hear the echo of the ship's foghorn 4 1/2 seconds after the signal was sounded. What is the distance to the shore?Not learned 3227. When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal projection, which is TRUE?Not learned 3228. You are navigating in pilotage waters using running fixes. The maximum time between fixes should be about __________.Not learned 3229. Which is TRUE when navigating a vessel?Not learned 3230. On navigational aids, what does the light characteristic "Fl(2+1)" mean?Not learned 3231. When the navigational channel passes under a fixed bridge, the edges of the channel are marked on the bridge with what lights?Not learned 3232. Which navigational equipment is required to be tested and logged before a towing vessel embarks on a voyage of more than 24 hours?Not learned 3233. Which navigational mark may only be lettered?Not learned 3234. For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of __________.Not learned 3235. In the navigational triangle, the angle at the elevated pole is the __________.Not learned 3236. The navigational triangle uses parts of two systems of coordinates, one of which is the celestial equator system, which is the other system?Not learned 3237. The navigator aboard a ship at approximately 165°E longitude observes the Sun at ZT 14-25-04 on 21 September. What is the GMT and Greenwich date of the observation?Not learned 3238. The navigator is concerned with three systems of coordinates. Which system is not of major concern?Not learned 3239. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.Not learned 3240. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?Not learned 3241. When do neap tides occur?Not learned 3242. Neap tides occur when the __________.Not learned 3243. When do neap tides occur?Not learned 3244. The needle of an aneroid barometer points to 30.05 on the dial. What does this indicate?Not learned 3245. The new Moon cannot be seen because the Moon is __________.Not learned 3246. NGA (NIMA) charts are adopting the metric system. In order to change a charted depth in meters to feet you may use the conversion table found __________.Not learned 3247. NOAA VHF weather reports are continuously broadcast on VHF channels WX-1, WX-2 and WX-3 on a frequency of __________.Not learned 3248. Which is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?Not learned 3249. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?Not learned 3250. Above-normal tides near the center of a hurricane may be caused by the __________.Not learned 3251. In North America, which direction do the majority of the weather systems move?Not learned 3252. The north equatorial current flows to the __________.Not learned 3253. In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy with a quick light showing 3 flashes every 10 seconds. Which topmark in illustration D030NG below would be fitted to this buoy under the IALA Buoyage Systems?Not learned 3254. In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light with 9 flashes every 15 seconds. Which of the four topmarks shown in illustration D030NG below would be fitted to the buoy?Not learned 3255. In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing a quick white light showing 6 flashes followed by one long flash at 15 second intervals. Which of the four topmarks in illustration D031NG below would be fitted to this buoy?Not learned 3256. In the North Sea area, you sight a buoy showing an uninterrupted quick-flashing white light. Which of the four topmarks shown in illustration D031NG below will this buoy be fitted with under the IALA Buoyage system?Not learned 3257. A "Norther" in the Gulf of Mexico is __________.Not learned 3258. In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation surrounded by higher pressure is a __________.Not learned 3259. In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous semicircle of a storm with plenty of sea room available. Which is the best course of action to take?Not learned 3260. In the Northern Hemisphere, when the center of a high-pressure system is due east of your position, you can expect winds from which direction?Not learned 3261. In the Northern Hemisphere, gusty winds shifting clockwise, a rapid drop in temperature, thunderstorms or rain squalls in summer (frequent rain/snow squalls in winter) then a rise in pressure followed by clearing skies, indicate the passage of a(n) __________.Not learned 3262. In the Northern Hemisphere, where will the largest waves or swells created by a typhoon or hurricane be located?Not learned 3263. In the Northern Hemisphere how do the major ocean currents tend to flow?Not learned 3264. In the Northern Hemisphere, an observer at point II in illustration D014NG below, should experience a wind shift from what direction?Not learned 3265. In the Northern Hemisphere, the right half of the storm is known as the dangerous semicircle. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE?Not learned 3266. In the Northern hemisphere which semicircle of a hurricane is the navigable semicircle?Not learned 3267. In the Northern Hemisphere, which term is given to a wind that shifts counterclockwise?Not learned 3268. You are in the Northern Hemisphere and a tropical wave is located 200 miles due east of your position. Where will the wave be located 12 hours later?Not learned 3269. You are in the Northern Hemisphere and a tropical wave is located 200 miles due west of your position. Where will the wave be located 24 hours later?Not learned 3270. In the Northern Hemisphere, what type of cloud formations would you expect to see to the west of an approaching tropical wave?Not learned 3271. In the Northern Hemisphere, your vessel is believed to be in the direct path of a hurricane, and plenty of sea room is available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the __________.Not learned 3272. In the Northern Hemisphere, if your vessel is in a hurricane's navigable semicircle where should you position the wind relative to the vessel?Not learned 3273. Which is TRUE in the Northern Hemisphere when a wind is said to veer?Not learned 3274. In the Northern Hemisphere, what do winds veering sharply to the west or northwest with increasing speed indicate?Not learned 3275. How can Northern right whales can be identified?Not learned 3276. On November 1st the zone time is 1700 EST (ZD +5) in LONG 75°W. What is the corresponding zone time and date in LONG 135°E?Not learned 3277. What do the numbers on isobars indicate?Not learned 3278. What does the numeral in the center of a wind rose circle on a pilot chart indicate?Not learned 3279. A nun buoy will __________.Not learned 3280. If you observe a buoy off station which action should you take?Not learned 3281. If you observe a rapid fall of barometric pressure, which action should you take?Not learned 3282. If an observer is at 35° N latitude, his zenith is __________.Not learned 3283. If an observer in the Northern Hemisphere faces the surface wind, where is the center of low pressure located?Not learned 3284. When observing a rapid rise in barometric pressure, what may you expect?Not learned 3285. How is an occluded front represented on a weather map?Not learned 3286. Which is TRUE of an occulting light?Not learned 3287. What occurs when rising air cools to the dew point?Not learned 3288. Which term defines the ocean bottom that extends from the shoreline out to an area where there is a marked change in slope to a greater depth?Not learned 3289. Which ocean current is "warm" based on the latitude in which it originates and on the effect it has on climate?Not learned 3290. Ocean currents are well defined and __________.Not learned 3291. Ocean swells originating from a typhoon can move ahead of it at speeds near __________.Not learned 3292. One point of a compass is equal to how many degrees?Not learned 3293. During one synodic rotation, a body makes one complete turn relative to the __________.Not learned 3294. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate which of the following?Not learned 3295. On what does the operation of an aneroid barometer depend?Not learned 3296. Opposition occurs when __________.Not learned 3297. An orange and white buoy indicating a vessel-exclusion area will be marked with what symbol?Not learned 3298. An orange and white buoy marking an area where operating restrictions are in effect will be marked with which symbol?Not learned 3299. An orange and white buoy marking a danger area will have what symbol on it?Not learned 3300. An orange and white buoy with a rectangle on it displays what information?Not learned 3301. In what order should the following sextant adjustments be made? I. Make telescope parallel to frame of sextant. II. Set horizon glass perpendicular to frame of sextant. III. Make index mirror and horizon glass parallel when index arm is set at zero. IV. Set index mirror perpendicular to frame of sextant.Not learned 3302. In order to get the maximum benefit from the Gulf Stream, on a voyage between Houston and Philadelphia, you should navigate __________.Not learned 3303. How can you remove index error from a sextant?Not learned 3304. In order to remove side error from a sextant, which adjustment can be made?Not learned 3305. In order for a star to be used for a sight at lower transit, which must be TRUE of the star?Not learned 3306. You are outbound in a buoyed channel on course 015°T. You sight a white light showing a MorseNot learned 3307. You are outbound in a channel marked by a range astern. The range line is 309°T. You are steering 127°T and have the range in sight as shown in illustration D047NG below. What action should you take?Not learned 3308. When outbound from a U.S. port, what does a buoy displaying a flashing red light indicate?Not learned 3309. When the owner or Master inspects his/her towing vessel before embarking on a voyage of more than 24 hours, he/she must check all terminal gear EXCEPT __________.Not learned 3310. The owner or Master of a towing vessel must ensure that each person that directs and controls the movement of the vessel knows all of the following EXCEPT _________.Not learned 3311. The owner or Master of a towing vessel that is operating within a Vessel Traffic Service (VTS) area must report specific information to the service. Which of the following choices is not required to be reported?Not learned 3312. The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that each person that directs and controls the movement of the vessel can accomplish all of the following EXCEPT _________.Not learned 3313. The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that each person that directs and controls the movement of the vessel can accurately fix the vessel's position using all of the following EXCEPT _________.Not learned 3314. The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place. When are these actions required to be logged?Not learned 3315. The owner or Master of a towing vessel shall ensure that all tests and inspections of gear take place and are logged __________.Not learned 3316. A parallax correction is NOT applied to observations of which celestial bodies?Not learned 3317. The parallel of latitude at 23° 27' S is the __________.Not learned 3318. The parallel of latitude at 66° 33' N is the __________.Not learned 3319. Which part of a sextant is mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm?Not learned 3320. In some parts of the world there is often a slight fall in tide during the middle of the high water period. The effect is to create a longer period of stand at higher water. This special feature is called a(n) __________.Not learned 3321. The passing of a low pressure system can be determined by periodically checking the __________.Not learned 3322. The path of a celestial body during its daily apparent revolution around the Earth is called its __________.Not learned 3323. Which term defines the paths of intended travel between three or more points?Not learned 3324. The path that the Sun appears to take among the stars is the __________.Not learned 3325. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is known by which term?Not learned 3326. When is the peak of the hurricane season in the western North Pacific?Not learned 3327. Perihelion is the point where the Sun __________.Not learned 3328. The period of the Earth's revolution from perihelion to perihelion is the __________.Not learned 3329. Which refers to the period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the water?Not learned 3330. The period of a lighted aid to navigation refers to the __________.Not learned 3331. The period of revolution of the Moon is __________.Not learned 3332. The period of rotation of the Moon on its axis is __________.Not learned 3333. Permanent magnetism is caused by __________.Not learned 3334. The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in polarity due to __________.Not learned 3335. The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in strength due to __________.Not learned 3336. The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in strength due to __________.Not learned 3337. A phase correction is applied to observations of __________.Not learned 3338. The phase correction should be applied to sights of Venus and Mars __________.Not learned 3339. A phase correction may be applicable to correct the sextant altitude correction of __________.Not learned 3340. A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________.Not learned 3341. Which piece of navigational safety equipment is NOT required on towing vessels over 12 meters in length, provided that the vessel remains within the navigable waters of the U.S.?Not learned 3342. A pilot chart does NOT contain information about which item?Not learned 3343. Some places maintain a zone time of -13. What are the time and date at Greenwich if the zone time and date are 2152, 10 January?Not learned 3344. Plain language is usually used on marine weather __________.Not learned 3345. A plane that cuts the Earth's surface at any angle and passes through the center will always form __________.Not learned 3346. A plane that cuts the Earth's surface and passes through the poles will always form __________.Not learned 3347. A plane perpendicular to the polar axis will never form what line on the Earth's surface?Not learned 3348. The planet Venus can be observed in the morning before sunrise if it is well to the __________.Not learned 3349. Planetary aberration is due, in part, to __________.Not learned 3350. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar U.S. port. Which publication provides information about channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities available in that port?Not learned 3351. You are planning a voyage from New York to Norway via the English Channel. Which publication contains information on the dangers to navigation in the English Channel?Not learned 3352. You are planning a voyage from San Francisco to Japan. Which publication contains information on the ocean routes?Not learned 3353. You should plot your dead reckoning position __________.Not learned 3354. You should plot a dead reckoning position after every __________.Not learned 3355. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle. The actual position of the vessel __________.Not learned 3356. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle. You should plot the position of the vessel __________.Not learned 3357. When plotting a circle of equal altitude for a high altitude sight, the radius of the circle is determined by which formula?Not learned 3358. You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How should this current be treated in determining the position?Not learned 3359. You are plotting a running fix. The LOP to be run forward is an arc from a radar range, what technique should be used?Not learned 3360. The point on the celestial sphere that is directly over the observer is known by which term?Not learned 3361. The points on the earth's surface where the magnetic dip is 90° are __________.Not learned 3362. Which term is given to the points where the Sun is at 0° declination?Not learned 3363. The point where the Sun is at maximum declination north or south is __________.Not learned 3364. Which term is used to define the point where the vertical rise or fall of tide has stopped?Not learned 3365. Polaris is part of what constellation?Not learned 3366. On the pole side of the high-pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure diminishes. The winds along these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation toward the east. What is the name of these winds?Not learned 3367. On the pole side of the trade wind belt, there is an area of high pressure with weak pressure gradients and light, variable winds. This area is called the __________.Not learned 3368. The population of northern right whales, an endangered species, numbers approximately __________.Not learned 3369. Port side daymarks may be __________.Not learned 3370. A position on the Earth has a longitude of 74°10'E. What would its celestial counterpart?Not learned 3371. Which position includes the effects of wind and current?Not learned 3372. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's course and speed is a(n) __________.Not learned 3373. Which term is used for a position obtained by applying ONLY your vessel's course and speed to a known position?Not learned 3374. Which is the term used for a position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times and advancing them to a common time?Not learned 3375. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________.Not learned 3376. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where?Not learned 3377. The precession of the equinoxes occurs in which direction?Not learned 3378. To predict the actual depth of water using the Tide Tables, how does one use the number obtained from the Tide Tables?Not learned 3379. How do preferred channel buoys indicate the preferred channel to transit?Not learned 3380. A preferred-channel buoy may be __________.Not learned 3381. While preparing to enter a Brazilian port, you see ahead a red and green horizontally-striped buoy. The upper band is red. What action should you take?Not learned 3382. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the following EXCEPT the __________.Not learned 3383. The presence of stratus clouds and a dying wind will usually result in __________.Not learned 3384. Your present weather is sunny with a steady barometer. A low swell approaches your vessel from the south with crests passing at relatively long periods of about four per minute. What does this usually indicate?Not learned 3385. The pressure gradient between the horse latitudes and doldrums runs __________.Not learned 3386. Pressure gradient is a measure of __________.Not learned 3387. When do the prevailing westerlies of the Southern Hemisphere blow 17-27 knots?Not learned 3388. Where are the prevailing westerlies of the Southern Hemisphere located?Not learned 3389. Prevailing winds between 30°N and 60°N latitude are from which direction?Not learned 3390. What is the primary source of the earth's weather?Not learned 3391. The primary use of apparent time in marine navigation is to __________.Not learned 3392. The prime vertical is the great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through the __________.Not learned 3393. The prime vertical is the reference point from which the angle of which type of observation is measured?Not learned 3394. The principal advantage of NAVTEX radio warnings is that __________.Not learned 3395. The principal vertical circle is that great circle on the celestial sphere that passes through which of the following?Not learned 3396. Prior to reading an aneroid barometer, why should you tap the face lightly with your finger?Not learned 3397. The probability of a sudden wind may be foretold by __________.Not learned 3398. While proceeding along the Mediterranean coast of Spain, you sight the black and yellow buoy shown in illustration D020NG below. Your course is 039°T, and the buoy bears 053°T. What action should you take?Not learned 3399. While proceeding along the Norwegian coast on course 039°T, you sight the black-yellow-black banded buoy shown in illustration D021NG below, bearing 053°T. What action should you take?Not learned 3400. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears 185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahead. This indicates that you(r) __________.Not learned 3401. "Proceeding from seaward" for the purpose of the direction of buoying offshore, lateral system buoys would be proceeding ________.Not learned 3402. The process by which the temperature and/or moisture characteristics of an air mass changes is called __________.Not learned 3403. A psychrometer has two thermometers that provide dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures. What can be determined by comparing these two temperature readings with a set of tables?Not learned 3404. Which publication is NOT carried on board U.S. merchant vessels operating under Naval Control of Shipping?Not learned 3405. Which publication should you check for complete information on Puget Sound weather conditions?Not learned 3406. What publication contains descriptions of the coast line, buoyage systems, weather conditions, port facilities, and navigation instructions for the United States and its possessions?Not learned 3407. Which publication contains information on Naval Control of Shipping (NCS) in time of emergency or war?Not learned 3408. Which publication contains information on navigation regulations, landmarks, channels, anchorages, tides, currents, and clearances of bridges for Chesapeake Bay?Not learned 3409. What publication contains information about the port facilities in Cadiz, Spain?Not learned 3410. In which publication could you find information concerning the minimum lighting required for bridges on U.S. waters?Not learned 3411. Which publication indicates the HYDROLANTS or HYDROPACS issued since the previous working day?Not learned 3412. What publication has information on the climate, distances, navigation regulations, outstanding landmarks, channels and anchorages of Long Island Sound?Not learned 3413. Which publication lists Class I and II private aids to navigation in or along navigable waters of the United States?Not learned 3414. Which publication(s) must a towing vessel of 12 meters or more in length carry when operating on US waters other than the Western Rivers?Not learned 3415. Which publication requires infrequent corrections?Not learned 3416. Which publication would describe the explosive anchorages in the ports on the east coast of the United States?Not learned 3417. Which publication would NOT be used on a voyage from Houston to New York?Not learned 3418. What is published by the U.S. Coast Guard?Not learned 3419. What is the purpose of the "reference hand" on an aneroid barometer?Not learned 3420. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to compensate for __________.Not learned 3421. Quadrantal error in a gyrocompass has its GREATEST effect on which of the following?Not learned 3422. A radar range to a small, charted object such as a light will provide a line of position in which form?Not learned 3423. Which is TRUE of Radiation fog?Not learned 3424. The radius of a circle of equal altitude of a body is equal to the __________.Not learned 3425. The radius of a circle of equal altitude for a body equals the body's __________.Not learned 3426. A rapid rise or fall of the barometer indicates __________.Not learned 3427. What is the reaction of a gyrocompass to an applied force known as?Not learned 3428. In reading a weather map, what do closely spaced pressure gradient lines indicate?Not learned 3429. The recording fathometer produces a graphic record of the __________.Not learned 3430. When recording the wind direction in the weather log, which information would you report?Not learned 3431. Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the forward speed __________.Not learned 3432. What do red sectors of navigation lights warn mariners of?Not learned 3433. A red triangular daymark marks __________.Not learned 3434. Which is the reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts?Not learned 3435. The reference point for determination of GMT is the passage of the mean sun over what line?Not learned 3436. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is __________.Not learned 3437. The refraction correction table given in the Nautical Almanac is based on a standard or average atmospheric density with a temperature of 50°F (10°C) and which atmospheric pressure?Not learned 3438. Which is the region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and to which are confined such phenomena as clouds, storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions?Not learned 3439. In Region A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the port side of a channel would be marked by which buoy?Not learned 3440. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, how would the starboard side of a channel be marked?Not learned 3441. In both regions of the IALA buoyage system, which topmark shown in illustration D022NG below is used on a special mark?Not learned 3442. In regions near the poles, how are the winds generally described?Not learned 3443. A relative bearing is always measured from __________.Not learned 3444. What is the relative bearing of an object on the port beam?Not learned 3445. What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the port bow?Not learned 3446. What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the port quarter?Not learned 3447. What is the relative bearing of an object on the starboard beam?Not learned 3448. What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard bow?Not learned 3449. What is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard quarter?Not learned 3450. What is the relative bearing of an object dead astern?Not learned 3451. What is the relative bearing of an object sighted dead ahead?Not learned 3452. Relative humidity is the percentage of water vapor that is in the air as compared to the maximum amount it can hold at __________.Not learned 3453. In the relatively calm area near the hurricane center, the seas are __________.Not learned 3454. You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is NOT required to ensure that a correct trace is recorded?Not learned 3455. When reporting wind direction, how should you give the direction?Not learned 3456. You are required to enter a lock on your voyage. Information on the lock regulations, signals, and radio communications can be found in __________.Not learned 3457. With respect to a reversing current, when does slack water occur?Not learned 3458. With respect to the vernal equinox, what is the length of the year?Not learned 3459. What results when warm moist air blows over a colder surface and is cooled below its dew point?Not learned 3460. Retrograde motion is the __________.Not learned 3461. When is a revised print of a chart made?Not learned 3462. The revision date of a chart is printed on which area of the chart?Not learned 3463. Revolution is the __________.Not learned 3464. When is the rhumb line distance the same as the great circle distance?Not learned 3465. If the right ascension of a body is 9 hours, it also __________.Not learned 3466. Right ascension is primarily used by the navigator for __________.Not learned 3467. The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant storm is known as __________.Not learned 3468. In some river mouths and estuaries, the incoming high-tide wave crest overtakes the preceding low-tide trough. This results in a wall of water proceeding upstream. Which term describes this occurrence?Not learned 3469. In a river subject to tidal currents, the best time to dock a ship without the assistance of tugs is __________.Not learned 3470. A rotary current sets through all directions of the compass. How much time does it take to complete one of these cycles, in a locale off the East coast of the U.S.?Not learned 3471. On which route is a towing vessel over 39.4 feet in length NOT required to carry an echo-sounding device?Not learned 3472. You are running parallel to the coast and estimate that the current is against you. In plotting a running fix using bearings from the same object on the coast, the greatest safety margin from inshore dangers will result if what speed is used to determine the fix?Not learned 3473. You are running parallel to the coast and take a running fix using bearings of the same object. Which is TRUE if you are making less speed than used for the running fix, in relation to the position indicated by the fix?Not learned 3474. Safe water buoys may show ONLY which type of light?Not learned 3475. A safe water daymark has what shape?Not learned 3476. A safe water mark may be __________.Not learned 3477. How is a safe water mark, that can be passed close aboard on either side, painted and lighted?Not learned 3478. A sailing chart could have which scale?Not learned 3479. The Sailing Directions contain information on __________.Not learned 3480. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain which information?Not learned 3481. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT which topic of information?Not learned 3482. The Sailing Directions (Planning Guide) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT which item?Not learned 3483. The Sailing Directions are published in the Enroute format and which other format?Not learned 3484. If you are sailing from the East Coast of the United States to the Caribbean Sea, which publication would contain information on weather, currents, and storms?Not learned 3485. If you were sailing in the North Pacific and were interested in the ice and iceberg limits, where could you find this information?Not learned 3486. In the Sargasso Sea there are large quantities of seaweed and no well defined currents. This area is located in the __________.Not learned 3487. Scales on aneroid barometers are usually graduated in inches of mercury in the general range of __________.Not learned 3488. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. What does this ratio indicate?Not learned 3489. Which scale is used to estimate wind speed by observing sea conditions?Not learned 3490. Which is TRUE of a sea breeze?Not learned 3491. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of __________.Not learned 3492. A series of brief showers accompanied by strong, shifting winds may occur along or some distance ahead of a(n) __________.Not learned 3493. The set of the current is the __________.Not learned 3494. Set of the current is __________.Not learned 3495. The set of the North Equatorial Countercurrent is generally in which direction?Not learned 3496. There are seven sources of error in the marine sextant. Of the four errors listed, which one is adjustable?Not learned 3497. If several navigational lights are visible at the same time, each one may be positively identified by checking all of the following EXCEPT what against the Light List?Not learned 3498. Severe tropical cyclones (hurricanes, typhoons) occur in all warm-water oceans except the __________.Not learned 3499. What sextant correction corrects the apparent altitude to the equivalent reading at the center of the Earth?Not learned 3500. Which of these sextant errors is nonadjustable?Not learned 3501. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________.Not learned 3502. In shallow water, waves that are too steep to be stable, causing the crests to move forward faster than the rest of the wave. This occurrence describes which term?Not learned 3503. A ship is on course 195° at a speed of 15 knots. The apparent wind is from 40° on the port bow, speed 30 knots. What are the direction and speed of the true wind?Not learned 3504. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°. The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper zone time?Not learned 3505. Your ship is proceeding on course 320°T at a speed of 25 knots. The apparent wind is from 30° off the starboard bow, speed 32 knots. What is the relative direction, true direction and speed of the true wind?Not learned 3506. If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the uncorrected deviation due to permanent magnetism __________.Not learned 3507. Your ship received a HYDROLANT advising of a special warning to mariners from the Department of State for ships in the Persian Gulf. You are 400 miles south of, and bound for, the Persian Gulf. What action should you take?Not learned 3508. Your ship is returning to New Orleans from a foreign voyage and carrying a bulk cargo of anhydrous ammonia. Under what conditions must you must notify the Captain of the Port, New Orleans?Not learned 3509. What does the shoreline on charts generally represent?Not learned 3510. The shoreline shown on nautical charts of areas affected by large tidal fluctuations is usually the line of mean __________.Not learned 3511. Which is NOT a side of the celestial navigational triangle?Not learned 3512. What is NOT a side of the navigational triangle used in sight reduction?Not learned 3513. A sidereal day is approximately how much shorter than a solar day?Not learned 3514. The sidereal day begins __________.Not learned 3515. The sidereal day begins when the __________.Not learned 3516. A sidereal day is shorter than a solar day. What is the reason for this difference?Not learned 3517. Sidereal hour angle is always __________.Not learned 3518. Sidereal time is NOT used __________.Not learned 3519. Sidereal time is used by navigators when __________.Not learned 3520. You sight a buoy fitted with a double-sphere topmark. If sighted at night, what color and light sequence would you expect to see?Not learned 3521. You sight a spar buoy with the topmark shown in illustration D027NG below. You must take which of the following actions?Not learned 3522. A sign of thunderstorm development is a cumulus cloud __________.Not learned 3523. A single barometric pressure reading of 28.60 indicates __________.Not learned 3524. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n) __________.Not learned 3525. A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in the binnacle is used to compensate for __________.Not learned 3526. When slanted letters are used to spell the name of a charted object you know the __________.Not learned 3527. A sling psychrometer is a(n) __________.Not learned 3528. What is a sling psychrometer used to measure?Not learned 3529. What does a slow, gradual fall of the barometer indicate?Not learned 3530. What does a slow rise in the barometric pressure forecast?Not learned 3531. Which term defines the small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator, and transcribed by the daily motion of the body?Not learned 3532. When there are small differences between the heights of two successive high tides or two low tides, in a tidal day, the tides are called __________.Not learned 3533. Small, visible mound-like protuberances on the bottom of cumulonimbus clouds, that are potential breeding grounds for waterspouts and tornadoes, are called __________.Not learned 3534. What do solid green arrows on the main body of a pilot chart indicate?Not learned 3535. Sometimes foreign charts are reproduced by NGA. On such a chart a wire dragged (swept) area may be shown in purple or which other color?Not learned 3536. If a sound signal is emitted from the oscillator of a fathometer, and two seconds elapse before the returning signal is picked up, what depth of water is indicated?Not learned 3537. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?Not learned 3538. As the South Equatorial Current approaches the east coast of Africa, it divides with the main part flowing south to form which current?Not learned 3539. The southeast trade winds actually blow in which direction?Not learned 3540. In the Southern Hemisphere the wind circulation in a high pressure system rotates in which direction?Not learned 3541. In the Southern Hemisphere winds in a low pressure system rotate in which direction?Not learned 3542. "Space motion" is the __________.Not learned 3543. A special mark (yellow buoy), if lighted, may exhibit which light rhythm?Not learned 3544. A special purpose buoy shall be __________.Not learned 3545. What is a "Special Warning"?Not learned 3546. The speed of an ocean current is dependent on __________.Not learned 3547. Which term is used to describe the speed at which an ocean wave system advances?Not learned 3548. The speed of sound through ocean water is nearly always __________.Not learned 3549. The speed of sound in water is approximately __________.Not learned 3550. A spherical buoy may be __________.Not learned 3551. The spin axis of a gyroscope tends to remain fixed in space in the direction in which it is started. How does this gyroscope become north seeking so that it can be used as a compass?Not learned 3552. The spinning of a celestial body about its axis is known as __________.Not learned 3553. Spoil grounds, anchorage areas, cable areas, and military exercise areas are all marked by yellow buoys. Which special mark on the buoy will indicate the specific area you are in?Not learned 3554. When do Spring tides occur?Not learned 3555. Spring tides occur __________.Not learned 3556. Which is TRUE concerning the occurrence of Spring tides?Not learned 3557. Spring tides are tides that __________.Not learned 3558. Squall lines with an almost unbroken line of threatening dark clouds and sharp changes in wind direction, generally precede which front?Not learned 3559. "Stand" of the tide is that time when __________.Not learned 3560. What is the standard atmospheric pressure as measured in inches of mercury?Not learned 3561. What is the standard atmospheric pressure in millibars?Not learned 3562. How does the standard magnetic compass heading differ from the true heading?Not learned 3563. Which is the standard meridian for the time zone +1?Not learned 3564. What is the standard time meridian for zone description -1?Not learned 3565. What is the standard time meridian for description +12?Not learned 3566. The Star Lists in the Nautical Almanac are based on which of the following magnitudes?Not learned 3567. A star is observed at lower transit. The line of position derived from this sight is __________.Not learned 3568. A star that suddenly becomes several magnitudes brighter and then gradually fades is a __________.Not learned 3569. Which statement concerning the chartlet in illustration D010NG below is true? (Soundings and heights are in meters)Not learned 3570. Which statement concerning the chartlet seen in illustration D010NG below is TRUE? (Soundings and heights are in meters)Not learned 3571. Which statement concerning current is TRUE?Not learned 3572. Which statement(s) concerning the effect of Coriolis force on ocean currents is(are) correct?Not learned 3573. Which statement describes the prevailing wind direction in mid-winter in the Gulf Coast area?Not learned 3574. Which statement about an estimated position is TRUE?Not learned 3575. Which statement is FALSE concerning the dangerous semicircle of a hurricane?Not learned 3576. Which statement about the Flinders bar of the magnetic compass is CORRECT?Not learned 3577. Which statement about a gnomonic chart is correct?Not learned 3578. Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE?Not learned 3579. Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE?Not learned 3580. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?Not learned 3581. Which statement is TRUE when comparing cold and warm fronts?Not learned 3582. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?Not learned 3583. Which statement is TRUE concerning the current of the Gulf Stream?Not learned 3584. Which statement is TRUE concerning equatorial tides?Not learned 3585. Which statement is TRUE concerning a Mercator projection?Not learned 3586. Which statement is TRUE for an unlighted, red and green, horizontally-banded buoy with the topmost band red?Not learned 3587. Which is TRUE concerning static crashes on your AM radio?Not learned 3588. The steady current circling the globe at about 60° S is the __________.Not learned 3589. Steady precipitation is typical of __________.Not learned 3590. Steam fog will occur when which conditions exists?Not learned 3591. You sight an isolated danger buoy with a white flashing light showing a group of two flashes. The buoy indicates you should take which action?Not learned 3592. While steaming on course 280°T, you sight a buoy showing a very quick flashing (VQ) white light well to port. Maintaining course, you sight another buoy showing a quick flashing (Q) white light. How should you pass?Not learned 3593. You are steaming west in the South Atlantic in an extratropical cyclonic storm, and the wind is dead ahead. According to the law of Buys Ballot, where does the center of low pressure lie?Not learned 3594. While steaming north of the Irish coast, you sight a buoy which shows the light rhythm shown in illustration D028NG below. How would you pass this buoy?Not learned 3595. You are steaming in the open ocean of the North Pacific between the Aleutian Chain and Hawaii. A warning broadcast indicates that an earthquake has occurred in the Aleutians and has generated a tsunami that is predicted to hit Hawaii. What action is necessary for the ship's safety?Not learned 3596. You are steaming southward along the west coast of the United States when you encounter a buoy showing a flashing red light. The buoy should be left on __________.Not learned 3597. You are steaming southward along the west coast of the United States when you sight a buoy showing a flashing green light. How should you pass this buoy?Not learned 3598. You are steaming west in the North Atlantic in an extratropical cyclonic storm, and the wind is dead ahead. According to the law of Buys Ballot, where does the center of low pressure lie?Not learned 3599. You are steaming in a westerly direction along the Gulf Coast. You see ahead of you a lighted buoy showing a red isophase light. Which action should you take?Not learned 3600. What does a steep barometric gradient indicate?Not learned 3601. The steepness of a cold front depends on __________.Not learned 3602. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check. What would the azimuth have to be?Not learned 3603. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe the Sun for a speed check. What would the azimuth have to be?Not learned 3604. When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is in line above the lower light, you should take which action?Not learned 3605. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly current. Without considering wind, how may you allow for the set?Not learned 3606. A storm's track is characterized by all of the following except __________.Not learned 3607. Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________.Not learned 3608. All straight lines represent great circle tracks on a chart based on which projection?Not learned 3609. Which wind is a strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific coast of Mexico, particularly during the colder months?Not learned 3610. The strongest winds and heaviest rains in a hurricane are found in the __________Not learned 3611. The summer solstice is the point where the Sun is at __________.Not learned 3612. The Sun's center is coincident with the principal vertical circle when __________.Not learned 3613. The Sun's center may be coincident with both the celestial equator and the observer's prime vertical circle when __________.Not learned 3614. The Sun is closest to the Earth in what month?Not learned 3615. The Sun at a maximum declination north would be approximately at __________Not learned 3616. Other than the Sun and Moon, the brightest object in the sky is __________.Not learned 3617. If the Sun's observed altitude is 47? 50', the zenith distance is __________.Not learned 3618. If the Sun's observed altitude is 54? 30', what is the zenith distance?Not learned 3619. Superior conjunction occurs when __________.Not learned 3620. "Surface circulation" is another term for __________.Not learned 3621. The survey information upon which a chart is based is found at which location?Not learned 3622. A survey (special purpose mark) buoy __________.Not learned 3623. Swells that have outrun the storm are produced in the __________.Not learned 3624. Swell is the rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to __________.Not learned 3625. A swift current occurring in a narrow passage connecting two large bodies of water, which is produced by the continuously changing difference in height of tide at the two ends of the passage, is called a __________.Not learned 3626. A sylphon cell is a part of which instrument?Not learned 3627. The symbol which appears beside a light on a chart reads "Gp Fl R (2) 10 sec 160 ft 19M". Which characteristic describes the light?Not learned 3628. The symbol which appears beside a light on a chart reads "Gp Fl R (2) 10 sec 160 ft 19M". Which characteristic does the light possess?Not learned 3629. Which symbol represents a 10-fathom curve?Not learned 3630. Which symbol represents a 2-fathom curve?Not learned 3631. Which of the symbols shown in illustration D018NG below represents an occluded front?Not learned 3632. Which of the symbols shown in illustration D018NG below represents a warm front?Not learned 3633. What does the symbol shown in illustration D033NG below indicate on a chart?Not learned 3634. What is a system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass called?Not learned 3635. Which table is NOT found in the U.S. Coast Pilots?Not learned 3636. You take a bearing of 043° and 169° of two objects. What bearing of a third object will give the best fix?Not learned 3637. You take a bearing of 086° of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?Not learned 3638. You take a bearing of 086° of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix?Not learned 3639. You take a bearing of 142° and 259° of two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?Not learned 3640. You take a bearing of 176° of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?Not learned 3641. You take a bearing of 176° of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix?Not learned 3642. You take a bearing of 191° and 313° to two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?Not learned 3643. You take a bearing of 264° of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix?Not learned 3644. You take a bearing of 264° of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?Not learned 3645. You take a bearing of 313° and 076° of two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?Not learned 3646. You take bearings of 313° T and 076° T on two objects. Which bearing of a third object will give the best fix?Not learned 3647. You take a bearing of 356° of a lighthouse. What bearing of another object would give the best fix?Not learned 3648. You take a bearing of 356° of a lighthouse. Which bearing of another object would give the best fix?Not learned 3649. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible horizon when __________.Not learned 3650. You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The BEST fix is obtained when the angle between the lines of position is __________.Not learned 3651. When taking stars, those bodies to the east and west will __________.Not learned 3652. While taking weather observations, you determine that the wind is blowing from the northeast. You would record the wind direction in the weather log as __________.Not learned 3653. While taking weather observations, you determine that the wind is coming from the west. In the weather log, how would you record the wind direction?Not learned 3654. Which is TRUE as the temperature of an air mass decreases?Not learned 3655. Which is TRUE as the temperature of the air reaches the dew point?Not learned 3656. Which term describes the temperature at which the air is saturated with water vapor and below which condensation of water vapor will occur?Not learned 3657. How does the temperature change with the passage of an occluded front?Not learned 3658. Which is TRUE as the temperature for a given mass of air increases?Not learned 3659. Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air mass due to which factor?Not learned 3660. The term "flood current" refers to that time when the water __________.Not learned 3661. Which term is given to the vertical angle between the horizontal and the magnetic line of force?Not learned 3662. Which term refers to the direction a current is flowing?Not learned 3663. What does the term "tide" refer to?Not learned 3664. The test of a towing vessel's steering gear control system includes each item EXCEPT __________.Not learned 3665. Three or four feet of the total height of a storm surge in a hurricane can be attributed to __________.Not learned 3666. What do the three white lights in a vertical line on a multiple-span bridge indicate?Not learned 3667. Which is TRUE of the tides in Boston Harbor?Not learned 3668. When the time is based on the movement of the visible Sun along the ecliptic the time is known as __________.Not learned 3669. A time diagram is a diagram of the celestial sphere as observed from above which location?Not learned 3670. A time diagram is a diagram on the plane of the __________.Not learned 3671. The time interval between successive wave crests is called the __________.Not learned 3672. The time meridian that is used when computing the currents for Pensacola Bay, Florida, is __________.Not learned 3673. Which time meridian is used when computing the velocity of the current for Pensacola Bay, Florida?Not learned 3674. Which time meridian is used for tide computations in New York Harbor?Not learned 3675. The time required for a lighted aid to complete a full cycle of light changes is listed in the Light List as the __________.Not learned 3676. Which topmark shown in illustration D023NG below identifies an isolated danger?Not learned 3677. When a tornado moves over the water from land it is called a __________.Not learned 3678. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be broken down into a series of components which are given which term?Not learned 3679. Towing vessels of more than 39.4 feet in length must carry charts or maps __________.Not learned 3680. Which towing vessel(s) is/are exempt from carrying radar?Not learned 3681. A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is __________.Not learned 3682. A towing vessel is NOT required to be fitted with radar if it is __________.Not learned 3683. On a transpacific voyage, you receive a message from your vessel's operators saying that your vessel has been consigned to voluntary Naval Cooperation and Guidance for Shipping (NCAGS). Where can further information be located?Not learned 3684. A triangular daymark would be colored __________.Not learned 3685. Tropical cyclones are classified by form and intensity. Which system does not have closed isobars?Not learned 3686. Tropical cyclones do not form within 5° of the Equator because __________.Not learned 3687. Tropical cyclones normally form within which of the following belts of latitude?Not learned 3688. In a tropical cyclone, in the Northern Hemisphere, a vessel hove to with the wind shifting counterclockwise is located in which position?Not learned 3689. Tropical storms and hurricanes are most likely to form in the Southern hemisphere during which months?Not learned 3690. A tropical storm is a tropical cyclone that generates winds of which speed?Not learned 3691. A tropical wave is usually preceded by __________.Not learned 3692. The tropical year differs from which year by 20 minutes?Not learned 3693. A true bearing of a charted object, when plotted on a chart, will establish a __________.Not learned 3694. What is NOT true concerning color sectors of lights?Not learned 3695. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?Not learned 3696. Which is TRUE concerning Wind velocity?Not learned 3697. What is true about a front?Not learned 3698. True heading differs from magnetic heading by __________.Not learned 3699. What is TRUE of the history display of a target's past positions on an ARPA?Not learned 3700. Which is TRUE of the velocity of the current in large coastal harbors?Not learned 3701. Which is TRUE of a vertically-striped buoy?Not learned 3702. When trying to sight a lighthouse you notice a glare from a town in the background. How does this affect the range at which the light may be sighted?Not learned 3703. A tsunami is caused by a(n) __________.Not learned 3704. Which are the two most effective generating forces of surface ocean currents?Not learned 3705. Two navigational hazards are located near to each other, but each is marked by an individual cardinal buoyage system. How are the buoys of one cardinal system identified from the other system?Not learned 3706. Two well-developed high-pressure areas may be separated by which item?Not learned 3707. Two well-developed low pressure areas may be separated by a __________.Not learned 3708. Which type of cloud is among the most dependable for giving an indication of an approaching weather system?Not learned 3709. What type of clouds are associated with a cold front?Not learned 3710. Which type of cloud is the classic "thunderhead"?Not learned 3711. Which type of cloud is composed entirely of ice crystals and is found at very high altitudes?Not learned 3712. Which type of cloud formation should be of immediate concern to small craft operators?Not learned 3713. From which type of cloud can a tornado or waterspout develop?Not learned 3714. The type of current which will have the greatest effect on the course made good for your vessel is __________.Not learned 3715. Which type of daymark is used to mark the starboard side of the channel when entering from sea?Not learned 3716. Which type of fog occurs on clear nights with very light breezes and forms when the earth cools rapidly?Not learned 3717. Which type of front forms when a cold front overtakes and forces a warm front upwards?Not learned 3718. Which type of frontal passage is associated with a relatively narrow band of precipitation?Not learned 3719. Which type of precipitation occurs only in thunderstorms with strong convection currents that convey raindrops above and below the freezing level?Not learned 3720. Which type of precipitation is a product of the violent convection in thunderstorms?Not learned 3721. Which type of weather could you expect soon after seeing "hook" or "comma" shaped cirrus clouds?Not learned 3722. What is typical of warm front weather conditions?Not learned 3723. What U.S. agency is responsible for NAVAREA warnings?Not learned 3724. Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, which category is a yellow buoy?Not learned 3725. In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, lateral aids as seen entering from seaward will display lights with which characteristic?Not learned 3726. In the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, what do red and green horizontally-banded buoys mark?Not learned 3727. Under the U.S. Aids to Navigation System, a special mark possesses which of the following characteristics?Not learned 3728. On U.S. charts, how you can tell if a named feature such as a rock (i.e. Great Eastern Rock in Block Island Sound) is submerged?Not learned 3729. The U.S. Coast Guard publishes __________.Not learned 3730. You are underway in an area where the charted depth is 8 fathoms. You compute the height of tide to be -4.0 feet. The draft of your vessel is 5.0 feet (1.52 meters). You determine the depth of the water beneath your keel to be __________.Not learned 3731. You are underway on course 050° T and your maximum speed is 10 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100° T, 90 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285° T at 19 knots. Which course should you steer at 10 knots to have the maximum CPA?Not learned 3732. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 10 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100°T, 90 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285°T at 19 knots. If you maneuver at 10 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?Not learned 3733. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 11 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 070°T, 80 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 270°T at 19 knots. What course should you steer at 11 knots to have the maximum CPA?Not learned 3734. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 11 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 070°T, 80 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 270°T at 19 knots. If you maneuver at 11 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?Not learned 3735. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 080°T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265°T at 22 knots. What course should you steer at 12 knots to have the maximum CPA?Not learned 3736. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 080°T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265°T at 22 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?Not learned 3737. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120°T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285°T at 25 knots. What course should you steer at 12 knots to have the maximum CPA?Not learned 3738. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120°T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285°T at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?Not learned 3739. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 13 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100°T, 120 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 275°T at 25 knots. What course should you steer at 13 knots to have the maximum CPA?Not learned 3740. You are underway on course 050? T and your maximum speed is 13 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 100? T, 120 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 275? T at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 13 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?Not learned 3741. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 13 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 120°T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265°T at 25 knots. What course should you steer at 13 knots to have the maximum CPA?Not learned 3742. You are underway on course 120°T and can make 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 150°T at 120 miles. The hurricane is on course 295° at 20 knots. What course should you steer at 12 knots to have the maximum CPA?Not learned 3743. You are underway on course 120°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears 150°T, 120 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 295°T at 20 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?Not learned 3744. You are underway on course 127°T. You sight a buoy with the topmarks shown in illustration D025NG below, bearing two points on the starboard bow. Which action must be taken?Not learned 3745. You are underway on course 142°T when you sight a buoy bearing 105°T. The buoy's white light has a characteristic of continuous very-quick flashing. What should you do to ensure that your vessel remains in the best navigable water?Not learned 3746. You are underway on course 328°T when you sight a buoy broad on your port bow. Which would indicate that you are in the best navigable water?Not learned 3747. You are underway in the North Sea on course 216°T when you sight a buoy bearing 021° relative. Under the IALA Buoyage System, you are in the best navigable water if the buoy has which of the following characteristics?Not learned 3748. You are underway and pass by a lighthouse. Its light, which was white since you first sighted it, changes to red. What does this indicate?Not learned 3749. You are underway in a vessel with a draft of 6.0 feet. You are in an area where the charted depth of the water is 4 fathoms. You would expect the depth of water beneath your keel to be approximately __________.Not learned 3750. You are underway in a vessel with a draft of 7.0 feet (2.1 meters). The charted depth for your position is 9 fathoms. You compute the height of tide to be +3.0 feet (0.9 meters). You determine the depth of the water beneath your keel to be __________.Not learned 3751. Under the Uniform State Waterway Marking System how is a mooring buoy painted?Not learned 3752. In the United States, who broadcasts the short-range radio navigational warnings?Not learned 3753. In United States waters, a buoy having red and white vertical stripes if lighted, it will have which light characteristic?Not learned 3754. Universal time (UTI) is another name for __________.Not learned 3755. It is unlawful to approach within how many yards of a Northern Right Whale?Not learned 3756. Upper limb observations of the Moon are used more frequently than those of the Sun because of the location of the Moon in the sky and the __________.Not learned 3757. At upper transit, if the zenith distance is 34°, the geographical distance from the observer to a body's GP is __________.Not learned 3758. The upper vertex of a great circle track is in LONG 156°00'E. Sailing eastward, the great circle track will cross the equator in which LONG?Not learned 3759. When using an ARPA, what should you consider in order to evaluate the information displayed?Not learned 3760. When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action should you take?Not learned 3761. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered?Not learned 3762. When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to encounter which situation?Not learned 3763. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an indeterminate position will result in which situation?Not learned 3764. When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, which reference is used to measure angles such as bearings or courses?Not learned 3765. When using a mechanical (windup type) marine chronometer, how often should it be reset?Not learned 3766. When using a radar in an unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from __________.Not learned 3767. When using a recording depth finder in the open ocean, what phenomena is most likely to produce a continuous trace that may not be from the actual ocean bottom?Not learned 3768. Using the surface analysis in illustration D049NG below, what change in the wind direction could be expected at position "D" if the low were moving northeasterly?Not learned 3769. Using the surface analysis in illustration D049NG below, what weather conditions would you expect to find at position A?Not learned 3770. Using the surface analysis in illustration D049NG below, which wind speeds are reported at position A?Not learned 3771. Using the surface analysis in illustration D049NG below, what wind speed is reported in position C?Not learned 3772. The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the Southern Hemisphere is __________.Not learned 3773. When utilizing a Pacific Coast chart, which is the reference plane of soundings?Not learned 3774. The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs, are for the _________.Not learned 3775. The value of sixty nautical miles per degree of geodetic latitude is most correct at __________.Not learned 3776. A variable star is one that __________.Not learned 3777. Variation is the angular measurement between which two points?Not learned 3778. Variation is a compass error that you __________.Not learned 3779. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________.Not learned 3780. How is variation indicated on a small-scale nautical chart?Not learned 3781. What will a veering wind do?Not learned 3782. The velocity of the apparent wind can be less than the true wind and from the same direction, if certain conditions are present. One condition is that the _________.Not learned 3783. The velocity of the apparent wind can be more than the true wind, and come from the same direction, if certain conditions are present. One condition is that the __________.Not learned 3784. The velocity of a rotary tidal current will be decreased when the Moon is at which phase?Not learned 3785. The velocity of a rotary tidal current will increase when the Moon is at which phase?Not learned 3786. The velocity of the wind, its steady direction, and the amount of time it has blown determines what about a wind driven current?Not learned 3787. The vertex of a great circle track is in LONG 109°E. Which longitude would an eastbound vessel cross the equator?Not learned 3788. A vertex of the navigational triangle is NOT located at the __________.Not learned 3789. The vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field causes induced magnetism in vertical soft iron. This changes with latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of the deviation?Not learned 3790. You are on a vessel at 0400 ZT on 3 July, and the ZD for your position is -8. What is the GMT?Not learned 3791. Your vessel has changed course and is heading 285°T, you are on the charted range and it appears as in illustration D048NG below. After several minutes the range appears as in illustration D047NG below and your heading is still 285°T. What does this indicate?Not learned 3792. Your vessel is on course 150°T, speed 17 knots. The apparent wind is from 40° off the starboard bow, speed 15 knots. What is the speed of the true wind?Not learned 3793. Your vessel is on course 180°T speed 22 knots. The apparent wind is from 70° off the port bow, speed 20 knots. What are the true direction and speed of the wind?Not learned 3794. Your vessel is on course 270°T, speed 10 knots. The apparent wind is from 10° off the port bow, speed 30 knots. From which direction is the true wind?Not learned 3795. Your vessel is located at position I on the weather map in illustration D013NG below. You should experience which weather condition?Not learned 3796. Your 1600 GRT vessel will be entering the navigable waters of the United States. You are required by regulations to take which action?Not learned 3797. Your vessel is entering port when you change course and steady up on a range with the lights in line. After a few minutes you observe the range lights as shown in illustration D047NG below. How should your heading be altered?Not learned 3798. Your vessel is entering port and you have steadied up on a range, dead ahead, in line with your keel. After a few minutes the range, still dead ahead, appears as shown in illustration D047NG below. Which action should you take?Not learned 3799. Your vessel is at the equator at midnight on 1 January, and a star is observed rising. At what time will this same star rise on 1 February, assuming your vessel's location is still at the equator?Not learned 3800. Your vessel goes aground in soft mud. You would have the best chance of refloating it on the next tide if it grounded at __________.Not learned 3801. A vessel heading NW is on a course of __________.Not learned 3802. As your vessel is heading southward along the east coast of the United States, you encounter a buoy showing a red flashing light. How should you pass this buoy?Not learned 3803. A vessel heading WNW is on which course?Not learned 3804. Your vessel is leaving New York harbor in dense fog. As the vessel slowly proceeds toward sea, you sight a green can buoy on the starboard bow. Which action should you take?Not learned 3805. Vessels should maintain a sharp lookout, especially during December through March, when navigating the Northern Right Whale's only known calving grounds. Where are the calving grounds located?Not learned 3806. Your vessel is making way through the water at a speed of 12 knots. Your vessel traveled 30 nautical miles in 2 hours 20 minutes. What current are you experiencing?Not learned 3807. If your vessel must pass through a draw bridge during a scheduled closure period, what signal should you sound to request the opening of the draw?Not learned 3808. When your vessel is on or near the path of an approaching tropical storm the __________.Not learned 3809. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, at 0600 ZT on 31 January your position is LAT 00°49'S, LONG 84°27'E. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. How should you encode the first three groups after the call sign if you estimate the wind?Not learned 3810. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, at 1200 ZT on 31 August, your position is LAT 43°14'S, LONG 175°44'E. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. How should you encode the first three groups after the call sign if you estimate the wind?Not learned 3811. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, at 1200 ZT on 31 July, your position is LAT 24° 33' N, LONG 173° 05' W. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. How should you encode the first three groups after the call sign if you estimate the wind?Not learned 3812. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, at 1800 ZT on 31 October your position is LAT 24°50'N, LONG 92°37'W. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. How should you encode the first three groups after the call sign if you estimate the wind?Not learned 3813. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The dry bulb thermometer reads 30° F (-1° C) and the wet bulb thermometer reads 28° F (-2° C). How would you encode the air temperature groups in the report?Not learned 3814. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B- 80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The dry bulb thermometer reads 34°F and the wet bulb thermometer reads 31°F. How would you encode the air temperature groups in the report?Not learned 3815. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The dry bulb thermometer reads 54°F and the wet bulb thermometer reads 50°F. How would you encode the air temperature groups in the report?Not learned 3816. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The dry bulb thermometer reads 78°F and the wet bulb thermometer reads 75°F. How would you encode the air temperature groups in the report?Not learned 3817. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. You are hove to in a hurricane on a heading of 328°T. The wind is from 030° true at 119 knots. How should this be encoded on the weather report form?Not learned 3818. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. One-half of the sky is covered with clouds, and the anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 340° relative at 14 knots. You are on course 307° T at 12.6 knots. How should you encode group Nddff?Not learned 3819. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. Your position is LAT 64°42'N, LONG 02°28'W. How would this be encoded?Not learned 3820. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. The sky is overcast, and the anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 144° relative at 8 knots. You are on course 162°T at 15 knots. How should you encode group Nddff?Not learned 3821. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program. You are preparing WS Form B-80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. Three-quarters of the sky is covered with clouds, and the anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 226° relative at 17.7 knots. You are on course 020°T at 8 knots. How should you encode group Nddff?Not learned 3822. Your vessel is participating in the Voluntary Observing Ship Program, you are preparing WS Form B- 80 as seen in illustration D041NG below. Twenty-five percent of the sky is covered with clouds, and the anemometer indicates that the apparent wind is from 062° relative at 13 knots. You are on course 238°T at 22 knots. How should you encode group Nddff?Not learned 3823. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________.Not learned 3824. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the __________.Not learned 3825. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate which of the following?Not learned 3826. A vessel sighting a northern right whale dead ahead should __________.Not learned 3827. A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International Date Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at Greenwich when the vessel crosses the line?Not learned 3828. When your vessel is on the storm track but behind the storm's center the __________.Not learned 3829. How does visibility change after the passage of a cold front?Not learned 3830. On a voyage along the coast of France, you sight a buoy with the top marks as shown in illustration D026NG below. How should you steer your vessel?Not learned 3831. On a voyage from Cape Town to London, which would be a favorable ocean current off the coast of Africa?Not learned 3832. On a voyage from Halifax, N.S., to Dakar, West Africa, the Canary Current will __________.Not learned 3833. You are on a voyage from New Orleans to Boston and navigating off the Florida coast. You will get the greatest benefit from the Gulf Stream if you navigate __________.Not learned 3834. You are on a voyage from New Orleans to Boston. When navigating off the Florida coast, you will get the greatest benefit from the Gulf Stream if you navigate __________.Not learned 3835. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT approximately the same as the great circle distance?Not learned 3836. When a warm air mass is adjacent to a cold air mass, the separation line between the two is called a(n) __________.Not learned 3837. A warm air mass is characterized by __________.Not learned 3838. Warm air masses will generally have __________.Not learned 3839. When a warm air mass overtakes a cold air mass, which term is given to the contact surface?Not learned 3840. As a warm front approaches how does barometric pressure change?Not learned 3841. While on watch, you notice that the air temperature is dropping and is approaching the dew point. Which type of weather should be forecasted?Not learned 3842. In waters where the cardinal system is used where would you expect to find danger?Not learned 3843. If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low-pressure area to be 100 miles due east of your position, what winds can you expect in the Northern Hemisphere?Not learned 3844. If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low-pressure system to be 100 miles due east of you, what winds can you expect in the Southern Hemisphere?Not learned 3845. What weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere?Not learned 3846. Weather conditions in the middle latitudes generally move in which direction?Not learned 3847. Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?Not learned 3848. Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?Not learned 3849. Weather forecast messages are usually __________.Not learned 3850. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. What does this indicate if you are in the Northern Hemisphere?Not learned 3851. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the Northern Hemisphere, what changes will occur?Not learned 3852. When does a weather front exist?Not learned 3853. Weather information is available from __________.Not learned 3854. Weather information provided by the National Weather Service (NWS) advisories should be used along with which other source of information?Not learned 3855. On a weather map, what does a large letter "H" indicate?Not learned 3856. Weather observations provided by each weather station include all of the following except which item?Not learned 3857. Weather patterns in the Gulf of Mexico area of the United States are _____.Not learned 3858. In a weather report, the term "visibility" expresses __________.Not learned 3859. Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from __________.Not learned 3860. Which weather system produces strong cold winds called "Northers" during the winter months in the Gulf of Mexico?Not learned 3861. Which is a weekly publication advising mariners of important matters affecting navigational safety?Not learned 3862. For a well-made and well-maintained sextant, the maximum value of which correction is usually so small that it can be ignored?Not learned 3863. Where is the West Wind Drift located?Not learned 3864. What does a white buoy with a blue band signify?Not learned 3865. What does a white buoy with an open-faced orange diamond on it indicate?Not learned 3866. What does a white buoy with an orange circle marked on it indicate?Not learned 3867. What does a white buoy with an orange cross within a diamond marked on it indicate?Not learned 3868. What does a white buoy with an orange rectangle on it indicate?Not learned 3869. What does a white diamond daymark with an orange border indicate?Not learned 3870. White lights may be found on which buoys?Not learned 3871. What do widely spaced isobars on a weather map indicate?Not learned 3872. Wind direction may be determined by observing all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 3873. Which winds have the greatest effect on the set, drift, and depth of the equatorial currents?Not learned 3874. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of frontal weather systems over the North American continent?Not learned 3875. Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night than an adjacent water area?Not learned 3876. What wind reverses directions seasonally?Not learned 3877. The winds of the "roaring forties" are strongest near which latitude?Not learned 3878. The wind speed and direction observed from a moving vessel is known as __________.Not learned 3879. What does a wind vane on a moving vessel show?Not learned 3880. The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical cyclone because of the __________.Not learned 3881. During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are __________.Not learned 3882. You wish to measure the distance on a Mercator chart between a point in latitude 42°30'N and a point in latitude 40°30'N. To measure 30 miles at a time where should you set the points of the dividers to obtain the most accuracy?Not learned 3883. You wish to measure the distance on a Mercator chart between a point in latitude 43°30'N and a point in latitude 40°30'N. To measure 30 miles at a time, where should you set the points of the dividers to obtain the most accurate measurement?Not learned 3884. When within 300 miles of a named tropical storm or hurricane, it is standard practice to send weather reports at which time interval?Not learned 3885. If within 500 yards (460m) of a Northern Right Whale, you are lawfully obligated to take which actions?Not learned 3886. On a working copy of a weather map, a cold front is represented by what color line?Not learned 3887. On a working copy of a weather map what color is the line that represents a warm front?Not learned 3888. In working out a local apparent noon sight for your latitude, you subtract the Ho from 90°. The 90° represents the angular distance from __________.Not learned 3889. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine information. Which NAVAREAS include the U.S. coasts?Not learned 3890. Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean?Not learned 3891. Where would you expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System?Not learned 3892. Where would you expect to find climatological and meteorological tables for the Gulf Coast area?Not learned 3893. Where would you find information about the time of high tide at a specific location on a particular day of the year?Not learned 3894. Where would you obtain data on currents for areas of the world not covered by the U.S. National Ocean Service?Not learned 3895. Which would be the subject of a NAVAREA warning?Not learned 3896. Yellow lights may appear on which buoys?Not learned 3897. Yesterday your chronometer read 11h 59m 59s at 1200 GMT time tick. Today the chronometer reads 12h 00m 01s at the 1200 GMT tick. What is the chronometer rate?Not learned 3898. Zenith distance is equal to __________.Not learned 3899. The zenith is the point on the celestial sphere that is __________.Not learned 3900. You have steamed 174 miles and consumed 18.0 tons of fuel. If you maintain the same speed, how many tons of fuel will you consume while steaming 416 miles?Not learned 3901. You have steamed 499 miles at 21 knots and are burning 462 barrels of fuel per day. You must decrease your consumption to 221 barrels per day with 311 miles left in your voyage. What must you reduce your speed (kts) to in order to burn this amount of fuel?Not learned 3902. You have steamed 607 miles at 17.0 knots, and consumed 121 tons of fuel. If you have 479 tons of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 14.5 knots?Not learned 3903. You have steamed 632 miles at 18.5 knots and consumed 197 tons of fuel. If you have 278 tons of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 15.0 knots?Not learned 3904. You have steamed 726 miles at 17.5 knots, and consumed 138 tons of fuel. If you have 252 tons of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 13.5 knots?Not learned 3905. You have steamed 746 miles at 14.0 knots and consumed 152 tons of fuel. If you have 201 tons of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 10 knots?Not learned 3906. You have steamed 803 miles at 13 knots, and consumed 179 tons of fuel. If you have 371 tons of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 16 knots?Not learned 3907. You have steamed 824 miles at 15.5 knots, and consumed 179 tons of fuel. If you have 221 tons of usable fuel remaining, how far can you steam at 18 knots?Not learned 3908. While steaming at 15 knots, your vessel burns 326 bbls of fuel per day. What will be the rate of fuel consumption if you decrease speed to 12.2 knots?Not learned 3909. While steaming at 17.0 knots, your vessel consumes 382 barrels of fuel oil per day. In order to reduce consumption to 223 barrels of fuel oil per day, what is the maximum speed the vessel can turn for?Not learned 3910. Your vessel arrives in port with sufficient fuel to steam 595 miles at 14 knots. If you are unable to take on bunkers, at what speed must you proceed to reach your next port, 707 miles distant?Not learned 3911. Your vessel consumes 216 barrels of fuel per day at a speed of 15.0 knots. What will be the fuel consumption of your vessel at 17.5 knots?Not learned 3912. The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator __________.Not learned 3913. You are on a 165 foot (50.3 meters) long vessel with a draft of 9 feet (2.7 meters) and twin screws. Which statement about rescuing a survivor in the water with ship pickup is TRUE?Not learned 3914. Your 550 GT vessel is equipped with a free fall lifeboat. Where should the SART units be stowed to meet SOLAS requirements?Not learned 3915. Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for what type of service?Not learned 3916. Which is the abandon ship signal?Not learned 3917. You have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft with a SART. What signal will indicate to you that a 3 cm radar has interrogated the SART unit?Not learned 3918. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. Which action should you take?Not learned 3919. You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?Not learned 3920. You have abandoned ship and are in a liferaft with several other members of the crew. One person in the liferaft is exhibiting symptoms of hypothermia. Which of the following could you do to aid the victim?Not learned 3921. You abandoned ship in the North Atlantic and one of the crew members is hypothermic. During a SAR helicopter extraction which lifting device should be avoided when hoisting this patient to the aircraft?Not learned 3922. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?Not learned 3923. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. Which is one of your FIRST actions that should be taken?Not learned 3924. You have abandoned your vessel and are the person in charge of lifeboat No. 2. Which procedure should be followed when landing a boat under oars through a slight surf?Not learned 3925. When abandoning ship in cold waters, what actions can be taken to minimize the effects of entering the water?Not learned 3926. When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height without a life jacket, you should __________.Not learned 3927. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?Not learned 3928. An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.Not learned 3929. Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving which item?Not learned 3930. Aboard ship, which term is given to the vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates?Not learned 3931. Aboard a vessel, a common formula which consists of dividing the sum of the vertical moments by the total weight yields which information?Not learned 3932. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.Not learned 3933. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.Not learned 3934. In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.Not learned 3935. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.Not learned 3936. In accordance with SOLAS, which of the following best describes the obligation of the Master concerning cargo hold watertight doors?Not learned 3937. In accordance with SOLAS, the Master shall be furnished with information to obtain accurate guidance as to the stability of the vessel under varying conditions of service. Which of the following is included in this informationNot learned 3938. In accordance with SOLAS the Master of a vessel is required to have specific stability information at their disposal. Which of the following is part of the requirement?Not learned 3939. In accordance with SOLAS, stability information required to be available to the Master shall include which of the following?Not learned 3940. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?Not learned 3941. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?Not learned 3942. According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?Not learned 3943. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what information that affects your vessel is required to be entered into the radiotelephone log?Not learned 3944. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?Not learned 3945. Which action will affect the trim of a vessel?Not learned 3946. Which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel at sea?Not learned 3947. Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a distress situation when embarking in survival craft?Not learned 3948. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC distress alert is received?Not learned 3949. Which action must be taken annually concerning inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels?Not learned 3950. Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry chemical cartridge- operated portable fire extinguisher?Not learned 3951. Which action should you take after sending a false distress alert on VHF?Not learned 3952. Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress alert?Not learned 3953. Which action would you take to get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle?Not learned 3954. Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the __________.Not learned 3955. In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into English or __________.Not learned 3956. Addition of weight above the center of gravity of a vessel will ALWAYS __________.Not learned 3957. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.Not learned 3958. An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.Not learned 3959. What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?Not learned 3960. Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?Not learned 3961. An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________.Not learned 3962. What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?Not learned 3963. What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?Not learned 3964. Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?Not learned 3965. What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?Not learned 3966. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?Not learned 3967. With the air supply on, which is TRUE concerning the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat?Not learned 3968. When the alarm bell sounds on a positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus, how long will reserve air supply last?Not learned 3969. Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.Not learned 3970. Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what percent of oxygen?Not learned 3971. The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on which item?Not learned 3972. Which does the AMVER system require?Not learned 3973. At an angle of loll, the capsizing moment is __________.Not learned 3974. At an angle of loll, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.Not learned 3975. At an angle of loll, the righting moment is __________.Not learned 3976. Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 3977. Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel refers to which term?Not learned 3978. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is known by which term?Not learned 3979. What is another name for the garboard strake?Not learned 3980. You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your approach?Not learned 3981. What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned?Not learned 3982. With an approved combination nozzle, low-velocity fog is produced by __________.Not learned 3983. Approximately how far could a straight stream of water reach if the fire hose pressure is reduced to 60 PSI?Not learned 3984. Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?Not learned 3985. Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?Not learned 3986. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.Not learned 3987. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.Not learned 3988. When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?Not learned 3989. You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. How should you get underway?Not learned 3990. The average rolling period of your ship puts it in the category of a "stiff ship". What effect can this condition have on the cargo carried onboard while underway?Not learned 3991. When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.Not learned 3992. What is the basic concept of GMDSSNot learned 3993. In battery charging rooms, where should the exhaust ventilation be provided?Not learned 3994. What does the term "beam of a vessel" refer to?Not learned 3995. Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies?Not learned 3996. Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________.Not learned 3997. What is the BEST conductor of electricity?Not learned 3998. What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?Not learned 3999. Which is the best source of information on the location of the blocks when dry docking a vessel?Not learned 4000. What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space?Not learned 4001. What is the best method to overcome the effects of shadowing when attempting to place an INMARSAT-B callNot learned 4002. What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?Not learned 4003. What is the best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident?Not learned 4004. What is the best way to test the INMARSAT-C terminal?Not learned 4005. Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls under which condition?Not learned 4006. Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.Not learned 4007. What does blowing tubes accomplish?Not learned 4008. You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?Not learned 4009. On board a vessel, which of the following is the key to the most rapid and effective response to a man overboard situation?Not learned 4010. Which command means to complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft?Not learned 4011. The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________.Not learned 4012. Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?Not learned 4013. On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with which chemical?Not learned 4014. A bulk freighter 580 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84 is floating in salt water at a draft of 21 ft. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft 1"?Not learned 4015. A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1"?Not learned 4016. Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.Not learned 4017. A burning pile of canvas is which classification of fire?Not learned 4018. What is a butt welded joint's strength compared to the base metal?Not learned 4019. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be __________.Not learned 4020. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing device should be opened in which situation?Not learned 4021. To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.Not learned 4022. How is the "call" part of a signal by flashing light made?Not learned 4023. A call between any two ship stations on an intership working frequency shall have a maximum duration of __________.Not learned 4024. You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has answered your call properly. You now send your call sign "DE KLIS". What should he respond with?Not learned 4025. You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra". What does this indicate?Not learned 4026. What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?Not learned 4027. How is the Camber in a ship usually measured?Not learned 4028. Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?Not learned 4029. Carbon dioxide as a firefighting agent has which advantage over other agents?Not learned 4030. A cargo of 100 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 100 tons of cargo will be 10,000 tons and the GM two feet. What would be the list of the vessel after loading the cargo?Not learned 4031. A cargo of 30 tons is to be loaded on deck 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 30 tons cargo will be 9,000 tons and the GM will be 5 feet. What would be the list of the vessel after loading this cargo?Not learned 4032. A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 2 feet with cargo suspended. What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended?Not learned 4033. A cargo of 50 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 50 ton cargo will be 3,000 tons and the GM three feet. What would be the list of the vessel after loading the cargo?Not learned 4034. A cargo of 60 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the 60 ton cargo will be 6,000 tons and the GM two feet. What would be the list of the vessel after loading this cargo?Not learned 4035. A cargo of 75 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the suspended cargo is 6,000 tons and GM is 6 feet. The list of the ship with the cargo suspended from the boom will be __________.Not learned 4036. During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. Which is the most prudent action to correct the list?Not learned 4037. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the __________.Not learned 4038. Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be re-inspected no later than __________.Not learned 4039. A carling is used aboard ship to accomplish which function?Not learned 4040. When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of the search units should normally be which of the following?Not learned 4041. CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.Not learned 4042. Which category of NAVTEX messages may be rejected in some receivers, BUT SHOULD NOT?Not learned 4043. Which categories of NAVTEX messages may not be selectively rejected through receiver programming?Not learned 4044. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty tanks will __________.Not learned 4045. Which causes spontaneous combustion?Not learned 4046. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.Not learned 4047. The ceiling is __________.Not learned 4048. What is the center around which a vessel trims called?Not learned 4049. Where is the center of buoyancy located on a vessel?Not learned 4050. The center of flotation of a vessel is __________.Not learned 4051. The center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the __________.Not learned 4052. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 4053. How may the change in trim of a vessel be found?Not learned 4054. The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is __________.Not learned 4055. Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge channel, may NOT be used to __________.Not learned 4056. Channel 13 is primarily used for ship-to-ship communication. Channel 13 is also authorized for which purpose?Not learned 4057. Which channel has been designated for on-scene communications in GMDSS?Not learned 4058. Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?Not learned 4059. Which channel and mode should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission?Not learned 4060. What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?Not learned 4061. To check stability, a weight of 10 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom whose head is 45 ft. from the ship's centerline. The clinometer show's a list of 5.0° with weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 9,000 tons. What would be the GM in this condition?Not learned 4062. To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 35 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7.0° with the weight suspended. Displacement including the weight is 14,000 tons. What would the length of GM in this condition?Not learned 4063. To check stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 40 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 6.5° with the weight suspended. Displacement including weight is 16,000 tons. What would be the GM while in this condition?Not learned 4064. Which is TRUE concerning a chock?Not learned 4065. When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT use which type of extinguisher?Not learned 4066. On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?Not learned 4067. A class B fire is most successfully fought by which method?Not learned 4068. A class C fire would be burning __________.Not learned 4069. After clearing the vessel, what is one of the FIRST things you would do in an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 4070. The CO2 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.Not learned 4071. CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following?Not learned 4072. The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel __________.Not learned 4073. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.Not learned 4074. A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.Not learned 4075. How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio normally identify itself?Not learned 4076. Which describes a cofferdam?Not learned 4077. A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces __________.Not learned 4078. A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.Not learned 4079. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.Not learned 4080. How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?Not learned 4081. When in command of a lifeboat under oars, what does the command "Backwater" mean?Not learned 4082. You have been in-command of a lifeboat since abandoning ship three days prior and land has been sighted ahead. Under which circumstances would you attempt beaching your lifeboat through a heavy surf?Not learned 4083. Which is the most common type of davit found on ocean service merchant vessels today?Not learned 4084. You are communicating by radiotelephone using the International Code of Signals. What is the correct method of sending the group 1.3?Not learned 4085. You are communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English. Which procedural word (proword) indicates that you have received another vessel's transmission?Not learned 4086. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English, what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and that a response is necessary?Not learned 4087. Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of performing under GMDSS as defined by the International Maritime Organization?Not learned 4088. Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is __________.Not learned 4089. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?Not learned 4090. You have completed stability calculations for your vessel prior to getting underway. Your vessel's GM is small but positive. Which of the following is true?Not learned 4091. A concentration of weight has been shifted inboard to the center line of the vessel. Generally speaking, what effect will this have on the vessel?Not learned 4092. When should you be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks?Not learned 4093. What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any portNot learned 4094. Which conditions will normally cause a SART to operate in the active mode?Not learned 4095. Under which condition will a SART unit have the greatest transmission potential?Not learned 4096. You should conduct a sector search under which of the following circumstances?Not learned 4097. In continuous operation, what is the effective range of the 15 pound CO2 extinguisher?Not learned 4098. A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.Not learned 4099. There is an out of control fire on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fire?Not learned 4100. The Coordinator Surface Search (CSS) in a SAR situation should display by night __________.Not learned 4101. The Coordinator Surface Search in a SAR situation should display by day __________.Not learned 4102. The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.Not learned 4103. The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.Not learned 4104. What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April 1981, for use in an AMVER report?Not learned 4105. What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?Not learned 4106. What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?Not learned 4107. Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure the list is due to which of the following choices?Not learned 4108. A covered liferaft has very limited maneuverability. Which of the following is True concerning the beaching of a liferaft in a rough surf?Not learned 4109. If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________.Not learned 4110. A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you take?Not learned 4111. What should you do if a crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed?Not learned 4112. When does a cylinder in a two-cycle engine experience combustion?Not learned 4113. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should __________.Not learned 4114. The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________.Not learned 4115. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?Not learned 4116. What is the danger to personnel associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space?Not learned 4117. The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall commence at __________.Not learned 4118. Which davit type may be operated by one person?Not learned 4119. Deballasting a double bottom has what effect on KG?Not learned 4120. The decision has been made to make landfall through a slight surf in an oar-propelled lifeboat. How should the sea anchor be utilized?Not learned 4121. A deck beam does NOT __________.Not learned 4122. The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist which stresses?Not learned 4123. Why are deck beams cambered on a vessel?Not learned 4124. A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?Not learned 4125. What will NOT decrease the stability of a vessel?Not learned 4126. How deeply should the sternum be depressed when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR?Not learned 4127. With regards to GMDSS, define the acronym MSI.Not learned 4128. Which defines the "margin plate"?Not learned 4129. Which defines reserve buoyancy?Not learned 4130. What is the definition of transverse metacenter?Not learned 4131. A Deratization Exemption Certificate is valid for which period of time?Not learned 4132. Which describes the floors aboard a ship?Not learned 4133. Which describes the term intact buoyancy?Not learned 4134. What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or deck plating?Not learned 4135. You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.Not learned 4136. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 4137. How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?Not learned 4138. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.Not learned 4139. Why are diesel engines considered safer than gasoline engines?Not learned 4140. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is __________.Not learned 4141. Which describes the difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity of a vessel?Not learned 4142. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the metacentric height is known as __________.Not learned 4143. What is the difference between the starboard and port drafts due to the wind or seas called?Not learned 4144. The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to __________.Not learned 4145. You are being directed to a fire in the lower engine room, portside, frame 127. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what machinery is found in that exact location?Not learned 4146. When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.Not learned 4147. What is the displacement of a barge which measures 85' x 46' x 13' and is floating in salt water with a draft of ten feet?Not learned 4148. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.Not learned 4149. When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.Not learned 4150. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.Not learned 4151. The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.Not learned 4152. At what distance can a SART be detected by aircraft, equipped with a 3cm radar, flying at approximately 3,000 feet?Not learned 4153. The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main deck is called __________.Not learned 4154. A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is __________.Not learned 4155. How is a distress message normally initiated through INMARSAT?Not learned 4156. The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. Which is TRUE concerning the information?Not learned 4157. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?Not learned 4158. Which documents are required by GMDSS for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?Not learned 4159. Which documents are required by Part 80 of the FCC Rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)?Not learned 4160. A double male coupling is one that __________.Not learned 4161. How will the draft at the center of floatation change after transferring a weight forward on a vessel?Not learned 4162. Your drafts are: FWD 16'-02", AFT 20'-08". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.Not learned 4163. Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 24'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.Not learned 4164. Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the MT1.Not learned 4165. Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.Not learned 4166. Your drafts are: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-01". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water.Not learned 4167. Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in fresh water.Not learned 4168. Your drafts are: FWD 24'-09", AFT 27'-02". Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessels displacement if you are in salt water.Not learned 4169. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 4170. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-04". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 10 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 4171. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-11", AFT 6'-11". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 16 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 4172. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-10". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 6 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 4173. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trimNot learned 4174. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 5 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 15 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can legally be loaded and still maintain the same trimNot learned 4175. Where are the draft marks required to be displayed on a ship?Not learned 4176. A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance. How often is this drill required to be conducted?Not learned 4177. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by which method?Not learned 4178. Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?Not learned 4179. When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, why is there a danger of reflash?Not learned 4180. Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?Not learned 4181. While in dry dock your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process involves __________.Not learned 4182. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC distress alert?Not learned 4183. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, which is the best way to haul it back aboard?Not learned 4184. The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.Not learned 4185. Which has the MOST effect on the range of a SSB transmission?Not learned 4186. What is the effect of spreading oil on the open sea?Not learned 4187. Which is the most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires?Not learned 4188. Which is the most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical extinguisher?Not learned 4189. What is the most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia?Not learned 4190. Why should all electrical appliances aboard a vessel be grounded and ground fault protected?Not learned 4191. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, where should the stream of dry chemicals be directed?Not learned 4192. The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the __________.Not learned 4193. After an engine is started which is the best action(s) to take?Not learned 4194. To ensure receipt of all relevant MSI, a NAVTEX receiver should be turned on at least how many hours prior to departure from port?Not learned 4195. Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.Not learned 4196. What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER report?Not learned 4197. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an INMARSAT satellite?Not learned 4198. When should an EPIRB be turned off in an actual distress situation?Not learned 4199. Which equipment is the primary source of generating a locating signal?Not learned 4200. Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?Not learned 4201. You are evacuating crew members from a survival craft that has been adrift in the North Atlantic for several days. What could occur if a person suffering from hypothermia is vertically lifted in a rescue sling to the helicopter?Not learned 4202. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?Not learned 4203. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 4204. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 4205. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be which of the following?Not learned 4206. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 4207. On every vessel, where must distress signals be stowed?Not learned 4208. EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position?Not learned 4209. Who has the exclusive use of the radiotelephone as stated in the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?Not learned 4210. What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?Not learned 4211. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 4212. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?Not learned 4213. Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?Not learned 4214. Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?Not learned 4215. Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?Not learned 4216. Which extinguishing agent is most effective for combating wood fires?Not learned 4217. As an extinguishing agent, foam _________.Not learned 4218. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.Not learned 4219. Which extinguishing agent is/are suitable to combat a class B fire in an engine compartment?Not learned 4220. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?Not learned 4221. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.Not learned 4222. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?Not learned 4223. Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in which of the following?Not learned 4224. The falls on gravity davits are __________.Not learned 4225. What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?Not learned 4226. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.Not learned 4227. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?Not learned 4228. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then take which action?Not learned 4229. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, why should the hose team crouch as low as possible?Not learned 4230. Fighting a fire in the galley poses which additional threat?Not learned 4231. When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), which is the most prudent action to take?Not learned 4232. When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.Not learned 4233. When fighting a fire using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, where should the stream be directed to extinguish the fire?Not learned 4234. You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and salt water. Why may the stability of the vessel be reduced?Not learned 4235. When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.Not learned 4236. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?Not learned 4237. On the fire control plans, in illustration D039SA below, the CO2 bottle room is designated by which symbol?Not learned 4238. On fire control plans, in illustration D039SA, the dry chemical releasing station is designated by which symbol?Not learned 4239. The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems?Not learned 4240. Which fire control plan symbol in illustration D039SA below represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "A" fire?Not learned 4241. Which fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, represents a dry chemical delivery method for small scale fires?Not learned 4242. There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 4243. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?Not learned 4244. A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by using which type of extinguishing agent?Not learned 4245. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by which action?Not learned 4246. If you have a fire in the engine room, what is the FIRST action you should take?Not learned 4247. Fire extinguishing agents used on class C fires must have which characteristic?Not learned 4248. Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?Not learned 4249. A fire hose has a __________.Not learned 4250. A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________.Not learned 4251. Fire hose should be washed with __________.Not learned 4252. A fire must be ventilated __________.Not learned 4253. A fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?Not learned 4254. A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is which class of fire?Not learned 4255. A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 4256. A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?Not learned 4257. A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as class __________.Not learned 4258. When should a fire be ventilated?Not learned 4259. Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?Not learned 4260. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog which action would you take?Not learned 4261. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.Not learned 4262. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to which personnel?Not learned 4263. The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?Not learned 4264. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?Not learned 4265. What is the FIRST treatment for a surface burn?Not learned 4266. You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress. Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. Which action should you take?Not learned 4267. A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by __________.Not learned 4268. In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of 20 cylinders, what is the minimum number of required pilot cylinders?Not learned 4269. Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or at which other location?Not learned 4270. Which are the flammable limits of methyl ethyl ketone?Not learned 4271. Which is the flammable limit range of Diesel Oil mixed with air?Not learned 4272. When flammable liquids are handled in a compartment on a vessel, the ventilation for that area should be __________.Not learned 4273. When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?Not learned 4274. For a floating vessel, which item is the result of subtracting KG from KM?Not learned 4275. The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by which item?Not learned 4276. Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?Not learned 4277. Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?Not learned 4278. How does foam extinguish a fire?Not learned 4279. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?Not learned 4280. Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.Not learned 4281. A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating which type of fire?Not learned 4282. Which of the following actions should be taken if you accidently test a 406 MHz EPIRB in transmit mode?Not learned 4283. Which of the following best defines the term "chock"?Not learned 4284. Which of the following is considered the normal operational range from a SART unit to a surface vessel?Not learned 4285. Which of the following defines the difference between the free-floating displacement and the KB of a grounded vessel?Not learned 4286. Which of the following defines "Rolling Period"?Not learned 4287. Which of the following describes the function of a sea anchor when utilized as a tool for beaching a lifeboat through surf?Not learned 4288. Which of the following describes the inspection and testing requirements of a SART?Not learned 4289. Which of the following describes the requirement for the testing of an EPIRB?Not learned 4290. Which of the following describes a SART?Not learned 4291. Which of the following formulas is an acceptable method to calculate the vertical shift of the vessel's center of gravity?Not learned 4292. Which of the followings is a global communication service to provide distress alerting and a network for SAR communications for mariners?Not learned 4293. Which of the following grounding scenarios would have the least damaging effect on vessel stability?Not learned 4294. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 4295. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 4296. Which of the following organizations operate the AMVER system?Not learned 4297. Which of the following is part of the annual SOLAS required test on an EPIRB?Not learned 4298. Which of the following is part of a required monthly EPIRB inspection?Not learned 4299. Which of the following penalties can be imposed for a violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"?Not learned 4300. Which of the following is the proper operating sequence of a SART?Not learned 4301. Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control Plans?Not learned 4302. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel's Fire Control Plan?Not learned 4303. Which of the following is a requirement if your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate?Not learned 4304. Which of the following is a requirement of the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat?Not learned 4305. Which of the following requires the vessel to be dry-docked?Not learned 4306. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?Not learned 4307. Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?Not learned 4308. Which of the following statements relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?Not learned 4309. Which of the following statements about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?Not learned 4310. Which of the following is a symptom of mild hypothermia?Not learned 4311. Which of the following terms defines a unit responsible for organizing search and rescue services?Not learned 4312. Which of the following is True if your radiotelephone fails while underway?Not learned 4313. Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?Not learned 4314. The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.Not learned 4315. In all forms of signaling, what is the waiting signal?Not learned 4316. Which formula can be used to calculate metacentric height?Not learned 4317. When the forward drafts and the after drafts are averaged, which of the following describes the result?Not learned 4318. The forward draft of your ship is 27'-11" and the after draft is 29'-03". The draft amidships is 28'-05". Which is TRUE of your vessel?Not learned 4319. Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.Not learned 4320. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.Not learned 4321. The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with the increase of which item?Not learned 4322. Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.Not learned 4323. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks accomplish which task?Not learned 4324. What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications?Not learned 4325. Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?Not learned 4326. A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. What should be your FIRST action?Not learned 4327. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining which minimal speed if it is not towing other survival craft?Not learned 4328. What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system?Not learned 4329. What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?Not learned 4330. What is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vesselsNot learned 4331. What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?Not learned 4332. A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using _______.Not learned 4333. A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?Not learned 4334. The garboard strake is the __________.Not learned 4335. In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard passenger vessels in river service?Not learned 4336. Which are general requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station log?Not learned 4337. The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the __________.Not learned 4338. For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when __________.Not learned 4339. Why can the vessel's GM not be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination?Not learned 4340. Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?Not learned 4341. For GMDSS, when may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave portNot learned 4342. Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board shipNot learned 4343. Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?Not learned 4344. What should the GMDSS radio operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in distress situations under GMDSS?Not learned 4345. If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens?Not learned 4346. When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "SECURITE" spoken three times he can expect to receive a message concerning __________.Not learned 4347. Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found?Not learned 4348. For GMDSS, which statement concerning compulsory vessels is TRUE?Not learned 4349. The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.Not learned 4350. Where are the grab rails of a metal lifeboat normally located?Not learned 4351. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.Not learned 4352. What does the gross tonnage of a vessel indicate?Not learned 4353. The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 120 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?Not learned 4354. The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light?Not learned 4355. Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude 73° 25' North"?Not learned 4356. Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude 109° 34' West?Not learned 4357. Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean time 11:35 pm?Not learned 4358. The half-breadth plan is __________.Not learned 4359. You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?Not learned 4360. What happens when the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pushed into the forward position?Not learned 4361. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will __________.Not learned 4362. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position and without an applicator, the all- purpose nozzle will __________.Not learned 4363. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?Not learned 4364. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. What does this signal mean?Not learned 4365. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. What does this indicate?Not learned 4366. Heave is motion along which axis?Not learned 4367. In heavy seas how should the helmsman steer the motor lifeboat?Not learned 4368. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?Not learned 4369. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, a vessel is in __________.Not learned 4370. When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, the upright equilibrium position is referred to by which term?Not learned 4371. Why is the height of a VHF radio antenna more important than the power output wattage of the radio?Not learned 4372. Which is TRUE of High-velocity fog?Not learned 4373. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in firefighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the firefighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when which condition exists?Not learned 4374. You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 5230 T. The 35-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 105' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 42' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 4375. You are hoisting a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8560 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 95' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 55' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 4376. The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?Not learned 4377. The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.Not learned 4378. Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 4379. A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.Not learned 4380. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?Not learned 4381. If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?Not learned 4382. In illustration D001SA below, which item represents the righting arm?Not learned 4383. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the center of gravity?Not learned 4384. In illustration D001SA below, what represents the metacentric height?Not learned 4385. In illustration D008SA below, what type of davits are displayed?Not learned 4386. In illustration D011SA below, what does the item labeled number (1) operate?Not learned 4387. In illustration D012SA below, what is the mechanism that will release the tricing pendant?Not learned 4388. In illustration D012SA below, what will be released when pulling on line number 5?Not learned 4389. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags?Not learned 4390. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external lifelines?Not learned 4391. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external recognition light, which can be seem up to two miles?Not learned 4392. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the floating sheath knife?Not learned 4393. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the sea anchor?Not learned 4394. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the towing connection?Not learned 4395. In illustration D014SA below, which item is the righting strap?Not learned 4396. In illustration D014SA below, what number is the sea painter?Not learned 4397. In illustration D014SA below, where would you find the knife?Not learned 4398. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the hydrostatic release?Not learned 4399. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the weak link?Not learned 4400. In the illustration, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to which of the followingNot learned 4401. In illustration D016SA below, what number indicates the frapping line?Not learned 4402. In illustration D031DG below, what does the single line located directly above the diamond indicate?Not learned 4403. In illustration D033DG below, what is the area indicated by the letter G is known as?Not learned 4404. In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D?Not learned 4405. In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate?Not learned 4406. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt?Not learned 4407. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard strake?Not learned 4408. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal?Not learned 4409. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a seam?Not learned 4410. In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done?Not learned 4411. In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the letter N known as?Not learned 4412. In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known as?Not learned 4413. In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter J known as?Not learned 4414. In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating indicated by letter H known as?Not learned 4415. In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which letter?Not learned 4416. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter F?Not learned 4417. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter K?Not learned 4418. In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor?Not learned 4419. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter L?Not learned 4420. In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N known as?Not learned 4421. In illustration D035SA below, viewing the bridge level of your vessel's fire control plan, what do the two symbols within the machinery casing represent?Not learned 4422. In illustration D036SA below, what does the solid arrow in the Crew Mess represent on the Fire Control Plans?Not learned 4423. In illustration D039SA below, a complete recharge for a self-contained breathing apparatus can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 4424. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol does NOT contain personal protective equipment?Not learned 4425. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol designates a space or compartment protected by Halon 1301?Not learned 4426. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol is not part of the ship's foam system?Not learned 4427. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol(s) represent part of the vessel's ventilation system?Not learned 4428. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (16)?Not learned 4429. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (30)?Not learned 4430. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (37)?Not learned 4431. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (39)?Not learned 4432. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (56)?Not learned 4433. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (64)?Not learned 4434. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (67)?Not learned 4435. In illustration D039SA below, what is the fire control plan symbol represented by number (7)?Not learned 4436. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol(s) represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "B" fire?Not learned 4437. In illustration D039SA below, which fire control plan symbol represents the agent or device best suited for extinguishing a class "C" fire?Not learned 4438. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a Class Alpha fire?Not learned 4439. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the best means to extinguish a LARGE Class Bravo fire on deck?Not learned 4440. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a bilge pump?Not learned 4441. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents the direction of primary means of escape?Not learned 4442. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency fire pump?Not learned 4443. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an emergency generator?Not learned 4444. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment NOT to be found immediately outside the engine room?Not learned 4445. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents equipment that is MOST likely to be found in the ship's galley?Not learned 4446. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire alarm panel?Not learned 4447. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire main with fire valves?Not learned 4448. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire pump?Not learned 4449. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a fire station?Not learned 4450. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a heat detector?Not learned 4451. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents an international shore connection?Not learned 4452. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a NON-portable extinguisher?Not learned 4453. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a push button for a fire alarm?Not learned 4454. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol represents a space protected by foam?Not learned 4455. In illustration D039SA below, which Fire Control Plan symbol signifies equipment you would use if your fire pump(s) failed?Not learned 4456. In illustration D039SA below, the halon room with the main battery of Halon 1301 bottles is designated by which symbol on the fire control plans?Not learned 4457. In illustration D039SA below the location of a spare set of fire control plans on board the vessel is designated by what approved symbol?Not learned 4458. In illustration D039SA below, what two fire control plan symbols designate the directional means of escape?Not learned 4459. An immersion suit must be equipped with which item(s)?Not learned 4460. What is MOST important when administering artificial respiration?Not learned 4461. What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?Not learned 4462. What is the most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns?Not learned 4463. What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?Not learned 4464. What is the MOST important element in administering CPR?Not learned 4465. The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.Not learned 4466. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 4467. What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?Not learned 4468. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.Not learned 4469. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to take which action?Not learned 4470. The improper stowage of cargo has caused vessels to have a negative GM. How will a ship in this condition handle in the seaway?Not learned 4471. Which will improve stability?Not learned 4472. When inclined to an angle of list, the value of the righting arm is __________.Not learned 4473. To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could take which action?Not learned 4474. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?Not learned 4475. If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?Not learned 4476. An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What should occur after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?Not learned 4477. When must an inflatable liferaft that has been repacked be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility?Not learned 4478. Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.Not learned 4479. Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry a minimum capacity of how many persons?Not learned 4480. The initial action of a Williamson turn is to put the rudder over full until which of the following?Not learned 4481. After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no less frequently than every __________.Not learned 4482. When initial stability applies, the height of the center of gravity plus the metacentric height equals the __________.Not learned 4483. Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.Not learned 4484. The "inner bottom" is the __________.Not learned 4485. Which installed equipment on a towing vessel must be tested and logged when a new Master assumes command?Not learned 4486. Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?Not learned 4487. What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown station using flashing light?Not learned 4488. In the International Code of Signals, what is the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance?Not learned 4489. What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light?Not learned 4490. What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?Not learned 4491. The International Maritime Organization has specific stability requirements and recommendations for multiple vessel types. Which of the following are subject to these requirements?Not learned 4492. On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more, are required to have facilities to enable a connection on each side of the ship for which piece of equipment represented in illustration D039SA below?Not learned 4493. Who issues the regulations governing the frequencies of the bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?Not learned 4494. Who issues a ship's radiotelephone station license?Not learned 4495. Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?Not learned 4496. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?Not learned 4497. Jettisoning weight from topside __________.Not learned 4498. When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.Not learned 4499. The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.Not learned 4500. Which term is given to the joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side?Not learned 4501. Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.Not learned 4502. The KG of a vessel is found by dividing the displacement into the __________.Not learned 4503. Which kind(s) of broadcasts are available through Safety NET?Not learned 4504. If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?Not learned 4505. Landing a lifeboat through surf should only be done if absolutely necessary. What should be done with the lifeboat rudder if this type of landing is unavoidable?Not learned 4506. You are landing an oar propelled lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward). Which is the recommended procedure to follow?Not learned 4507. Which is the proper term given to a large basin cut into the shore, closed off by a caisson, and used for dry docking of ships?Not learned 4508. You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances which is TRUE?Not learned 4509. A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, which action should you take?Not learned 4510. Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the __________.Not learned 4511. How should latitude 51° 48.7' S be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 4512. How should latitude 54°18.9'N be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 4513. To launch a liferaft by hand, you should take which actions?Not learned 4514. In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?Not learned 4515. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.Not learned 4516. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?Not learned 4517. When launching a lifeboat, how should the tricing pennants be released?Not learned 4518. When launching an open lifeboat by falls, which is TRUE concerning the boathooks?Not learned 4519. The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into which of the following?Not learned 4520. Which is TRUE concerning the length of the steering oar in a lifeboat?Not learned 4521. How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 4522. What letter is a signal indicating zone time preceded with?Not learned 4523. Your lifeboat has been adrift for several days when land is sighted. Which procedure should you use to survey a potential site to beach your lifeboat?Not learned 4524. On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, what does turning the releasing lever release?Not learned 4525. Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept?Not learned 4526. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?Not learned 4527. How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?Not learned 4528. If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?Not learned 4529. When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.Not learned 4530. Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W require that a fire drill include which of the following?Not learned 4531. How do the lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate?Not learned 4532. Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.Not learned 4533. "Limber" is a term associated with which item?Not learned 4534. What is the function of the lifeboat davit limit switches?Not learned 4535. Limit switches are used on which davits?Not learned 4536. Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.Not learned 4537. Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.Not learned 4538. You are loading cargo on deck aboard a vessel whose beam is 60 feet and full period of roll is 20 seconds. What is the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?Not learned 4539. Loading cargo above the vessel's center of gravity will increase the vessel's vertical center of gravity. How will this affect the vessel?Not learned 4540. You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the tropical zone after steaming four days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 66. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0022 below.Not learned 4541. You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the winter zone after steaming four days. You will consume 35 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.0083, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0018 below.Not learned 4542. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days. You will consume 41 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.000 and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0019 below.Not learned 4543. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming ten days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.021, and the average TPI is 51. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0017 below.Not learned 4544. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming two days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 55. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0021 below.Not learned 4545. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming eight days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of ten days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.016, and the average TPI is 41. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0015 below.Not learned 4546. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of nine days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.008, and the average TPI is 53. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0016 below.Not learned 4547. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eight days. You will consume 36 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.002, and the TPI is 47. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0005 below.Not learned 4548. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of eleven days. You will consume 33 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0011 below.Not learned 4549. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one and one-half days, and you will enter the winter zone after a total of six days. You will consume 29 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.006, and the average TPI is 43. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0008 below.Not learned 4550. You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will enter the winter zone after an additional three days. You will consume 28 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.020, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0012 below.Not learned 4551. You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will consume 32 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.005, and the average TPI is 65. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0020 below.Not learned 4552. You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of seven days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0007 below.Not learned 4553. You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after a total of twelve days. You will consume 31 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.000, and the average TPI is 46. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage? Reference Table BL-0013 below.Not learned 4554. You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the tropical zone after twelve days. You will consume 38 tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer reading at the loading pier is 1.004, and the average TPI is 72. What is the minimum freeboard required at the start of the voyage?Not learned 4555. In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located?Not learned 4556. If you log a distress message, it must include the __________.Not learned 4557. How long must the GMDSS radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee?Not learned 4558. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained by the licensee when they relate to a distress situation or disaster?Not learned 4559. How long must GMDSS Radio Logs be retained onboard the ship in original form?Not learned 4560. How long are radio station logs involving communications during a disaster required to be kept by the station licensee?Not learned 4561. A long ton is __________.Not learned 4562. How should longitude 116°24.3'W be written when preparing an AMVER report?Not learned 4563. When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.Not learned 4564. When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be initially pulled into the embarkation deck by which item?Not learned 4565. When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 4566. To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, which should be used?Not learned 4567. When should the lubricating oil be changed on a heavy-duty diesel engine?Not learned 4568. The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.Not learned 4569. When the mainline valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is open, the bypass valve should be __________.Not learned 4570. Which maintenance functions can a GMDSS Radio Operator perform?Not learned 4571. Which is a major advantage of the round turn maneuver in a man overboard situation?Not learned 4572. What is the major cause of shock in burn victims?Not learned 4573. If you make an error while signaling by flashing light what action should you take?Not learned 4574. You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 18,000 T. The 50-ton weight is on the pier, and its center is 75 feet to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 112 feet above the base line, and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 56 feet above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain, the ship lists 3.5°. What is the GM when the cargo is stowed?Not learned 4575. You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 7940 T. The 45-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 60' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 4.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 4576. You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the pier and its center is 55' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 45' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 3.5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 4577. You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your vessel displaces 8530 T. The 40-ton weight is on the pier and its center is 65' to starboard of the centerline. The head of the boom is 115' above the base line and the center of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 50' above the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship lists to 5°. What is the GM with the cargo stowed?Not learned 4578. Which is TRUE when making a Scharnow turn?Not learned 4579. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.Not learned 4580. You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is busy if you hear __________.Not learned 4581. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.Not learned 4582. When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of transmitting power should you use?Not learned 4583. A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a Williamson turn, the man is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?Not learned 4584. Which maneuver will return your vessel to a person who has fallen overboard in the shortest time?Not learned 4585. How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?Not learned 4586. How many ring life buoys should a 700-foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?Not learned 4587. Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.Not learned 4588. How many VHF Survival Craft Transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?Not learned 4589. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel __________.Not learned 4590. Marine Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system?Not learned 4591. Which term is given to the maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel?Not learned 4592. What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?Not learned 4593. What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?Not learned 4594. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.Not learned 4595. What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"?Not learned 4596. What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?Not learned 4597. What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?Not learned 4598. What is meant by "CES"Not learned 4599. What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?Not learned 4600. What is meant by the term "radio silence"Not learned 4601. Which is TRUE of the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engines?Not learned 4602. During a medivac one of the crew members requires assistance to be hoisted to the aircraft. Which of the following would be used to accomplish this task?Not learned 4603. Which message categories cannot be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator?Not learned 4604. Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.Not learned 4605. A message by flashing light consists of four elements, including the call, the identity, the text, and what fourth element?Not learned 4606. A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?Not learned 4607. In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender?Not learned 4608. How should a message warning of a tropical storm be sent?Not learned 4609. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.Not learned 4610. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.Not learned 4611. If the metacentric height is small, which is TRUE of the vessel?Not learned 4612. If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set to zero, what should be done?Not learned 4613. What is the minimum license requirement of a GMDSS Radio OperatorNot learned 4614. What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?Not learned 4615. What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2-inch fire hose?Not learned 4616. What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?Not learned 4617. What is the minimum operating capacity required for VHF Survival Craft Transceiver batteries?Not learned 4618. What is the minimum permit or license requirement of a GMDSS Radio Maintainer?Not learned 4619. What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?Not learned 4620. How should a minor heat burn of the eye be treated?Not learned 4621. You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?Not learned 4622. According to the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds which percentage?Not learned 4623. An aluminum powder fire is classified as class __________.Not learned 4624. How are automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems operated?Not learned 4625. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing device is opened, where does the air flow?Not learned 4626. Which class of fire is an oil fire classified?Not learned 4627. Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with which item?Not learned 4628. Which describes a Kort nozzle as used on a vessel?Not learned 4629. In an emergency, which can directly control the electro-hydraulic steering units on the vessel?Not learned 4630. Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?Not learned 4631. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors and provides a heat and smoke screen is __________.Not learned 4632. Which is the flammable range of Bunker C mixed with air?Not learned 4633. Which of the following pieces of equipment is most commonly used by SAR helicopters when evacuating personnel from survival craft?Not learned 4634. Which of the following when removed will extinguish a fire?Not learned 4635. How are fusible link fire dampers operated?Not learned 4636. When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the center of gravity of a vessel, what will be the upright equilibrium?Not learned 4637. When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up to which position?Not learned 4638. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter I?Not learned 4639. What is indicated by the signal letter R followed by one or more numbers?Not learned 4640. Which item(s) is/are a 2,000 GT tankship required to carry?Not learned 4641. Which item are the terms "pintle" and "gudgeon" associated with?Not learned 4642. All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at which time interval?Not learned 4643. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain which items?Not learned 4644. The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered. Which time interval is this action required?Not learned 4645. You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 4646. When must the Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, be sent?Not learned 4647. You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a rectangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores be located on the bulkhead?Not learned 4648. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead be located?Not learned 4649. What is the name given to the bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat?Not learned 4650. What is the name given to the canvas covering of fire hose?Not learned 4651. Which name is given to the frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a vessel?Not learned 4652. What is the name given to the lines that are passed around the falls to hold the boat and prevent it from swinging violently?Not learned 4653. What name is given to the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains?Not learned 4654. Which is the normal tendency for a loaded tanker?Not learned 4655. Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.Not learned 4656. Normally, before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should determine which information about the water source?Not learned 4657. Normally, your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. How many sanitary inspections are required to be conducted during the voyage?Not learned 4658. Which officer is responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department?Not learned 4659. How often are CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system required to be pressure tested?Not learned 4660. What is one of the main purposes of the inclining experiment on a vessel?Not learned 4661. The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing in which direction(s)?Not learned 4662. What can an oxygen indicator be used to determine?Not learned 4663. Where are panting frames located in the vessel?Not learned 4664. What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with, the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?Not learned 4665. You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons how should a small craft approach?Not learned 4666. The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.Not learned 4667. When positive stability exists, what does GZ represent?Not learned 4668. If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, which is the most effective extinguishing agent to use?Not learned 4669. What is the preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire?Not learned 4670. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent what from happening?Not learned 4671. Which is the primary element to successfully rescuing a man overboard?Not learned 4672. What is the primary equipment for receiving Marine Safety Information (MSI) messages?Not learned 4673. Which is the primary type of welding employed in shipyards in the construction of cargo vessels?Not learned 4674. What is the primary use of antiseptics?Not learned 4675. Which is the prime function of the bilge keel?Not learned 4676. What is the proper name given to a deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two horizontally protruding horns?Not learned 4677. What is the purpose of a bilge well?Not learned 4678. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment?Not learned 4679. What is the purpose of limber holes in a lifeboat?Not learned 4680. On the all-purpose nozzle, what is the position of the nozzle valve when the handle is all the way forward?Not learned 4681. The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you take which action?Not learned 4682. What is the purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat?Not learned 4683. What is the radiotelephone urgency signal?Not learned 4684. If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling, what would it be referring to?Not learned 4685. If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, which action should you take?Not learned 4686. When is it recommended that seawater be used for drinking?Not learned 4687. To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. What is the name of this plate?Not learned 4688. Which reference should the GMDSS radio operator consult for information on the proper operation of the equipment?Not learned 4689. You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. In which situation will the CO2 be most effective?Not learned 4690. When rendering assistance to personnel in the water a SAR helicopter utilizes a rescue sling for most extractions. In which case would the use of a litter be preferred?Not learned 4691. A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least which diameter?Not learned 4692. In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, which is TRUE when launching a lifeboat?Not learned 4693. The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this pressure will be reached at which temperature?Not learned 4694. During a SAR helicopter evacuation which of the following describes the proper donning of a rescue sling?Not learned 4695. During a SAR helicopter evolution the rescue sling is the most widely used method of extraction. Which of the following describes the alternate Double Lift Method used to pick up incapacitated persons?Not learned 4696. A SAR helicopter has landed a litter on deck to medivac a patient from your vessel. After ensuring that it has been grounded, what precautionary action should you take prior to loading the patient into the litter?Not learned 4697. The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in which cycles?Not learned 4698. The shearing stresses on a ship's structure are usually greatest at which area?Not learned 4699. In ship construction, where should the keel scantlings be the greatest thickness?Not learned 4700. The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if which condition exists?Not learned 4701. A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?Not learned 4702. A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel passes the towing line to you, where should you secure the line?Not learned 4703. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. Which action should be taken?Not learned 4704. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 4705. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?Not learned 4706. If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", which action should you take?Not learned 4707. Why should storage batteries be charged in a well-ventilated area?Not learned 4708. What do stretchers that are fitted in lifeboats provide?Not learned 4709. What does subtracting GM from KM yield?Not learned 4710. You have taken another vessel in tow. Which is an indicator that the towing speed is too fast?Not learned 4711. On a tankship, who is responsible for the sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters?Not learned 4712. Which term defines the horizontal fore-and-aft movement of a vessel?Not learned 4713. Which term defines the minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form a mixture that ignites and burns?Not learned 4714. Which term defines the volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline?Not learned 4715. Which term describes the holes in the bulwark that allow deck water to drain into the sea?Not learned 4716. Which term describes the time required to incline the vessel from port to starboard and back to port again?Not learned 4717. The term displacement refers to which of the following?Not learned 4718. Which term is given to the fittings used to secure a watertight door?Not learned 4719. Which is the term given to the stability which remains after a compartment is flooded?Not learned 4720. Which term indicates how many tons of cargo a vessel can carry?Not learned 4721. Which term is used to describe the geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel?Not learned 4722. Which term is used to describe the horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel?Not learned 4723. Which term is used to describe the point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vessel construction?Not learned 4724. A thirty-pound plate would be which thickness?Not learned 4725. The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and which other condition?Not learned 4726. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?Not learned 4727. Transverse stability calculations require the use of which information?Not learned 4728. Which is TRUE concerning drinking salt water?Not learned 4729. Which is TRUE concerning fire hose couplings?Not learned 4730. Which is TRUE concerning a fuel-air mixture below the lower flammable limit?Not learned 4731. Which is TRUE if passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out?Not learned 4732. Which is TRUE of the spray of water in low-velocity fog?Not learned 4733. Which is TRUE of the vessel's Sheer Plan?Not learned 4734. The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.Not learned 4735. What type of messages should the "urgent" priority be used for?Not learned 4736. Which type of weld is used to attach stiffeners to a plate?Not learned 4737. Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and which other testing?Not learned 4738. An unstable upright equilibrium position on a vessel means that the metacenter is in which location?Not learned 4739. Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. Which is the FIRST thing to do in the lifeboat?Not learned 4740. For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and which other item?Not learned 4741. When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, how should you activate the signal?Not learned 4742. When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by which signal?Not learned 4743. Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by which method?Not learned 4744. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known by which term?Not learned 4745. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as which boat number?Not learned 4746. A vessel's bottom will be subjected to tension when weight is concentrated in which location(s)?Not learned 4747. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which of the following?Not learned 4748. Your vessel has grounded and a report must be made to the United States Coast Guard. Which is the required form for this report?Not learned 4749. For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant and gravity forces gives which information?Not learned 4750. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?Not learned 4751. When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, how will the vessel respond?Not learned 4752. Your vessel is listing because of a negative GM. To lower G below M, which action should you take?Not learned 4753. Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. Which is TRUE of your vessel?Not learned 4754. On a vessel, which information can be obtained by multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline?Not learned 4755. Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. Which is a requirement of the auxiliary line?Not learned 4756. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. What does this indicate about the vessel?Not learned 4757. When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under which type of stress?Not learned 4758. A vessel can be termed as either tender or stiff in relation to its rolling period. Which of the following would cause a vessel to be tender?Not learned 4759. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds which amount?Not learned 4760. You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. Which action should you take next?Not learned 4761. Where is the molded depth measured from on a vessel?Not learned 4762. A moment of 300 ft-tons is created by a force of 15,000 tons. What is the moment arm?Not learned 4763. The moment created by a force of 12,000 tons and a moment arm of 0.25 foot is __________.Not learned 4764. A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its __________.Not learned 4765. What is NOT a motion of the vessel?Not learned 4766. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?Not learned 4767. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?Not learned 4768. Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment?Not learned 4769. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. In illustration D039SA below what fire control plan symbol designates the primary means of escape?Not learned 4770. You must evacuate crewmembers from a space filling with smoke. The primary means of escape is blocked by the fire. What fire control plan symbol, in illustration D039SA below, designates the secondary means of escape?Not learned 4771. If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.Not learned 4772. You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 4773. You must shift a weight from the upper 'tween deck to the lower hold. This shift will __________.Not learned 4774. If you must swim through an oil fire, which action should be avoided?Not learned 4775. What is the name given to the strake on each side of the keel?Not learned 4776. Which is the national distress, safety, and calling frequency channel?Not learned 4777. In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.Not learned 4778. Why is it necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire?Not learned 4779. A negative metacentric height __________.Not learned 4780. A neutral equilibrium position for a vessel means that the metacenter is __________.Not learned 4781. A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.Not learned 4782. When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.Not learned 4783. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of which item?Not learned 4784. How does the rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiate oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams?Not learned 4785. The normal designed CO2 storage tank temperature and pressure associated with a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is approximately __________.Not learned 4786. What is normal mouth temperature?Not learned 4787. What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?Not learned 4788. Normally, which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?Not learned 4789. Why is it desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks?Not learned 4790. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.Not learned 4791. Where would the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker be located?Not learned 4792. Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.Not learned 4793. How should the number "9" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?Not learned 4794. The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.Not learned 4795. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, what must the boat be supplied with?Not learned 4796. If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, how often are free-fall lifeboats required to be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew?Not learned 4797. You are the officer in charge of a navigational watch, what signal would indicate your 3 cm radar has interrogated a SART unit?Not learned 4798. How often does a coast radio station that regularly broadcasts traffic lists transmit the list?Not learned 4799. How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected?Not learned 4800. How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?Not learned 4801. Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.Not learned 4802. Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.Not learned 4803. One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________.Not learned 4804. One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.Not learned 4805. What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?Not learned 4806. What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?Not learned 4807. One function of a bulwark is to __________.Not learned 4808. One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce __________.Not learned 4809. One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about __________.Not learned 4810. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.Not learned 4811. One method of reducing the length of radio transmissions without distorting the meaning of your words is by using __________.Not learned 4812. In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.Not learned 4813. To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________.Not learned 4814. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?Not learned 4815. When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.Not learned 4816. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as which item?Not learned 4817. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.Not learned 4818. You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position you will __________.Not learned 4819. When operating gravity davits, the __________.Not learned 4820. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least which of the following?Not learned 4821. In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to divide the area of the waterplane by which of the following?Not learned 4822. In order to check your vessel's stability, a weight of 40 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, the boom head being 50 feet from the ship's centerline. The clinometer is then carefully read and shows a list of 5°. The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons including the suspended weight. What will be the metacentric height of the vessel at this time?Not learned 4823. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST take which action?Not learned 4824. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.Not learned 4825. In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?Not learned 4826. Which organization reviews and approves a vessel's fire control plan?Not learned 4827. The original equilibrium position is always unstable when __________.Not learned 4828. The original equilibrium position is stable when __________.Not learned 4829. Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.Not learned 4830. Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause which situation to occur?Not learned 4831. Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. What is the name given to these strakes?Not learned 4832. The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.Not learned 4833. In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red?Not learned 4834. "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?Not learned 4835. You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire pump(s)?Not learned 4836. You are part of a team to overhaul a fire that was just extinguished in the crew lounge. Where is the nearest fire axe to break apart the furnitureNot learned 4837. A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.Not learned 4838. Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. How many life buoys are required for the vessel?Not learned 4839. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?Not learned 4840. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage defines which term?Not learned 4841. What is the period of validity of a De-Rat certificate?Not learned 4842. What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections?Not learned 4843. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 4844. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat when land is sighted. Due to a medical emergency, you have made the decision to beach the lifeboat through the surf. Which of the following is of greatest consideration in making this decision?Not learned 4845. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat and have made the decision to beach your craft through a heavy surf. Which of the following is the recommended procedure for a boat under oars?Not learned 4846. A person is exhibiting signs of hypothermia and starts to shiver, what does this indicate?Not learned 4847. A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.Not learned 4848. What should a person do after being revived by artificial respiration?Not learned 4849. When a person is in shock, how will their skin appear?Not learned 4850. How should a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries be treated?Not learned 4851. Why are persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water?Not learned 4852. When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, where should the sea painter be secured?Not learned 4853. Which piece(s) of equipment represented by the Fire Control Plan symbols in illustration D039SA below, can be found on the exterior of the vessel?Not learned 4854. Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?Not learned 4855. You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. Choose the best answer that states the requirement(s) of the regulations?Not learned 4856. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.Not learned 4857. A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.Not learned 4858. Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on which class of fires?Not learned 4859. A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.Not learned 4860. If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should be used to send the group "True Bearing 045 Degrees"?Not learned 4861. When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?Not learned 4862. In the presence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with which item?Not learned 4863. To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should take which action?Not learned 4864. What prevents an inflated life raft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?Not learned 4865. What is the primary action when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis?Not learned 4866. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient?Not learned 4867. What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 4868. The primary method by which water spray puts out fires is by __________.Not learned 4869. What is the primary purpose for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)?Not learned 4870. What is the primary reason for placing covers over the top of storage batteries?Not learned 4871. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?Not learned 4872. What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?Not learned 4873. Which term defines the most probable position of the object of a search at any given time?Not learned 4874. You are proceeding to the area of reported distress. When you arrive at the reported position, the vessel in distress is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?Not learned 4875. You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 4876. While proceeding to a distress site, you hear the words "Seelonce mayday" on the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?Not learned 4877. You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in making your vessel more visible to the survivors?Not learned 4878. You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will make your ship more visible to the survivors?Not learned 4879. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?Not learned 4880. While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?Not learned 4881. You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 4882. In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type generator __________.Not learned 4883. Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam proportioner __________.Not learned 4884. Which term is used to describe the projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder?Not learned 4885. What does proper GMDSS watchkeeping include?Not learned 4886. What is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?Not learned 4887. What publication/s should a GMDSS Operator consult regarding the proper set-up and operation of vessel equipment?Not learned 4888. A pump room is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pump room atmosphere for combustible gases?Not learned 4889. What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?Not learned 4890. What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships?Not learned 4891. What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?Not learned 4892. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 4893. What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?Not learned 4894. What is the purpose of sheer in the construction of the vessel?Not learned 4895. What is the purpose of the tricing pendants?Not learned 4896. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor?Not learned 4897. After putting on a self-contained breathing apparatus, you open the air supply and hear a continuous ringing of a bell. What does this mean?Not learned 4898. Which quantity of fuel is required to be carried in a motor lifeboat?Not learned 4899. A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.Not learned 4900. In a racetrack turn, to recover a man overboard, the vessel is steadied for the SECOND time after a turn of how many degrees from the original heading?Not learned 4901. When would a racetrack turn be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a man overboard?Not learned 4902. How is "radio silence" imposed?Not learned 4903. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.Not learned 4904. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by which word?Not learned 4905. What is the radiotelephone safety signal?Not learned 4906. Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?Not learned 4907. Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel 16?Not learned 4908. The rated operating time of a self-contained breathing device may be reduced in actual use because of __________.Not learned 4909. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The top 2 inches of the 9 forward is visible above the water level, and the water level is four inches below the 10 aft. What is the mean draft?Not learned 4910. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The top 2 inches of number "9" are visible above the waterline. What is the draft?Not learned 4911. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of 10. What is the draft?Not learned 4912. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of the number 11. What is the draft?Not learned 4913. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level is at the bottom of number 11. What is the draft?Not learned 4914. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is 4 inches below the 11, and the water level aft is 2 inches below the top of the 11. What is the mean draft?Not learned 4915. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level forward leaves about 4 inches of the 11 visible, and the water level aft is at the top of the 10. What is the mean draft?Not learned 4916. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level forward is at the top of the 8, and the water level aft is at the top of the 8. What is the mean draft?Not learned 4917. You are reading the draft marks as shown in illustration D032DG. The water level is at the top of number 8. What is the draft?Not learned 4918. You are reading draft marks on a vessel. The water level is halfway between the bottom of the number 5 and the top of the number 5. What is the draft of the vessel?Not learned 4919. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________.Not learned 4920. You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan- Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?Not learned 4921. After receiving your distress call, the U.S.C.G. may ask you to switch to which SSB frequency?Not learned 4922. The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by "opening up" the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control?Not learned 4923. Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?Not learned 4924. By regulation, how long you MUST keep a record of the use of your radiotelephone?Not learned 4925. Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.Not learned 4926. The releasing lever of a lifeboat shall be red in color with a placard stating which of the following?Not learned 4927. To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and __________.Not learned 4928. What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation report?Not learned 4929. What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?Not learned 4930. What represents poor sanitary procedures?Not learned 4931. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?Not learned 4932. What is the required amount of time that a SART's battery must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?Not learned 4933. What is required during an annual FCC inspectionNot learned 4934. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?Not learned 4935. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 4936. What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?Not learned 4937. Which is a requirement for any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone?Not learned 4938. How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity?Not learned 4939. Reserve buoyancy is __________.Not learned 4940. Who is responsible for transmitting a message stating that distress communications have ceased?Not learned 4941. If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.Not learned 4942. What is the result of multiplying a weight by a distance?Not learned 4943. Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?Not learned 4944. The result of two forces acting in opposite directions and along parallel lines, is an example of what type of stress?Not learned 4945. What is the result of a vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's center of gravity?Not learned 4946. The righting moment can be determined by multiplying the displacement by the __________.Not learned 4947. On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a __________.Not learned 4948. To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.Not learned 4949. Your Ro Ro vessel has just completed discharging the lower decks and is commencing discharging the upper levels. What would it indicate if the vessel were to suddenly develop a list?Not learned 4950. When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposedNot learned 4951. Routine radio communications should be no more than which duration?Not learned 4952. You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which of the following actions would you take First to correct the situation?Not learned 4953. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 16'-02" and the GM is 3.0 feet. What will be the angle of list if #5 port double bottom (capacity 195 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 18.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 4954. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-03" and the GM is 2.8 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #4 starboard double bottom (capacity 141 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 23.8 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 4955. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 17'-07", AFT 18'-05" and the GM is 3.4 feet. What will be the angle of list if #4 port double bottom (capacity 140 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 26 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 4956. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 18'-03", AFT 19'-07" and the GM is 4.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if #2 starboard double bottom (capacity 78 tons, VCG 2.7 feet, and 24.5 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 4957. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 19'-06", AFT 20'-10" and the GM is 3.3 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #2 starboard deep tank (capacity 100 tons, VCG 19.1 feet, and 24 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 4958. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 21'-08", AFT 22'-04" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if the #6 port deep tank (capacity 201 tons, VCG 11.4 feet, and 25.5 feet off the centerline) is filled? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 4959. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 22'-04", AFT 23'-06" and the GM is 3.2 feet. What will be the angle of list if #3 starboard double bottom (capacity 97 tons, VCG 2.5 feet and 23 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 4960. Your sailing drafts are: FWD 24'-02", AFT 24'-10" and the GM is 4.6 feet. What will be the angle of list if #6 starboard double bottom (capacity 95 tons, VCG 2.6 feet, and 21 feet off the centerline) is filled with saltwater? (Use the data in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 4961. SART units are designed to be manually carried to the survival craft. Which of the following is another characteristic of a SART?Not learned 4962. A SART unit is used for which of the following?Not learned 4963. How can the SART's audible tone monitor be used?Not learned 4964. How can a SART's effective range be maximized?Not learned 4965. Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety Information?Not learned 4966. The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when __________.Not learned 4967. You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water:Not learned 4968. You are scheduled to load 3200 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.Not learned 4969. You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.Not learned 4970. You are scheduled to load 3700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 427 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.Not learned 4971. You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 259 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.Not learned 4972. You are scheduled to load 3900 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 359 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.Not learned 4973. You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in fresh water.Not learned 4974. You are scheduled to load 4700 tons of cargo, 45 tons of crew effects and stores and 323 tons of fuel. Use the blue pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to determine the vessel's mean draft in salt water.Not learned 4975. When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.Not learned 4976. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.Not learned 4977. In which Sea Area must a compulsory vessel carry either INMARSAT or HF SITOR equipment?Not learned 4978. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, which presents the greatest danger?Not learned 4979. At sea, how must all required GMDSS equipment (other than survival craft equipment) be proven operationalNot learned 4980. Where should the sea painter of a lifeboat be secured?Not learned 4981. How is the sea painter secured in an open lifeboat?Not learned 4982. You are at sea and have received a General Emergency message announcing the outbreak of war in Europe. You are directed to comply with the instructions in NGA (NIMA) PUB 117, Chapter Eight. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 4983. You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 50 feet, and you calculate the period of roll to be 22 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?Not learned 4984. A seaman is reported missing in the morning and was last seen after coming off the mid-watch. Which type of turn would you use to return to the track-line steamed during the night?Not learned 4985. Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in what body part?Not learned 4986. You are on the second deck of the engine room between frames 92 thru105 and the space is filling up with smoke. Utilizing illustration D037SA below, where is the primary means of escape from that area is via a ladderwell?Not learned 4987. You are on the second deck in the main machinery space. Utilizing illustration D037SA below what emergency equipment, if any, is located at frame 107?Not learned 4988. You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?Not learned 4989. As seen in illustration D035SA below, when the remote push button located in the wheelhouse, starboard side, frame 122, is actuated, what is the result?Not learned 4990. As seen in illustration D039SA below a complete set of spare batteries for a fireman's outfit can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 4991. As seen in illustration D039SA below, a locker with additional breathing apparatuses can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 4992. As seen in illustration D039SA below a locker with additional protective clothing can be found in what location designated by this symbol on the ship's fire control plan?Not learned 4993. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.Not learned 4994. The self-contained breathing device should not be used in which situation?Not learned 4995. When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.Not learned 4996. When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the __________.Not learned 4997. If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by __________.Not learned 4998. Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?Not learned 4999. Which is the most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system?Not learned 5000. Which is the most serious type of fracture?Not learned 5001. A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is known as __________.Not learned 5002. Several merchant ships are arriving at the scene of a distress incident. One of them must assume the duties of the On-Scene Coordinator. Which of the following statements is TRUE?Not learned 5003. What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?Not learned 5004. Shell plating is _________.Not learned 5005. Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.Not learned 5006. Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. What would be the virtual rise in the center of gravity?Not learned 5007. You are on a ship that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 5008. In ship construction, which is TRUE concerning frame spacing?Not learned 5009. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 23'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". Using this information, where is the concentration of weight on the vessel?Not learned 5010. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and it’s after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight is located at which of the following areas?Not learned 5011. When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?Not learned 5012. A ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid for which of the following terms?Not learned 5013. The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the __________.Not learned 5014. Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal from a SART?Not learned 5015. A short ton is a unit of weight consisting of __________.Not learned 5016. Where do signs of racking stresses generally appear on the vessel?Not learned 5017. The signal T 0735 means __________.Not learned 5018. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?Not learned 5019. The signal has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following describes the action to be taken with the EPIRB?Not learned 5020. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question?Not learned 5021. What does the signal L1210 indicate?Not learned 5022. Which signal should be used to send the group "Distance 750 nautical miles"?Not learned 5023. What does the signal "AS", when used in signaling by the International Code of Signals mean?Not learned 5024. When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals, which is TRUE?Not learned 5025. When signaling by flashing light, how should you acknowledge a correctly received repetition of a signal?Not learned 5026. When signaling by flashing light, what should the signal "C" should be used to indicate?Not learned 5027. In signaling, when sent with a complement, what may the letter G be followed by?Not learned 5028. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road?Not learned 5029. If the situation arose where it became necessary to tow a disabled vessel, which statement is TRUE concerning the towing line?Not learned 5030. Which situation may require you to administer artificial respiration?Not learned 5031. What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?Not learned 5032. A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.Not learned 5033. In small-angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through the __________.Not learned 5034. In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.Not learned 5035. In small angle stability theory, the metacenter is located at the intersection of the inclined vertical centerline and a vertical line through which point?Not learned 5036. Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.Not learned 5037. Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.Not learned 5038. SOLAS requires which of the following with regard to watertight doors in cargo spaces?Not learned 5039. SOLAS requires a logbook entry for the operation of watertight door drills. Which of the following lists the frequency that these drills are required to be conducted for passenger vessels?Not learned 5040. SOLAS requires that passenger vessels make an entry in the log book for all drills and inspections of watertight doors. What other information relevant to the watertight doors is required to be entered?Not learned 5041. Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?Not learned 5042. The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.Not learned 5043. What is the space above the engine room called?Not learned 5044. Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.Not learned 5045. A spanner is a __________.Not learned 5046. Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?Not learned 5047. Specific radio frequencies are designated as International Maritime frequencies used for voice distress, safety and hailing. Which of the following is an International Maritime VHF-FM frequency as described previously?Not learned 5048. What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?Not learned 5049. What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?Not learned 5050. Which spoken emergency signal would you use to call a boat to come assist a man overboard?Not learned 5051. Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.Not learned 5052. The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have __________.Not learned 5053. The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.Not learned 5054. Stability is determined principally by the location of the point of application of two forces: the downward-acting gravity force and which other force?Not learned 5055. When stability of a vessel is neutral, the value of GM __________.Not learned 5056. Stable equilibrium for a vessel means that the metacenter is at which location?Not learned 5057. What is the standard rate of signaling by flashing light?Not learned 5058. Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?Not learned 5059. Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?Not learned 5060. Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?Not learned 5061. Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?Not learned 5062. Which statement concerning exposure to microwave signal radiation is TRUENot learned 5063. Which statement concerning exposure to radiation is TRUE?Not learned 5064. Which statement concerning GMDSS distress alerts is TRUE?Not learned 5065. Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?Not learned 5066. Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?Not learned 5067. Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is FALSE?Not learned 5068. Which statement concerning satellite EPIRBs is TRUE?Not learned 5069. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?Not learned 5070. Which statement about damage control is TRUE?Not learned 5071. Which statement describes a compound fracture?Not learned 5072. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?Not learned 5073. Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?Not learned 5074. Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?Not learned 5075. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?Not learned 5076. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?Not learned 5077. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?Not learned 5078. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?Not learned 5079. Which statement about free surface is TRUE?Not learned 5080. Which statement is generally correct regarding the maintenance requirements for ships under GMDSS?Not learned 5081. What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 5082. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 5083. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 5084. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 5085. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning radio equipment on towing vessels of 26 feet or more in length?Not learned 5086. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?Not learned 5087. Which statement pertaining to log keeping is TRUE?Not learned 5088. Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?Not learned 5089. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 5090. Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?Not learned 5091. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?Not learned 5092. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?Not learned 5093. Which statement is TRUE concerning a fire in a machinery space?Not learned 5094. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?Not learned 5095. Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?Not learned 5096. Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?Not learned 5097. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?Not learned 5098. Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board towing vessels?Not learned 5099. Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?Not learned 5100. Which statement is TRUE about firefighting foam?Not learned 5101. Which statement is True for lifejackets on a small passenger vessel?Not learned 5102. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?Not learned 5103. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?Not learned 5104. Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is TRUE?Not learned 5105. Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE?Not learned 5106. With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?Not learned 5107. While steering by autopilot you notice that the vessel is deviating from the given course and there is no follow up with corrective rudder action to return to the proper heading. The emergency operating procedure should require you to immediately change operation from __________.Not learned 5108. Which is TRUE of the steering oar in a lifeboat?Not learned 5109. The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.Not learned 5110. When steering a vessel, which of the following will an effective helmsman do?Not learned 5111. Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?Not learned 5112. Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a distress situation?Not learned 5113. A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against which class of fires?Not learned 5114. The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to accomplish which task?Not learned 5115. When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.Not learned 5116. The strength of a deck will be increased by adding which item?Not learned 5117. A "strongback" refers to a __________.Not learned 5118. The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.Not learned 5119. A survivor has been pulled from the water off the coast of Greenland. The patient is in a state of confusion and has ceased shivering. Which of the following best describes the patient's condition?Not learned 5120. You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances?Not learned 5121. A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.Not learned 5122. The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization?Not learned 5123. Symbol number (51) in illustration D039SA below is found all throughout the ship. What fire control equipment does this symbol represent?Not learned 5124. What are the symptoms of a fractured back?Not learned 5125. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?Not learned 5126. Which is a symptom of traumatic shock?Not learned 5127. Which system has the least effective radius of operation?Not learned 5128. Which system is least likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?Not learned 5129. Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances?Not learned 5130. Which system is most likely to be subject to fading or static interference?Not learned 5131. Which system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area?Not learned 5132. Which system provides maximum communications range?Not learned 5133. A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?Not learned 5134. A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.Not learned 5135. A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?Not learned 5136. Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?Not learned 5137. You are in a tank wearing a breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Take up slack"?Not learned 5138. A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone five days after departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?Not learned 5139. A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone six days after departing the loading port. She will burn off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How many tons may she load over that allowed by her summer load line?Not learned 5140. A tanker's mean draft is 32'-05". At this draft, the TPI is 178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be __________.Not learned 5141. Which task is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator?Not learned 5142. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?Not learned 5143. Which term defines the tendency of a vessel to return to its original TRIM after being inclined by an external force?Not learned 5144. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?Not learned 5145. Tensile stress is a result of two forces acting in __________.Not learned 5146. Which term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship?Not learned 5147. The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with which part of the vessel?Not learned 5148. The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with which areas of the vessel?Not learned 5149. Which term defines the vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors?Not learned 5150. Which term is given to the upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge?Not learned 5151. Which term is given to the wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading?Not learned 5152. What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction?Not learned 5153. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body?Not learned 5154. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body?Not learned 5155. What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?Not learned 5156. What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the aft side of the rudder post?Not learned 5157. What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel?Not learned 5158. What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section?Not learned 5159. What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?Not learned 5160. Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?Not learned 5161. Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?Not learned 5162. The term "scantlings" refers to the __________.Not learned 5163. The term "strake" is used in reference to which item(s)?Not learned 5164. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?Not learned 5165. "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?Not learned 5166. What time of day would an SSB radio have the longest transmitting range?Not learned 5167. Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________.Not learned 5168. Topside icing that blocks freeing ports and scuppers _________.Not learned 5169. The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and their effects, that a ship can carry, is known as which term?Not learned 5170. On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, which action should you take?Not learned 5171. All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are required to carry which item?Not learned 5172. Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?Not learned 5173. The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.Not learned 5174. What is the traditional signal for fire aboard ship?Not learned 5175. What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?Not learned 5176. Which is TRUE if you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone?Not learned 5177. Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.Not learned 5178. In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 5179. How should you treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion?Not learned 5180. What should you do when treating a person for third-degree burns?Not learned 5181. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.Not learned 5182. The tricing pendants should be released __________.Not learned 5183. You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?Not learned 5184. The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the __________.Not learned 5185. What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?Not learned 5186. Which is TRUE concerning reserve buoyancy when flooding occurs in a damaged vessel?Not learned 5187. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?Not learned 5188. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. How should you make your approach?Not learned 5189. When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?Not learned 5190. Which are the two points that act together to trim a ship?Not learned 5191. Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.Not learned 5192. On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?Not learned 5193. Which type of davit requires you to turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side?Not learned 5194. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?Not learned 5195. Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?Not learned 5196. Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel's fire fighting arrangement within the fire control plan?Not learned 5197. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?Not learned 5198. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?Not learned 5199. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for use on electrical fires?Not learned 5200. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?Not learned 5201. What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction?Not learned 5202. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?Not learned 5203. When do U.S. regulations require your vessel's EPIRB to be tested?Not learned 5204. You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?Not learned 5205. You are underway in mid-ocean when you hear a distress message. The position of the sender is 150 miles away. No other vessel has acknowledged the distress. Your maximum speed is 5 knots and due to the seriousness of the distress, you cannot arrive on scene to provide effective assistance. What action should you take?Not learned 5206. You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?Not learned 5207. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on which of the following channels?Not learned 5208. While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?Not learned 5209. What is the unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code?Not learned 5210. Unstable equilibrium exists at small angles of inclination when __________.Not learned 5211. Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene of the distress. Under which of the following cases would this NOT be true?Not learned 5212. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?Not learned 5213. When do you use your FCC call sign when transmitting on channel 16?Not learned 5214. When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.Not learned 5215. What is used as an indicator of initial stability?Not learned 5216. What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside a chain locker?Not learned 5217. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?Not learned 5218. What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?Not learned 5219. What should be used to send the group "Bearing 074° True"?Not learned 5220. What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?Not learned 5221. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?Not learned 5222. When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.Not learned 5223. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.Not learned 5224. When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when __________.Not learned 5225. When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.Not learned 5226. You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading the meter?Not learned 5227. When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the instrument?Not learned 5228. You are using a racetrack turn to recover a man overboard. The vessel is first steadied when how many degrees away from the original heading?Not learned 5229. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft, the FIRST collection should be __________.Not learned 5230. On the illustrated fire control plan, what emergency equipment is located in the sculleryNot learned 5231. You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 kHz. You need help but are not in danger, which signal signifies urgency?Not learned 5232. What is the usual depth of a beam bracket?Not learned 5233. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?Not learned 5234. What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a distress priority message via INMARSAT?Not learned 5235. Utilizing illustration D035SA below, the Master has ordered you to pull the remote ventilation shut down, where is it found?Not learned 5236. Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represent?Not learned 5237. Utilizing illustration D038SA below a view of a vessel fire control plan, how many spaces are protected by a fixed CO2 extinguishing system?Not learned 5238. The value of the maximum righting arm depends on the position of the center of buoyancy and which other item?Not learned 5239. The value of the righting arm at an angle of loll is __________.Not learned 5240. The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 5241. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of inclination will __________.Not learned 5242. Vertical moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and its __________.Not learned 5243. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.Not learned 5244. If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable that any weight removals be made from which area(s) of the vessel?Not learned 5245. A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.Not learned 5246. Your vessel has a beam of 40 feet, and you observe a still water rolling period of 20 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?Not learned 5247. Your vessel's has a beam of 60 feet, and you observe a still water rolling period of 25 seconds. What is the vessel's metacentric height?Not learned 5248. The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to which towboat?Not learned 5249. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", which of the following is True if there is a failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment?Not learned 5250. Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65 MHz or which channel?Not learned 5251. Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to do what?Not learned 5252. Your vessel is conducting helicopter evacuation operations for an injured crew member. Which of the following statements is true concerning the hoisting line?Not learned 5253. Your vessel is conducting a "Vessel Grounded Drill". Where is the plan indicating the vessel's watertight boundaries required to be located?Not learned 5254. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 5255. In vessel construction, which is TRUE of the garboard strake?Not learned 5256. A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 5257. Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to improve stability?Not learned 5258. Your vessel was damaged and initially assumed a significant list and trim; however, further increase has been slow. Based on this data, what should you expect?Not learned 5259. Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged?Not learned 5260. Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim. The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to 3'00" (1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST?Not learned 5261. Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?Not learned 5262. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 5263. Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the vessel's stability?Not learned 5264. Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is a short rolling period around the angle of list. The port side freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim and the weather is calm. You should FIRST __________.Not learned 5265. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________.Not learned 5266. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 5267. A vessel has been damaged and is taking on water. Where can you find the data that will indicate how much water the vessel can retain and still possess reserve buoyancy?Not learned 5268. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. How would you preface a message advising other vessels of your situation?Not learned 5269. A vessel is described as a two-compartment vessel when it __________.Not learned 5270. Your vessel is discharging containers from the main deck with the ship's cranes. Which of the following must be taken into account when calculating the center of gravity as the containers are discharged?Not learned 5271. Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed its rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?Not learned 5272. Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464 feet long, and has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its rolling period to be 21.0 seconds in still water. What is your vessel's approximate GM?Not learned 5273. Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your vessel's rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your vessel's approximate GM?Not learned 5274. Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard vessel requests that you give him a long count. This indicates that __________.Not learned 5275. A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal. What follows the signal?Not learned 5276. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 19'-01". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 5277. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 13'-11", AFT 16'-05". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 5278. A vessel's drafts are: FWD 19'-00", AFT 17'-02". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 5279. A vessel's drafts are: FWD 14'-04", AFT 15'-08". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 5280. Your vessel's drafts are: FWD 18'-09", AFT 20'-03". How much more cargo can be loaded to have the vessel down to the freeboard draft? (Use the information in Section 1, the blue pages, of the Stability Data Reference Book)Not learned 5281. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested at which time interval?Not learned 5282. What are the vessel equipment and personnel requirements for GMDSS?Not learned 5283. A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross- connection valve be closed?Not learned 5284. If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must also be aboard?Not learned 5285. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?Not learned 5286. Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.Not learned 5287. The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan?Not learned 5288. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT?Not learned 5289. On the vessel's Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT?Not learned 5290. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol helps to control the spread of fire?Not learned 5291. On the vessel's fire control plan, as seen in illustration D039SA below, which symbol represents a fire damper?Not learned 5292. A vessel's fire control plan shall be __________.Not learned 5293. A vessel's fire control plan shall do which of the following?Not learned 5294. Your vessel is floating in water of density 1.010. The fresh water allowance is 8 inches. How far below her marks may she be loaded so as to float at her mark in saltwater of density 1.025?Not learned 5295. Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06" if the TPI is 69?Not learned 5296. If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50 feet, what is your vessel's estimated rolling period?Not learned 5297. On which vessels is GMDSS required?Not learned 5298. Your vessel has run aground in waters where the tide is falling. Which of the following is the best action you can take?Not learned 5299. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.Not learned 5300. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?Not learned 5301. When a vessel has grounded which of the following could result from the forces acting upward on the bottom?Not learned 5302. Your vessel has just grounded on the rocks and is flooding. What should be the initial action in this situation?Not learned 5303. When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.Not learned 5304. Your vessel is involved in Search and Rescue Operations. What is the purpose of the "Situation ReportNot learned 5305. Which vessel(s) is (are) required to comply with the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while navigating?Not learned 5306. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 5307. Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 5308. A vessel's KG is determined by __________.Not learned 5309. A vessel with a large GM will __________.Not learned 5310. A vessel with a large GM will __________.Not learned 5311. Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Where is Lifeboat No. 2 located?Not learned 5312. A vessel's light displacement is 12,000 tons. Its heavy displacement is 28,000 tons. When fully loaded it carries 200 tons of fuel and 100 tons of water and stores. What is the cargo carrying capacity in tons?Not learned 5313. If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by which condition?Not learned 5314. If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will __________.Not learned 5315. If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and off-center weight, the first corrective measure you should take is to __________.Not learned 5316. A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.Not learned 5317. Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 5318. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.Not learned 5319. A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a fresh water allowance of 8 inches. At the loading berth, the water density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her marks when she reaches the sea? (The salt water density is 1.025.)Not learned 5320. A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be __________.Not learned 5321. Your vessel measures 114 feet long by 16 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'- 06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 5322. Your vessel measures 119 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 5'-05" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 5323. Your vessel measures 122 feet long by 18 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 6'-09" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 5324. Your vessel measures 125 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'- 09" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 5325. Your vessel measures 126 feet (38.41 meters) long by 21 feet (6.4 meters) in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8 feet (2.44 meters) is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 5326. Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 5327. Your vessel measures 128 feet long by 21 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-06" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 5328. Your vessel measures 131 feet long by 20 feet in beam. If the natural rolling period at a draft of 8'-03" is 6 seconds, what is the GM?Not learned 5329. You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 1.0 foot and a beam of 40 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?Not learned 5330. Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam of 60 feet. What will your average rolling period be?Not learned 5331. You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 4 feet, and a beam of 50 feet. What can you expect the rolling period of the vessel to be?Not learned 5332. Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while navigating?Not learned 5333. As a vessel officer part of your duties is to inspect the lifesaving equipment. What should be done to facilitate a test of the vessel's EPIRB?Not learned 5334. Your vessel participates in AMVER. Which of the following is an AMVER reporting requirement?Not learned 5335. When a vessel has positive stability, which term is used to describe the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G?Not learned 5336. A vessel that does not possess any reserve buoyancy will sink. Which of the following is considered a direct measure of reserve buoyancy?Not learned 5337. Your vessel is preparing to enter port. What is the SOLAS requirement for opening of the vessel's cargo hold watertight doors in this situationNot learned 5338. Your vessel is preparing to lift a weight of 30 tons with a boom whose head is 30 feet from the ship's centerline. The ship's displacement not including the weight lifted is 8,790 tons. KM is 21.5 ft, KG is 20.5 ft. What would be the angle of list when the weight is lifted?Not learned 5339. A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________.Not learned 5340. Your vessel has just received a distress message. As the master of the vessel, when are you relieved of your obligation to assist in the search and rescue operations?Not learned 5341. Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?Not learned 5342. Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone?Not learned 5343. Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure?Not learned 5344. Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be taken next?Not learned 5345. If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?Not learned 5346. Your vessel is securely moored and commencing to load cargo. What effect does loading cargo have on the vessel's vertical center of gravity?Not learned 5347. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?Not learned 5348. The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. Both vessels are making the same amount of leeway. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?Not learned 5349. A vessel with a small GM will __________.Not learned 5350. A vessel with a small GM will __________.Not learned 5351. Vessels subject to SOLAS are required to keep watertight doors closed while the vessel is navigating. Which of the following is an exception to this requirement?Not learned 5352. Your vessel has suffered a casualty and is in danger of sinking. The Master orders abandon ship but a crew member is missing. You have located the crew member but she is trapped in the Steward's Office. Using the Fire Control Plans in illustration D036SA below, where is the nearest fire axe to gain entry?Not learned 5353. Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The __________.Not learned 5354. Your vessel has been taking on water but now the breached hole has been repaired. Which effects can the flooding have on your vessel's GM?Not learned 5355. A vessel is taking on water but is not in immediate danger of sinking. What would be the best action to take to increase the vessel's stability?Not learned 5356. Your vessel is taking on water and the order has been given to abandon ship. Which of the following is an effective method of combating hypothermia if you must enter the water?Not learned 5357. A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.Not learned 5358. A vessel's tropical load line is 6 in. above her summer load line. Her TPI is 127 tons. She will arrive in the summer zone 8 days after departure. She will burn off about 47 tons/day fuel and water consumption is 12 tons/day. How many tons may she load above her summer load line if she loads in the tropical zone?Not learned 5359. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.Not learned 5360. VHF Channel 6 is used exclusively for what kind of communications?Not learned 5361. Which VHF channel should you avoid using as a working channel?Not learned 5362. All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode. Which is an example of the operation of a radio in simplex mode?Not learned 5363. Which is the VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel?Not learned 5364. In the view of the bridge deck on the fire control plan shown in illustration D035SA below, what is represented by the symbol on the aft bulkhead, port side of the wheelhouse?Not learned 5365. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 049°16.3' W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?Not learned 5366. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 149° 16.3' E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?Not learned 5367. Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint in longitude 49°16.3'E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How should this date be entered into an AMVER report?Not learned 5368. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?Not learned 5369. Wale shores would be used when dry docking a vessel with __________.Not learned 5370. While you are on watch, you learn that a crewman has not been seen on board for the past three hours. Which type of turn is best in this man-overboard situation?Not learned 5371. You are on watch and receive word that a person has fallen overboard from the starboard side. What should your first action be?Not learned 5372. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?Not learned 5373. You are on watch and see a man fall overboard. Which man overboard turn should NOT be used in this situation?Not learned 5374. Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to __________.Not learned 5375. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.Not learned 5376. Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for _________.Not learned 5377. When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical foam, how long will a 5-gallon can of liquid foam last?Not learned 5378. In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?Not learned 5379. When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water will increase the weight displacement by one ton?Not learned 5380. The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.Not learned 5381. A weight of 1,000 short tons is equivalent to __________.Not learned 5382. Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?Not learned 5383. Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of which extinguisher(s)?Not learned 5384. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?Not learned 5385. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?Not learned 5386. The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.Not learned 5387. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.Not learned 5388. What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?Not learned 5389. A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________.Not learned 5390. Whenever your marine radio is on, FCC Rules require you to monitor __________.Not learned 5391. Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.Not learned 5392. The wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is known as which of the following?Not learned 5393. You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated by the signal __________.Not learned 5394. If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.Not learned 5395. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?Not learned 5396. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. Which action should you take?Not learned 5397. What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?Not learned 5398. How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?Not learned 5399. What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength?Not learned 5400. What would most likely prevent a SART's signal from being detected?Not learned 5401. What would be a major consequence of allowing the refrigeration system of a low-pressure fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system to remain inoperable?Not learned 5402. Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?Not learned 5403. What would be the result of physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water?Not learned 5404. What would a signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded with?Not learned 5405. What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by radiotelephone?Not learned 5406. Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 5407. U.S. regulations require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. Who must be in attendance at this meeting?Not learned 5408. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of which duration?Not learned 5409. All inflatable liferafts have which item?Not learned 5410. In all but the most severe cases, how should bleeding from a wound be controlled?Not learned 5411. In any major injury, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and what secondary condition?Not learned 5412. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, which is the most important item to check?Not learned 5413. The lever shown in illustration D013SA below is operated when a lifeboat is in which of the following positions?Not learned 5414. What could happen if you are steering a lifeboat broadside to a rough sea?Not learned 5415. What is the preferred method of controlling external bleeding?Not learned 5416. What is the purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat?Not learned 5417. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "E"?Not learned 5418. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "N"?Not learned 5419. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "S"?Not learned 5420. (2.8.2.3A-1) What type of knot is indicated by the Letter "I" in illustration D030DG below?Not learned 5421. When launching a lifeboat, when should frapping lines be rigged?Not learned 5422. Which is the required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage?Not learned 5423. Which of the following choices best defines EPIRB, ELT, PLBS?Not learned 5424. Which of the following describes the condition of Hypothermia?Not learned 5425. Which of the following is a treatment of frostbite?Not learned 5426. A marine radar system for surface navigation must be fitted on all ocean or coastwise vessels of over which tonnage?Not learned 5427. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a U.S. port and fails to return. The first report you make should be to which organization?Not learned 5428. Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed which amount?Not learned 5429. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by which means?Not learned 5430. If the magnetic heading is greater than the compass heading, what direction is the deviation?Not learned 5431. Longitudinal moment is obtained by multiplying a vessel's weight and which other component?Not learned 5432. Stress on the topping lift of a swinging boom can be reduced by __________.Not learned 5433. The annual survey for endorsement of a Load Line Certificate must be held within which time frame?Not learned 5434. The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon which item(s)?Not learned 5435. What are the quadrantal spheres used for?Not learned 5436. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet?Not learned 5437. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels?Not learned 5438. What is a sheave?Not learned 5439. What is the difference between magnetic heading and compass heading called?Not learned 5440. What is the stress on the hauling part when lifting a 4,200 lbs. weight using a threefold purchase rove to advantage? (Allow 10 percent of the weight per sheave for friction.)Not learned 5441. What is the thickness of a 30.6-pound plate?Not learned 5442. When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines which way?Not learned 5443. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to which system?Not learned 5444. Which of the following describes a "whipping"?Not learned 5445. Why must a sufficient amount of chain be veered when anchoring a vessel?Not learned 5446. You are signing on a crew. You can determine the minimum number and qualifications of the crew that you are required to carry by consulting which document?Not learned 5447. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. What is the designation number for the middle boat on the starboard side?Not learned 5448. At least one reinspection shall be made on each vessel holding a Certificate of Inspection valid for two years. This inspection shall be held between the tenth and fourteenth months of the duration period of the certificate. Which describes the scope of the annual inspection?Not learned 5449. Generally speaking, how is the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber ignited?Not learned 5450. How does bleeding from a vein appear?Not learned 5451. In some cases, the 50% duty on all foreign repairs made to American flag merchant vessels may be remitted. Which work does NOT come under the remitting policy of U.S. Customs?Not learned 5452. The Safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by which organization?Not learned 5453. What does the boat command "Oars" mean?Not learned 5454. What should you do in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim?Not learned 5455. Which item describes the path of the turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360 degrees?Not learned 5456. Which of the following is the best action to take prior to attempting to land a survival craft through heavy surf?Not learned 5457. Which statement about the forecastle card is TRUE?Not learned 5458. Which statement is TRUE concerning the mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or boat hoists?Not learned 5459. Your vessel is in distress and the order has been given to abandon ship. If you must enter the water which of the following would aid in preventing hypothermia?Not learned 5460. A vessel is not required to carry urine specimen collecting kits onboard the vessel only if the individuals directly involved in a Serious Marine Incident can be tested ashore within which time frame?Not learned 5461. After your vessel has been involved in a casualty, who are you required to make your logbooks, bell books, etc., available to?Not learned 5462. An implied warranty of seaworthiness on the part of the vessel's owner lies in which document?Not learned 5463. As seen in illustration D004SA below, what action must be taken before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose nozzle?Not learned 5464. Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are which classification?Not learned 5465. Following a Serious Marine Incident, a mariner directly involved in the incident is required to submit to alcohol testing within which time frame?Not learned 5466. How can the accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries be prevented?Not learned 5467. How should natural fiber rope be stowed in order to help protect it from rotting?Not learned 5468. If another station sent you the signal "KG", what would this indicate?Not learned 5469. In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "D" called?Not learned 5470. In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "E" called?Not learned 5471. In illustration D044DG below, what is the mooring line labeled "G" called?Not learned 5472. In what direction should you coil a left-hand laid rope?Not learned 5473. Oil product samples should be taken at the commencement and completion of loading operations. As the person in charge, where should the the final samples be taken?Not learned 5474. On modern tankers with separate pumprooms, which of the following is used to minimize cargo pump shaft leakage?Not learned 5475. On stud-link anchor chain, how much does the addition of the stud increase the strength of the link?Not learned 5476. Safety shackles are fitted with which items?Not learned 5477. The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to what duration?Not learned 5478. What is a "bowline" used for?Not learned 5479. What is a "sheepshank" used for?Not learned 5480. What is a "square knot" used for?Not learned 5481. What is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank top in a cargo tank called?Not learned 5482. What is the FIRST thing the rescuer must do if the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation?Not learned 5483. What is the main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class "A" fire?Not learned 5484. What is the principle treatment of sunstroke?Not learned 5485. What is the result when natural fiber rope gets wet?Not learned 5486. What should be the FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns?Not learned 5487. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "Q"?Not learned 5488. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "R"?Not learned 5489. What type of knot in illustration D030DG below is indicated by the Letter "U"?Not learned 5490. When using a Mediterranean Moor, how is the vessel moored?Not learned 5491. Where is chafing gear normally used?Not learned 5492. Which is the BEST way to reduce your wake in a narrow channel?Not learned 5493. Which is the easiest way to anchor a vessel in a current?Not learned 5494. Which is the most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen?Not learned 5495. Which is the principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel?Not learned 5496. Which is the VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency?Not learned 5497. Which of the following may result from improperly coiling manila line?Not learned 5498. Which of the following should you do when using wire rope clips to form a temporary eye in a wire rope?Not learned 5499. Why are the anchors dropped well out from the pier while at a Mediterranean moor?Not learned 5500. You are attending to survivors after abandoning ship. Several of the personnel have a slow pulse and slow breathing rates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these conditions?Not learned 5501. You are backing on twin engines with rudders amidships. Your starboard engine stalls. To continue backing on course, which action should you take?Not learned 5502. You are going ahead on twin engines with rudder amidships. Your starboard engine stalls. To continue on course, which action should you take?Not learned 5503. You are in port A in the United States, and your Certificate of Inspection has expired. You wish to go to port B in the United States for repairs and to complete the inspection. If the Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspection deems it safe, he may issue which document?Not learned 5504. You are preparing to lubricate standing rigging on your vessel. Which is TRUE when rigging a bosun's chair on a stay with a shackle?Not learned 5505. You are rigging a stage over the ship's side to serve as a working platform. For stability of the stage, the downhaul to one end of the stage and the downhaul to the other end, which are used for lowering the stage, should be led in which direction?Not learned 5506. You wish to communicate information that the swell in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. How would you describe this swell, as defined in the International Code of Signals?Not learned 5507. Your ship is dead in the water with the rudder amidships. As the right-handed screw starts to turn ahead, which way will the bow tend to go?Not learned 5508. Your stability calculations indicate your vessel has a marginal GM. Which of the following is the most effective way to increase the stability of the vessel?Not learned 5509. Your vessel has just run aground. Which of the following would be one of the first actions you should take in this situation?Not learned 5510. Your vessel is preparing to proceed up a river. Which of the following is true concerning the handling of the vessel in shallow water?Not learned 5511. On 16 January, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude (hs) is 4°33.0'. The temperature is - 10°C, and the barometer reads 992 millibars. The height of eye is 42 feet. The index error is 1.9' off the arc. What is the observed altitude (Ho)?Not learned 5512. As look-out, you spot an object 45° off your port bow. How should you report the object?Not learned 5513. On approaching the English Channel on course 080°T, you note the symbol YBY near a charted buoy. How should you pass this buoy?Not learned 5514. What does the helm command "Nothing to the left" mean?Not learned 5515. When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should know which of the following before assuming the watch?Not learned 5516. Which of the following is a compass card without north-seeking capability that is used for relative bearings?Not learned 5517. You are on a 120,000 DWT loaded bulk carrier. What is a safe docking speed when approaching a berth?Not learned 5518. When is the best time to work a boat into a slip?Not learned 5519. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter C in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 5520. If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial stability, what may happen when counterflooding into empty tanks?Not learned 5521. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter F in illustration D003DG below?Not learned