Q156 - Navigation and Deck General/Safety, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. A weight of 1,000 kips is equivalent to __________.Not learned 2. Which of the following describes the function of the air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?Not learned 3. Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.Not learned 4. Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless which situation occurs?Not learned 5. The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.Not learned 6. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.Not learned 7. When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?Not learned 8. If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can initially be maintained by activating which of the following units?Not learned 9. Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.Not learned 10. Regulations require that OSV's under 100 GT must have a steering system that is capable of moving the rudder __________.Not learned 11. According to the Code of Federal Regulations, which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995?Not learned 12. In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.Not learned 13. The deck plating on a MODU is supported primarily by deck longitudinals and deck __________.Not learned 14. The decks of a MODU are supported by transverse members called __________.Not learned 15. In MODU construction, beams are transverse girders which provide support to __________.Not learned 16. Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal intervals and run __________.Not learned 17. Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU from being carried by the __________.Not learned 18. In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular plates that join the deck beam to a __________.Not learned 19. Between the side frames on a MODU, support for the deck beams is provided by __________.Not learned 20. The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through the deck beams to the __________.Not learned 21. Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by transverse __________.Not learned 22. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.Not learned 23. Joiner bulkheads on a MODU provide __________.Not learned 24. Vertical partitions providing strength and compartmentation on a MODU are called __________.Not learned 25. In MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally __________.Not learned 26. In MODU construction, a greater number of watertight bulkheads results in __________.Not learned 27. Structural bulkheads on a MODU are usually __________.Not learned 28. On a MODU, the keel is the primary strength member of the lower hull form in which direction?Not learned 29. Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior hull plating on a MODU is usually __________.Not learned 30. Where is thicker plating usually found in the construction of integral tanks on a MODU?Not learned 31. The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck __________.Not learned 32. A construction portfolio may be included as part of the MODU __________.Not learned 33. The requirements for special welding procedures to be used on a MODU must be contained in the __________.Not learned 34. For MODU's operating under the U.S. flag, the construction portfolio must contain __________.Not learned 35. A simplified construction plan may be included in the MODU construction portfolio provided it adequately defines the __________.Not learned 36. In the MODU construction portfolio, materials which do not conform to ASTM or ABS specifications must also include the __________.Not learned 37. A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU must be included in the __________.Not learned 38. In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces, what are the type(s) of cargo permitted to be carried through such piping?Not learned 39. A vessel constructed after 1970, carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, has enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present. What is not required for the segregation of these spaces from cargo tanks?Not learned 40. Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with ducts extended to the weather deck. How many ducts are required?Not learned 41. Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes?Not learned 42. Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo?Not learned 43. According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?Not learned 44. Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo?Not learned 45. Cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges are required to be vented with which of the following?Not learned 46. What is required of the access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes?Not learned 47. When loading a petroleum cargo which is below average ambient temperatures, You must do which of the following?Not learned 48. Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a __________.Not learned 49. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), when loading, or discharging oil in bulk at a dock, which of the following signals must be displayed?Not learned 50. Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the day while bunkering?Not learned 51. When taking soundings on a MODU, coating the tape with chalk helps to __________.Not learned 52. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, what action should you take FIRST?Not learned 53. On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation?Not learned 54. Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient?Not learned 55. When measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, check it __________.Not learned 56. Which of the following will prevent a flammable atmosphere from occurring in a cargo tank on a tank vessel?Not learned 57. Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.Not learned 58. When taking soundings on a floating MODU, the tape should be lowered and brought back quickly to __________.Not learned 59. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm" is the signal for ________.Not learned 60. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 61. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?Not learned 62. Which signaling device(s) is/are required on inflatable liferafts?Not learned 63. Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?Not learned 64. Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire?Not learned 65. Any firefighting equipment carried in addition to the minimum requirements on a MODU must __________.Not learned 66. Fire extinguishers designated as size III, IV, and V are considered __________.Not learned 67. A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge must be __________.Not learned 68. On a MODU, a fire extinguisher charged with 15 pounds of CO₂ or 10 pounds of dry chemical is a size __________.Not learned 69. Fire extinguishers used on MODU's are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________.Not learned 70. On a MODU, size "III", 'IV', and "V" fire extinguishers are considered __________.Not learned 71. According to regulations, how many B-II hand portable fire extinguishers are required in the cargo tank area of an unmanned, cargo pump-equipped tank barge while engaged in transferring grade B flammable liquids?Not learned 72. The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.Not learned 73. Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced from this supply?Not learned 74. On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.Not learned 75. According to U.S. regulations, how many emergency outfits are required to be carried onboard all tankships over 1,000 gross tons?Not learned 76. On a MODU, the locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must __________.Not learned 77. You have orders to load cargoes of carbon disulfide, diisopropylamine and pyridine on your multi-product tankship. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 78. Which defines the flash point of a liquid?Not learned 79. A petroleum liquid has a flash point of 85°F. This is a grade __________.Not learned 80. Which of the flash points would indicate a grade D combustible liquid?Not learned 81. Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________.Not learned 82. Which of the following is an example of an example of a grade D product?Not learned 83. If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________.Not learned 84. With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids __________.Not learned 85. Most liquefied gas cargoes are flammable, and are carried at or close to their boiling point. What will happen if they are released into the atmosphere?Not learned 86. Where is a permanently installed system of gas detection required?Not learned 87. The vapor pressure of a gas is defined as the pressure necessary to keep it in what state?Not learned 88. When removing the cap from a sounding tube on a MODU, the sound of air escaping indicates the tank __________.Not learned 89. What is NOT required of the cargo tank venting on a tank barge carrying grade A liquids?Not learned 90. Which states the requirements for the access to a cargo pumproom in a tank vessel carrying grades C or D liquid cargo?Not learned 91. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them __________.Not learned 92. Where should muster lists be posted?Not learned 93. According to 46 CFR, when estimating the cost of collision damage to a tank vessel after a marine accident, which of the following should NOT be included in the repair cost estimate?Not learned 94. All personnel on board a vessel should be familiar with the rescue boat's __________.Not learned 95. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 96. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?Not learned 97. If you must jump from a vessel, what does the correct posture include?Not learned 98. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a remotely-located MODU in a survival craft, which of the following would be the best course of action?Not learned 99. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat which is the recommended action to take?Not learned 100. You are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which is the BEST action to be taken?Not learned 101. How shall Lifesaving equipment be stowed?Not learned 102. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 103. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 104. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers?Not learned 105. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 106. On a MODU, when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?Not learned 107. How often is the line throwing appliance required to be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?Not learned 108. Which precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?Not learned 109. Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig's EPIRB?Not learned 110. Life jackets should be marked with which item?Not learned 111. Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests__________.Not learned 112. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.Not learned 113. On offshore drilling units, the lifeboat fuel tanks must be emptied and the fuel changed at least once every __________.Not learned 114. Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to accomplish which task?Not learned 115. What is the purpose of rigging frapping lines on lifeboat falls?Not learned 116. Which of the following persons may command a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 117. Which of the following is NOT a function of the pressurized air supply for a fully enclosed lifeboat?Not learned 118. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should __________.Not learned 119. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?Not learned 120. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 121. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 122. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft which have been afloat over a long period require __________.Not learned 123. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the following colors?Not learned 124. A magnetic compass card is marked in how many degrees?Not learned 125. The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?Not learned 126. What does the lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicate?Not learned 127. A vessel heading NNW is on a course of __________.Not learned 128. A vessel heading NE is on which course?Not learned 129. A vessel heading WSW is on a course of __________.Not learned 130. A vessel heading SSE is on a course of __________.Not learned 131. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?Not learned 132. You will find a limit switch on which type of davit?Not learned 133. Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.Not learned 134. After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.Not learned 135. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 136. In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side. This procedure is valid except when which of the following circumstances applies?Not learned 137. Which item is a feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people inside the raft stationary in rough weather?Not learned 138. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 139. Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?Not learned 140. The jackknife stored on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.Not learned 141. Inflatable liferafts are provided with which item?Not learned 142. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.Not learned 143. How should an inflatable liferaft be manually released from its cradle?Not learned 144. An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.Not learned 145. Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?Not learned 146. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.Not learned 147. Which is TRUE concerning a hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft?Not learned 148. Under normal conditions, how is a liferaft released from its cradle?Not learned 149. Where are the lifelines connected to the liferaft?Not learned 150. The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.Not learned 151. To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.Not learned 152. After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.Not learned 153. After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, how is the liferaft inflated?Not learned 154. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?Not learned 155. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 156. Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship which item(s) would you use?Not learned 157. How is the inside light in an inflatable liferaft activated?Not learned 158. You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?Not learned 159. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?Not learned 160. What is the function of the hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 161. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be maintained?Not learned 162. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.Not learned 163. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 164. At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft is required to last which duration of time?Not learned 165. A right-handed propeller will cause the survival craft to __________.Not learned 166. During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to __________.Not learned 167. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel __________.Not learned 168. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF which condition exists?Not learned 169. The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with __________.Not learned 170. An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be released __________.Not learned 171. How is the "off-load" release system on a survival craft designed to be activated?Not learned 172. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.Not learned 173. Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________.Not learned 174. The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a __________.Not learned 175. If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see __________.Not learned 176. If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be __________.Not learned 177. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 178. With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from __________.Not learned 179. MODU survival craft is manufactured with fire retardant __________.Not learned 180. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.Not learned 181. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?Not learned 182. A sea anchor is __________.Not learned 183. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using which item(s)?Not learned 184. Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as __________.Not learned 185. Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 186. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 187. The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.Not learned 188. What does reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduce?Not learned 189. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.Not learned 190. For a floating MODU, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the line of action of the buoyant force __________.Not learned 191. When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________.Not learned 192. A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the __________.Not learned 193. A virtual rise in the center of gravity of a MODU may be caused by __________.Not learned 194. When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the MODU are the same __________.Not learned 195. When a floating MODU inclines to an angle slightly less than the angle of loll, she will __________.Not learned 196. If the metacentric height is small, a floating MODU will __________.Not learned 197. If the metacentric height is large, a floating MODU will __________.Not learned 198. A MODU is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.Not learned 199. Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.Not learned 200. Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects from the height of the longitudinal metacenter of a MODU yields __________.Not learned 201. Forces within a vessel may cause a difference between the starboard and port drafts. What is this difference called?Not learned 202. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating MODU indicates __________.Not learned 203. The angle to which a floating MODU, with a negative initial metacentric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of __________.Not learned 204. When a wind force causes a floating MODU to heel to a static angle, the __________.Not learned 205. A floating MODU with an initial negative metacentric height __________.Not learned 206. For a MODU with trim, a decrease in GMT will cause the angle of inclination to __________.Not learned 207. For a MODU with trim, an increase in GMT will cause the inclination to __________.Not learned 208. For a MODU with longitudinal inclination, an increase in GML causes __________.Not learned 209. When a MODU is inclined at a small angle, the center of buoyancy will __________.Not learned 210. Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.Not learned 211. Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.Not learned 212. During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list to the opposite side. Which action should you take?Not learned 213. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed?Not learned 214. The maximum draft to which a drilling unit may be safely loaded is called __________.Not learned 215. Load line regulations are designed to ensure that a MODU has adequate structural strength and sufficient __________.Not learned 216. Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a MODU must be made at intervals not exceeding __________.Not learned 217. A load line for a MODU is assigned by the __________.Not learned 218. Progressive flooding on a MODU may be indicated by __________.Not learned 219. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 220. The jettisoning of topside weight from a MODU serves what purpose?Not learned 221. If a MODU takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 222. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 223. A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.Not learned 224. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.Not learned 225. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on a MODU is obtained from __________.Not learned 226. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces which threat?Not learned 227. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.Not learned 228. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.Not learned 229. Which is the best action to take when plugging holes below the waterline for the safety of the vessel?Not learned 230. Which term describes the strengthening of damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel?Not learned 231. In plugging submerged holes; why are rags, wedges, and other materials used in conjunction with plugs?Not learned 232. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to spread the pressure over the __________.Not learned 233. What is the objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead?Not learned 234. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?Not learned 235. Which is TRUE concerning the vapor pressure of a substance?Not learned 236. The overspeeding of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause __________.Not learned 237. While in 150 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 1 degree, the platform pitch period for going on location should be longer than __________.Not learned 238. While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.Not learned 239. While in 150 feet water depth when the single amplitude roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 1 degree, the safe platform roll period for going on location should be longer than __________.Not learned 240. The 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in the illustration D047DG can lift a maximum weight of how many tons in the single mode?Not learned 241. 46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other nonmetallic piping __________.Not learned 242. Why is 6X19 class wire rope more commonly used for cargo runners than the more flexible 6X37 wire rope?Not learned 243. Aboard a 60 foot long small passenger vessel (other than a ferry) which is certificated to carry 33 persons, what is the minimum capacity required per bilge pump?Not learned 244. Aboard a cargo vessel, the carbon dioxide supply used in a fixed extinguishing system MUST at least be sufficient for what space(s)?Not learned 245. Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to provide drill water to the deck and __________.Not learned 246. Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves 26 and __________.Not learned 247. Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.Not learned 248. Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel lines?Not learned 249. Aboard small passenger vessels the number of children's life jackets carried must be at least what percentage of the total number of persons aboard?Not learned 250. Aboard small passenger vessels the steering gear, signaling whistle, controls, and communication system shall be tested by the Master __________.Not learned 251. Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation must be provided for enclosed spaces containing gasoline engines or gasoline fuel tanks?Not learned 252. ABYC equipment standards are published by the __________.Not learned 253. When is it acceptable to use power-driven or manually-operated spark producing devices in the pumproom, where grades A, B, C, and D liquid cargoes are involved?Not learned 254. An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than __________.Not learned 255. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations, which statement is TRUE with regards to Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests?Not learned 256. In accordance with U.S. regulations for cargo vessels, what is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps, hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?Not learned 257. In accordance with U.S regulations, your cargo vessel must have which of the following?Not learned 258. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry includes which vessels?Not learned 259. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, how long should exhaust blowers be operated in enclosed spaces containing gasoline powered machinery before starting the engine?Not learned 260. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors should drain to __________.Not learned 261. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other nonmetallic piping materials __________.Not learned 262. According to the "T-Boat" regulations, what is the name given to the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim?Not learned 263. According to the Chemical Data Guide, to what chemical family does 1,3 - pentadiene belong?Not learned 264. According to the Chemical Data Guide, epichlorohydrin is a(n) __________.Not learned 265. According to the Chemical Data Guide, what does ethyl chloride produce when ignited?Not learned 266. According to the Chemical Data Guide, ethylene oxide exhibits which fire and explosion hazard?Not learned 267. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is recommended for use in fighting an ethylamine fire?Not learned 268. According to the Chemical Data Guide, what are the flammable limits of ethylene oxide?Not learned 269. According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. What does the last digit "2" of the rating mean?Not learned 270. According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is a recommended extinguishing agent for an ethyl chloride fire?Not learned 271. U.S. regulations require cargo pump rooms, on tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type. in what amount of time should the ventilation effect a complete change of air?Not learned 272. According to regulations when, if ever, may cargo hatches on Great Lakes vessels, with more than 6 feet of freeboard, be left uncovered or open while the vessel is being navigated?Not learned 273. According to the regulations for small passenger vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in electrical circuits to __________.Not learned 274. According to Small Passenger Vessels Regulations, a vessel of less than 100 gross registered tons must be inspected by the Coast Guard when they carry more than how many passengers?Not learned 275. According to U.S. regulations, which of the following is a requirement of the ventilation system of a pump room on a tanker?Not learned 276. Which act would be considered barratry?Not learned 277. Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations?Not learned 278. Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations?Not learned 279. Which action(s) should the operator of a pedestal crane take if crane control is lost?Not learned 280. What action should you take if a davit-launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be launched because of damage to the davit?Not learned 281. Adding the FSCL to KG yields __________.Not learned 282. In addition to the load lines indicated in illustration D003DG below, some vessels have a Winter North Atlantic line. Which statement about this load line mark is TRUE?Not learned 283. In addition to a portable hand-operated bilge pump, a 55-foot-long ferry must have a fixed power operated bilge pump capable of pumping at least __________.Not learned 284. What is NOT an advantage of filler cargo?Not learned 285. What is the advantage of the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when operating cargo?Not learned 286. Which agency assigns Load lines for U.S. vessels?Not learned 287. Which agency must approve the safety equipment on board inspected vessels?Not learned 288. Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on vessels not more than 65 feet in length, carrying not more than 12 passengers if __________.Not learned 289. Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 290. Air gap is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and the __________.Not learned 291. Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.Not learned 292. Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, derrick, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.Not learned 293. Among the equipment included in the DEEP DRILLER lightweight are the loading hoses, traveling block in the lowest position, anchors, mooring chain, all machinery with liquids to normal operating level, and __________.Not learned 294. Among the possible causes of unexpected constant inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.Not learned 295. Among the possible causes of unexpected rapid increasing inclination of the floating COASTAL DRILLER is __________.Not learned 296. Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER which may be opened when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into Tank 1P is __________.Not learned 297. Among the valves on the DEEP DRILLER to open when using the Salt-Water Service Pump to pump water into tank 10S is __________.Not learned 298. Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using both bilge pumps is valve __________.Not learned 299. Among the valves that must be opened on the DEEP DRILLER to pump bilge water out of the port pump room using the number 1 bilge pump is valve __________.Not learned 300. Among the valves to open when deballasting using tanks 1P and 10P of the DEEP DRILLER is __________.Not learned 301. Among the valves to open on the DEEP DRILLER, if you have to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10S using #1 ballast pump, is valve __________.Not learned 302. In the analysis of damaged stability for the DEEP DRILLER, disregarded are the beneficial effects of moorings and __________.Not learned 303. While anchored in 600 feet water depth, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #8. Tension on that line is 220 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?Not learned 304. While anchored in 700 feet of water, 3,150 feet of chain is deployed for line #4. Tension on that line is 200 kips. According to the DEEP DRILLER Operating Manual, how much of that chain lies along the bottom?Not learned 305. The angle of loll is a stability term which applies to a floating MODU with __________.Not learned 306. What is another description for a tandem crane lift?Not learned 307. What is another name for the boom of a crane?Not learned 308. In anticipation of heavy weather, it is decided to deballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft. The marine riser should be disconnected, pulled, and laid down. After doing so, the riser tension will be __________.Not learned 309. Anyone voluntarily surrendering their Merchant Mariner Credential to a U.S. Coast Guard investigating officer signs a statement indicating which of the following?Not learned 310. As appropriate for the voyage, according to small passenger vessel regulations, all vessels must carry which adequate and up-to-date item(s)?Not learned 311. Which of these approved lifesaving devices must a small passenger vessel carrying passengers for hire carry for each person on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 312. In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT when used as described in which choice?Not learned 313. To assure safe boarding and launching of a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU, preparation should include which of the following choices?Not learned 314. If an attempt is made to hoist a load that exceeds the capacity of an electric winch, an overload safety device causes a circuit breaker to cut off the current to the winch motor __________.Not learned 315. When an autopilot is being used aboard small passenger vessels, who must make or supervise the changeover from automatic to manual steering and vice versa?Not learned 316. A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________.Not learned 317. Backfire flame arrestors are installed on __________.Not learned 318. Battens are fitted in cargo holds across the frames of the vessel from the turn of the bilge upward. What is the main purpose of these cargo battens?Not learned 319. You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels. What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo?Not learned 320. The best way to lift many small articles aboard your vessel is with a __________.Not learned 321. On board small passenger vessels, ducts for compartments which contain gasoline powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks __________.Not learned 322. On board small passenger vessels, fill lines and sounding pipes of gasoline tanks must extend directly __________.Not learned 323. On board small passenger vessels, which is a requirement of the fittings used in a gasoline supply line?Not learned 324. On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents should __________.Not learned 325. On board small passenger vessels, how often shall the Master test the steering gear?Not learned 326. On board small passenger vessels, storage batteries containing an electrolyte must be set in trays constructed of __________.Not learned 327. No "T-boat", however propelled, may operate with more than six passengers onboard __________.Not learned 328. Which T-Boat must be fitted with a suitable compass?Not learned 329. The boom indicator tells the operator at what angle the boom is compared to the __________.Not learned 330. The boom stops on a pedestal crane prevent the boom from __________.Not learned 331. Bulkheads which form part of the tanks on a MODU are stiffened to withstand __________.Not learned 332. When bunkering at anchorage which of the following signals must be displayed?Not learned 333. If you are bunkering and you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, what happens to the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line?Not learned 334. If you are bunkering and you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line will __________.Not learned 335. When bunkering is complete, which is the correct procedure concerning the bunker hoses?Not learned 336. When bunkering at a dock which of the following signals must be displayed?Not learned 337. Buoyancy associated with empty or partly empty ballast tanks in the mat of a mat supported jack-up MODU during jacking operations can cause __________.Not learned 338. Buoyant apparatus are required to be fitted or equipped with all of the following equipment EXCEPT which item? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 339. Each buoyant work vest on a MODU must be __________.Not learned 340. Who cannot commit the crime of barratry?Not learned 341. The Cantilever Beam Load Chart for the COASTAL DRILLER shows the limits in the hook setback conductor tension, and __________.Not learned 342. The carbon dioxide cylinders of all fixed fire extinguishing systems shall be retested and remarked whenever a cylinder remains in place on a vessel for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 343. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 344. A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a(n) __________.Not learned 345. When a cargo boom or crane is rated at varying capacities, there will be a table at the controls which relates safe working load to __________.Not learned 346. Which cargo is considered volatile?Not learned 347. Cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargo is known as a(n) __________.Not learned 348. Which term defines cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from odorous cargo?Not learned 349. If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be which of the following?Not learned 350. Which cargoes require strips of common building lathe as dunnage in order to carry away heat generated by the cargo?Not learned 351. A cargo that has a stowage factor over 40 is known as a __________.Not learned 352. On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed within what time period?Not learned 353. On a cargo vessels which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable?Not learned 354. Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency systems tested at which interval?Not learned 355. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, which of the following will make a vessel liable if there is damage to the cargo?Not learned 356. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises out of which event?Not learned 357. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises from which situation?Not learned 358. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises out of which situation?Not learned 359. In case of damage to the DEEP DRILLER on location, the immediate objective is to reduce the unexpected inclination and return the unit to __________.Not learned 360. In case of major damage to column C1P while the DEEP DRILLER is on location, you should pump from port- forward lower-hull tanks using __________.Not learned 361. In case of minor damage to lower-hull tank 1P while the DEEP DRILLER is in transit, you should pump from tank 1P using __________.Not learned 362. A case received for shipment is marked as shown in illustration D043DG below. Which of the following is the portion of the symbol indicated by the letter A?Not learned 363. Which category of able seaman is not authorized to be counted as an able seaman on a seagoing tug of over 100 gross tons?Not learned 364. The center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER is located at the geometric center of the __________.Not learned 365. The central longitudinal structural hull strength member of the lower hulls of semisubmersible MODU's is called the __________.Not learned 366. Certain cargoes must be segregated because of their __________.Not learned 367. Certain equipment aboard vessels, inspected under the small passenger vessel regulations, is required to be marked with the vessel's name. Which items are included in this requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 368. Which information is contained on a Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger vessel?Not learned 369. A Certificate of Inspection for vessels of less than 100 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage will be issued for a period of which duration? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 370. A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command the lifeboat must __________.Not learned 371. Who certifies the safe working load of cargo booms on a vessel?Not learned 372. Until a change to lightweight has been approved, the weights and center of gravity locations for the changes to lightweight shown in the permanent record for the Deep Driller are treated as __________.Not learned 373. What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank 23 to an empty drill water tank 1?Not learned 374. What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank 23 to an empty drill water tank 6?Not learned 375. What is the change in longitudinal moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from drill water tank 23?Not learned 376. What is the change in longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?Not learned 377. What is the change in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from drill water tank 23?Not learned 378. What is the change in transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long-tons of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 1P to an empty ballast tank 10S?Not learned 379. What is the change in vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 103.48 long tons of ballast is discharged from a full ballast tank 1P?Not learned 380. What is the change in the vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from a full ballast tank 3P to an empty ballast tank 10P?Not learned 381. What is the change in the vertical moments (excluding free surface effects) for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank 23 to an empty drill water tank 6?Not learned 382. Which is characteristic of a "special cargo"?Not learned 383. You are in charge of a 225-gross ton tug preparing to depart from Houston, Texas, with a loaded 2500-gross ton tank barge bound for New York. Prior to departure, regulations require you to take which action?Not learned 384. You are in charge of a towing vessel that operates exclusively on inland waters. You regularly tow barges that provide services (cargo lighters, fuel barges, etc.) to foreign flag vessels in port. What will be accepted as proper credentials for you and your crew?Not learned 385. Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the lifeboats and (or) liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling unit?Not learned 386. If the charted water depth is 200 feet, the limits of service for the COASTAL DRILLER require an air gap of __________.Not learned 387. As Chief Officer of a vessel underway, it comes to your attention that the vessel is, in some manner, unseaworthy. Under such circumstances the Master is required to take action upon receiving __________.Not learned 388. Which circumstance concerning an inspected passenger vessel would require knowledge and approval of the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 389. A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if such damage is the result of failure of the ship's officers to take which action?Not learned 390. CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must __________.Not learned 391. A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by __________.Not learned 392. The Coast Guard inspection required before a Certificate of Inspection can be issued is conducted __________.Not learned 393. On the COASTAL DRILLER, when afloat, oily bilge discharge should be pumped through the __________.Not learned 394. When the COASTAL DRILLER is afloat, the water for the saltwater eductor system is provided by __________.Not learned 395. On the COASTAL DRILLER, the bilge discharge is normally through the __________.Not learned 396. On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case the bilge discharge is oily, the bilge water should be discharged through the __________.Not learned 397. On the COASTAL DRILLER, in case one of the two bilge pits is flooded, the other can operate through a(n)__________.Not learned 398. The COASTAL DRILLER has a change of trim by the head of 2.0 feet. What is the change of draft at the forward draft marks?Not learned 399. The COASTAL DRILLER, with a displacement of 13,553 kips, has a draft of __________.Not learned 400. The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 3 inches in seawater, has a displacement of __________.Not learned 401. The COASTAL DRILLER, with a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, has a displacement of __________.Not learned 402. The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the bow leg reaction?Not learned 403. The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 feet to port of the centerline. What is the port leg reaction?Not learned 404. The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling, has a total weight of 15,400 kips. The LCG is 120.00 feet AF0, and the TCG is -0.5 foot to port of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?Not learned 405. The COASTAL DRILLER, while drilling has a total weight of 15,435 kips. The LM are 1,975,680 ft-kips and the TM are -15,435 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?Not learned 406. The COASTAL DRILLER is drilling while weighing 15,436 kips. LM are 2,006,680 ft-kips, and TM are -7,718 ft-kips. What is the port leg reaction?Not learned 407. The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 100 feet of water with 0 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 50 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.Not learned 408. The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 150 feet of water with 0 knots current, 10 foot waves, and wind speeds of 70 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.Not learned 409. The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 192 feet of water. Leg penetration is 83 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 5,940 kips. The waves are 30 feet and the current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wind for drilling?Not learned 410. The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water with 2 knots current, 30 foot waves, and wind speeds of 60 knots may continue drilling if the maximum leg reaction is less than __________.Not learned 411. The COASTAL DRILLER, while elevated in 200 feet of water, has 2 knots of current, 50 knots of wind, and 30 foot seas. What is the maximum leg reaction for drilling?Not learned 412. The COASTAL DRILLER, elevated in 200 feet of water, has two knots of current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,840 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.Not learned 413. The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated in 250 feet of water, experiencing 2 knots current and 70 knot winds. With a maximum leg reaction of 5,760 kips, the maximum wave height for drilling is __________.Not learned 414. The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated to an air gap of 25 feet in 250 feet of water. The current is 2 knots and the waves are 30 feet. The maximum leg reaction is 6,120 kips. What is the maximum wind for drilling operations?Not learned 415. While the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the out-of-level alarm indicates that hull inclination exceeds 0.3°. What should you do?Not learned 416. The COASTAL DRILLER is elevated while preparing for the passage of a severe storm. With ideal loading, the static loading on each of the three legs would be 4,715 kips. However, the LCG is 121 feet AFO and TCG is 0.5 foot to starboard of the centerline. By how many kips does the starboard leg reaction exceed the ideal loading?Not learned 417. When the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, the water for the saltwater eductor system is provided by __________.Not learned 418. On the COASTAL DRILLER, except when pumping from a tank, the bilge system valves should be __________.Not learned 419. The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 2 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum recommended water depth for elevating?Not learned 420. The COASTAL DRILLER is experiencing a single amplitude roll angle of 3 degrees and a roll period of 10 seconds. What is the maximum water depth that can be used for going on location?Not learned 421. The COASTAL DRILLER, in field transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.Not learned 422. The COASTAL DRILLER, following discharge of preload, should __________.Not learned 423. On the COASTAL DRILLER, hook load includes the weight of the __________.Not learned 424. In the COASTAL DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.Not learned 425. When the COASTAL DRILLER is level at a draft of 10.5 feet, what is the value of the LCG?Not learned 426. On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by __________.Not learned 427. On the COASTAL DRILLER, the level of water in each of two pump bilge pits is monitored by hydrostatic alarm switches connected to a remote panel located in the __________.Not learned 428. The COASTAL DRILLER, with no list, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. LM is 1,699,463 ft-kips. Using only tanks 1, 25, and 26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jack-up?Not learned 429. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would be the change in KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value?Not learned 430. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). While in field transit, the wind speeds are predicted to increase above 70 knots. What would be the new KGL if the legs are lowered to the recommended value?Not learned 431. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds increase to greater than 70 knots, and the TOC is changed to the recommended value?Not learned 432. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG if winds remain less than 70 knots?Not learned 433. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). How much more variable load in kips can be placed on the unit if winds remain less than 70 knots?Not learned 434. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). What is the new trim angle if 500 kips of weight are shifted aft 60 feet?Not learned 435. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?Not learned 436. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?Not learned 437. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?Not learned 438. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter?Not learned 439. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). If the contents of 6 and 7 drill water tanks are discharged, what would be the new VCG?Not learned 440. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the four bulk tanks are back-loaded to a supply boat, what would be the new draft?Not learned 441. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the No.1 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new LCG?Not learned 442. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). If the contents of the No.7 drill water tank are discharged, what would be the new TCG?Not learned 443. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). If the drill water in drill water tanks 6 and 25 are discharged, what is the new draft?Not learned 444. When the COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample load form Number 3 (drilling), the hook load is placed in the pipe racks. What would be the new variable load?Not learned 445. The COASTAL DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form Number 3 (Rig Move). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the liquid variables if the entire contents of tank 20 are transferred to tank 13?Not learned 446. On the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum aft extension of the cantilever places the rotary __________.Not learned 447. For the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum rotary load that can be used when the rotary has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom?Not learned 448. The COASTAL DRILLER, while in a normal transit, experiences single amplitude rolling of three degrees. What is the minimum period of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?Not learned 449. While the COASTAL DRILLER is in normal transit, the roll period is 8 seconds. What would be the limiting angle of pitch which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?Not learned 450. While the COASTAL DRILLER is in a normal transit, the roll period is 9 seconds. What is the limiting angle of roll which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?Not learned 451. On the COASTAL DRILLER, a noticeable increase in the level indicator while extracting the legs from the soil indicates __________.Not learned 452. The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 0 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 39.0 feet and a KGL of 38.6 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.Not learned 453. The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds greater than 70 knots, has a KGT of 38.7 feet and a KGL of 38.2 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.Not learned 454. The COASTAL DRILLER, in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches with winds less than 70 knots, has a KGT of 50.6 feet and a KGL of 51.4 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.Not learned 455. The COASTAL DRILLER, while in an ocean transit, experiences a single amplitude roll of 8 degrees. What is the minimum period of motion which does not exceed the design limits of the legs?Not learned 456. The COASTAL DRILLER is in ocean transit in which the winds are not expected to exceed 70 knots. In order to meet the leg strength requirements, the tip of can (TOC) position should be at __________.Not learned 457. The COASTAL DRILLER, while operating with minimal wave clearance, is inclined 0.5 degrees bow down. Lowering the stern may place the hull in the wave action. The recommended course of action is to __________.Not learned 458. The COASTAL DRILLER is operating with a wave clearance of about 20 feet. The out-of-level alarm sounds, and the unit is found to be inclined 0.5-degree bow down. The recommended course of action is to __________.Not learned 459. On the COASTAL DRILLER, placing the rotary 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to starboard of the centerline, limits the maximum hook load to __________.Not learned 460. When the COASTAL DRILLER is properly preloaded, each of the leg reactions should be __________.Not learned 461. On the COASTAL DRILLER, the start/stop station for the bilge pumps is located __________.Not learned 462. The COASTAL DRILLER has sufficient reserve stability to overcome damage due to flooding of any one watertight compartment in winds up to __________.Not learned 463. In the COASTAL DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by __________.Not learned 464. While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. GMT is 98.89 feet. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?Not learned 465. While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 520,462 ft-kips, FSML are 26,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 25,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?Not learned 466. While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. How much should the KGL be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?Not learned 467. While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, a severe storm is predicted within 12 hours. VM are 546,462 ft-kips, FSML are 18,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 32,000 ft-kips. How much should the KG corrected for free surface effects be lowered to satisfy the maximum allowable KG criteria?Not learned 468. The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.0 feet. It loads 216.43 kips of weight aboard. What is the new draft?Not learned 469. The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet. It discharges 216.43 kips of weight. What is the new draft?Not learned 470. The COASTAL DRILLER, while in transit, expects the winds to increase to 75 knots. In order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements, the tip-of-can (TOC) position should be at __________.Not learned 471. The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit at the load line draft. It discharges 279.93 kips of weight. The new draft is __________.Not learned 472. The COASTAL DRILLER is in transit loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the new KGT if, during the move, 170.9 kips of fuel oil is consumed from Diesel Oil Tanks 13 and 14?Not learned 473. The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit during a severe storm while at a draft of 9 feet 6 inches, has a KGT of 39.1 feet and a KGL of 39.9 feet. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.Not learned 474. While the COASTAL DRILLER is in transit, stability is acceptable provided that neither the KGL nor the KGT exceed __________.Not learned 475. The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for leg strength and __________.Not learned 476. The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs to 60.5 feet below the hull in order to meet the requirements for stability and __________.Not learned 477. The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds expected to exceed 70 knots, must lower the legs so that the can tips are __________.Not learned 478. The COASTAL DRILLER, in transit with winds less than 70 knots, has a draft of 10 feet 8 inches. The VM are 541,257 ft-kips, FSML are 32,000 ft-kips, and FSMT are 24,000 ft-kips. The margin on the maximum allowable KG is __________.Not learned 479. The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. If the draft at the forward draft marks is 8.0 feet, the draft at the after draft marks is __________.Not learned 480. The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The draft at the center of flotation is __________.Not learned 481. The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KML is __________.Not learned 482. The COASTAL DRILLER has a trim of 2.13 feet by the stern. The draft in sea water at the forward draft marks is observed to be 8.0 feet. The KMT is __________.Not learned 483. The COASTAL DRILLER, with no trim, is at a true mean draft of 10 feet and 10 inches. TM is -6,800 ft-kips. Using only tanks 1, 25, and 26, how many kips of drill water must be transferred to level the jack-up?Not learned 484. The COASTAL DRILLER, when underway was loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Rig Move). It is now preloaded at minimum air gap waiting for all settling to take place. The preload, weighing 7,191.7 kips, has LM 870,196 ft-kips and TM 2,158 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?Not learned 485. In the COASTAL DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by __________.Not learned 486. The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining watertight integrity, displacement less than 14,158 kips, level attitude, and KGT and KGL less than __________.Not learned 487. The COASTAL DRILLER's ability to meet the damage stability criteria depends on maintaining a watertight integrity, KGL and KGT less than maximum allowed, level attitude, and displacement less than __________.Not learned 488. Which commodity would be regulated by subchapter D, Rules and Regulations for Tank Vessels?Not learned 489. In comparison to electric power, hydraulic power for jacking systems has the advantage of __________.Not learned 490. A complaint of unseaworthiness by a majority of crew members to the American Consul is found to be justified after a survey is completed. Who must pay the cost of the survey?Not learned 491. Which condition must be met during a stability test on an inspected vessel?Not learned 492. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?Not learned 493. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?Not learned 494. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?Not learned 495. Under which conditions is the owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small passenger vessel involved in a marine casualty NOT required to notify the Coast Guard?Not learned 496. Under which conditions can a small passenger vessel operating on exposed or partially protected waters have a port light below the weather deck?Not learned 497. Under which condition(s) can the wages due a seaman be attached by the court?Not learned 498. The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access __________.Not learned 499. Considering the changes to lightweight shown in section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, the maximum allowable combination of hook, rotary, and setback load for the COASTAL DRILLER with the rotary located 34 feet aft of the transom and two feet to port of the centerline is __________.Not learned 500. Considering the changes to lightweight shown in Section 5 of the COASTAL DRILLER Manual, with the rotary 36 feet aft of the transom and 4 feet to port of the centerline, and with 300 kips in the setback, the maximum hook load is limited to __________.Not learned 501. Considering the lightweight changes to the COASTAL DRILLER, what is the maximum permitted hook load permitted when 450 kips are in the setback and 200 kips are in the cantilever pipe rack?Not learned 502. A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU is normally also a(n) __________.Not learned 503. What is correct with respect to required watertight bulkheads on small passenger vessels less than 100 GT?Not learned 504. How could lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels be stowed when not in use?Not learned 505. When should a crane boom-up so high that the boom hits the stops?Not learned 506. The crane manufacturer's operating tables are posted near the __________.Not learned 507. A credential for apprentice mate (steersman) of towing vessels shall be renewed within what time period before or after the expiration date?Not learned 508. A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the Captain of which towing vessel?Not learned 509. A credentialed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the person in charge of which towing vessel?Not learned 510. If a crew member is exposed to phenol by way of skin or eye contact, you should IMMEDIATELY __________.Not learned 511. A crew has signed on for a 3-month voyage. Fourteen days into the voyage a seaman is improperly discharged at the first port of call. How much pay is he entitled to receive?Not learned 512. "Cribbing" is __________.Not learned 513. Curve B in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during normal transit based on __________.Not learned 514. Curve A in the Design Limits of Legs Chart of the Coastal Driller Operating Manual, shows the operating limits during severe storm conditions during transit based on __________.Not learned 515. Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as __________.Not learned 516. A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a shipyard under its own power should __________.Not learned 517. Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?Not learned 518. Which data is NOT used in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?Not learned 519. The davit aboard a MODU is used to __________.Not learned 520. When a davit-launched raft is lowered from a MODU, upon becoming waterborne, the raft is released by __________.Not learned 521. Before deballasting to survival draft in the event of predicted heavy weather, the DEEP DRILLER Operations Manual recommends that the mooring lines be slacked __________.Not learned 522. When a deck cargo is secured with chain or wire lashings and grab (pear) links, which statement is FALSE?Not learned 523. Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank vessels built after January 1, 1975, must have a supply of foam-producing material to operate the system at its designed rate of foam production for __________.Not learned 524. What is the decrease in longitudinal moments for the Deep Driller if 2.0 feet of ballast is transferred from 1S to 10P?Not learned 525. What is the decrease in vertical moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.5 feet of drill water is discharged from a full drill water tank 23?Not learned 526. The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 200 long tons. What is the new draft?Not learned 527. The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, loads 200 long tons. What is the new displacement?Not learned 528. The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 200 long tons on board. What is the new draft?Not learned 529. The DEEP DRILLER, at 58.0 feet draft in sea water, places 275.8 long tons on board. What is the new draft?Not learned 530. The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, discharges 275.8 long tons. What is the new draft?Not learned 531. The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?Not learned 532. The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the transverse free surface correction to KG?Not learned 533. The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the KG corrected for transverse free surface effects?Not learned 534. The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the longitudinal free surface correction to KG?Not learned 535. The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM =3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?Not learned 536. The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is TCG?Not learned 537. The DEEP DRILLER, at 60.0 feet draft in sea water, has VM = 974,441 foot-long tons, LM = 40,301 foot-long tons, TM = 3 foot-long tons, FSML = 30,572 foot-long tons, and FSMT = 18,732 foot-long tons. What is the uncorrected height of the center of gravity?Not learned 538. On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.Not learned 539. On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 2S is valve __________.Not learned 540. On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when deballasting from ballast tank 8S is valve __________.Not learned 541. On the DEEP DRILLER, among the starboard-side valves to open when flooding through the overboard discharge into ballast tank 1S is valve __________.Not learned 542. On the DEEP DRILLER, among the valves to open when transferring ballast from Tank 10S to Tank 1P using the #2 ballast pump is valve __________.Not learned 543. With the DEEP DRILLER anchored in 500 feet of water and with the tension on the mooring chain of 170 kips, the length of the catenary is __________.Not learned 544. The DEEP DRILLER is anchoring in 600 feet of water. In the absence of environmental forces, the mooring lines should be adjusted to __________.Not learned 545. The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum drilling depth of __________.Not learned 546. The DEEP DRILLER as currently configured is limited to a maximum water depth of __________.Not learned 547. If the DEEP DRILLER is damaged, the unit is designed to avoid downflooding in wind speeds up to __________.Not learned 548. For the DEEP DRILLER, in deballasting to survival draft when threatened with heavy weather from 100 knot winds, a load form should be calculated to determine that __________.Not learned 549. The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 19.5 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?Not learned 550. The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?Not learned 551. The DEEP DRILLER departs a fresh water port at a draft of 20.5 feet. What will be the draft in sea water?Not learned 552. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 19 feet, has a KGL of 59.91 feet and an LCG of 1.57 feet. What is the trim angle?Not learned 553. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 45 feet and total vertical moments of 981,567 ft-long tons, floods 2068.7 long tons of sea water through the overboard discharge into tanks 3 and 8 on both sides. The VCG of the added ballast is 7.22 feet. The shift in the height of the center of gravity is __________.Not learned 554. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 50 feet, has a KGT of 52.12 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port of the longitudinal centerline. What is the list in feet?Not learned 555. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 55 feet, has a KGT of 53.05 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to starboard. What is the list angle?Not learned 556. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 58 feet, has VM of 900,000 ft-tons, and FSMT of 20,000 ft-tons. What is the KGT?Not learned 557. The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet discharges 1,792.44 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?Not learned 558. The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 58.0 feet loads 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?Not learned 559. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 35,000 ft-tons of longitudinal moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit longitudinally?Not learned 560. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 3,765 ft-tons of transverse moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 1S to level the unit in list?Not learned 561. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has 50,000 ft-tons of longitudinal moments. How much ballast should be transferred between tanks 1P and 10P to level the unit longitudinally?Not learned 562. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.37 feet. What is the trim in feet?Not learned 563. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGL of 55.4 feet and an LCG of 2.43 feet. What is the trim angle?Not learned 564. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has a KGT of 57.11 feet and TCG of 0.5 foot to port. What is the list angle?Not learned 565. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet and a total vertical moment of 1,012,598 foot-tons, pumps 2,068.7 long tons of ballast overboard. The VCG of the discharged ballast is 15.0 feet. What is the new height of the center of gravity?Not learned 566. The DEEP DRILLER, at a draft of 60 feet, has VM of 942,120 ft-tons, and FSML of 36,235 ft-tons. What is the KGL?Not learned 567. The DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60.0 feet discharges 68.94 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?Not learned 568. On the DEEP DRILLER, the drill water pump may be used to supplement the bilge pumps. Its normal pumping rate is __________.Not learned 569. The DEEP DRILLER is drilling at 60 feet draft at a corrected KG of 54.0 feet. Ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots?Not learned 570. The DEEP DRILLER is drilling on location at a 60 foot draft. Waves are approaching within 2 feet of the underside of the spider deck. You should __________.Not learned 571. The DEEP DRILLER is engaged in wire line logging. You have 10,000 feet of drill pipe and bottom hole assembly in the set back. Marine weather forecasts are predicting weather with winds in excess of 70 knots. Your first step to prepare for the storm should be to __________.Not learned 572. The DEEP DRILLER has a KGL of 53.16 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. Although there are no environmental forces, trim is 2.0 feet by the stern. What is the value of LCG?Not learned 573. The DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 52.90 feet while at a draft of 58.0 feet. List is 2.0 feet to port. What is the value of TCG?Not learned 574. In the DEEP DRILLER, LCG is obtained from the sum of the longitudinal moments by __________.Not learned 575. The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of LCG?Not learned 576. The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 58 feet when there are no environmental forces. What is the value of TCG?Not learned 577. The DEEP DRILLER is level at a draft of 60 feet in calm water. What is the value of the righting moment?Not learned 578. While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the sounding level and port aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10P has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is __________.Not learned 579. While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. Because the tank sounding level and port forward inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1P is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to __________.Not learned 580. While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped on the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard aft inclination are slowly increasing, you decide that tank 10S has minor damage. Among the possible corrective actions is __________.Not learned 581. While the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. Because the sounding level and starboard inclination are rapidly increasing, you decide that tank 1S is damaged. Your best countermeasure is to __________.Not learned 582. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load #5, discharges 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?Not learned 583. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?Not learned 584. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Additional deck load may be placed aboard. If the maximum permissible deck load were placed in the pipe racks at a VCG of 130 feet, the KG increases __________.Not learned 585. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Although winds are less than 70 knots, excessive motion requires ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What will be the new margin on the maximum allowable KG?Not learned 586. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Excessive motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new margin on the maximum allowable KG?Not learned 587. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If the maximum permissible deck load were placed aboard at a VCG of 130 feet, what would be the new draft?Not learned 588. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). How much additional deck load can be placed aboard without exceeding the deck load limit?Not learned 589. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of Saltwater Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?Not learned 590. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?Not learned 591. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new LM (longitudinal moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?Not learned 592. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?Not learned 593. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if the entire contents of salt water ballast 1anks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KML = 348.58)Not learned 594. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (transit). What is the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged? (Use KMT = 375.38 feet)Not learned 595. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new TM (transverse moments) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?Not learned 596. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What is the new transverse free surface correction (FSCT) if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?Not learned 597. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). What are the new vertical moments if the entire contents of Salt Water Ballast Tanks 1P and 1S are discharged?Not learned 598. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Severe motion makes it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new GML?Not learned 599. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #1 (Transit), suffers minor damage which results in flooding in tank 1S. You may pump from __________.Not learned 600. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. If the added ballast has an average VCG of 9.03 feet, and the sum of free surface moments is 56,244 foot-tons, what is the new KGL?Not learned 601. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival draft. It is decided to check the stability at the intermediate draft of 32 feet. How much ballast is required to ballast to 32 feet?Not learned 602. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). If weather conditions make it necessary to ballast down to survival, how much ballast would be required?Not learned 603. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet, and upon arrival at 45 feet, port and starboard ballast tanks 1, 3, and 8 are slack. What is the new KGL?Not learned 604. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 4087 long tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of 8.32 feet. What would be the value of uncorrected KG?Not learned 605. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival). What is the new longitudinal location of the center of buoyancy if all the bulk materials are discharged?Not learned 606. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank 10S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.Not learned 607. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #2 (Ballast to Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.Not learned 608. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?Not learned 609. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?Not learned 610. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new draft if all the bulk materials are discharged?Not learned 611. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?Not learned 612. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the new height of the transverse metacenter if all the bulk materials are discharged?Not learned 613. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in LCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?Not learned 614. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in TCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?Not learned 615. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the shift in VCG if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S to replace the discharge of all bulk materials?Not learned 616. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #2 (Ballasting to Survival). What is the VCG of the added liquid if 100.76 long tons of ballast are added to Ballast Tank #8S?Not learned 617. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added to the unit?Not learned 618. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #1 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?Not learned 619. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?Not learned 620. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects?Not learned 621. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?Not learned 622. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If the liquid mud in mud pit #4 (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new uncorrected height of the center of gravity?Not learned 623. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new draft?Not learned 624. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?Not learned 625. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new height of the transverse metacenter?Not learned 626. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load form #3 (Preparing to Drill). If all the liquid mud (see table 8) is dumped, what would be the new metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?Not learned 627. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). According to the deck load graph, how much additional deck load could be added on the unit?Not learned 628. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges all the cement in the P-Tanks. See Table 7. What is the change in KG?Not learned 629. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the centerline. What is the improvement in KGT?Not learned 630. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non- liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the improvement in KGL?Not learned 631. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GML?Not learned 632. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new GMT?Not learned 633. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new KGL?Not learned 634. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non- liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new LCG?Not learned 635. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non- liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the new TCG?Not learned 636. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non-liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting list angle?Not learned 637. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), discharges a non- liquid load of 275.8 long tons from a position 130 feet above the keel, 40 feet forward of amidships, and 30 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting trim angle?Not learned 638. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 8S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and stern down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.Not learned 639. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Among the tanks from which you should pump is tank __________.Not learned 640. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard center column below the waterline. Pumping from tanks 2S and 9S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.Not learned 641. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. Pumping from tank 2S and 3S is not sufficient to prevent increasing starboard list and bow down trim. You should consider counterflooding in tank __________.Not learned 642. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.Not learned 643. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Pumping from tanks in the vicinity of the damage have proven ineffective. Your best countermeasure is to __________.Not learned 644. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the port aft column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.Not learned 645. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard aft column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.Not learned 646. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), suffers severe damage to the starboard forward column below the waterline. You should pump from tank __________.Not learned 647. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown is Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the change in vertical moments for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank 5P are transferred to Drill Water Tank 5S?Not learned 648. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of FSML for Fresh Water if the entire contents of Drill Water Tank #5P are transferred to Tank #5S?Not learned 649. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of longitudinal moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?Not learned 650. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of transverse moments for the Stores & Supplies (Table 6) if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?Not learned 651. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). What would be the new sum of vertical moments for the Stores & Supplies if paint weighing 3.48 tons is added to the paint locker?Not learned 652. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, discharges 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?Not learned 653. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5, loads 275.8 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 3 feet and list to port is 2 feet. What is the draft at the starboard aft draft mark?Not learned 654. The DEEP DRILLER, while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) loads an additional 137.88 long tons. The resulting trim by the stern is 2 feet and the list to port is 3 feet. What is the draft at the port forward draft mark?Not learned 655. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C1P. Your best countermeasure is to pump from __________.Not learned 656. The DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), suffers major damage which results in flooding in tank C3S. Your best countermeasure is to __________.Not learned 657. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), when an unexpected, slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the longitudinal free surface correction is __________.Not learned 658. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing port list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in C1P is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2P and 3P, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface correction is __________.Not learned 659. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form Number 5 (Survival) when an unexpected slowly increasing starboard list and bow down trim occurs. A leak in 1S is found. By deballasting from ballast tanks 2S and 3S, the inclination slowly decreases. The increase in the transverse free surface corrections is __________.Not learned 660. The DEEP DRILLER is on location during a storm. Windward anchor tensions begin to exceed the test tensions. To reduce tensions while minimizing offset over the well, you should __________.Not learned 661. In the DEEP DRILLER, the longitudinal free surface correction (FSCL) is obtained from the total of the longitudinal free surface moments (FSML) by __________.Not learned 662. For the DEEP DRILLER, the maximum permissible offset which can be tolerated while drilling is __________.Not learned 663. The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 45 feet, has a three-foot trim by the stern and a two-foot list to port. What is the draft at the starboard forward draft mark?Not learned 664. The DEEP DRILLER, at a mean draft of 60 feet, has a two-foot trim by the head and a three foot list to starboard. What is the draft at the port aft draft mark?Not learned 665. The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The average line tension is 190 kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension?Not learned 666. The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 600 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #8 is 190 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?Not learned 667. The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The average tension on the mooring lines is 200 kips. What is the total vertical component of chain tension?Not learned 668. The DEEP DRILLER is moored in 700 feet of water. The tension on anchor line #3 is 200 kips. What is the vertical component of chain tension for that line?Not learned 669. The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moment 51,466 foot- kips, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-kips. What is the transverse location of the missing load?Not learned 670. The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot-tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the longitudinal location of the missing load?Not learned 671. The DEEP DRILLER is observed to be level at a draft of 60.0 feet. At the same time, the calculated load form shows the displacement to be 17,845 long tons, total longitudinal moments 51,466 foot- tons, and total transverse moments -10,000 foot-tons. What is the weight of the missing load?Not learned 672. The DEEP DRILLER is operating at a draft of 60 feet. There is 11.5 feet of drill water in each of the drill water tanks (5P and 5S). What would be the improvement in KGL if 5S is filled from 5P?Not learned 673. The DEEP DRILLER is operating with KGL at the maximum allowable value (70 knots) at a 60 feet draft. What is the value of GML?Not learned 674. The DEEP DRILLER is operating at the maximum allowable KGT at 60 feet draft. What is the value of GMT?Not learned 675. While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the port side. If the port aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?Not learned 676. While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard aft inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?Not learned 677. The DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling). Assume ballast added or discharged to remain at a constant draft is at a VCG of 10 feet. How much non-liquid load would have to be removed from an average height of 130 feet above the keel to meet the maximum allowable KG at a draft of 60 feet for winds greater than 70 knots?Not learned 678. While the DEEP DRILLER is operating as shown in Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), casing is accidentally dropped over the starboard side. If the starboard forward inclination is slowly increasing, which tank is probably damaged?Not learned 679. The DEEP DRILLER is planning to operate while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #3 ( Preparing to Drill). What is the margin between KGT and maximum allowable KG?Not learned 680. On the DEEP DRILLER, to pump bilge water out of the starboard pump room using both bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves __________.Not learned 681. While at operating draft, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps with the __________.Not learned 682. While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the starboard pump room. Both starboard bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the performance of the bilge pumps by using the __________.Not learned 683. The DEEP DRILLER at survival draft loads 2,068.1 long tons of ballast. What is the new draft?Not learned 684. In the DEEP DRILLER, TCG is obtained from the sum of the transverse moments by __________.Not learned 685. The DEEP DRILLER is under tow at a 20-foot draft. The rig motions are close to exceeding the limits for critical pitch and roll. The rig is also experiencing occasional pounding on the horizontal braces. In this situation you should __________.Not learned 686. The DEEP DRILLER is being towed at a 20 foot draft. Vessel motions are within acceptable limits, but the waves begin to hit the horizontal braces. You should __________.Not learned 687. In the DEEP DRILLER, the transverse free surface correction (FSCT) is obtained from the total of transverse free surface moments (FSMT) by __________.Not learned 688. On the DEEP DRILLER, to use the drill water pump to supplement the bilge pumps, it is necessary to open valves 28 and __________.Not learned 689. On the DEEP DRILLER, when using the starboard #2 ballast pump to provide water to the main deck from the sea, it is necessary to open valves __________.Not learned 690. In the DEEP DRILLER, VCG is obtained from the sum of the vertical moments by __________.Not learned 691. The DEEP DRILLER's lightweight is the condition prior to loading __________.Not learned 692. Which defines a hygroscopic cargo?Not learned 693. Which defines the pitch of a propeller on a merchant vessel?Not learned 694. Which defines the process of "Block stowage"?Not learned 695. The definition of "partially protected waters", as used in the Regulations does not include which choice?Not learned 696. Depending on its concentration, which product(s) can be classified as either grade D or E?Not learned 697. What describes a tandem crane lift?Not learned 698. To determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold, which reference would you refer to?Not learned 699. You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon dioxide is required for this space?Not learned 700. Which device is designed to automatically hold the load if power should fail to an electric winch?Not learned 701. Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine?Not learned 702. Which device is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine?Not learned 703. Which term is sometimes used to refer to a disk with a horizontal line through its center, equivalent to the summer load line on a vessel?Not learned 704. What is the displacement of the DEEP DRILLER with a draft of 19.5 feet in fresh water?Not learned 705. To what distance below the hull must the legs of the COASTAL DRILLER be lowered in order to meet the stability and leg strength requirements during the wind speeds greater than 70 knots?Not learned 706. The distance from the still water level (corrected for tides and storm surge) to the bottom of the hull of a MODU is the __________.Not learned 707. Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs. A "short run" is limited to __________. (small passenger vessel regulation)Not learned 708. Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger vessels __________.Not learned 709. Which document is NOT required by law to be posted aboard a vessel?Not learned 710. On a documented small passenger vessel, what information must be permanently affixed in block-type letters and/or numerals to the main beam or other clearly visible interior structural part of the hull?Not learned 711. A documented vessel's name is marked on a clearly visible exterior area of both sides of the bow and on the stern in block letters. What is the size requirement of the markings?Not learned 712. The downflooding angle for a MODU is the maximum angle at which __________.Not learned 713. The downflooding angle for a MODU is the minimum angle at which __________.Not learned 714. The draft of the DEEP DRILLER in the lightweight condition is __________.Not learned 715. The draft at the forward draft mark of a jack-up is 11 feet 3 inches while the draft at the aft draft mark is 12 feet 9 inches. The value of trim is __________.Not learned 716. Drilling loads on the COASTAL DRILLER are the combined loads arising from conductor tension, rotary, hook, and __________.Not learned 717. While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form Number 4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers a sudden unexpected starboard and aft inclination. The wind and waves are light. What might have caused the inclination?Not learned 718. While drilling loaded as shown in Sample Load Form Number 4 (Drilling), the DEEP DRILLER suffers an unexpected but slowly increasing port and forward inclination. The wind and waves are light. This inclination could have been caused by __________.Not learned 719. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage from which of the following items?Not learned 720. To effectively use the crossover system on the DEEP DRILLER to pump from the low side using a high side ballast pump, transverse inclinations should not exceed __________.Not learned 721. Electric cargo winches have an overload safety device which normally cuts the current to the winch motor __________.Not learned 722. If an electric cargo winch is being used to lift a draft of cargo and the engine room loses all power, which will occur?Not learned 723. The electrical components for each single crane are installed in its __________.Not learned 724. Which is a requirement for electrical wiring on all "T-Boats"?Not learned 725. While elevated, the COASTAL DRILLER prepares for a severe storm. When the setback is lowered and placed in the pipe racks, it is considered as part of the __________.Not learned 726. An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. The drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10.0 feet to starboard. The change in TCG is __________.Not learned 727. An elevated jack-up weighs 14,000 kips. Its TCG is located 1.0 foot to starboard of the centerline. What would be the new TCG for the jack-up if the drill floor, weighing 700 kips, is skidded 10 feet to port?Not learned 728. An elevated jack-up weighs 17,000 kips. Its center of gravity is located 110 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). What would be the new LCG if the cantilever (weight 900 kips) and drill floor (weight 800 kips) were skidded 70 feet aft?Not learned 729. When elevated, placing the LCG and TCG at the leg centroid provides __________.Not learned 730. While elevated as shown in Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), winds are 57 knots and current is 2 knots. What is the maximum wave height allowed for drilling?Not learned 731. When elevating the COASTAL DRILLER in 200 feet of water, the unit should be placed at an air gap of __________.Not learned 732. The elevating system of the COASTAL DRILLER is normally limited to __________.Not learned 733. For emergency communications, vessels operating on oceans, coastwise, or Great Lakes routes, on runs of more than 30 minutes shall carry which items? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 734. In an emergency, the jacking system on the COASTAL DRILLER is capable of elevating the unit with a loading of __________.Not learned 735. The emergency power system for the DEEP DRILLER should be placed in operation when the weather forecast predicts winds greater than 90 knots and when __________.Not learned 736. Which ending is NOT acceptable in a wire rope that is free to rotate when hoisting?Not learned 737. With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the forward drafts is 61.0 feet, and the average of the aft drafts is 59.0 feet. KGL is 51.13 feet. What is the value of LCG?Not learned 738. With no environmental forces on the DEEP DRILLER, the average of the starboard drafts is 59.0 feet, and the average of the port drafts is 61.0 feet. KGT is 52.84 feet. What is the value of TCG?Not learned 739. Environmental loading consists of the forces caused by wind, waves, and __________.Not learned 740. Each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every __________.Not learned 741. What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?Not learned 742. What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 743. Which equipment is not required for a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 744. In the event of damage to the DEEP DRILLER which results in flooding to one of the lower-hull tanks, pump from __________.Not learned 745. In the event the motion of the DEEP DRILLER is such that critical motion limits are exceeded, you should __________.Not learned 746. Which is an example of cargo damage caused by inherent vice?Not learned 747. Which is an example of failure to exercise due diligence?Not learned 748. What is an example of a fundamental objective of cargo stowage?Not learned 749. What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?Not learned 750. What is an example of a grade A flammable liquid?Not learned 751. Which extinguishing agent is effective in combating an isoprene fire?Not learned 752. When extracting the legs from the soil, the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER may be pulled down until the draft is __________.Not learned 753. Under extremely heavy weather on the DEEP DRILLER, when operating conditions are too severe to permit the drill string from being tripped out of the hole and laid down in the pipe racks, it may be __________.Not learned 754. Which factor does NOT affect the required freeboard of a cargo vessel?Not learned 755. Failure of both port ballast pumps on the DEEP DRILLER prevents their use. To deballast from tank 1P, you may use the __________.Not learned 756. What is FALSE concerning the use of unicellular plastic foam work vests on small passenger vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 757. A fill pipe for a gasoline tank on board a small passenger vessel must be __________.Not learned 758. When filling fuel-oil tank 6P on the DEEP DRILLER, it is necessary to open valve __________.Not learned 759. Which fire extinguishing agent can NOT be used on an ethylenediamine?Not learned 760. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. Which is the minimum height of the letters and figures required by regulation?Not learned 761. A fire pump may be used for other purposes if __________.Not learned 762. Each fire pump on a MODU must have a pressure gauge located at __________.Not learned 763. What is the proper name for the fitting that allows a boom to move freely both vertically and laterally?Not learned 764. What fitting should you install in the rig piping to a pump to facilitate disconnecting the pump for servicing?Not learned 765. Fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems shall be installed to protect enclosed machinery and fuel tank spaces of all vessels using gasoline or other fuel having which flash point? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 766. What are the flammable limits for motor gasoline?Not learned 767. Flammable liquid means any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below __________.Not learned 768. The flash point of a product is 100°F. What can happen if it is heated above 110°F?Not learned 769. When floating, the appropriate leg horizontal must be aligned in the center of the __________.Not learned 770. A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 106 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are loaded at 20 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are loaded 149 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?Not learned 771. A floating jack-up with displacement of 15,000 kips has its LCG 108 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 400 kips are loaded at 120 feet AFO and 800 kips are loaded 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?Not learned 772. A floating jack-up with displacement of 16,200 kips has its LCG 110.37 feet aft of frame zero (AF0). If 200 short tons are discharged from 120 feet AF0 and 400 short tons are discharged from 150 feet AF0, what is the new LCG?Not learned 773. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.Not learned 774. A floating MODU displacing 20,000 long tons with a VCG of 50 feet loads 100 long tons at 100 feet above the baseline and 200 long tons at 130 feet above the baseline. What is the new KG?Not learned 775. For a floating MODU, true mean draft is always the __________.Not learned 776. A flooded leg on a liftboat would adversely affect the vessel's stability underway by __________.Not learned 777. Which of the following is a characteristic of Methane gas?Not learned 778. Which of the following is classified as a flammable liquid?Not learned 779. Following a collision or accident, the Master of each vessel involved must render assistance to persons affected by the collision or accident under which circumstances?Not learned 780. Which of the following is considered to be a B-II portable fire extinguisher?Not learned 781. Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG?Not learned 782. Which of the following is/are the component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG?Not learned 783. Which of the following is/are the optional component(s) of a twin crane set as shown in illustration D047DG?Not learned 784. Which of the following lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be stowed when not in use?Not learned 785. Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE regarding a twin pedestal crane set?Not learned 786. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE concerning cranes being installed on the centerline of vessels?Not learned 787. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"?Not learned 788. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?Not learned 789. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?Not learned 790. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?Not learned 791. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding a twin pedestal crane set?Not learned 792. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding crane operations?Not learned 793. The force acting on a single cargo runner which is vertically lifting or lowering a load is greatest when __________.Not learned 794. What will cause the free surface effects of a partially full tank on a vessel in motion to increase?Not learned 795. When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the most frequent cause of its being infected at the discharge port is __________.Not learned 796. Which fuel cannot be used for cooking on vessels carrying passengers for hire? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 797. The full period of motion of the DEEP DRILLER while in transit is 7 seconds and the maximum pitch angle as seen on the inclinometers is 4 degrees. From the standpoint of critical motion, the motion is __________.Not learned 798. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. Which of the following would fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection?Not learned 799. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire protection?Not learned 800. Gasoline fuel tanks on small passenger vessels must be installed __________.Not learned 801. A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel should terminate __________.Not learned 802. Where are gasoline fuel tank vents required to terminate?Not learned 803. Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels must be fitted with removable flame screens __________.Not learned 804. In general, batteries aboard small passenger vessels should be __________.Not learned 805. What is the general name given to propane, butane, and mixtures of the two?Not learned 806. The generators on your rig have shut down, leaving you without navigation lights. Which emergency signal would you transmit over the VHF radio to alert vessels in the area of your predicament?Not learned 807. What should be given, as a minimum, to personnel who are involved in crane cargo handling?Not learned 808. For any given pedestal crane, when the boom is lengthened, the lifting capacity is __________.Not learned 809. While going on location in 200 feet water depth when the roll angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2.5 degrees, the roll period should be longer than __________.Not learned 810. While going on location in 250 feet water depth when the pitch angle of the COASTAL DRILLER is 2 degrees, the single amplitude pitch period should be longer than __________.Not learned 811. Grade D combustible liquids have a maximum flash point of __________.Not learned 812. Which is TRUE of the Great Lakes Edition of the Notice to Mariners?Not learned 813. On Great Lakes vessels, when do midsummer load lines apply?Not learned 814. What is the group of markings shown in illustration D003DG below called?Not learned 815. If you are guilty of failure to properly perform your duties as Master of Uninspected Towing Vessels, which of the following actions may NOT be taken?Not learned 816. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.Not learned 817. Hand tillers are only accepted as an auxiliary means of steering if which situation exists? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 818. When handling cargo, the majority of cargo gear breakdowns is due to __________.Not learned 819. Hatches on small passenger vessels operating on exposed waters and exposed to the weather __________.Not learned 820. Where is the head block located on a boom?Not learned 821. Where is the heel block located on a boom?Not learned 822. The height of the longitudinal metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a displacement of 13,810 kips is __________.Not learned 823. The height of the metacenter above the keel will vary depending on the __________.Not learned 824. The height of the transverse metacenter of the COASTAL DRILLER at a displacement of 13,011 kips is __________.Not learned 825. The height of the transverse metacenter of the Coastal Driller at a displacement of 13,050 kips is __________.Not learned 826. The height of the transverse metacenter for a MODU is 62.44 feet. The height of the center of gravity is 56.10 feet, and the transverse free surface correction is 1.21 feet. What is the value of the metacentric height corrected for transverse free surface effects?Not learned 827. Horizontal subdivision decks forming watertight compartments in the columns of a semisubmersible MODU increase the unit's __________.Not learned 828. If a hydraulic pump on a winch accidentally stops while hoisting, the load will stay suspended because __________.Not learned 829. Under ideal conditions, the DEEP DRILLER can pick up and place pipe in the rack at a rate of about __________.Not learned 830. The most important consideration in the event the Deep Driller suffers damage is __________.Not learned 831. If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)Not learned 832. An inclined semisubmersible with a very short rolling period about a constant angle of list is likely to have __________.Not learned 833. What is the increase in transverse free surface moments for the COASTAL DRILLER if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank 23 to an empty drill water tank 6?Not learned 834. What is the increase in transverse moments for the Coastal Driller if 2.0 feet of drill water is transferred from a full drill water tank 23 to an empty drill water tank 6?Not learned 835. The independent-leg drilling unit is the best jack-up rig selection for drilling at locations with __________.Not learned 836. Individual wires, used in systems greater than 50 volts, __________.Not learned 837. What information must be available to use the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER?Not learned 838. Which information are you required to report to the Coast Guard when an accident occurs in which loss of life results? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 839. At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, which inspection procedure must be conducted on all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard a vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 840. On inspected cargo vessels, each fire station is required to be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of __________.Not learned 841. On an inspected vessel, which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on the waterline at her deepest operating draft?Not learned 842. On an inspected vessel, when may a stability test be dispensed with?Not learned 843. When inspecting a tank barge to see that it has all the required fire extinguishers and other safety items aboard, which of the following is the best source for determining what is required?Not learned 844. The inspection of a 50 ft. vessel of 65 gross tons carrying more than twelve passengers on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard once in every __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 845. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. Which is TRUE when complying with regulations?Not learned 846. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. Which is TRUE when complying with regulations?Not learned 847. Instructions to the crew in the use of all the ship's fire-extinguishing and lifesaving equipment shall be completed within which time frame?Not learned 848. The intact volume above the waterline of a floating MODU is __________.Not learned 849. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside faces of the cargo battens, the lower side of the deck beams, and the top of the tank top ceiling is known as the __________.Not learned 850. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside of the side shell, the underside of the deck, and the tank top is known as the __________.Not learned 851. The international shore connection required on a MODU is designed to __________.Not learned 852. On an international voyage, a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or more operating two fire pumps simultaneously is required to have a minimum pitot tube pressure from the two highest outlets. What is the minimum required pressure?Not learned 853. On an international voyage, how many fire axes is a cargo vessel of 14,000 GT required to carry?Not learned 854. What is/are the advantage(s) of cranes over conventional cargo booms?Not learned 855. Which is/are required for engine exhaust pipe installations on small passenger vessels?Not learned 856. What does item "C" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 857. What does item "E" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 858. What does item "G" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 859. What does item "K" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 860. Which item may be substituted for, in the fireman's outfit, on a cargo vessel?Not learned 861. Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast Guard representative at the time of a stability test?Not learned 862. What does item "A" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 863. What does item "D" refer to in illustration D045DG of a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 864. Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?Not learned 865. Which item shall the Master insure regarding the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB)?Not learned 866. A jack-up, 180 feet in length, has the center of flotation at 110 feet aft of frame zero. The draft at the bow is 11.0 feet and the draft at the stern is 13.0 feet. What is the true mean draft?Not learned 867. A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AFO has a draft of 8 feet at the bow and 11 feet at the stern. What is the trim by the stern?Not learned 868. A jack-up 180 feet in length with the LCF at 120 feet AF0 has a true mean draft (draft at LCF) of 10 feet. If the trim is 3 feet by the stern, what is the draft at the stern?Not learned 869. A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the bow to level the jack-up if 150 kips are loaded at the transom?Not learned 870. A jack-up 210 feet in length is level during transit. The LCF is 140 feet aft of the bow. How much weight should be applied at the stern to re-level the jack-up if 75 kips is applied at the bow?Not learned 871. A jack-up has 8 inches of trim by the stern. Calculations show that the moment required to change trim one inch is 500 foot-kips. To level the unit, how far must a weight of 50 kips be transferred toward the bow?Not learned 872. For a jack-up, the angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.Not learned 873. A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,200 foot-kips intends to transfer 100 kips of weight in a transverse direction. How far should the weight be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.5 to 11.0 feet?Not learned 874. A jack-up with a calculated moment to change list one inch (MCL1") of 1,350 foot-kips intends to transfer drill water from a tank with a TCG of 82 feet to a tank with a TCG of 18 feet. How much weight should be transferred to change the draft on the port side from 11.0 to 11.5 feet?Not learned 875. A jack-up with displacement of 10,000 kips has its LCG 100 feet aft of frame zero (AFO). If 200 kips are loaded at 60 feet AFO and 100 kips are discharged from 20 feet AFO, what is the new LCG?Not learned 876. A jack-up displacing 350,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.Not learned 877. A jack-up level at 12.5 feet draft transfers 100 kips of drill water from a tank with a TCG of -30 feet to a starboard tank with a TCG of 70 feet. The resulting starboard draft is 13 feet. The moment required to change list one inch (MCL1") is __________.Not learned 878. A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the heel?Not learned 879. A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a port draft of 11 feet. What is the new starboard draft?Not learned 880. A jack-up, while level in transit at 10 feet draft, experiences a wind gust which results in a starboard draft of 11 feet 6 inches. What is the heel?Not learned 881. A jack-up is trimmed six inches by the bow. The moment required to change trim one inch is 1200 foot-kips. Transferring 200 kips of drill water from a tank with an LCG of 20 feet to a tank with an LCG of 140 feet results in a final trim of __________.Not learned 882. After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. To keep adequate stability you should __________.Not learned 883. After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. The list caused by a flooded leg means your vessel has a(n) __________.Not learned 884. After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Your next course of action should be to __________.Not learned 885. After jacking down your liftboat you have an unexpected list. You find that the only cause of this list must be a flooded leg. Raising the flooded leg further would adversely affect the boats stability by __________.Not learned 886. During jacking operations and transit, empty void spaces in the hull of a jack up MODU provide __________.Not learned 887. What does a jib refer to on a crane?Not learned 888. Where is the keel generally located on a MODU?Not learned 889. Keeping the draft at or below the load line mark will ensure that the vessel has which of the following?Not learned 890. Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will ensure that the unit has adequate __________.Not learned 891. The KG of the DEEP DRILLER increases from 57 feet to 59 feet while drilling at a 60 foot draft during an ice storm. What action should be taken?Not learned 892. How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 893. What is the largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a hospital space?Not learned 894. Which lashing gear used aboard Ro-Ro vessels should be painted or soaked in oil when not in use?Not learned 895. The latch of a safety hook __________.Not learned 896. By law, a user of marijuana shall be subject to which of the following?Not learned 897. Laying down drill pipe from the derrick of a semisubmersible on location reduces the __________.Not learned 898. Lead-acid batteries used aboard "T-Boats" must have terminal connections that are __________.Not learned 899. Leg penetration to depths which require pullout forces greater than that which can be supplied by the buoyancy of the hull may exist in __________.Not learned 900. What is the length of the catenary when the DEEP DRILLER is anchored in 600 feet of water and the anchor line tension is 170 kips?Not learned 901. What does "level-luffing" accomplish during crane operations?Not learned 902. When leveling the elevated COASTAL DRILLER, you may raise the low corner instead of lowering the high corner __________.Not learned 903. On a life float or buoyant apparatus, the life line is __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 904. Life floats and buoyant apparatus may be stowed in tiers, one above the other, to which maximum height? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 905. How shall life floats and buoyant apparatus be marked?(small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 906. Life floats and buoyant apparatus used aboard small passenger vessels shall be marked in clearly legible letters and numbers __________.Not learned 907. What shall each life float on an inspected vessel shall be fitted and equipped with? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 908. Life floats must be equipped with which item? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 909. All life jackets and life buoys shall be marked with the vessel's name in letters at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 910. Each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced __________.Not learned 911. What is the lightweight of the DEEP DRILLER?Not learned 912. The lightweight longitudinal free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.Not learned 913. The lightweight longitudinal moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.Not learned 914. The lightweight transverse free surface moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.Not learned 915. The lightweight transverse moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.Not learned 916. The lightweight vertical moments for the DEEP DRILLER are __________.Not learned 917. The most likely time for oil pollution while bunkering is when __________.Not learned 918. What does the line labeled "MS" indicate on the Great Lakes load line model shown in illustration D031DG below?Not learned 919. The load chart of a crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with boom length to determine the __________.Not learned 920. The load line regulations are administered by the __________.Not learned 921. Load lines for U.S. vessels are assigned by __________.Not learned 922. While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form #3 (drilling), 200 kips are discharged from 60 feet AF0 and 30 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the starboard leg reaction?Not learned 923. While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Drilling), 236 kips are discharged from 80 feet AF0 and 19.79 feet to port of the centerline. What is the resulting starboard leg reaction?Not learned 924. While loaded as shown in the COASTAL DRILLER sample load form 3 (drilling), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?Not learned 925. While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #3 (Preparing to Drill), all of the casing is discharged. What is the change in LCG?Not learned 926. While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new height of the longitudinal metacenter?Not learned 927. While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity?Not learned 928. While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal free surface correction?Not learned 929. While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new longitudinal metacentric height?Not learned 930. While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new position of the longitudinal center of buoyancy?Not learned 931. While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What is the new uncorrected KG?Not learned 932. While loaded as shown in the DEEP DRILLER Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), a severe storm threatens. What is the improvement in KGL if all the mud is dumped?Not learned 933. While loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), all of the liquid mud is dumped. What would be the new draft?Not learned 934. While loaded as shown in Sample Load Form #5 (Survival), an estimated 250 long tons of snow and ice accumulates on the DEEP DRILLER at an estimated height of 127 feet. Assuming no corrective ballasting, what is the rise in the height of the center of gravity corrected for longitudinal free surface effects?Not learned 935. You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the Chemical Data Guide, you could expect to detect a leak by smell if the concentration in air was at least __________.Not learned 936. If you are loading fruit in reefer spaces and you notice that the fruit is beginning to mold, which action should you take?Not learned 937. Which statement is TRUE when loading a tanker?Not learned 938. How long is a credential issued by the U.S. Coast Guard for apprentice mate (steersman) of Towing Vessels valid for?Not learned 939. How long is a credential issued by the U.S. Coast Guard for Master of Towing Vessels valid for?Not learned 940. During a long ocean tow of a jack-up the clearance in the upper guide should be reduced to zero to restrain the leg and eliminate the impact loads from dynamic responses. This is best done by __________.Not learned 941. How long are the records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems required to be kept on board?Not learned 942. The longitudinal distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________.Not learned 943. The longitudinal free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 12,000 kips is 1.20 feet. What would be the new FSCL if 2,400 kips of solid variable loads are added?Not learned 944. The longitudinal location of the center of flotation for the COASTAL DRILLER has a value of __________.Not learned 945. What is the longitudinal shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons is moved ten feet to port and 30 feet forward on a MODU with a displacement of 8,960 long tons?Not learned 946. If the low side bilge pump fails and the high side bilge pump has insufficient suction to dewater the low side of the COASTAL DRILLER when afloat, you should use the __________.Not learned 947. Lowering the hull of the COASTAL DRILLER and refloating should be done in favorable weather conditions with wave heights not more than __________.Not learned 948. On the machinery deck of the COASTAL DRILLER, each watertight compartment has at least one sump valve that can be remotely operated from the __________.Not learned 949. What is the main advantage and chief characteristic of a Steulchen boom?Not learned 950. To maintain a high state of readiness against the possibility of damage and subsequent flooding while aboard the DEEP DRILLER, you should __________.Not learned 951. What is a major health hazard of the product tert-butylamine?Not learned 952. A majority of the crew requests a survey from the American Consul to determine a vessel's seaworthiness. The vessel is found unfit to continue her intended voyage. The Consul allows the vessel to sail to another port where deficiencies can be corrected. The crew must __________.Not learned 953. How many escape routes must normally exist from all general areas accessible to the passengers or where the crew may be quartered or normally employed? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 954. How many fire axes should be carried by a 700 GT cargo vessel, navigating the Great Lakes?Not learned 955. How many independent bilge systems is the COASTAL DRILLER equipped with?Not learned 956. How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the weather decks of a tankship?Not learned 957. How many months after its expiration date may a Coast Guard credential be renewed without retaking the complete exam?Not learned 958. How many portable fire extinguishers are required to be located inside the machinery space of a small passenger vessel?Not learned 959. How many ring life buoys must a small passenger vessel, of less than 65 feet in length, carry?Not learned 960. The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the ball joint angle will exceed 10° or the mooring line tensions will exceed __________.Not learned 961. The marine riser on the DEEP DRILLER should be disconnected if it appears the mooring line tensions will exceed 522 kips or the ball joint angle will exceed __________.Not learned 962. A mariner whose credential has been revoked shall not be issued another credential without which of the following?Not learned 963. As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of Federal Regulations would you find the answer?Not learned 964. The Master may have his/her Merchant Mariner Credential suspended or revoked for which of the following?Not learned 965. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.Not learned 966. When must the Master of a small passenger vessel fitted with loading doors ensure that the doors are closed, watertight and secured?Not learned 967. The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction as necessary __________.Not learned 968. The Master of any vessel bound on a voyage must apply to a district court when an allegation of unseaworthiness has been made to the Master by __________.Not learned 969. The Master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 970. You are Master of a vessel that is sold in a foreign country after discharge of cargo. What is your responsibility to the crew in regards to return to the United States?Not learned 971. A mat-supported jack-up is best suited for drilling in locations with bottom conditions which are __________.Not learned 972. A mat-type jack-up drilling unit is the best selection for __________.Not learned 973. What material is allowed in construction of the hull of a vessel with an integral diesel fuel tank?Not learned 974. Which material should NOT be used to secure cargo on deck for a voyage?Not learned 975. What are the maximum acceptable levels of ice and snow accumulations on the COASTAL DRILLER?Not learned 976. The maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER in normal transit at a draft of 10.5 feet is __________.Not learned 977. If the maximum amount of weight is stored in the pipe racks of the DEEP DRILLER, what is the weight per square foot?Not learned 978. The maximum angle at which the intact stability curves are valid for MODU's is the angle for __________.Not learned 979. The maximum combined drilling load for the COASTAL DRILLER consisting of the combined hook, rotary, setback, and conductor tension, shall not exceed __________.Not learned 980. The maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is indicated by the __________.Not learned 981. If the maximum leg penetration of the COASTAL DRILLER is 75 feet, the water depth value in the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts must be increased by __________.Not learned 982. The maximum load line draft for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.Not learned 983. What is the maximum number of crew members that may be berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel?Not learned 984. What is the maximum number of passengers a "T-Boat" may carry?Not learned 985. What is the maximum permitted hook load for the COASTAL DRILLER when 450 kips are in the setback and no other loads are on the cantilever?Not learned 986. The maximum transverse extension of the cantilever for the COASTAL DRILLER places the rotary __________.Not learned 987. What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet if the winds are less than 70 knots?Not learned 988. What are the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft if the winds are greater than 70 knots?Not learned 989. What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D049DG can lift in the twin mode?Not learned 990. What is the maximum weight the 30 ton capacity pedestal cranes shown in illustration D051DG can lift when married together in twin with the other pair of cranes at the opposite end of the hatch?Not learned 991. The maximum weight for the COASTAL DRILLER in severe storm conditions is __________.Not learned 992. What is the maximum weight permitted on the cantilever pipe racks for the COASTAL DRILLER?Not learned 993. What is the maximum weight that can be placed in the setback area on the COASTAL DRILLER?Not learned 994. What maximum wind velocity is assumed when determining the limits of elevated service for the COASTAL DRILLER?Not learned 995. The mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.Not learned 996. What does it mean to "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo?Not learned 997. What is meant by "spotting the boom"?Not learned 998. What is meant by the term "level-luffing" a crane?Not learned 999. What is meant by the term "luffing the boom" of a crane?Not learned 1000. What is meant by the term "topping the boom"?Not learned 1001. What is the minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in length?Not learned 1002. What is the minimum height of rails on passenger decks of ferryboats, excursion vessels, and vessels of a similar type? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1003. What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a small passenger vessel?Not learned 1004. What is the minimum number of fire axes required on a vessel of 900 GT?Not learned 1005. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT?Not learned 1006. What is the minimum number of hand held, rocket propelled, parachute, red flare, distress signals required on board offshore drilling units?Not learned 1007. What is the minimum required GMT for the DEEP DRILLER in winds less than 70 knots while at a draft of 60 feet?Not learned 1008. What is the minimum standard for making an eye splice in a wire to be used as cargo gear?Not learned 1009. What is the minimum temperature required in order for steam driven pumps to be considered a source of vapor ignition?Not learned 1010. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T what is the purpose of fuses in electric wiring?Not learned 1011. When anyone voluntarily deposits his/her Merchant Mariner Credential with a Coast Guard investigating officer, which of the following is TRUE?Not learned 1012. On board small passenger vessels which is the minimum fill pipe size for a gasoline or diesel tank?Not learned 1013. What does the boom indicator on a crane indicate?Not learned 1014. How does the Coast Guard determine how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat"?Not learned 1015. Maritime Administration personnel may be allowed in the pilothouse and on the navigation bridge. Who is responsible for these personnel while in these areas of the vessel?Not learned 1016. What is the meaning of the term tare weight?Not learned 1017. What is one of the main purposes of dunnage?Not learned 1018. A person is found operating a recreational vessel while under the influence of alcohol. He/she is liable for which penalty?Not learned 1019. Which term describes the process of lowering a boom to a horizontal position and onto its deck support?Not learned 1020. Which is the proper term for a band or collar on the top end of a boom to which the topping lift, midships guy, and outboard guys are secured?Not learned 1021. Which is the proper term used for keeping certain cargoes separated because of their inherent characteristics?Not learned 1022. In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels which describes an "open boat"?Not learned 1023. Which is a requirement of all inlet and discharge fittings below the waterline? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1024. Which statement defines the term "gross tonnage"?Not learned 1025. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1026. Which statement is TRUE when mousing a cargo hook with marline or small line?Not learned 1027. The stowage factor for a cargo is based cubic feet and which other item?Not learned 1028. A survey of refrigerated cargo, to certify that proper methods of stowage were utilized, can be conducted by which organization?Not learned 1029. Which term describes Cargoes that might leak from containers?Not learned 1030. Which term describes damage to cargo caused by fumes or vapors from liquids, gases, or solids?Not learned 1031. Which is TRUE concerning fixed ballast, on small passenger vessels?Not learned 1032. What is used to power most modern pedestal cranes on cargo vessels?Not learned 1033. Each vessel shall be dry-docked or hauled out at intervals not to exceed 2 years if operated in salt water for a total of more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1034. On vessels subject to 46 CFR Subchapter T, which statement is TRUE concerning Certification Expiration Date Stickers?Not learned 1035. Whenever an inspected vessel is dry-docked for major repairs, who should the person in charge of the vessel, the owner or the agent report this to? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1036. On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboardmost deck __________.Not learned 1037. A MODU displacing 28,000 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG 150 feet. The change in KG is __________.Not learned 1038. A MODU displacing 29,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is added at a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?Not learned 1039. A MODU displacing 30,500 long tons has a KG of 60 feet. A weight of 500 long tons is discharged from a VCG of 150 feet. What is the change in KG?Not learned 1040. A MODU lists and trims about the __________.Not learned 1041. The MODU has suffered a casualty which requires an orderly evacuation of the unit using the lifeboats and liferafts. Among the items to accomplish in preparing to evacuate the unit is __________.Not learned 1042. A MODU with the TCG off the longitudinal centerline inclines to an angle of __________.Not learned 1043. For a MODU with transverse inclination, an increase in GMT causes __________.Not learned 1044. The motions of the COASTAL DRILLER during a normal transit when wind speeds are less than 70 knots are limited by __________.Not learned 1045. Movement of liquid in a tank when a drilling barge inclines causes an increase in __________.Not learned 1046. How much additional solid weight could be loaded at a VCG of 189.7 feet on the DEEP DRILLER while loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #4 (Drilling)? Assume ballast added or discharged to maintain draft is done so at 15 feet above the baseline.Not learned 1047. How much drill water is required for transfer between drill water tanks 25 and 26 in order to correct the list of the COASTAL DRILLER with total transverse moments of -6,800 ft-kips?Not learned 1048. How much foam does an A B-III foam extinguisher contain?Not learned 1049. How much non-liquid deck load can the DEEP DRILLER, loaded as shown in the sample Load Form #4 (Drilling), accept if the weight is placed at a VCG of 130 feet? Ballast added or discharged to maintain draft at 60 feet is done so at 10 feet.Not learned 1050. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?Not learned 1051. Who must approve the vessel's trim and stability booklet?Not learned 1052. Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by which means?Not learned 1053. What must cargo tanks be fitted with to prevent over pressurization when loading liquid petroleum products?Not learned 1054. Where must the draft marks be placed on a small passenger vessel?Not learned 1055. Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly?Not learned 1056. You must make a written application to obtain or renew your "T" boat's Certificate of Inspection __________.Not learned 1057. When must the Master of a vessel log the position of load line marks in relation to the surface of the water in the Official Logbook?Not learned 1058. What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the Master and crew?Not learned 1059. Where must a pressure gauge for each fire pump on a tankship be located?Not learned 1060. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter B in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1061. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter E in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1062. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter D in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1063. What is the name of the mark indicated by the letter A in illustration D003DG below?Not learned 1064. The natural rolling period of a drilling barge increases when __________.Not learned 1065. Why is it necessary to extend ventilators of gasoline powered vessels to the bilges?Not learned 1066. A new crewman reports on board. He must be trained in the use of the ship's lifesaving appliances within what time period?Not learned 1067. On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 1068. What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?Not learned 1069. What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and displacement 9,000 short tons?Not learned 1070. A non-symmetrical tank aboard a MODU contains 390 tons of ballast at a VCG of 9.85 feet. Ballast weighing 250 tons and a VCG of 12.0 feet is discharged. The vertical moments for the remaining ballast is __________.Not learned 1071. While on a normal tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 1.20 feet to __________.Not learned 1072. Who should be notified prior to starting up a crane?Not learned 1073. The number of approved adult life jackets that shall be carried is equal to which of the following? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1074. The number of kips necessary to change the true mean draft of a MODU one inch is known as __________.Not learned 1075. How is the number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each cargo space on a cargo vessel computed?Not learned 1076. While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. Including the time required to place the generators on-line, the approximate time required to lower the legs from a TOC (tip-of-can) position of 12.38 feet to 60.5 feet is __________.Not learned 1077. While on an ocean tow, the COASTAL DRILLER is threatened with the approach of a severe storm. The legs should be lowered so that the TOC (tip-of-can) is lowered from 12.38 feet to __________.Not learned 1078. During an ocean tow when the winds are less than 70 knots, the maximum allowable KG for the COASTAL DRILLER is __________.Not learned 1079. While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER experiences a single amplitude roll of 5 degrees. What is the minimum roll period that does not exceed the design limits of the legs?Not learned 1080. While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of 9 seconds. What is the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limits of the legs in good weather?Not learned 1081. While in ocean transit, the COASTAL DRILLER has a roll period of four seconds. What would be the largest angle each side of vertical that does not exceed the design limit of the legs?Not learned 1082. While in ocean transit at a draft of 10 feet, the Coastal Driller has a maximum allowed KG of __________.Not learned 1083. Odorous cargoes are those that __________.Not learned 1084. On Offshore Drilling units, in addition to the life jackets stowed at each berth location, life jackets must be stowed at each work station and __________.Not learned 1085. On offshore drilling units, each EPIRB or SART must be tested once every __________.Not learned 1086. On offshore drilling units each inflatable liferaft that is not intended for davit launching must be stowed so as to float free or be __________.Not learned 1087. On offshore drilling units, each inflatable liferaft must be serviced every __________.Not learned 1088. On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with the __________.Not learned 1089. An offshore drilling unit must have enough inflatable liferafts to accommodate at least what percentage of the persons allowed?Not learned 1090. On offshore drilling units each ring life buoy must be marked, in a contrasting color, with the unit's __________.Not learned 1091. How often is a small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages required to be dry docked?Not learned 1092. You operate a harbor craft on inland waters exclusively. If you regularly service or contact foreign flag vessels in the course of business, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1093. You are operating a liftboat. When beginning to jack down you should __________.Not learned 1094. You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and free of the bottom you should __________.Not learned 1095. You are operating a liftboat. When jacking down and a leg becomes stuck on the bottom, you should __________.Not learned 1096. You are operating a liftboat. In preparation for jacking you should __________.Not learned 1097. You are operating a liftboat. Before starting jacking operations, you should __________.Not learned 1098. When are Operators of Uninspected Passenger Vessels required to keep their Coast Guard credential aboard their vessel?Not learned 1099. For optimum stability during jacking operations, mat ballast tanks or spud cans should be __________.Not learned 1100. In order to determine the fire and explosion hazard data for naphtha, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?Not learned 1101. In order to withstand fluid head pressure on a MODU, stiffeners are often attached to the bulkhead __________.Not learned 1102. The organization that certifies the safe working load of cargo cranes on a vessel is the __________.Not learned 1103. Which organization would conduct a survey of the insulation in a reefer compartment prior to loading cargo?Not learned 1104. Which is TRUE of outlets in gasoline fuel lines of your small vessel?Not learned 1105. Overcarriage is best prevented by __________.Not learned 1106. The overturning forces acting on a floating jack-up are generally dominated by __________.Not learned 1107. The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a "T-Boat" involved in a marine casualty causing injury that requires professional medical treatment must __________.Not learned 1108. Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a capacity of 49 or less persons must __________.Not learned 1109. The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall __________.Not learned 1110. Painters on life floats shall be not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1111. Which part of a cargo boom has the greatest diameter?Not learned 1112. Which part of a conventional cargo gear rig provides for vertical control and positioning of a boom?Not learned 1113. During the passage of a severe storm, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft Strong winds are blowing from the starboard. A careful load form calculation determined that, although the unit is level, the TCG is 2.0 feet to starboard. The value of the wind heeling moment is __________.Not learned 1114. During the passage of a severe storm the maximum vertical moments, including free surface moments, permitted on the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft is __________.Not learned 1115. A passenger vessel of 600 GT is required to have how many fire axes?Not learned 1116. When patching holes in the hull, how can pillows, bedding, and other soft materials be used?Not learned 1117. Peck and Hale gear is used most commonly for securing __________.Not learned 1118. Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function?Not learned 1119. Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function?Not learned 1120. Most pedestal crane power is provided by __________.Not learned 1121. A pelican hook __________.Not learned 1122. What is the penalty for desertion?Not learned 1123. What is the penalty for willfully damaging cargo?Not learned 1124. Which statement is TRUE concerning penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons?Not learned 1125. What is the period of validity of a Merchant Mariner Credential?Not learned 1126. A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition?Not learned 1127. The periodic weight testing of a vessel's cargo booms may be performed by which organization?Not learned 1128. It is permissible to place an eye splice in wire rope used as cargo gear providing the splice is made using __________.Not learned 1129. All personnel boarding a davit-launched liferaft from a MODU should be checked. Which of the following items is of the highest importance to ensure that they are not in possession of or wearing?Not learned 1130. Which piece(s) of equipment is/are required to "twin-up" 30-ton pedestal cranes aboard a crane vessel?Not learned 1131. In the piping systems of a MODU, what type of valve gives the least resistance to fluid flow when fully open?Not learned 1132. The plans, for use during emergencies aboard the DEEP DRILLER, are readily available in the __________.Not learned 1133. For planning purposes, the time required to place the DEEP DRILLER at survival draft from the drilling mode to counter heavy weather is __________.Not learned 1134. The Plimsoll mark on a vessel is used to __________.Not learned 1135. What is the port leg reaction for the COASTAL DRILLER if the total weight is 15,000 kips, LCG is 120 feet, and TCG is 1.0?Not learned 1136. What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 10P to Tank 1P on the DEEP DRILLER, using the Port #1 ballast pump?Not learned 1137. What port-side valves must be open to transfer ballast from Tank 1P to Tank 10P on the DEEP DRILLER using the Port #1 ballast pump?Not learned 1138. Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?Not learned 1139. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being __________.Not learned 1140. Portable fire extinguishers must be provided for the cargo tank area of an unmanned tank barge __________.Not learned 1141. Which portable fire extinguisher is required just outside the exit of the propulsion machinery space of a 75-ton passenger vessel?Not learned 1142. Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank 14 to tank 13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal free surface moments?Not learned 1143. Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank 14 to tank 13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse free surface moments?Not learned 1144. Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank 14 to tank 13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in transverse moments with this transfer?Not learned 1145. Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank 14 to tank 13. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in vertical moments with this transfer?Not learned 1146. Because there is a possibility of fuel oil being discharged overboard from a full fuel oil tank, it is decided to transfer 25 kips from tank 14 to tank 20. See COASTAL DRILLER Sample Load Form Number 1 (Rig Move). What would be the change in longitudinal moments with this transfer?Not learned 1147. It is possible, and sometimes necessary, to strengthen the deck of a vessel for carriage of deck cargo by __________.Not learned 1148. Which is a precaution you should take before bunkering?Not learned 1149. When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the maximum total weight shall not exceed __________.Not learned 1150. When preloading the COASTAL DRILLER, the minimum total weight shall not be less than __________.Not learned 1151. While preloading, the COASTAL DRILLER has a total weight of 21,401 kips. The LM are 2,560,416 ft-kips, and the TM are -6,206 ft-kips. What is the starboard leg reaction?Not learned 1152. During preloading or elevating the COASTAL DRILLER, jacking-up may continue if the total weight is less than __________.Not learned 1153. Preloading tests the soil to the vertical leg reaction that would be imposed by __________.Not learned 1154. The premixed foam agent in fixed and semiportable fire extinguishing systems should be replaced __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1155. In preparation for receiving chilled reefer cargo, the reefer space has been precooled for over twenty-four hours. Loading may begin when the space has been cooled to a temperature between __________.Not learned 1156. You are preparing to load a heavy cargo with abnormal physical dimensions onboard your vessel. Which of the following is of primary importance when planning the load?Not learned 1157. While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The bow leg reaction is __________.Not learned 1158. While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips. LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The port leg reaction is __________.Not learned 1159. While preparing for a storm when elevated, the total weight of the COASTAL DRILLER is 14,150 kips, LM are 1,712,150 ft-kips, and TM are -9,905 ft-kips. The starboard leg reaction is __________.Not learned 1160. Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. KGL is 1.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GML?Not learned 1161. Because of the presence of 75 knot winds, the DEEP DRILLER is at survival draft. KGT is 3.24 feet less than the maximum allowed. What is the value of GMT?Not learned 1162. To prevent damage by and to storage batteries aboard small passenger vessels how should they be mounted?Not learned 1163. Which can be prevented only by segregating two lots of cargo into separate holds?Not learned 1164. What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched liferaft in comparison to an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1165. The primary purpose of a load line is to establish required __________.Not learned 1166. The principal action in changing from transit to survival draft in the event heavy weather threatens is __________.Not learned 1167. Prior to entering a davit-launched liferaft, which of the following checks should make first?Not learned 1168. Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master must __________.Not learned 1169. What is the proper direction of flow through a globe valve when the valve is installed to be in a normally open position?Not learned 1170. To pump bilge water out of the port pump room on the DEEP DRILLER, using the number 2 bilge pump, open port-side valve __________.Not learned 1171. What pump may be used to supplement the bilge pump on the DEEP DRILLER?Not learned 1172. For pumping the bilges, a 54 foot long "T-Boat", which is not a ferry, but is certificated to carry 30 passengers, must be fitted with at least __________.Not learned 1173. What is the purpose of a check valve?Not learned 1174. What is the purpose of the equalizing beam aboard a crane vessel?Not learned 1175. For what purpose may gasoline be used on small passenger vessels?Not learned 1176. It is recommended that drip collectors required on all updraft carburetors be drained by which process? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1177. If reefer spaces are not properly cleaned prior to loading cargo, it will most likely cause __________.Not learned 1178. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.Not learned 1179. When referring to quantity of barite in a P-tank, ullage is the __________.Not learned 1180. Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman's outfits?Not learned 1181. Regulations concerning the stowage, lashing, and securing of timber deck cargoes aboard general cargo vessels may be found in the __________.Not learned 1182. By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected towing vessel must be which of the following?Not learned 1183. What do regulations require of approved buoyant work vests? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1184. Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage, the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier than __________.Not learned 1185. Regulations for Subchapter D cargoes require that venting for cargo tanks in which only grades D or E liquids are to be transported shall, as a MINIMUM, be of which type? (tank barge constructed on or after July 1, 1951)Not learned 1186. What is the Reid vapor pressure of a Grade A flammable liquid?Not learned 1187. In relation to cargo gear, what does "SWL" mean?Not learned 1188. What repair or modification to a MODU would most likely require consulting the construction portfolio?Not learned 1189. What is required for a dry exhaust pipe? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1190. Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if __________.Not learned 1191. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carried, in the vicinity of the radio room exit, on a tank vessel on an international voyage?Not learned 1192. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet?Not learned 1193. What is required to be posted in the pilothouse of a vessel?Not learned 1194. What is required to be posted in the pilothouse of a vessel?Not learned 1195. Who is required to prepare and post Emergency Instructions in a conspicuous place accessible to crew and passengers? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1196. What is required to be stenciled at the heel of a cargo boom?Not learned 1197. What is NOT a requirement of cargo piping installed in tank vessels carrying grade D or E cargo ONLY?Not learned 1198. It is the responsibility of the crane operator to, at all times, be aware of the location of the __________.Not learned 1199. The righting moment created by a MODU that displaces 15,000 tons with a righting arm (GZ) of 0.02 foot is __________.Not learned 1200. Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels on oceans or coastwise routes are required to be what color?Not learned 1201. The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 34 feet aft of the transom and 2 feet to port of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is __________.Not learned 1202. The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 36 feet aft of the transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. The hook load is 300 kips. Considering the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum amount of setback is __________.Not learned 1203. The rotary of the COASTAL DRILLER is located 38 feet aft of transom and 6 feet to starboard of the centerline. With the changes to lightweight shown in the Operating Manual, the maximum allowable hook load is __________.Not learned 1204. The routes to be used during evacuation of the MODU are shown in the __________.Not learned 1205. The safe working load for the assembled cargo gear and the minimum angle to the horizontal for which the gear is designed shall be marked on the __________.Not learned 1206. Safety equipment on board vessels must be approved by the __________.Not learned 1207. Which safety precaution(s) should be observed during crane operations?Not learned 1208. Scouring is the result of __________.Not learned 1209. Scouring usually occurs with soils such as __________.Not learned 1210. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time a small oil spill occurs on deck from a leaking dresser coupler. After shutting down the transfer, the engine room should first be informed, and then which action should be taken?Not learned 1211. Sea water temporarily pumped into tanks to simulate the increased vertical loading of environmental forces is termed __________.Not learned 1212. Where the seabed consists of sand or silt, the most severe potential problem for an independent-leg jack-up can result from __________.Not learned 1213. A seaman deserts the vessel in a foreign port. What should the Master do with any of the deserter's personal effects remaining on board?Not learned 1214. After a seaman is discharged, at the end of the voyage, the final payment of wages due must be made, whichever is earliest, either within 24 hours after the cargo has been discharged, or what other time frame?Not learned 1215. A seaman may not make an allotment to which relation?Not learned 1216. A seaman may have all or part of his wages deposited by allotment to a bank or savings institution. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for this type of allotment?Not learned 1217. Securing cargo by running timbers from an upper support down to the cargo, either vertically or at an angle, is called __________.Not learned 1218. Segregation of cargoes refers to __________.Not learned 1219. When selecting the fuel oil tanks for the "burn-out" of bunkers during a voyage consideration of all of the following must be taken with the EXCEPTION of __________.Not learned 1220. All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacons (EPIRB)?Not learned 1221. Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are sizes __________.Not learned 1222. A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the list?Not learned 1223. A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-09"; Port Aft 68'-09"; Starboard Forward 59'-09"; and Starboard Aft 63'-09". What is the trim?Not learned 1224. A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 64'-9"; Port Aft 68'-9"; Starboard Forward 59'-9"; and Starboard Aft 63'-9". What is the true mean draft?Not learned 1225. A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 74'-09"; Port Aft 78'-09"; Starboard Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the list?Not learned 1226. A semisubmersible, 200 feet in length between draft marks with the LCF 10 feet aft of amidships, records the following drafts: Port Forward 74'-09"; Port Aft 78'-09"; Starboard Forward 69'-09"; and Starboard Aft 73'-09". What is the trim?Not learned 1227. A semisubmersible 300 feet long and an LCF of 0 (amidships) is in transit with hulls awash and an MT1" of 87.67 foot-tons. Work on the BOP (weight 263 long tons) requires that it be moved aft 12 feet. What is the resulting trim change?Not learned 1228. A semisubmersible with displacement of 19,700 long tons and KG of 50.96 feet loads 300 long tons of barite into P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?Not learned 1229. A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 long tons and a KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. What is the change in KG?Not learned 1230. A semisubmersible with a displacement of 20,000 tons and KG of 52 feet discharges 300 long tons of barite from P-tanks located 120 feet above the keel. Ballast added to maintain draft has a VCG of 20 feet. What is the change in KG?Not learned 1231. A semisubmersible displacing 18,000 long tons has an LCG 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50.8 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?Not learned 1232. A semisubmersible, displacing 20,500 long tons, has vertical moments of 1,060,000 foot-long tons. What is the change in KG if 500 long tons are discharged from a VCG of 120 feet?Not learned 1233. A semisubmersible displacing 700,000 cubic feet while floating in sea water (64 pounds per cubic foot) weighs __________.Not learned 1234. A semisubmersible at a draft of 19 feet 9 inches arrives on location planning to deploy eight mooring lines. Each anchor weighs 15 long tons and each mooring line consists of 3,000 feet of 3-inch chain (89.6 lbs/ft). If no ballast corrections are made, what is the expected draft if the average TPI is 60?Not learned 1235. A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 18,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 80 feet to starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?Not learned 1236. A semisubmersible, while floating level, displaces 25,000 long tons. LCG is 2 feet forward of amidships. Bulk, weighing 300 long tons, is placed in P-tanks located 50 feet aft of amidships. What is the new LCG?Not learned 1237. A semisubmersible floating in sea water displaces 717,500 cubic feet. What is the displacement?Not learned 1238. A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft angles of trim is likely to have __________.Not learned 1239. A semisubmersible which flops between port and starboard angles of list is likely to have __________.Not learned 1240. In a semisubmersible MODU, the columns contain void spaces above the waterline that are used principally for __________.Not learned 1241. On a semisubmersible MODU, reserve buoyancy is increased by the presence of void spaces above the waterline in the __________.Not learned 1242. A semisubmersible with a negative GM flops to an angle of __________.Not learned 1243. A semisubmersible with a positive GM, and TCG located starboard of the centerline, inclines to an angle of __________.Not learned 1244. A semisubmersible which will not remain upright and will assume a list either to port or starboard is likely to have __________.Not learned 1245. A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 feet to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is discharged from P-tanks located 50 feet starboard of the centerline. What is the new TCG?Not learned 1246. A semisubmersible, with a TCG of 0.5 foot to port, displaces 20,000 long tons. Bulk, weighing 400 long tons, is loaded in P-tanks located 50 feet starboard to the centerline. What is the new TCG?Not learned 1247. A semisubmersible in transit is at a draft of 19 feet. The depth of the lower hulls is 21 feet. How much bunker fuel at 54.0 lbs/cu ft could be taken on and still provide one foot of freeboard if the TPI is 52.3?Not learned 1248. Semisubmersibles A and B are identical. However, "A" is more tender than "B". This means that "A" relative to "B" has a __________.Not learned 1249. A severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER, and a decision is made to evacuate the unit. If practical, all non-essential personnel should be off the unit in advance of the storm's predicted arrival by __________.Not learned 1250. If a severe storm threatens the COASTAL DRILLER while elevated, the setback in the derrick should be lowered and placed in the pipe rack. Its weight should be accounted for as __________.Not learned 1251. Who shall test every small passenger vessel's steering gear prior to getting underway for the day's operations?Not learned 1252. What is the shift in KG if all the liquid mud is dumped when the DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load #3 (Preparing to Drill)?Not learned 1253. What is the shift in the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000 short tons?Not learned 1254. On a ship's crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of the boom length and __________.Not learned 1255. The ship's drawings for use when the DEEP DRILLER is damaged are available in the __________.Not learned 1256. A shore is a piece of securing dunnage that __________.Not learned 1257. Which is TRUE of the shut off valve at the gasoline tank which can be operated from outside the tank space? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1258. How should you signal the crane operator to dog everything?Not learned 1259. How should you signal the crane operator to hoist?Not learned 1260. How should you signal the crane operator to lower?Not learned 1261. How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom?Not learned 1262. How should you signal the crane operator to lower the boom and raise the load?Not learned 1263. How should you signal the crane operator to move slowly?Not learned 1264. How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom?Not learned 1265. How should you signal the crane operator to raise the boom and lower the load?Not learned 1266. How should you signal the crane operator to stop?Not learned 1267. How should you signal the crane operator to stop in an emergency?Not learned 1268. How should you signal the crane operator to swing?Not learned 1269. How should you signal the crane operator to use the main hoist?Not learned 1270. Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed at night while bunkering at a dock?Not learned 1271. The signal man has both arms extended out, palms down, and is moving his arms back and forth. This is the signal for __________.Not learned 1272. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended downwards, forefinger pointing down, and moves his hand in small horizontal circles. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1273. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, his fingers closed, and his thumb pointing downward. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1274. The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended with his fingers closed and thumb pointing upward. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1275. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended with the palm down and holds this position rigidly. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1276. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended and is pointing his finger in the direction to move the boom. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1277. The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended, thumb pointing downwards, flexing fingers in and out. What does this signal mean?Not learned 1278. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, with the thumb pointing up, and is flexing his fingers in and out for as long as the load movement is desired. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1279. The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps his elbow with one hand and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1280. The signal man assisting the crane operator first taps the top of his head with his fist and then proceeds to use regular signals. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1281. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his forearm vertical, forefinger pointing up, and moves his hand in a small horizontal circle. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1282. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his hands clasped in front of his body. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1283. The signal man assisting the crane operator has one hand occupied and one fist in front of his chest with the thumb pointing outward and is tapping his chest with the heel of his fist. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1284. The signal man assisting the crane operator uses one hand to give any motion signal and places the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. This is the signal to __________.Not learned 1285. Size I and II fire extinguishers are designated as __________.Not learned 1286. A sling is a device used in which operation?Not learned 1287. When must a small passenger vessel of not more than 65 feet in length have a collision bulkhead?Not learned 1288. Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering arrangement. According to the regulations, which is acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering system?Not learned 1289. On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are installed on a/an __________.Not learned 1290. Which statement is TRUE concerning small passenger vessels bunks installed in overnight passenger accommodation spaces?Not learned 1291. Small passenger vessels in coastwise service must carry approved __________.Not learned 1292. Small passenger vessels in cold water ocean routes, that do not meet the standards for collision bulkheads or subdivision in subchapter S, must carry which item(s)? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1293. On small passenger vessels all connections to electrical conductors MUST be __________.Not learned 1294. On small passenger vessels cooking and heating equipment __________.Not learned 1295. On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust lines from an internal combustion engine must be which of the following?Not learned 1296. On small passenger vessels, which device(s) must be fitted to a fuel line's tank connection?Not learned 1297. On small passenger vessels what device must you install under carburetors, other than the downdraft type, to allow ready removal of fuel leakage?Not learned 1298. On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________.Not learned 1299. On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline powered machinery must be __________.Not learned 1300. On small passenger vessels, fuel lines are required to be made of which material(s)?Not learned 1301. On small passenger vessels gasoline tanks must be __________.Not learned 1302. On small passenger vessels a gasoline tank vent pipe must __________.Not learned 1303. On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe is not accessible, its shut off valve __________.Not learned 1304. Which is the requirement on small passenger vessels for each inlet or discharge pipe penetrating the hull less than six inches above the deepest load waterline?Not learned 1305. Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB?Not learned 1306. On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not required __________.Not learned 1307. Small passenger vessels not limited to service during daylight hours must carry __________.Not learned 1308. On Subchapter T small passenger vessels, after loading and prior to departure, the master shall determine the vessel complies with all stability requirements in which of these documents?Not learned 1309. On small passenger vessels how many supply and exhaust ducts are required in each enclosed space containing gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?Not learned 1310. On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration?Not learned 1311. On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose be used in gasoline or diesel fuel lines?Not learned 1312. On small passenger vessels, when must watchmen patrol throughout the vessel to guard against and give alarm in case of fire or other danger?Not learned 1313. A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be marked __________.Not learned 1314. Which is a requirement for each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes having a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB?Not learned 1315. All small passenger vessels operating on lakes, bays, sounds, or river routes on runs of more than 30 minutes are required to carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1316. On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are permitted __________.Not learned 1317. On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats shall be at least __________.Not learned 1318. On small passenger vessels which parts of a water-cooled gasoline or diesel engine must be water-jacketed and cooled?Not learned 1319. In the small passenger vessel regulations, which defines a coastwise route?Not learned 1320. What do the small passenger vessel regulations require when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired pressure vessel?Not learned 1321. Small passenger vessels on rivers routes in cold water must be provided with life floats of an aggregate capacity to accommodate which percentage of persons?Not learned 1322. On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be installed on both gasoline and diesel fuel supply lines __________.Not learned 1323. On small passenger, vessels spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because it __________.Not learned 1324. On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks must be ventilated? Which is the requirement for the ventilation system?Not learned 1325. On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines?Not learned 1326. On small passenger vessels which type of internal combustion engine carburetor does not require a drip collector?Not learned 1327. Small wooden hull passenger vessels, whose routes are limited to coastwise warm water routes on the high seas, must carry approved life floats or buoyant apparatus __________.Not learned 1328. A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is required on which vessel?Not learned 1329. SOLAS requires a lifesaving training manual be provided in each crew cabin or in which other location?Not learned 1330. The sounding level of 12 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 1S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 5.5 feet. What is the weight of the mud?Not learned 1331. The sounding level of 17 lb. per gallon mud in mud pit 2S of the COASTAL DRILLER is 7.75 feet. What is the weight of the mud?Not learned 1332. Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire detection system?Not learned 1333. Why do spaces containing batteries require good ventilation?Not learned 1334. The space containing the cylinders for the carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguishing system must be designed to preclude an anticipated ambient temperature in excess of which temperature?Not learned 1335. Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage tanks on small passenger vessels should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges because __________.Not learned 1336. A spreader bar is used to __________.Not learned 1337. The stability which exists after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a MODU is called __________.Not learned 1338. The stability of a semisubmersible MODU would be seriously reduced if flooding occurred in the __________.Not learned 1339. Starting motors, generators, and other spark producing devices should be mounted as high above the bilges as possible to __________.Not learned 1340. Starting motors, generators, and any other spark producing devices shall be __________.Not learned 1341. Which statement concerning dual-tonnage vessels is TRUE?Not learned 1342. Which statement about the deck line is TRUE?Not learned 1343. Which statement is FALSE regarding the operation of a crane?Not learned 1344. Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE?Not learned 1345. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations?Not learned 1346. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations?Not learned 1347. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding the operation of a crane?Not learned 1348. Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank vessels?Not learned 1349. Which statement is TRUE concerning fire hose on a small passenger vessel?Not learned 1350. Which statement is TRUE concerning the number of portable fire extinguishers required at the operating station of a small passenger vessel? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1351. Which statement is TRUE concerning a power driven fire pump on board a small passenger vessel?Not learned 1352. Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1353. Which statement is TRUE concerning a tagline as used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1354. Which statement is TRUE concerning the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when completing a quad lift?Not learned 1355. On uninspected vessels which statement is TRUE concerning work vests?Not learned 1356. Which statement is TRUE regarding the operation of a crane?Not learned 1357. Which statement is TRUE with respect to the load line markings shown in illustration D031DG below?Not learned 1358. Which statement is TRUE about the use of a "gob rope"?Not learned 1359. Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in petroleum product tanks is TRUE?Not learned 1360. Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least what temperature?Not learned 1361. Storage batteries on "T-Boats" must be located __________.Not learned 1362. In storm conditions, when the environmental conditions are such that the DEEP DRILLER has disconnected the marine riser, the two leeward mooring lines should be __________.Not learned 1363. In the stowage of deck cargo, "cribbing" is __________.Not learned 1364. The strictest load line regulations apply to which type of vessel?Not learned 1365. For stronger leg support when the COASTAL DRILLER is elevated, locate a set of horizontal leg braces as near as possible to the __________.Not learned 1366. Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.Not learned 1367. What is NOT surveyed at an annual load line survey?Not learned 1368. Survival craft required on a steel small passenger vessel operating in cold water must __________.Not learned 1369. Switchboards shall be __________ (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1370. The tank barge on which you are preparing to load petroleum is required to have on board one B-II fire extinguisher. What does NOT meet this requirement?Not learned 1371. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is in which condition?Not learned 1372. On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of more than __________.Not learned 1373. Which term describes goods having a stowage factor below 40?Not learned 1374. When threatened with a severe storm while operating in 250 feet of water, the COASTAL DRILLER should be placed at an air gap of __________.Not learned 1375. The time required to ballast the DEEP DRILLER to survival draft, when threatened with heavy weather, while under tow, is about __________.Not learned 1376. The total leg load reactions on an independent leg, self-elevating unit include static and __________.Not learned 1377. What is the total number of approved low-velocity water spray ("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship?Not learned 1378. While being towed at a 19.5-foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude pitching of 7.5 degrees with an 8 second period. You should __________.Not learned 1379. While being towed at a 19.5-foot draft, the DEEP DRILLER experiences single amplitude rolls of 10° with a period of 8 seconds. You should __________.Not learned 1380. During transfer operations, a quantity of propylamine spills on deck. According to the Chemical Data Guide, what is the correct reaction?Not learned 1381. You are transferring a cargo of ethyl chloride and a small amount spills into the water around your vessel. What does the Chemical Data Guide indicate is the solubility of ethyl chloride in water?Not learned 1382. While in transit, the DEEP DRILLER suffers flooding in the port pump room. Both port bilge pumps are inadequate to dewater the pump room. You may supplement the bilge pumps by using the __________.Not learned 1383. While in transit at a draft of 10.5 feet, the COASTAL DRILLER has a KGT of 60.0 feet. What is the GMT?Not learned 1384. While in transit at a draft of 20.5 feet, the DEEP DRILLER has a KGT of 65.00 feet. What is the GMT?Not learned 1385. The transverse distance between draft marks for the DEEP DRILLER is __________.Not learned 1386. The transverse free surface correction of a floating MODU displacing 24,000 long tons is 1.0 foot. When the MODU is deballasted by discharging 8,000 long tons of ballast, the FSMT decreases by 4,000 ft-long tons. What is the new FSCT?Not learned 1387. What is the transverse shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000 short tons?Not learned 1388. What is the trim of a jack-up with forward draft of 11 feet and aft draft of 13.75 feet?Not learned 1389. What is the trim of a jack-up with a forward draft of 12 feet and an after draft of 13 feet?Not learned 1390. The true mean draft of a MODU is the draft __________.Not learned 1391. Which is a TRUE statement concerning the examining of cargo equipment at the time of a vessels Inspection for Certification?Not learned 1392. A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo without the permission of the __________.Not learned 1393. When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, you should __________.Not learned 1394. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to take which action?Not learned 1395. When a two-leg sling is used to lift a load, a sling 40 feet long is better than one of 30 feet because the __________.Not learned 1396. Which type of fire extinguishers are permitted on inspected vessels? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1397. Which type of hull damage on a floating MODU should be repaired first?Not learned 1398. What are the type and number of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit?Not learned 1399. On what type of pump would you find an impeller?Not learned 1400. Which type of ventilation is required for enclosed spaces containing gasoline, machinery, or fuel tanks? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1401. Which U.S. Government agency can suspend or revoke a Merchant Mariner Credential for violating the load line act?Not learned 1402. Under U.S. law, what is the penalty for assaulting the Master?Not learned 1403. Where are the U.S. regulations governing the sleeping accommodations of a cargo vessel found?Not learned 1404. When underway at a draft of 10.5 feet in a severe storm, the COASTAL DRILLER has a maximum allowed KG of __________.Not learned 1405. While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has an allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the GML?Not learned 1406. While underway in a field move with the lower hulls awash, a semisubmersible has a maximum allowable KG of 63.69 feet; KMT is 65.12 and KML is 64.92. The KGT is 56.13 and KGL is 55.89. What is the margin on the maximum allowable KG?Not learned 1407. If uniformly distributed in the cantilever pipe rack of the COASTAL DRILLER, how much pipe can be placed in the cantilever pipe rack area when the cantilever has been extended 40 feet aft of the transom?Not learned 1408. Unless the COI is endorsed for adults only, there shall be provided a number of approved life jackets suitable for children equal to at least __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1409. Unless otherwise stated, the term "approved" when applied to a small passenger vessel's equipment, means approved by which organization?Not learned 1410. U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be items of safety equipment and may be worn by members of the crew. When can crewmembers wear these work vests?Not learned 1411. Use of air gaps in excess of that stated in the Limits of Elevated Service for the COASTAL DRILLER could result in __________.Not learned 1412. In using the Allowable Wind and Wave Charts for the COASTAL DRILLER, leg penetration is assumed to be less than __________.Not learned 1413. You are using an automatic tension winch by yourself. If you get caught in the turns of the line as they lead into the gypsyhead __________.Not learned 1414. What is the value of KML for the DEEP DRILLER at a draft of 60 feet?Not learned 1415. What is the Vapor pressure of ethylene oxide at 46°C?Not learned 1416. On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how many international shore connection flange(s) is the vessel required to maintain onboard?Not learned 1417. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.Not learned 1418. A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a collision bulkhead if it carries more than __________.Not learned 1419. A vessel has an amidships superstructure. Which location would be most suitable for main deck stowage of vehicles?Not learned 1420. A vessel carrying passengers for hire shall have on board an approved life jacket __________.Not learned 1421. A vessels Certificate of Inspection will show which information? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1422. If your vessel is certificated to carry 10 persons, including both adults and children, how many life jackets are you required to carry on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1423. Your vessel is certificated to carry 50 persons. Which are you required to have onboard? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1424. When a vessel is not in compliance with its Certificate of Inspection, which certificate may be issued to allow its movement to a repair facility? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1425. If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically-activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1426. For vessels on international voyages fitted with cargo gear, an initial test of the units under a proof load shall be conducted. Subsequent tests and exams of the same nature shall be carried out at what time interval?Not learned 1427. A vessel is found to be seaworthy after a complaint in writing to the American Consul by the Chief and Second Mates. The cost of the survey is to be paid by the __________.Not learned 1428. Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to __________.Not learned 1429. Which vessel is most likely to be loaded full but not down?Not learned 1430. All vessels not limited to daylight service shall be fitted with a ring life buoy __________.Not learned 1431. Where on a vessel are the load line markings shown in illustration D031DG inscribed?Not learned 1432. A vessel is loaded to her summer marks for a voyage from Montreal, Canada to Duluth, MN via the Great Lakes System. The voyage has been estimated to take nine (9) days. If the vessel departs Montreal on September 28th, which of the following statements is TRUE?Not learned 1433. Your vessel must have a B-II fire extinguisher. Which extinguisher fulfills this requirement? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1434. Which vessel must carry a compass on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1435. Vessels in ocean service shall carry which item? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1436. Vessels in ocean service shall carry sufficient life floats for __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1437. Vessels operating in warm water whose routes are restricted to 20 miles from a harbor of safe refuge shall carry life floats or buoyant apparatus for not less than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1438. Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1439. Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are __________.Not learned 1440. If your vessel is required to have a fire ax on board, where should it be located? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1441. On vessels that are required to have fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems, the controls to operate the system shall be installed in an accessible location. Which is the required location? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1442. When a vessel is required to have a power-driven fire pump, the pump may also be used for which task? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1443. As per Small Passenger Vessels regulations, all vessels not required to have a power-driven fire pump shall carry which item(s)?Not learned 1444. Your vessel is required to have a slop chest. Which of the following articles is NOT required by law to be carried in the slop chest?Not learned 1445. Your vessel has the symbol shown in illustration D022DG below inscribed on the side. Which statement concerning this symbol is TRUE?Not learned 1446. Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________.Not learned 1447. Your vessel is on a voyage from Ogdensburg, NY, to Chicago, IL, via the Great Lakes. The date is October 3 of the current year. If your vessel is subject to the load line requirements, using illustration D031DG below, to which of her marks should she be loaded?Not learned 1448. On your vessel, a wire rope for the cargo gear shows signs of excessive wear and must be replaced. In ordering a new wire for this 10-ton boom, what safety factor should you use?Not learned 1449. It is vital to the safety of the elevated COASTAL DRILLER that the hull be kept above __________.Not learned 1450. Wages due a seaman may be attached by the court for which reason?Not learned 1451. When water-cooled engines are installed on small passenger vessels, the cooling system __________.Not learned 1452. What is the weight of 100 barrels of 17 pound per gallon drilling mud?Not learned 1453. Weights added or discharged at the center of flotation on the COASTAL DRILLER while floating will change the __________.Not learned 1454. What is the weight in long tons of 180 barrels of 15 pound per gallon drilling mud?Not learned 1455. A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals used on a MODU would be recorded in the __________.Not learned 1456. What is a wet cargo?Not learned 1457. A "wet cargo" refers to __________.Not learned 1458. Whenever a "T-Boat" is hauled out for repairs or alterations affecting its safety, which is/are the appropriate action(s) to take?Not learned 1459. Whenever practicable, where must the Certificate of Inspection be posted? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1460. Which wire rope purchase(s) is/are optional with a 30-Ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1461. Which wire rope purchases may be used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?Not learned 1462. The wire rope used for cargo handling on board your vessel has a safe working load of eight tons. It shall be able to withstand a breaking test load of __________.Not learned 1463. All wire rope used in shipboard cargo gear must be identified and described in a certificate. The certificate shall certify all of the following EXCEPT the __________.Not learned 1464. The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.Not learned 1465. What would be an example of a B-I extinguisher? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1466. When would it NOT be necessary to immediately notify the U.S. Coast Guard? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 1467. What would be prima facie evidence of unseaworthiness?Not learned 1468. It would be prudent to perform which of the following actions prior to the commencement of bunkering?Not learned 1469. What would you use to adjust the height of a cargo boom?Not learned 1470. How can the accuracy of an azimuth circle be checked?Not learned 1471. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made __________.Not learned 1472. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard vessels?Not learned 1473. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?Not learned 1474. What causes compass deviation?Not learned 1475. What causes variation in a compass?Not learned 1476. When changing from a compass course to a true course, which should you apply?Not learned 1477. The chart indicates the variation was 3°45'E in 1988, and the annual change is increasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply?Not learned 1478. The chart indicates the variation was 3°45'W in 1988, and the annual change is decreasing 6'. If you use the chart in 1991 how much variation should you apply?Not learned 1479. What is the compass course of a vessel heading NNE?Not learned 1480. What is the compass course of a vessel heading ESE?Not learned 1481. What is the compass course of a vessel heading NNW?Not learned 1482. What is the compass course of a vessel heading NW?Not learned 1483. What is the compass course of a vessel heading WNW?Not learned 1484. What is the compass course of a vessel heading SW?Not learned 1485. The compass deviation changes as the vessel changes __________.Not learned 1486. Compass error is equal to the __________.Not learned 1487. The compass error of a magnetic compass that has no deviation is __________.Not learned 1488. Which is TRUE if the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same?Not learned 1489. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________.Not learned 1490. Which of the following compensates for errors introduced when a vessel heels over?Not learned 1491. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel?Not learned 1492. By convention, what color is the south pole of a magnet painted?Not learned 1493. By convention, the Earth's south magnetic pole is which color?Not learned 1494. You are on course 042°T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 1495. You are on course 209°T. In order to check the longitude of your vessel, you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 1496. You are on course 138°T. To check the latitude of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 1497. You are on course 312°T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 1498. You are on course 238°T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 1499. You are on course 303°T. To check the speed of your vessel you should observe a celestial body on which bearing?Not learned 1500. Which of the following should be done when crossing the magnetic equator?Not learned 1501. Which describes a line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast?Not learned 1502. Deviation is the angle between the __________.Not learned 1503. Deviation is caused by __________.Not learned 1504. Deviation in a compass is caused by which of the following?Not learned 1505. Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings may be removed by the __________.Not learned 1506. The difference in degrees between true north and magnetic north is called __________.Not learned 1507. Which is TRUE for the directive force acting on a gyrocompass?Not learned 1508. Which term defines the distance in miles between the circle of equal altitude for the observed altitude (Ho) and the circle of equal altitude for the computed altitude (Hc)?Not learned 1509. Eight points of a compass are equal to how many degrees?Not learned 1510. To find a magnetic compass course from a true course what must you apply?Not learned 1511. What does the Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensate for?Not learned 1512. The Flinders bar and the quadrantal spheres should be tested for permanent magnetism at what interval?Not learned 1513. Which of the following is the most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway?Not learned 1514. Which of the following describes gyrocompass repeaters which reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass?Not learned 1515. Which of the following describes the principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment?Not learned 1516. When is the greatest directive horizontal force exerted on the magnetic compass of a vessel?Not learned 1517. If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to be made to gyrocompass headings to obtain true headings?Not learned 1518. What is the gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement in OTHER than an east-west direction?Not learned 1519. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________.Not learned 1520. What is the term used for the horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line axis line of the magnetic compass?Not learned 1521. The MOST important feature of the material used for making the binnacle of a standard magnetic compass is that it is __________.Not learned 1522. By what means are indications of the master gyrocompass sent to remote repeaters?Not learned 1523. Where is induced magnetism found?Not learned 1524. A latitude line will be obtained by observing a body __________.Not learned 1525. The line connecting the points of the earth's surface where there is no dip is the __________.Not learned 1526. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a __________.Not learned 1527. The line which connects the points of zero magnetic dip is __________.Not learned 1528. A line of position is __________.Not learned 1529. A line of position from a celestial observation is a segment of which choice?Not learned 1530. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n) __________.Not learned 1531. Lines of position may be __________.Not learned 1532. Magnets in the binnacles of magnetic compasses are used to reduce which effect?Not learned 1533. What do the magnets placed in horizontal trays in the compass binnacle compensate for?Not learned 1534. Before a magnetic compass is adjusted certain correctors must be checked to ensure that they are free of permanent magnetism. Which are the correctors?Not learned 1535. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's, which statement is TRUE?Not learned 1536. What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct for both permanent and induced effects of magnetism?Not learned 1537. Which is TRUE concerning magnetic compass deviation?Not learned 1538. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the Earth's total magnetic force. Where is this magnetic force the GREATEST?Not learned 1539. What is magnetic dip a measurement of?Not learned 1540. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron because __________.Not learned 1541. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________.Not learned 1542. Which term is given to magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of an external field?Not learned 1543. How many points are there in a compass card?Not learned 1544. At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the __________.Not learned 1545. One point of a compass is equal to how many degrees?Not learned 1546. Permanent magnetism is caused by __________.Not learned 1547. The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in polarity due to __________.Not learned 1548. The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in strength due to __________.Not learned 1549. The permanent magnetism of a vessel may change in strength due to __________.Not learned 1550. The points on the earth's surface where the magnetic dip is 90° are __________.Not learned 1551. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to compensate for __________.Not learned 1552. Quadrantal error in a gyrocompass has its GREATEST effect on which of the following?Not learned 1553. A radar range to a small, charted object such as a light will provide a line of position in which form?Not learned 1554. The radius of a circle of equal altitude of a body is equal to the __________.Not learned 1555. The radius of a circle of equal altitude for a body equals the body's __________.Not learned 1556. What is the reaction of a gyrocompass to an applied force known as?Not learned 1557. You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is NOT required to ensure that a correct trace is recorded?Not learned 1558. If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the uncorrected deviation due to permanent magnetism __________.Not learned 1559. A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in the binnacle is used to compensate for __________.Not learned 1560. The spin axis of a gyroscope tends to remain fixed in space in the direction in which it is started. How does this gyroscope become north seeking so that it can be used as a compass?Not learned 1561. How does the standard magnetic compass heading differ from the true heading?Not learned 1562. A star is observed at lower transit. The line of position derived from this sight is __________.Not learned 1563. Which statement about the Flinders bar of the magnetic compass is CORRECT?Not learned 1564. Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE?Not learned 1565. Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE?Not learned 1566. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check. What would the azimuth have to be?Not learned 1567. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe the Sun for a speed check. What would the azimuth have to be?Not learned 1568. What is a system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass called?Not learned 1569. Which term is given to the vertical angle between the horizontal and the magnetic line of force?Not learned 1570. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be broken down into a series of components which are given which term?Not learned 1571. A true bearing of a charted object, when plotted on a chart, will establish a __________.Not learned 1572. True heading differs from magnetic heading by __________.Not learned 1573. Variation is the angular measurement between which two points?Not learned 1574. Variation is a compass error that you __________.Not learned 1575. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________.Not learned 1576. The vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field causes induced magnetism in vertical soft iron. This changes with latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of the deviation?Not learned 1577. A vessel heading NW is on a course of __________.Not learned 1578. A vessel heading WNW is on which course?Not learned 1579. On 13 October your vessel's 1722 zone time DR position is LAT 27°36'S, LONG 136°16'E, when an amplitude of the Sun is observed. The Sun's center is on the celestial horizon and bears 266° per standard magnetic compass. Variation in the area is 2°W. The chronometer reads 08h 24m 19s and is 01m 43s fast. What is the deviation of the standard magnetic compass?Not learned 1580. On 14 January your 0746 zone time DR position is LAT 26°37.0'N, LONG 153°19.0'W. At that time, you observe the Sun bearing 123°psc. The chronometer reads 05h 49m 16s, and the chronometer error is 02m 29s fast. The variation is 3°W. What is the deviation of the standard magnetic compass?Not learned 1581. At 1444 ZT on 28 July, in DR position LAT 40° 56.8' N, LONG 167° 12.4' E, you observe an amplitude of the Moon. The upper limb of the Moon is on the visible horizon and bears 299.3° psc. The variation is 1° E. What is the deviation?Not learned 1582. On 27 June your vessel's 0816 ZT DR position is LAT 22°14'S, LONG 53°52'W, when an azimuth of the Sun is observed. The chronometer time of the sight is 12h 15m 02s, and the Sun is bearing 047.5° per standard magnetic compass. The chronometer error is 00m 46s slow, and the variation in the area is 6.0°E. What is the deviation of the standard magnetic compass?Not learned 1583. On 28 July your 1937 zone time DR position is LAT 26°13.0' N, LONG 78°27.0' E. At that time, you observe Deneb bearing 048.7°pgc. The chronometer reads 02h 37m 42s, and the chronometer error is 00m 15s fast. The variation is 4°W. What is the gyro error?Not learned 1584. On 30 July, your 0200 zone time (ZD +4) DR position is LAT 43°48'N, LONG 78°00 W. At that time, you observe Polaris bearing 008.7°psc. The chronometer time of the observation is 05h 58m 07s, and the chronometer is 0m 23s slow. The variation is 10.5°W. What is the deviation of the magnetic compass?Not learned 1585. On 31 October your 1700 zone time DR position is LAT 27°17.0'N, LONG 116°10.0'W, when an amplitude of the Sun is observed. The Sun's center is on the visible horizon and bears 246.5° per standard magnetic compass. Variation in the area is 8.5°E. The chronometer reads 01h 01m 23s and the chronometer error is 01m 54s slow. What is the deviation of the standard compass?Not learned 1586. On 4 July your vessel's 1722 zone time DR position is LAT 34°30'S, LONG 174°48'E, when an amplitude of the Sun is observed. The sun's center is on the visible horizon and bears 282° per standard magnetic compass. Variation in the area is 17.2°E. The chronometer reads 05h 21m 48s and is 02m 01s fast. What is the deviation of the compass?Not learned 1587. On 7 April in DR position LAT 27°42.0'N, LONG 114°03.0'W, you observe an amplitude of the Sun. The Sun's center is on the celestial horizon and bears 076°psc. The chronometer reads 02h 10m 17s and is 01m 52s slow. Variation in the area is 8°E. What is the deviation of the standard magnetic compass?Not learned 1588. On 7 December your 0350 ZT position is LAT 35°42'N, LONG 17°38'E. You observe Polaris bearing 359.7°pgc. At the time of the observation the helmsman noted that he was heading 016°pgc and 014°psc. The variation is 1°E. What is the deviation for that heading?Not learned 1589. You depart LAT 33°45.0'N, LONG 118°30.0'W, and steam 2216 miles on course 250°T. What is the longitude of your arrival by Mercator sailing?Not learned 1590. You depart LAT 40°42.0'N, LONG 74°01.0'W, and steam 3365.6 miles on course 118°T. What is the longitude of your arrival by Mercator sailing?Not learned 1591. You depart LAT 49°45.0'N, LONG 06°35.0'W, and steam 3599 miles on course 246.5°T. What is the longitude of your arrival by Mercator sailing?Not learned 1592. You receive a distress call from a vessel reporting her position as LAT 30°21'N, LONG 88°34'W. Your position is LAT 24°30'N, LONG 83°00'W. Determine the true course and distance to the distress scene by Mercator sailing.Not learned 1593. Your vessel departs LAT 32°45'N, LONG 79°50'W, and is bound for LAT 34°21'S, LONG 18°29'E. Determine the distance by Mercator sailing.Not learned 1594. A vessel steams 3312 miles on course 282°T from LAT 34°24'S, LONG 18°18'E. What is the latitude and longitude of the point of arrival by Mercator sailing?Not learned 1595. A 50-foot passenger vessel not limited to daylight operation is required to be equipped with at least which item?Not learned 1596. Your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is certificated for what type of service?Not learned 1597. A 750-foot passenger vessel operating on the Great Lakes, not subject to SOLAS regulations, is required to carry how many ring life buoys?Not learned 1598. You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?Not learned 1599. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?Not learned 1600. You have abandoned your vessel and are the person in charge of lifeboat No. 2. Which procedure should be followed when landing a boat under oars through a slight surf?Not learned 1601. Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving which item?Not learned 1602. Aboard ship, which term is given to the vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates?Not learned 1603. According to the T-Boat regulations the reason for providing adequate ventilation for a battery storage area is to prevent which condition from occurring?Not learned 1604. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at 30-month intervals?Not learned 1605. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken with the falls no later than 5-year intervals?Not learned 1606. According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?Not learned 1607. Which action must be taken annually concerning inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels?Not learned 1608. Which action should be taken once fueling has been completed?Not learned 1609. After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, which is the appropriate action to take?Not learned 1610. What is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion?Not learned 1611. What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?Not learned 1612. What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?Not learned 1613. What is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion?Not learned 1614. Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?Not learned 1615. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?Not learned 1616. With the air supply on, which is TRUE concerning the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat?Not learned 1617. If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum height that the survival craft could be dropped into the water?Not learned 1618. Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you must be very careful __________.Not learned 1619. Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 1620. Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel refers to which term?Not learned 1621. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is known by which term?Not learned 1622. What is another name for the garboard strake?Not learned 1623. Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?Not learned 1624. When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.Not learned 1625. What is the best indication of the loading of a diesel engine?Not learned 1626. What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?Not learned 1627. Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls under which condition?Not learned 1628. Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.Not learned 1629. What does blowing tubes accomplish?Not learned 1630. Which command means to complete the stroke and level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft?Not learned 1631. The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________.Not learned 1632. Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?Not learned 1633. What is a butt welded joint's strength compared to the base metal?Not learned 1634. To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.Not learned 1635. How is the Camber in a ship usually measured?Not learned 1636. The carburetor is placed on the engine to __________.Not learned 1637. Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002. One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft must be re-inspected no later than __________.Not learned 1638. A carling is used aboard ship to accomplish which function?Not learned 1639. CATEGORY I EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by __________.Not learned 1640. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.Not learned 1641. The ceiling is __________.Not learned 1642. The center of gravity of a freely swinging load suspended from a pedestal crane acts as if it were located at the __________.Not learned 1643. With certain exceptions a suitable rescue boat is required on which vessel?Not learned 1644. Which is TRUE concerning a chock?Not learned 1645. You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be __________.Not learned 1646. Which describes a cofferdam?Not learned 1647. How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two-cycle diesel engine?Not learned 1648. When in command of a lifeboat under oars, what does the command "Backwater" mean?Not learned 1649. You have been in-command of a lifeboat since abandoning ship three days prior and land has been sighted ahead. Under which circumstances would you attempt beaching your lifeboat through a heavy surf?Not learned 1650. Which is the most common type of davit found on ocean service merchant vessels today?Not learned 1651. What condition will result in the automatic shutdown of a diesel engine?Not learned 1652. A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.Not learned 1653. The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.Not learned 1654. The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.Not learned 1655. What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?Not learned 1656. A covered liferaft has very limited maneuverability. Which of the following is True concerning the beaching of a liferaft in a rough surf?Not learned 1657. If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "Hold water" you should __________.Not learned 1658. When does a cylinder in a two-cycle engine experience combustion?Not learned 1659. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure. To control this, you should __________.Not learned 1660. The davit launched life raft can be boarded __________.Not learned 1661. Which davit type may be operated by one person?Not learned 1662. The decision has been made to make landfall through a slight surf in an oar-propelled lifeboat. How should the sea anchor be utilized?Not learned 1663. A deck beam does NOT __________.Not learned 1664. The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist which stresses?Not learned 1665. Why are deck beams cambered on a vessel?Not learned 1666. Which defines the function of a spark arrestor?Not learned 1667. Which defines the "margin plate"?Not learned 1668. By definition, a "spar deck" is the __________.Not learned 1669. Which describes the floors aboard a ship?Not learned 1670. What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or deck plating?Not learned 1671. How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?Not learned 1672. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.Not learned 1673. How are all diesel engines classified?Not learned 1674. Why are diesel engines considered safer than gasoline engines?Not learned 1675. You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. Which action should you take FIRST?Not learned 1676. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.Not learned 1677. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.Not learned 1678. When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.Not learned 1679. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.Not learned 1680. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?Not learned 1681. A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance. How often is this drill required to be conducted?Not learned 1682. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, which is the best way to haul it back aboard?Not learned 1683. The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.Not learned 1684. What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine that is at normal operating temperature?Not learned 1685. What is the effect of spreading oil on the open sea?Not learned 1686. How are electric generators protected against overload?Not learned 1687. If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken?Not learned 1688. After an engine is started which is the best action(s) to take?Not learned 1689. What does "EPIRB" stand for?Not learned 1690. The exhaust pipe must be gas tight throughout its entire length otherwise __________.Not learned 1691. When is it recommended that the external flotation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 1692. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?Not learned 1693. What factor is essential to the proper operation of a radiator cooled engine?Not learned 1694. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?Not learned 1695. The falls on gravity davits are __________.Not learned 1696. What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on a vessel?Not learned 1697. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?Not learned 1698. To find the cause of a gasoline engine's failure to start, you should take which action?Not learned 1699. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.Not learned 1700. When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?Not learned 1701. The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by which item?Not learned 1702. Which of the following aspects of a flooded space will most adversely affect transverse stability if it is subject to free communication?Not learned 1703. Which of the following best defines the term "chock"?Not learned 1704. Which of the following defines the difference between the free-floating displacement and the KB of a grounded vessel?Not learned 1705. Which of the following describes the function of a sea anchor when utilized as a tool for beaching a lifeboat through surf?Not learned 1706. Which of the following grounding scenarios would have the least damaging effect on vessel stability?Not learned 1707. Which of the following is one of the most important safety procedures that should be adhered to prior to starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat?Not learned 1708. Which of the following is a requirement of the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat?Not learned 1709. Once the liferaft has cleared the vessel, which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency situation?Not learned 1710. The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.Not learned 1711. Four-cycle diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers, or which other means?Not learned 1712. Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.Not learned 1713. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.Not learned 1714. The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with the increase of which item?Not learned 1715. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks accomplish which task?Not learned 1716. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining which minimal speed if it is not towing other survival craft?Not learned 1717. What is the function of bottles of compressed air in a lifeboat?Not learned 1718. What is NOT a function of the steam drum of a marine water-tube boiler?Not learned 1719. The garboard strake is the __________.Not learned 1720. If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.Not learned 1721. The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of controlling the speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at __________.Not learned 1722. Where are the grab rails of a metal lifeboat normally located?Not learned 1723. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.Not learned 1724. What does the gross tonnage of a vessel indicate?Not learned 1725. The half-breadth plan is __________.Not learned 1726. Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture. Floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months?Not learned 1727. Heave is motion along which axis?Not learned 1728. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, what should the other individuals in the boat do?Not learned 1729. The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.Not learned 1730. Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known by which term?Not learned 1731. A hydraulic accumulator aboard a MODU is designed to __________.Not learned 1732. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?Not learned 1733. In illustration D008SA below, what type of davits are displayed?Not learned 1734. In illustration D011SA below, what does the item labeled number (1) operate?Not learned 1735. In illustration D012SA below, what is the mechanism that will release the tricing pendant?Not learned 1736. In illustration D012SA below, what will be released when pulling on line number 5?Not learned 1737. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the ballast bags?Not learned 1738. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external lifelines?Not learned 1739. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the external recognition light, which can be seem up to two miles?Not learned 1740. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the floating sheath knife?Not learned 1741. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the sea anchor?Not learned 1742. In illustration D014SA below, which item number correctly identifies the towing connection?Not learned 1743. In illustration D014SA below, which item is the righting strap?Not learned 1744. In illustration D014SA below, what number is the sea painter?Not learned 1745. In illustration D014SA below, where would you find the knife?Not learned 1746. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the hydrostatic release?Not learned 1747. In illustration D015SA below, which item number correctly identifies the weak link?Not learned 1748. In the illustration, the line indicated by number 4 is connected to which of the followingNot learned 1749. In illustration D016SA below, what number indicates the frapping line?Not learned 1750. In illustration D031DG below, what does the single line located directly above the diamond indicate?Not learned 1751. In illustration D033DG below, what is the area indicated by the letter G is known as?Not learned 1752. In illustration D033DG below, what is the joint indicated by letter D?Not learned 1753. In illustration D033DG below, what does the letter "M" indicate?Not learned 1754. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a butt?Not learned 1755. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates the garboard strake?Not learned 1756. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a longitudinal?Not learned 1757. In illustration D033DG below, which letter indicates a seam?Not learned 1758. In illustration D033DG below, the lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. Why is this done?Not learned 1759. In illustration D033DG below, what is the plating indicated by the letter N known as?Not learned 1760. In illustration D033DG below, what is the run of plating labeled A known as?Not learned 1761. In illustration D033DG below, what is the space indicated by the letter J known as?Not learned 1762. In illustration D033DG below, what is the strake of shell plating indicated by letter H known as?Not learned 1763. In illustration D033DG below, the stringer plate is represented by which letter?Not learned 1764. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter F?Not learned 1765. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter K?Not learned 1766. In illustration D033DG below, the structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor?Not learned 1767. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter L?Not learned 1768. In illustration D033DG below, what is a wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N known as?Not learned 1769. In illustration D041DG below, which of the following is the symbol for displacement?Not learned 1770. In illustration D041DG below, which of the following is the symbol for the reference from which transverse measurements are made?Not learned 1771. In illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 1 refer to?Not learned 1772. In the illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 2 represent?Not learned 1773. In illustration D041DG below, which is the symbol for amidships?Not learned 1774. In illustration D041DG below, which symbol is the reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured?Not learned 1775. In illustration D041DG below, which is the symbol for the vertical plane midway between the fore and aft perpendiculars?Not learned 1776. An immersion suit must be equipped with which item(s)?Not learned 1777. The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.Not learned 1778. If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?Not learned 1779. An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What should occur after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?Not learned 1780. When must an inflatable liferaft that has been repacked be overhauled and inspected at a U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility?Not learned 1781. Inflatable liferafts are provided with a __________.Not learned 1782. Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry a minimum capacity of how many persons?Not learned 1783. To inflate a davit launched life raft you __________.Not learned 1784. The "inner bottom" is the __________.Not learned 1785. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.Not learned 1786. Which item of the listed survival craft equipment would be the most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?Not learned 1787. Which item is a safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts?Not learned 1788. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?Not learned 1789. The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.Not learned 1790. Which term is given to the joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side?Not learned 1791. Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.Not learned 1792. Landing a lifeboat through surf should only be done if absolutely necessary. What should be done with the lifeboat rudder if this type of landing is unavoidable?Not learned 1793. You are landing an oar propelled lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward). Which is the recommended procedure to follow?Not learned 1794. To launch a liferaft by hand, you should take which actions?Not learned 1795. In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?Not learned 1796. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.Not learned 1797. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?Not learned 1798. When launching a lifeboat, how should the tricing pennants be released?Not learned 1799. When launching an open lifeboat by falls, which is TRUE concerning the boathooks?Not learned 1800. Which is TRUE concerning the length of the steering oar in a lifeboat?Not learned 1801. Your lifeboat has been adrift for several days when land is sighted. Which procedure should you use to survey a potential site to beach your lifeboat?Not learned 1802. On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, what does turning the releasing lever release?Not learned 1803. Where should Lifeboat hatchets be kept?Not learned 1804. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. Which action should you take to prevent broaching?Not learned 1805. How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?Not learned 1806. If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?Not learned 1807. The lifeboats on your vessel are stowed on cradles on deck and are handled by sheath-screw boom davits. Which of the following statements about launching a boat is TRUE?Not learned 1808. When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than __________.Not learned 1809. How are lifelines attached to a life float?Not learned 1810. How do the lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate?Not learned 1811. Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.Not learned 1812. "Limber" is a term associated with which item?Not learned 1813. What is the function of the lifeboat davit limit switches?Not learned 1814. Limit switches are used on which davits?Not learned 1815. Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.Not learned 1816. Line throwing equipment should NOT be operated __________.Not learned 1817. In which location are lifejackets required to be stowed?Not learned 1818. When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.Not learned 1819. When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be initially pulled into the embarkation deck by which item?Not learned 1820. When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 1821. When should the lubricating oil be changed on a heavy-duty diesel engine?Not learned 1822. Before any machinery is put in operation, you should take which action FIRST?Not learned 1823. Maintaining good working order of fuel pumps and injectors in auxiliary diesel engines requires the use of __________.Not learned 1824. Which is the major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system?Not learned 1825. How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?Not learned 1826. How many ring life buoys should a 700-foot cargo vessel, not subject to SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?Not learned 1827. Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.Not learned 1828. All marine low-speed diesels are of what design?Not learned 1829. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.Not learned 1830. Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium?Not learned 1831. Which meets the requirement of an independent backup system on an electric start survival craft?Not learned 1832. What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or certificated persons required to command each lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?Not learned 1833. What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a 275-foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for cargo vessels in a specified service?Not learned 1834. Which describes a Kort nozzle as used on a vessel?Not learned 1835. In an emergency, which can directly control the electro-hydraulic steering units on the vessel?Not learned 1836. When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up to which position?Not learned 1837. In illustration D033DG below, what is the structural member indicated by the letter I?Not learned 1838. Which item(s) is/are a 2,000 GT tankship required to carry?Not learned 1839. Which item are the terms "pintle" and "gudgeon" associated with?Not learned 1840. All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at which time interval?Not learned 1841. A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required by regulations to carry which items?Not learned 1842. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain which items?Not learned 1843. The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered. Which time interval is this action required?Not learned 1844. You must shore up a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a rectangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores be located on the bulkhead?Not learned 1845. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. Where should the center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead be located?Not learned 1846. What is the name given to the bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat?Not learned 1847. Which name is given to the frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a vessel?Not learned 1848. What is the name given to the lines that are passed around the falls to hold the boat and prevent it from swinging violently?Not learned 1849. What name is given to the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains?Not learned 1850. How often are each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats required to be tested on the vessel?Not learned 1851. One major disadvantage of a low-speed diesel as compared to a steam main-propulsion system is __________.Not learned 1852. Where are panting frames located in the vessel?Not learned 1853. On a passenger vessel, the vessel's name must appear on which item(s)?Not learned 1854. The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.Not learned 1855. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent what from happening?Not learned 1856. Which is the primary type of welding employed in shipyards in the construction of cargo vessels?Not learned 1857. Which is the prime function of the bilge keel?Not learned 1858. Where a propeller shaft passes through the hull, which device prevents water from entering the hull?Not learned 1859. What is the proper name given to a deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two horizontally protruding horns?Not learned 1860. What is the purpose of limber holes in a lifeboat?Not learned 1861. What is the purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat?Not learned 1862. To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. What is the name of this plate?Not learned 1863. In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, which is TRUE when launching a lifeboat?Not learned 1864. The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hours intermittently if operated in which cycles?Not learned 1865. The shearing stresses on a ship's structure are usually greatest at which area?Not learned 1866. In ship construction, where should the keel scantlings be the greatest thickness?Not learned 1867. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 1868. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?Not learned 1869. If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way enough", which action should you take?Not learned 1870. What do stretchers that are fitted in lifeboats provide?Not learned 1871. Which term defines the horizontal fore-and-aft movement of a vessel?Not learned 1872. Which term describes the holes in the bulwark that allow deck water to drain into the sea?Not learned 1873. Which term is given to the brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler?Not learned 1874. Which term is given to the fittings used to secure a watertight door?Not learned 1875. Which term is used to describe the horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel?Not learned 1876. Which term is used to describe the point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vessel construction?Not learned 1877. A thirty-pound plate would be which thickness?Not learned 1878. The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are overspeed, low lube oil pressure, and which other condition?Not learned 1879. A thrust bearing is designed to accomplish which action?Not learned 1880. Which is TRUE concerning the most serious effect trapped air has on a diesel engine jacket water cooling system?Not learned 1881. Which is TRUE of the lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus?Not learned 1882. Which is TRUE if passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out?Not learned 1883. Which is TRUE of the vessel's Sheer Plan?Not learned 1884. The two factors which make underwater hull repair of a MODU difficult are accessibility and the __________.Not learned 1885. Which type of weld is used to attach stiffeners to a plate?Not learned 1886. Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and which other testing?Not learned 1887. Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to perform which task?Not learned 1888. Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. Which is the FIRST thing to do in the lifeboat?Not learned 1889. When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, how should you activate the signal?Not learned 1890. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known by which term?Not learned 1891. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the port side is designated as which boat number?Not learned 1892. A vessel's bottom will be subjected to tension when weight is concentrated in which location(s)?Not learned 1893. Your vessel has grounded and a report must be made to the United States Coast Guard. Which is the required form for this report?Not learned 1894. Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing appliance. Which is a requirement of the auxiliary line?Not learned 1895. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds which amount?Not learned 1896. What is a wobbling tail shaft an indication of?Not learned 1897. Where is the molded depth measured from on a vessel?Not learned 1898. What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine?Not learned 1899. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following?Not learned 1900. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?Not learned 1901. If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.Not learned 1902. What is the name given to the strake on each side of the keel?Not learned 1903. In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.Not learned 1904. A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.Not learned 1905. How does the rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiate oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams?Not learned 1906. What would light gray smoke from a diesel engine probably indicate?Not learned 1907. The nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________.Not learned 1908. Where would the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker be located?Not learned 1909. Number 3 lifeboat would be __________.Not learned 1910. The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is __________.Not learned 1911. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, what must the boat be supplied with?Not learned 1912. If the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, how often are free-fall lifeboats required to be lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew?Not learned 1913. How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?Not learned 1914. What is one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature?Not learned 1915. One function of a bulwark is to __________.Not learned 1916. In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually __________.Not learned 1917. When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.Not learned 1918. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as which item?Not learned 1919. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.Not learned 1920. When operating gravity davits, the __________.Not learned 1921. In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as an insulator?Not learned 1922. Overspeed of the diesel engine driving an electric generator could cause which situation to occur?Not learned 1923. Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. What is the name given to these strakes?Not learned 1924. The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should __________.Not learned 1925. In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be painted bright red?Not learned 1926. A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.Not learned 1927. Your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively equipped for operating in river service. How many life buoys are required for the vessel?Not learned 1928. If a passenger vessel navigating the Great Lakes is required to carry 8 life buoys, what is the allowable minimum number of these buoys that must have self-igniting lights attached?Not learned 1929. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage defines which term?Not learned 1930. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 1931. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat when land is sighted. Due to a medical emergency, you have made the decision to beach the lifeboat through the surf. Which of the following is of greatest consideration in making this decision?Not learned 1932. You are the person in charge of a lifeboat and have made the decision to beach your craft through a heavy surf. Which of the following is the recommended procedure for a boat under oars?Not learned 1933. A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of __________.Not learned 1934. When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, where should the sea painter be secured?Not learned 1935. What power source actuates a solenoid valve?Not learned 1936. To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should take which action?Not learned 1937. What prevents an inflated life raft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?Not learned 1938. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?Not learned 1939. What is the principle behind dynamic braking as used on an anchor windlass?Not learned 1940. What is the most probable cause of reduced capacity in a reciprocating air compressor?Not learned 1941. Which term is used to describe the projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder?Not learned 1942. The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to __________.Not learned 1943. What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?Not learned 1944. What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?Not learned 1945. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 1946. What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine?Not learned 1947. What is the purpose of sheer in the construction of the vessel?Not learned 1948. What is the purpose of a striker plate?Not learned 1949. What is the purpose of the tricing pendants?Not learned 1950. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor?Not learned 1951. What is the purpose of a vent header?Not learned 1952. What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine?Not learned 1953. What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion?Not learned 1954. Which quantity of fuel is required to be carried in a motor lifeboat?Not learned 1955. A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an indication of a(n) __________.Not learned 1956. Which is the quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open?Not learned 1957. Regulations define the bulkhead deck as __________. (subdivision and stability regulations)Not learned 1958. Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.Not learned 1959. The releasing lever of a lifeboat shall be red in color with a placard stating which of the following?Not learned 1960. If you are required to jump from any height from your vessel when should the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 1961. What is the required minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service?Not learned 1962. What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?Not learned 1963. If the result of loading a MODU is an increase in the height of the center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the __________.Not learned 1964. The result of two forces acting in opposite directions and along parallel lines, is an example of what type of stress?Not learned 1965. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.Not learned 1966. When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to __________.Not learned 1967. When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check __________.Not learned 1968. To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.Not learned 1969. A safe fuel system must __________.Not learned 1970. When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will __________.Not learned 1971. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.Not learned 1972. Where should the sea painter of a lifeboat be secured?Not learned 1973. How is the sea painter secured in an open lifeboat?Not learned 1974. Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?Not learned 1975. Which is the most serious effect of air trapped in a non-treated diesel engine jacket water cooling system?Not learned 1976. The most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it __________.Not learned 1977. The service use of pyrotechnic distress signals measured from the date of manufacture shall be limited to which period of time?Not learned 1978. A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is known as __________.Not learned 1979. Shell plating is _________.Not learned 1980. Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.Not learned 1981. In ship construction, which is TRUE concerning frame spacing?Not learned 1982. Where do signs of racking stresses generally appear on the vessel?Not learned 1983. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?Not learned 1984. What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of 675 cubic feet?Not learned 1985. A slow and easy motion of a MODU in a seaway is an indication of a __________.Not learned 1986. Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.Not learned 1987. On a small passenger vessel, 58 feet in length, carrying 52 passengers the fire pump shall have a minimum pumping capacity of how many gallons per minute?Not learned 1988. Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?Not learned 1989. The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient temperature in excess of __________.Not learned 1990. Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST important to __________.Not learned 1991. Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?Not learned 1992. Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?Not learned 1993. Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?Not learned 1994. Which statement about damage control is TRUE?Not learned 1995. Which statement is FALSE concerning precautions during small craft fueling operations?Not learned 1996. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?Not learned 1997. Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?Not learned 1998. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?Not learned 1999. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?Not learned 2000. Which statement about free surface is TRUE?Not learned 2001. What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 2002. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 2003. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 2004. Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?Not learned 2005. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a survival craft?Not learned 2006. Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel?Not learned 2007. Which statement is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel?Not learned 2008. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?Not learned 2009. Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?Not learned 2010. Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?Not learned 2011. Which statement is TRUE concerning spare charges for portable fire extinguishers on unmanned tank barges?Not learned 2012. Which statement is True for lifejackets on a small passenger vessel?Not learned 2013. Which is TRUE of the steering oar in a lifeboat?Not learned 2014. The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.Not learned 2015. When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding line is __________.Not learned 2016. The strength of a deck will be increased by adding which item?Not learned 2017. Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause which to occur?Not learned 2018. A sweep oar is an oar that is __________.Not learned 2019. A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?Not learned 2020. A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.Not learned 2021. A tank with internal dimensions of 40 feet X 20 feet X 12 feet is pressed with fuel oil weighing 54 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in short tons, of the liquid?Not learned 2022. Tensile stress is a result of two forces acting in __________.Not learned 2023. Which term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship?Not learned 2024. The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with which part of the vessel?Not learned 2025. The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with which areas of the vessel?Not learned 2026. Which term defines the vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors?Not learned 2027. Which is the term given to the joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end?Not learned 2028. Which term is given to the upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge?Not learned 2029. Which term is given to the wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading?Not learned 2030. What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction?Not learned 2031. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body?Not learned 2032. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body?Not learned 2033. What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?Not learned 2034. What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the aft side of the rudder post?Not learned 2035. What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel?Not learned 2036. What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section?Not learned 2037. What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?Not learned 2038. Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?Not learned 2039. Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?Not learned 2040. The term "scantlings" refers to the __________.Not learned 2041. The term "strake" is used in reference to which item(s)?Not learned 2042. "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?Not learned 2043. What are the three basic types of engine starters?Not learned 2044. Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________.Not learned 2045. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color?Not learned 2046. Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.Not learned 2047. In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 2048. The tricing pendants should be released __________.Not learned 2049. What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?Not learned 2050. Which is TRUE concerning the painter of an inflatable liferaft?Not learned 2051. Which is TRUE when operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat?Not learned 2052. Which is TRUE of the term negative slip on a vessel?Not learned 2053. When two generators are operating in parallel, what will happen if one engine driving a generator shuts down?Not learned 2054. Up to two thirds of a survival crafts required drinking water may be produced by a manually-powered reverse osmosis desalinator if it can be done in __________.Not learned 2055. On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?Not learned 2056. Which type of davit requires you to turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side?Not learned 2057. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?Not learned 2058. What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction?Not learned 2059. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?Not learned 2060. When do U.S. regulations require your vessel's EPIRB to be tested?Not learned 2061. If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, which action can you take?Not learned 2062. What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?Not learned 2063. What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?Not learned 2064. What is NOT used as a stern tube bearing, on a large vessel?Not learned 2065. When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to __________.Not learned 2066. What is the usual depth of a beam bracket?Not learned 2067. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number __________.Not learned 2068. Your vessel is conducting a "Vessel Grounded Drill". Where is the plan indicating the vessel's watertight boundaries required to be located?Not learned 2069. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?Not learned 2070. In vessel construction, which is TRUE of the garboard strake?Not learned 2071. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________.Not learned 2072. A vessel has been damaged and is taking on water. Where can you find the data that will indicate how much water the vessel can retain and still possess reserve buoyancy?Not learned 2073. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested at which time interval?Not learned 2074. A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross- connection valve be closed?Not learned 2075. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?Not learned 2076. Your vessel has run aground in waters where the tide is falling. Which of the following is the best action you can take?Not learned 2077. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.Not learned 2078. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?Not learned 2079. When a vessel has grounded which of the following could result from the forces acting upward on the bottom?Not learned 2080. Your vessel has just grounded on the rocks and is flooding. What should be the initial action in this situation?Not learned 2081. Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Where is Lifeboat No. 2 located?Not learned 2082. A vessel's light displacement is 12,000 tons. Its heavy displacement is 28,000 tons. When fully loaded it carries 200 tons of fuel and 100 tons of water and stores. What is the cargo carrying capacity in tons?Not learned 2083. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.Not learned 2084. A vessel that does not possess any reserve buoyancy will sink. Which of the following is considered a direct measure of reserve buoyancy?Not learned 2085. A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________.Not learned 2086. Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing appliance?Not learned 2087. Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom for the first one-quarter of its length. What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom pressure?Not learned 2088. Your vessel has run hard aground in an area subject to heavy wave action. Backing full astern failed to free her. Which action should be taken next?Not learned 2089. Your vessel has been taking on water but now the breached hole has been repaired. Which effects can the flooding have on your vessel's GM?Not learned 2090. A vessel is taking on water but is not in immediate danger of sinking. What would be the best action to take to increase the vessel's stability?Not learned 2091. How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time?Not learned 2092. The purpose of the four water pockets located on the underside of a life raft, is to _________.Not learned 2093. Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for _________.Not learned 2094. In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the superheater tubes from the fires of combustion?Not learned 2095. In a water-tube marine type boiler, after the steam leaves the generating tubes, in what part of the boiler is temperature of the steam increased?Not learned 2096. Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?Not learned 2097. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?Not learned 2098. The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.Not learned 2099. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.Not learned 2100. What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?Not learned 2101. A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________.Not learned 2102. Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove equal to at least __________.Not learned 2103. A wooden small passenger vessel operating on a coastwise route in cold water shall carry sufficient inflatable buoyant apparatus for which percentage of persons on board, or meet alternate requirements regarding collision bulkhead standards and the provision of life floats? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 2104. How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?Not learned 2105. What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength?Not learned 2106. What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean?Not learned 2107. Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 2108. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of which duration?Not learned 2109. All inflatable liferafts have which item?Not learned 2110. Gasoline tanks should be filled __________.Not learned 2111. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, which is the most important item to check?Not learned 2112. The lever shown in illustration D013SA below is operated when a lifeboat is in which of the following positions?Not learned 2113. What is the purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat?Not learned 2114. Which is the required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage?Not learned 2115. A small passenger vessel, operating only on domestic routes, which is operated in salt water for more than three months in a year must undergo a dry dock and internal structural examination at which time interval?Not learned 2116. According to small passenger vessel regulations, while serving as Master on board your vessel, what should be done with your credential?Not learned 2117. Before issuing an initial Certificate of Inspection, who must consider the construction arrangement and equipment of a vessel to be acceptable? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 2118. Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces, paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed which amount?Not learned 2119. How are All life jackets carried on board small passenger vessels required to be marked? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 2120. If the magnetic heading is greater than the compass heading, what direction is the deviation?Not learned 2121. In the illustration D041DG below , what does symbol 5 represent?Not learned 2122. In the illustration D041DG below, what does symbol 3 represent?Not learned 2123. Regulations require which action to be performed prior to the vessel departing on a voyage more than 48 hours long?Not learned 2124. Stress on the topping lift of a swinging boom can be reduced by __________.Not learned 2125. The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon which item(s)?Not learned 2126. The inspection of small passenger vessels of 60 feet in length carrying more than twelve persons on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard at what time intervals? (small passenger vessel regulations)Not learned 2127. The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew member participates in at least one fire drill during which time frame?Not learned 2128. What are the quadrantal spheres used for?Not learned 2129. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for a galley having an area of 3,500 square feet?Not learned 2130. What are the required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels?Not learned 2131. What is the difference between magnetic heading and compass heading called?Not learned 2132. What is the most serious effect of oxygen retained in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system?Not learned 2133. What is the thickness of a 30.6-pound plate?Not learned 2134. When using the term "limber system" one is referring to which system?Not learned 2135. Which is required to be marked on the vessel's life preservers?Not learned 2136. Which is TRUE concerning a certified lifeboat operator assigned to command a lifeboat?Not learned 2137. Which is TRUE for the connection facilities utilized for the international shore connection aboard the vessel?Not learned 2138. Which statement is TRUE concerning CO2 cylinders which protect the small space in which they are stored?Not learned 2139. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. What is the designation number for the middle boat on the starboard side?Not learned 2140. Generally speaking, how is the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber ignited?Not learned 2141. What does the boat command "Oars" mean?Not learned 2142. Which of the following is the best action to take prior to attempting to land a survival craft through heavy surf?Not learned 2143. Aboard the DEEP DRILLER, the bilge pumps take suction from the pump rooms, cofferdam, void area, access trunk, and which other area?Not learned 2144. How much drill water should be transferred from tanks 23 and 24 to tank 1 to level the COASTAL DRILLER, in transit at a draft of 10 feet 6 inches, if the total longitudinal moments are 1,700,000 ft-kips?Not learned 2145. On small passenger vessels a gasoline engine must be fitted with which item(s)Not learned 2146. Paint and oil lockers on small passenger vessels must be constructed of or lined with which material?Not learned 2147. Prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched liferaft should be well ventilated of excess __________.Not learned 2148. The DEEP DRILLER, in transit at a seawater draft of 19 feet, enters a fresh water port. What is the new draft?Not learned 2149. Your stability calculations indicate your vessel has a marginal GM. Which of the following is the most effective way to increase the stability of the vessel?Not learned 2150. Your vessel has just run aground. Which of the following would be one of the first actions you should take in this situation?Not learned 2151. On 4 October your 1907 zone time DR position is LAT 25°15.0'S, LONG 105°44.0'E. At that time, you observe Deneb bearing 011.5°psc. The chronometer reads 00h 07m 42s, and the chronometer error is 00m 36s fast. The variation is 7.5°W. What is the deviation of the standard compass?Not learned 2152. According to regulations, when must limit switches, winches, falls, etc. be thoroughly inspected and repaired as needed?Not learned 2153. What is a ceiling on a vessel?Not learned 2154. Which of the following is a characteristic of Methane gas?Not learned 2155. You are on a tankship discharging oil and stripping cargo to a designated slop tank. This slop tank can then be __________.Not learned