Q534 - Engineering Safety & Environmental Protection, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

Learning progress ?

1. Bilges may be pumped ______.Not learned 2. In order to prevent the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure ballast, one method used is to _________.Not learned 3. On U.S. inspected ships, oily water separating equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors must be approved under __________.Not learned 4. A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by ______.Not learned 5. Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the __________.Not learned 6. Which of the following describes a vessel which is subjected to "hogging"?Not learned 7. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.Not learned 8. Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working order to prevent __________.Not learned 9. Which of the following pressures represents the normal pressure setting of a pressure-vacuum relief valve as normally found on tank vessels?Not learned 10. Pressure-vacuum relief valves, as used on tank vessels, are usually set to operate at two points, ______.Not learned 11. "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the __________.Not learned 12. When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________.Not learned 13. To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing process, due to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid, the contents of any tank to be used as a source of crude oil for washing must first reduce a portion of the tank contents by a vertical height equal to __________.Not learned 14. Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________.Not learned 15. Bottom mounted crude oil washing machines are primarily used for _________.Not learned 16. When tanks have been washed with crude oil, and ballasted without being water rinsed, the ballast is referred to as _________.Not learned 17. Crude oil washing has which of the following disadvantages?Not learned 18. Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as __________.Not learned 19. When water washing epoxy-coated cargo tanks, the temperature and pressure of the wash water should generally not exceed ______.Not learned 20. Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel?Not learned 21. When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose?Not learned 22. To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility, __________.Not learned 23. The term "load on top" is the name of a method used on many crude oil carriers for the purpose of __________.Not learned 24. One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be received is by the __________.Not learned 25. Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using a __________.Not learned 26. A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank when discharging cargo, this would indicate that the __________.Not learned 27. Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold temperatures?Not learned 28. The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the __________.Not learned 29. As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should __________.Not learned 30. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) specify that the person in charge of bunkering is responsible for the __________.Not learned 31. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the __________.Not learned 32. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?Not learned 33. During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?Not learned 34. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), no person may serve as the person in charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.Not learned 35. The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.Not learned 36. The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if __________.Not learned 37. How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?Not learned 38. Each inert gas system must be equipped with the following instruments: oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder, and temperature indicator. The point of measurement for these instruments must be located __________.Not learned 39. When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen content less than 8%, cargo operations should _________.Not learned 40. When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be _________.Not learned 41. Each tank ship having an inert gas system must have portable instruments to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres. The ship must also carry instruments that can measure concentrations of _________.Not learned 42. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________.Not learned 43. If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it __________.Not learned 44. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 45. After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you close FIRST?Not learned 46. Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?Not learned 47. How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?Not learned 48. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?Not learned 49. A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire?Not learned 50. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.Not learned 51. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.Not learned 52. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?Not learned 53. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of __________.Not learned 54. A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.Not learned 55. The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is known as __________.Not learned 56. A fire can be extinguished by removing __________.Not learned 57. Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn?Not learned 58. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.Not learned 59. When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog __________.Not learned 60. When using foam, a "Class B" fire is extinguished by __________.Not learned 61. Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?Not learned 62. Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 63. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?Not learned 64. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?Not learned 65. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.Not learned 66. To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or __________.Not learned 67. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively combat a class "B" fire?Not learned 68. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered hand portable/semi-portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire?Not learned 69. The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the agent to be __________.Not learned 70. How often must fixed CO₂ fire extinguishing systems be inspected to confirm the cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full charge weight?Not learned 71. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require how many 15 pound carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be installed in the boiler room of an 8,000 horsepower steam propelled vessel?Not learned 72. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by __________.Not learned 73. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.Not learned 74. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in order to __________.Not learned 75. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by __________.Not learned 76. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.Not learned 77. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by __________.Not learned 78. The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to __________.Not learned 79. In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action of a stainless-steel cable, spring and a __________.Not learned 80. If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of __________.Not learned 81. What safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is posted or available in booklet form on your ship?Not learned 82. The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by __________.Not learned 83. A large fire has developed in the HFO centrifuge room accessed by door "E". To combat the fire, you should __________Not learned 84. When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are setting a _________.Not learned 85. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.Not learned 86. The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use __________.Not learned 87. When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should __________.Not learned 88. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 89. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________.Not learned 90. When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________.Not learned 91. When combating a class "C" fire, which of the following dangers may be present?Not learned 92. Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage, associated with a class C fire?Not learned 93. In firefighting, the term "protecting exposures" means __________.Not learned 94. A class "B" fire develops on the weather deck amidships of a moored tank vessel. The fire party should man the __________.Not learned 95. If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________.Not learned 96. Where multiple fire pumps are installed, they may be used for other purposes, provided that one pump is __________.Not learned 97. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.Not learned 98. When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy fresh water and _______.Not learned 99. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.Not learned 100. A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray pattern when the water pressure is not less than __________.Not learned 101. The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel must be either 1-1/2 inches or __________.Not learned 102. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall be _________.Not learned 103. Which of the following components provides a direct source of sea water for the fire main system?Not learned 104. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter H (Passenger Vessels), which of the following statements is true regarding sprinkler heads which are normally activated by the melting of a fusible link?Not learned 105. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the following requirements?Not learned 106. When the machinery spaces on a tank vessel are protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system, what additional protection is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) outside of the machinery space entrance?Not learned 107. The empty weight of a '100 pound' (45.4 kg) cylinder in a fixed CO₂ system is 130 pounds (58.9 kg). What is the minimum acceptable total weight of the cylinder before recharging is required?Not learned 108. If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must be of a type approved by the __________.Not learned 109. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space, if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than which amount?Not learned 110. According to 46 CFR Part 95, which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the regulations pertaining to the carbon dioxide cylinder room for a CO₂ fixed fire extinguishing system?Not learned 111. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for manually releasing the CO2 at which location?Not learned 112. A safety outlet is provided on the CO₂ discharge piping to prevent __________.Not learned 113. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 34) state that any space containing charged CO₂ cylinders, shall be properly ventilated to prevent a temperature higher than __________.Not learned 114. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following power sources would be acceptable for the carbon dioxide warning alarm?Not learned 115. According to 46 CFR Part 147, a cylinder used for storing CO₂ in a fixed firefighting system must be hydrostatically retested and restamped every __________.Not learned 116. When fire detecting systems, fire extinguishing systems, and associated equipment are not required by the Coast Guard but are installed on a cargo vessel at the option of the vessel's owner, they __________.Not learned 117. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that where reasonable and practicable, the steam pressure in a steam smothering system should be at least ______.Not learned 118. Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense __________.Not learned 119. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always connected __________.Not learned 120. Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit?Not learned 121. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter D (Tank Vessels), which of the following statements is true concerning the equipment required in a fireman's outfit?Not learned 122. The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________.Not learned 123. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses __________.Not learned 124. Which of the components listed are interchangeable between different backpack self-contained breathing apparatus produced by various manufacturers?Not learned 125. Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type self- contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?Not learned 126. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?Not learned 127. Manufacturers of self contained breathing apparatus use color coded face pieces to indicate different sizes. Which of the following statements is true concerning the colors of SCBA face pieces?Not learned 128. If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) identify?Not learned 129. The physical data term on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________.Not learned 130. According to 46 CFR, Part 30, a Grade "E" petroleum product is __________.Not learned 131. Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid?Not learned 132. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR 30), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8-1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below, is a grade __________.Not learned 133. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.Not learned 134. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.Not learned 135. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.Not learned 136. As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________.Not learned 137. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is __________.Not learned 138. Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150°F?Not learned 139. Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?Not learned 140. When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________.Not learned 141. A liquid, as listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS), having a flash point below 100°F (37.78°C) is called a/an __________.Not learned 142. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use hand tools which are __________.Not learned 143. Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________.Not learned 144. A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the paint locker, is to __________.Not learned 145. The device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is called a __________.Not learned 146. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.Not learned 147. Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous combustion when __________.Not learned 148. To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be __________.Not learned 149. One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is __________.Not learned 150. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?Not learned 151. An oxygen indicator will detect _________.Not learned 152. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?Not learned 153. If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be the most hazardous to perform?Not learned 154. The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is defined as __________.Not learned 155. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.Not learned 156. The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of __________.Not learned 157. The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the __________.Not learned 158. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?Not learned 159. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.Not learned 160. If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate?Not learned 161. If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be _______.Not learned 162. While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is not available?Not learned 163. Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an __________.Not learned 164. For H2S detection, sensitized tapes indicate H2S presence by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of H2S and which of the following factors?Not learned 165. The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________.Not learned 166. A compartment is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by volume, permissible concentrations of toxic materials, and concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower flammable limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials or flammable concentrations, what would be the designation listed on the marine chemist's certificate?Not learned 167. Which of the following limitations is correct regarding gas masks, otherwise called filter masks?Not learned 168. A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed?Not learned 169. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.Not learned 170. When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pumproom to repair a leaking pump?Not learned 171. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.Not learned 172. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?Not learned 173. An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a __________.Not learned 174. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.Not learned 175. On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100 ppm oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record must be __________.Not learned 176. In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by a/an __________.Not learned 177. If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book, you should __________.Not learned 178. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?Not learned 179. When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must _________.Not learned 180. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.Not learned 181. Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?Not learned 182. When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________.Not learned 183. A method NOT usually allowed for cleaning up oil spills would be the use of __________.Not learned 184. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?Not learned 185. Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shoreside facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?Not learned 186. The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) includes __________.Not learned 187. Which of the following is considered "discharge" as it applies to the pollution regulations?Not learned 188. The Exclusive Economic Zone extends from the baseline of territorial sea of the United States seaward ___________.Not learned 189. According to MARPOL, the definition of gray water includes drainage from __________.Not learned 190. In accordance with MARPOL (), the definition of oil does NOT include which of the following?Not learned 191. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?Not learned 192. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?Not learned 193. When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.Not learned 194. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required to be reviewed __________.Not learned 195. Ocean vessel Ballast Water Management Regulations can be found in __________.Not learned 196. To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage?Not learned 197. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O, which of the following is NOT a MARPOL, Annex V, special area?Not learned 198. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), a vessel operating upon the Great Lakes shall __________.Not learned 199. Which is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?Not learned 200. In accordance with MARPOL (33 CFR Subchapter O), the definition of medical waste does NOT include which of the following?Not learned 201. Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea?Not learned 202. According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________.Not learned 203. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), when off-loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify that ship by name and which of the following?Not learned 204. The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________.Not learned 205. Which CFR regulation identifies the placard to be posted on the vessel describing the proper disposal of garbage?Not learned 206. In accordance with 46 CFR Part 109, the Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.Not learned 207. Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You therefore should suspect __________.Not learned 208. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.Not learned 209. When entering the pump room of a tank vessel to rescue an unconscious person, which items of the equipment listed are you required to be using?Not learned 210. How should the sea painter of a lifeboat be led?Not learned 211. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.Not learned 212. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?Not learned 213. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that life jackets shall be __________.Not learned 214. In accordance with 46 CFR, life jackets should be stowed in __________.Not learned 215. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?Not learned 216. Kapok life jackets require proper care and should NOT be __________.Not learned 217. In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that are readily accessible, lifejackets must also be stowed at ___________.Not learned 218. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a life raft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.Not learned 219. A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined as a _______.Not learned 220. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter W, the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________.Not learned 221. When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.Not learned 222. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly __________.Not learned 223. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.Not learned 224. The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to __________.Not learned 225. If a life raft should capsize, __________.Not learned 226. The canopy of your life raft should __________.Not learned 227. Using a sea anchor when in a life raft will __________.Not learned 228. When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.Not learned 229. The painter on a rigid life raft must have a length sufficient to reach the highest waterline plus an additional __________.Not learned 230. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.Not learned 231. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________.Not learned 232. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.Not learned 233. To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________.Not learned 234. The survival craft engine is fueled with __________.Not learned 235. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?Not learned 236. When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the __________.Not learned 237. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.Not learned 238. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is given which term?Not learned 239. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.Not learned 240. Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of gravity and the __________.Not learned 241. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.Not learned 242. If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are no movable or moving weights onboard, the center of gravity will __________.Not learned 243. A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the __________.Not learned 244. Clogged limber holes can endanger a ship's stability by __________.Not learned 245. What standard mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels waterplane area for stability purposes?Not learned 246. The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called __________.Not learned 247. The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as __________.Not learned 248. Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?Not learned 249. A vessel having a concentration of weight toward the top of the vessel is said to be __________.Not learned 250. What is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above the main deck?Not learned 251. Which of the listed conditions will occur to the ship's center of gravity if 200 tons of steel is transferred to the ships cargo hold from shore side?Not learned 252. A vessel trimmed down by the bow has __________.Not learned 253. The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is __________.Not learned 254. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.Not learned 255. The symbol shown in the illustration and used as a reference from which the height of the center of gravity is measured, is item number __________Not learned 256. Symbol number "3" shown in the illustration represents which of the followingNot learned 257. You may improve a vessel's stability by __________.Not learned 258. Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the __________.Not learned 259. Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying liquid cargo should be avoided in order to __________.Not learned 260. Adverse effects due to free surface will result when __________.Not learned 261. After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.Not learned 262. Many uninspected motor vessels require load lines. For the purpose of the Load Line Regulations, the term "surveyor" means __________.Not learned 263. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should __________.Not learned 264. Progressive flooding in the engine room may be minimized by securing watertight boundaries and __________.Not learned 265. After measuring the length to which a section of shoring should be cut, you should cut the shoring __________.Not learned 266. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoringNot learned 267. Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to __________.Not learned 268. After an emergency shoring installation has been completed, the __________.Not learned 269. It is generally not advisable to drive a wedge into a crack occurring in the hull because wedges __________.Not learned 270. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.Not learned 271. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.Not learned 272. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks. What area(s) would this be NOT used in?Not learned 273. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without having the permission of the __________.Not learned 274. According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard?Not learned 275. Excessive recirculation of inert gas is _________.Not learned 276. Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate __________.Not learned 277. In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be which of the following?Not learned 278. Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________.Not learned 279. Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarm sounds, this means __________.Not learned 280. The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR Subchapter O, means __________.Not learned 281. Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for repair/investigation personnel on a MODU in a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) environment?Not learned 282. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?Not learned 283. In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating vessel is located directly above the __________.Not learned 284. While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical weather __________.Not learned 285. The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is known by which term?Not learned 286. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty tanks will __________.Not learned 287. If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter-flooding into empty ballast tanks may __________.Not learned 288. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority?Not learned 289. The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.Not learned 290. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by which method?Not learned 291. When should the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit be inflated?Not learned 292. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to __________.Not learned 293. The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the __________.Not learned 294. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your life jacket __________.Not learned 295. When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable life raft, the personnel on the raft should __________.Not learned 296. You are part of a search team and have been told that the wiper was last sighted next to the fire pump (s) in the lower engine room. Utilizing illustration D038SA below, what is the exact location of the fire pump(s)?Not learned 297. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.Not learned 298. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, which presents the greatest danger?Not learned 299. Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?Not learned 300. Utilizing illustration D038SA below of the fire control plan of the lower engine room, what does the arrow between frames 135 and 140 represent?Not learned 301. Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved EPIRB. An EPIRB __________.Not learned 302. What is the weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water equal to?Not learned 303. The ability of a vessel to remain in a stable position is controlled by the interaction of two opposing forces, __________.Not learned 304. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by the _________.Not learned 305. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the definition of graywater includes drainage from which of the following?Not learned 306. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships ________.Not learned 307. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the Oil Record Book shall be fully recorded __________.Not learned 308. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book is given to the __________.Not learned 309. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O, shipboard pollution prevention regulations are enforced by the __________.Not learned 310. According to 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle diameter is required for this shore connection to transfer oily ballast to a shoreside reception facility?Not learned 311. According to Code of Federal Regulations (33 CFR 151), who is responsible for insuring that a ship is not operated unless a waste management plan is utilized?Not learned 312. If additional weight is placed on the main deck of the vessel shown in the illustration __________Not learned 313. The air flow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilationNot learned 314. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________.Not learned 315. During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST __________.Not learned 316. On a cargo ship equipped with a combination fire detection/carbon dioxide extinguishing system, the presence of fire is indicated at the cabinet simultaneously in two spaces: No.3 hold upper between decks, containing bagged coffee beans; and No.4 lower hold containing fertilizer. To combat these fires, you should __________.Not learned 317. In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the extinguisher __________.Not learned 318. U.S. regulations require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. Who must be in attendance at this meeting?Not learned 319. You are in compartment "A" as shown in Figure 2 of the illustration, and suspect there is a fire in compartment "B". In order to check for and confirm the fire in compartment "B" you should __________Not learned 320. To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulations, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. waters returning from an international voyage?Not learned 321. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire detection systemsNot learned 322. A crude oil wash (COW) system is considered as __________.Not learned 323. The device shown in the illustration is carried aboard tankships for __________Not learned 324. What effect will transferring fuel oil from No.1P double bottom to No.3P double bottom have on the trim of a vessel?Not learned 325. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an __________.Not learned 326. Exemption or partial exemption from compliance with any requirement in the Oil or Hazardous Material Pollution Prevention Regulations prescribed in (33 CFR 155) may be granted by the __________.Not learned 327. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________.Not learned 328. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by__________Not learned 329. If there was a fire out of control on the Auxiliary Machinery Flat, what fixed extinguishing system in that space would be the best means to extinguish the fireNot learned 330. The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________Not learned 331. A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is referred to as a __________.Not learned 332. You are flooding the space when you are fighting the fire, adding weight to the ship. You can estimate how much weight using a formula listed below. Which is the correct formula?Not learned 333. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?Not learned 334. Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?Not learned 335. Which of the following statements is true concerning the fire extinguisher shown in the illustrationNot learned 336. Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment?Not learned 337. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?Not learned 338. Which of the following terms is used to describe water or other liquid that has free surface?Not learned 339. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.Not learned 340. A health hazard term listed on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is __________.Not learned 341. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____Not learned 342. Which of the listed characteristics applies to a semi-portable CO2 system?Not learned 343. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?Not learned 344. To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head shown in the illustration, you would _________Not learned 345. Some Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) only apply to "new ships." Under the regulations pertaining to vessels carrying oil, noxious liquid substances, garbage, municipal or commercial waste, and ballast water, a new ship is defined as a ship __________.Not learned 346. Where are "prohibited oil spaces" specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 33 CFR Subchapter O?Not learned 347. What is the purpose of opening the doors and portholes in figure 2 of the illustrationNot learned 348. A ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system is normally designed for a storage tank pressure and temperature of approximately __________.Not learned 349. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.Not learned 350. The symbol shown in the illustration, which is used as the reference from which transverse measurements are made, is __________Not learned 351. The symbol shown in the illustration used to represent displacement is __________Not learned 352. U.S. flag ships may obtain an Oil Record Book from the __________.Not learned 353. An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________.Not learned 354. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?Not learned 355. If a vessel moored at a U.S. terminal does not comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the __________.Not learned 356. Victual waste is __________.Not learned 357. The wooden shoring shown in the illustration is bearing against the hatch coaming and is supporting a load in the direction indicated by the arrows. Which of the following statements is correct for this conditionNot learned 358. What would be the classification of the fire if the sources shown in illustration #1 were to catch fire? SF-0051Not learned 359. What is the definition of the stability symbol “KG”?Not learned 360. What is the definition of the stability symbol “CL”?Not learned 361. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.Not learned