MEWB - General Subjects, USCG prep certification 2026

Progress: 24% (23/94)

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1. What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the illustrationNot learned 2. In the illustration shown, what is the distance indicated by dimension "I"Not learned 3. What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the motor illustratedNot learned 4. What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the motor illustratedNot learned 5. The physical feature indicated for each of the smallest diameter ends of the device illustrated is that they are __________Not learned 6. The maximum diameter of the device illustrated is __________Not learned 7. In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom end of the motor shaftNot learned 8. The dimension of the sensing gap in the left hand limit sensor assembly shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 9. In the illustration shown, the notation 1/8"R indicates a one-eighth inch __________Not learned 10. As shown in the illustration, the maximum shaft diameter is __________Not learned 11. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 12. The shaft shown in the illustration has an overall length of 42 inches in addition to the following dimensions of "A" = 8", "B" = 8", "C" = 10", and "D"=8 3/16". The tapered length "X" is __________Not learned 13. The illustrated shaft has an overall length of 42 inches. If the diameter of "E" = 4.750" and "F" = 6", with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the taper per foot, "L" = 1.5"; then the tapered length "X" is __________Not learned 14. The illustrated shaft has an overall length of 42 inches. If the diameter of "F" = 6" and "X" = 6", with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and a taper per foot of "L" = 1.5"; then the small diameter "E" is __________Not learned 15. The illustrated shaft has an overall length of 42 inches. If the diameter of "E" = 4.75" and "F" = 6", with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the length of "X" = 8"; then the TPF (taper per foot) is __________Not learned 16. The illustrated shaft has an overall length of 42 inches. If the diameter of "E" = 2.50" and "F" = 3.750", with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the taper per foot, "L" = 1.5"; then the tapered length "X" is __________Not learned 17. The illustrated shaft has an overall length of 42 inches. If the diameter of "F" = 3.75" and "X" = 6", with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and a taper per foot, of "L" = 1.5"; then the small diameter "E" is __________Not learned 18. The illustrated shaft has an overall length of 42 inches. If the diameter of "E" = 2.5" and "F" = 6", with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the length of "X" = 8"; then the TPF (taper per foot) is __________Not learned 19. The included angle of the chamfer in the knurled portion of the tube sizing tool illustration is __________Not learned 20. In the illustrated drawing, the feature indicated by the measurement 1/8" is an example of __________Not learned 21. In the illustration, the portion of the work piece which is indicated as being 7/8" in length, is an example of a __________Not learned 22. In the illustrated drawing, what is the largest maximum allowable diameter of the work pieceNot learned 23. In the illustration shown, what is the proper description of the hole represented by "C"Not learned 24. Which of the listed types of machined 'hole' is represented by "B" as shown in the illustrationNot learned 25. The tolerance of the largest diameter of the tool shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 26. Which of the tolerances listed is allowed on the outside diameter of the bushing illustratedNot learned 27. Which of the tolerances listed is allowed on the outside diameter of the bushing illustratedNot learned 28. Which of the tolerances listed is allowed on the outside diameter of the bushing illustratedNot learned 29. The sectional lines drawn within the flange sections, shown in the illustration, indicate the __________Not learned 30. As shown in the illustration, the total number of materials indicated is __________Not learned 31. The section of flange illustrated and indicated as "D" is a __________Not learned 32. Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to indicate a/an __________Not learned 33. To make the pieces shown as "A" in the illustration a locational interference fit, what will be necessaryNot learned 34. The drawing labeled "A" in the illustration represents a/an __________Not learned 35. How many cap screws are used to secure the motor bracket to the volute shown in the illustrationNot learned 36. Which of the speeds listed represents the synchronous speed rating of the lube oil pump motor shown in the illustrationNot learned 37. In a schematic drawing, when an edge of a component is indicated as being located inside an enclosure, which line should be usedNot learned 38. The crosshatch design on the end of piece "3" in the illustration shown indicates that _______Not learned 39. The illustration shown represents a blueprint of a metal __________Not learned 40. Edges on objects not visible in the view shown are represented in blueprints by __________.Not learned 41. In the illustration, the reference to 3/4"R indicates that the __________Not learned 42. In the illustration, a hole is shown in the block. The shape of the hole is indicated as a __________Not learned 43. What does "G" represent in the illustrationNot learned 44. Which of the conditions listed does the blueprint symbol shown in the illustration representNot learned 45. The minimum length of dimension "C" shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 46. The minimum length of dimension "C" shown in the illustration is __________Not learned 47. In the illustration shown, the letters "UNC" used in the notation "1/4-20 UNC-2" indicates the __________Not learned 48. In the figure shown in the illustration, the standard blueprint symbols above the letters "A", "B", and "C" indicate __________Not learned 49. The working depth of the gear illustrated is represented by __________Not learned 50. The illustration is drawn to a scale of 3/8 inch = 1 inch. What is the full-size dimension of "X", if the scale lengths for "E" = 5/8", "F" = 1 3/8", "G" = 2 1/8", and "H" = 5 3/4"Not learned 51. Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to indicate a/an __________Not learned 52. The illustration shown represents a blueprint of a metal __________Not learned 53. In the illustration, line "C" is a __________Not learned 54. In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________Not learned 55. In the illustration, line "J" is used to depict a ______Not learned 56. The exploded view of the drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the __________Not learned 57. As shown in the illustration, if the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection is indicated by figure "2", and the "FRONT VIEW" is indicated by figure "21", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"Not learned 58. As shown in the illustration, if the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection is indicated by figure "1", and the "FRONT VIEW" is indicated by figure "9", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"Not learned 59. As shown in the illustration, if figure "21" indicates the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection, and figure "11" indicates the "FRONT VIEW", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"Not learned 60. As shown in the illustration, if the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection is indicated by figure "2", and the "FRONT VIEW" is indicated by figure "21", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"Not learned 61. As shown in the illustration, if the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection is indicated by figure "4", and the "FRONT VIEW" is indicated by figure "5", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"Not learned 62. As shown in the illustration, if the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection is indicated by figure "1", and the "FRONT VIEW" is indicated by figure "9", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"Not learned 63. As shown in the illustration, if the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection is indicated by figure "2", and the "FRONT VIEW" is indicated by figure "21", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"Not learned 64. As shown in the illustration, if the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection is indicated by figure "4", and the "FRONT VIEW" is indicated by figure "5", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"Not learned 65. The top, front, and right side views of three different objects are shown in the illustration. In which object are all three views correct and completeNot learned 66. The illustrated drawing shows a correct front "F" and top "T" view of an object. Of the views labeled "1","2","3", and "4", the one that correctly represents the right side view for a third angle projection is_______Not learned 67. Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the one that correctly represents the right side view of the unnumbered object in the illustrationNot learned 68. Which drawing view or projection is shown in the illustrationNot learned 69. Which of the figures shown in the illustration depicts an orthographic projectionNot learned 70. Which of the devices listed can be used to measure any angle on a blueprint or drawing?Not learned 71. A tool used for measuring, or laying out angles is called a __________.Not learned 72. A dimension line, as used in a drawing or blueprint, is represented by which of the figures shown in the illustrationNot learned 73. Hidden edges in objects are represented in blueprints by __________.Not learned 74. A hidden line in a drawing, or blueprint is represented in the illustration by which of the labeled linesNot learned 75. In the illustration shown, which of the lines are considered as 'visible lines' in blueprint readingNot learned 76. Line "C" as shown in the illustration represents __________Not learned 77. In the illustration shown, which pair of letters represent the same physical surface of the componentNot learned 78. A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures shown in the illustrationNot learned 79. In the illustration, line "C" is a __________Not learned 80. Which of the projections represents the left side view of the object "X" in the illustrationNot learned 81. How many hidden lines are shown in the right side (end) view of the drawing illustratedNot learned 82. The illustration shown is called an exploded drawing and is intended to show the __________Not learned 83. The exploded view of the drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the __________Not learned 84. The exploded view of the drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the __________Not learned 85. The exploded drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the __________Not learned 86. Dimension "X" indicated on the architects scale, shown in the illustration, will be equal to __________Not learned 87. The dimension indicated on the 1/2 inch architects scale, shown in the illustration, will be equal to __________Not learned 88. In the illustration, line "J" is used to depict a ______Not learned 89. In the illustration, line "C" is a __________Not learned 90. In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________Not learned 91. In the illustration, line "F" is a/an __________Not learned 92. In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________Not learned 93. In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________Not learned 94. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 3.5 inches. When the pipe is bent into a 90° turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 95. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 7.1 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 96. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 8.5 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 97. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 8.5 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 98. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 8.5 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 99. As shown in the illustration, a section of pipe with a 3.068 inch internal diameter, has a wall thickness of .216". When the pipe is bent into a 90° turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 100. As shown in the illustration, a section of 4.5 inch internal diameter standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has a wall thickness of .355". When the pipe is bent into a 90° turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 101. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 4.0 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90-degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 102. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 3.8 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 103. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 8.5 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 104. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 5.2 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 105. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 6.6 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 106. As shown in the illustration, a section of standard weight, seamless steel pipe, has an external diameter of 8.5 inches. When the pipe, is bent into a 90 degree turn, the length of the outside edge of the curve "A-B" will exceed the length of the inside edge of the curve "C-D" by __________Not learned 107. A standard grade of 3 inch steel pipe has an outside diameter of 3.5 inches and an inside diameter of 3.068 inches. What is the nominal size of steel pipe having an outside diameter of 4.0 inches and an inside diameter of 3.548 inches?Not learned 108. When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal pipe size of the piping always indicates the __________.Not learned 109. Internal pipe threads are cut with __________.Not learned 110. When pipe is properly screwed into a tapped hole, it will give the correct fit when __________.Not learned 111. After a piece of pipe has been cut, a good shop practice to ream out the burr left in the pipe. This is done to __________.Not learned 112. After using a pipe cutter to cut a piece of pipe, the inside edge of the pipe should be __________.Not learned 113. Insulation on deck steam piping must be installed securely because __________.Not learned 114. Steam supply piping to deck machinery is insulated in order to __________.Not learned 115. Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?Not learned 116. Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?Not learned 117. Which of the listed materials have been used to manufacture piping available in standard weight, extra strong, and double extra strong wall thickness?Not learned 118. Piping cross-sections ranging from 1/8 inch to 12 inches in diameter, are sized by __________.Not learned 119. Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.Not learned 120. Piping is sized by its nominal __________.Not learned 121. The designation 'schedule 80' refers to __________.Not learned 122. Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping by the use of expansion joints or __________.Not learned 123. The movement of steam piping, as a result of changes in temperature, is compensated for by the use of __________.Not learned 124. The movement of steam piping, as a result of changes in temperature, is compensated for by the use of __________.Not learned 125. An American Standard Tapered pipe thread has a taper of __________.Not learned 126. Pipe threads are cut with a taper to __________.Not learned 127. When assembling a run of liquid service piping, which of the following factors should be considered?Not learned 128. Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.Not learned 129. Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they are connected because __________.Not learned 130. Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dopeNot learned 131. When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.Not learned 132. Which of the flange types listed identifies the construction of a pipe joint where a flange is slipped over a length of pipe, the pipe end is heated, then setup (flanged) in a special machine, and then the end of the pipe is machined to form the actual face of the joint?Not learned 133. According to 46 CFR Part 56, carbon steel bolts rather than alloy steel bolts may be used to make up a flange if the normal operating __________.Not learned 134. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) require that screw joints shall not be used in piping systems where severe erosion, crevice corrosion, shock, or vibration is expected to occur, nor at temperatures over __________.Not learned 135. It is necessary to replace a branch suction section of bilge system piping within the machinery space. The machinery space is 100' in length and 85' in breadth. The molded depth of the bulkhead deck is 25'. Which of the listed pipe sizes should be used?Not learned 136. The purpose in constructing a pipe tunnel aboard a vessel is to __________.Not learned 137. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) prohibit which of the following pipe fittings from being installed in fuel oil service discharge piping?Not learned 138. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) permit copper pipe to be used for steam service subjected to a maximum pressure and temperature of __________.Not learned 139. According to 46 CFR's, steam piping subject to main boiler pressure must be hydrostatically tested at specified intervals. Therefore, which of the following statements is true?Not learned 140. Which of the following is the pipe used to connect two separate piping systems on a tank vessel?Not learned 141. The last 1.0 meter (3.3 feet) of vapor piping before the vessel vapor connection must be painted __________.Not learned 142. Which of the following measurements would be an example of total flow?Not learned 143. Which of the following measurements would be an example of flow rate?Not learned 144. Which of the following is an example of a flow meter which has associated with it a float for flow indication purposes?Not learned 145. To anneal a copper pipe, you should heat the pipe ______.Not learned 146. Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.Not learned 147. Which of the listed pumps, shown in the illustration, is fitted with a relief valve on its discharge sideNot learned 148. Which pump illustrated is fitted with a suction strainerNot learned 149. Which of the listed pumps, shown in the illustration, can be used to take suction on the forward, port, engine room bilgeNot learned 150. In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be openNot learned 151. In order for all of the bilge pump discharge to pass through the oily water separator, shown in the illustration, the oily water separator bypass valve must be __________Not learned 152. The general service pump is to be used to remove clean water from the No. 3 port double-bottom cofferdam and discharge it through the ballast overboard discharge. What are the minimum number of valves, shown in the illustration, that must be opened on both the suction and discharge to accomplish this taskNot learned 153. Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closedNot learned 154. It is necessary to discharge salt water ballast into the #6 centerline tank. Which combination of listed valves illustrated, must be opened and which valves must be closedNot learned 155. If auxiliary machinery vital to the main propulsion system is not provided with independent duplicate systems, which of the systems listed would satisfy regulations if serviced by two pumps? (46 CFR)Not learned 156. If auxiliary machinery vital to the main propulsion system is not provided with independent duplicate systems, which of the systems listed would satisfy regulations if serviced by two pumps? (46 CFR)Not learned 157. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) regarding hydrostatic testing of main steam piping state that __________.Not learned 158. The best pipe material to use in cargo fuel oil lines is ______.Not learned 159. The threaded pipe fitting called 'street elbows' have __________.Not learned 160. Which of the following descriptions should be included when identifying the length for pipe nipples?Not learned 161. A 'close nipple' is a piece of pipe that is __________.Not learned 162. Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called "pipe _____________".Not learned 163. To connect two lengths of pipe previously set in place, you should use a pipe __________.Not learned 164. A pipe coupling is a fitting having __________.Not learned 165. A single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full flow passage of a liquid through the pipe is referred to as a __________.Not learned 166. On a vapor control system, each vessel's vapor connection flange must have a __________.Not learned 167. To properly make and fit a new pipe to a flange, you should ______.Not learned 168. Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.Not learned 169. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 170. Tubing is sized by __________.Not learned 171. Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?Not learned 172. Copper coil tubing is best cut with a _________.Not learned 173. The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a __________.Not learned 174. The tool used to make up connection fittings for small diameter copper tubing is called a/an __________.Not learned 175. Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is termed __________.Not learned 176. For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less __________.Not learned 177. Tubing is sized by __________.Not learned 178. Copper coil tubing is best cut with a _________.Not learned 179. After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should ______.Not learned 180. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F, steel tubing connections and fittings used with diesel fuel oil systems are to be either flared or __________.Not learned 181. A "barrel" is defined as a unit of liquid, measured at 60°F, and is equivalent to __________.Not learned 182. A volume of one cubic foot would equal how many gallons?Not learned 183. One cubic foot of salt water would equal approximately how many pounds?Not learned 184. A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates nine (9) inches of water. This corresponds to a pressure of __________.Not learned 185. A machine capable of producing 1650 foot-pounds of work per second is considered to produce how much horsepower?Not learned 186. A weight of 1,000 kips is equivalent to __________.Not learned 187. In terms of liquid volume, approximately how many "Liters" equal one US "Gallon"?Not learned 188. In terms of linear measurement, approximately how many "inches" equal one "meter"?Not learned 189. When applying weight conversion factors, approximately how many US "pounds" equal one "kilogram"?Not learned 190. In terms of metric pressure conversion, an absolute pressure of 1 "bar" would be approximately equal to what value "psia"?Not learned 191. When converting metric pressure values, an absolute pressure of 7 "bars" would be approximately equal to what value of "psia"?Not learned 192. In terms of metric pressure conversion, approximately what value of "psi" equals one "bar"?Not learned 193. When calculating the indicated power developed in a diesel engine cylinder, 1 horsepower is equivalent to "33,000 foot-pounds per minute". What conversion factor would be used if the values are based on metric "kilogram-meters per minute"?Not learned 194. Normal average body temperature is __________.Not learned 195. The standard unit of liquid volume used in the petroleum industry, as well as the tanker industry, is a __________.Not learned 196. Which of the following is equivalent to a "barrel", which is a unit of liquid measure?Not learned 197. What is the standard net barrel for petroleum products?Not learned 198. What is the standard net barrel for petroleum products?Not learned 199. Some heavy-duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _________.Not learned 200. An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.Not learned 201. A screwdriver should never be used as a __________.Not learned 202. Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four-way or cross type slot?Not learned 203. What is the distinguishing difference between the Phillips and the Reed and Prince type screwdrivers?Not learned 204. The Phillips screwdriver has a blunt end and flukes with an angle of __________.Not learned 205. The Reed and Prince screwdriver has a sharp pointed end with flukes that have an angle of __________.Not learned 206. Which of the screwdrivers listed is produced with a tip to fit screws with a four way or cross slot?Not learned 207. Which of the screwdrivers listed is produced with a tip to fit screws with a four way or cross slot?Not learned 208. A Reed and Prince screwdriver should be used only on a Reed and Prince screw, and a Phillips screwdriver should only be used on a Phillips screw in order to avoid damaging the __________. tool ScrewheadNot learned 209. Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridgesresembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?Not learned 210. Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross-sectional tip?Not learned 211. Which of the following statements best describes a 'Keystone' shaped tip on a standard screwdriver?Not learned 212. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of smallparts?Not learned 213. Which of the screwdrivers listed is fastest and most convenient when tightening many screws?Not learned 214. Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil wire or tightly coiled steel?Not learned 215. Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.Not learned 216. Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?Not learned 217. When using the draw file method, which of the listed types of files will produce a fine finish?Not learned 218. Which of the files listed can be used for sharpening a tool?Not learned 219. Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.Not learned 220. Double cut files are used for __________.Not learned 221. Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?Not learned 222. Which of the following files will produce the finest surface on a work piece being finished filed in a lathe?Not learned 223. A mill file is used to __________.Not learned 224. Which of the following types of files will produce a fine finish when draw filing?Not learned 225. The proper file for a finishing cut on soft metal, such as brass, is the __________.Not learned 226. Mill files are always __________.Not learned 227. The teeth of a file may 'clog up' with metal filings and scratch your work. This condition is known as __________.Not learned 228. While filing, you can prevent pinning by keeping the file clean and rubbing the teeth of the file with __________.Not learned 229. Pinning is often caused by __________.Not learned 230. A fine wire bristled brush used for cleaning files is called a __________.Not learned 231. A file handle is fitted to the file's __________.Not learned 232. The tang of a file is the part that __________.Not learned 233. Using a file without a handle may result in __________.Not learned 234. Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become __________.Not learned 235. A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of __________.Not learned 236. Which of the files listed is tapered on all sides and used to enlarge rectangular-shaped holes and slots?Not learned 237. Which of the files listed is tapered on three sides and is used to file acute internal angles?Not learned 238. Which of the files listed is commonly referred to as a 'rattail' file?Not learned 239. The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.Not learned 240. Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced teeth?Not learned 241. Which of the files listed will have medium spaced teeth and is used for general work?Not learned 242. Which of the files listed will have closely spaced teeth for finishing to a smooth surface?Not learned 243. The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.Not learned 244. The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead smooth refer to the __________.Not learned 245. File lengths are determined by the __________.Not learned 246. The length of a file is always measured exclusive of the __________.Not learned 247. The edge of a file not having any teeth is known as a __________.Not learned 248. Which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges?Not learned 249. A file coated with oil and stowed away will __________.Not learned 250. Oiling a file as a rust preventative may cause __________.Not learned 251. Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against the work, is called __________.Not learned 252. It is necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal you are filing is __________.Not learned 253. It is not necessary to 'chalk' a file when the metal being filed is __________.Not learned 254. A file handle is fitted to the file's __________.Not learned 255. Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.Not learned 256. When using a chisel, you should __________.Not learned 257. The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the _________.Not learned 258. The proper use of a flat chisel is for cutting __________.Not learned 259. A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.Not learned 260. The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you _________.Not learned 261. What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed head?Not learned 262. Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?Not learned 263. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.Not learned 264. A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the ________.Not learned 265. For the power hacksaw shown in the illustration, how should the teeth point for the blade being installedNot learned 266. Which of the following is true concerning the proper use of a machine shop hand hack saw?Not learned 267. To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade with what number of teeth per inch?Not learned 268. For cutting thin tubing or sheet metal, the proper hacksaw blade should have __________.Not learned 269. When listed by pitch, which of the hacksaw blades listed would be the most suitable for cutting thin tubing?Not learned 270. For cutting cast iron or soft steel, the proper hacksaw blade should have __________.Not learned 271. A hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch should be used to cut __________.Not learned 272. To cut drill rod, light angle iron, or tool steel with a hand hacksaw, it is best to use a blade with __________.Not learned 273. To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.Not learned 274. A hacksaw blade is normally placed in the saw frame with the __________.Not learned 275. A hand hacksaw blade is normally installed in the saw frame with the teeth pointing away from the saw handle, because __________.Not learned 276. Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the __________.Not learned 277. When cutting with a handheld hacksaw, you should apply downward pressure on the hacksaw frame ______.Not learned 278. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more accurately if you __________.Not learned 279. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more accurately if you __________.Not learned 280. When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.Not learned 281. The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as the __________.Not learned 282. The term referring to the amount or degree the teeth of a hacksaw blade are pushed out or canted from the blade center is known as __________.Not learned 283. The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the teeth are continuously staggered with one to the left and one to the right is known as __________.Not learned 284. The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two adjoining teeth are staggered to the right, then two to the left, and continue to alternate in this manner is known as __________.Not learned 285. The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where every third tooth remains straight, while the other two are alternately set is known as __________.Not learned 286. Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having short sections of teeth bent in opposite directions?Not learned 287. When using a hand-held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cuttingshould be __________.Not learned 288. Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per minute while using a hand held hacksaw will generally __________.Not learned 289. When cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your hand while using a hand held hacksaw, the sheet metal should be placed between two __________.Not learned 290. Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quartersor flush to a surface where a hand-held hacksaw frame could not be used?Not learned 291. A saw blade produced of bonded tungsten-carbide particles and mounted in a hacksaw frame is known as a __________.Not learned 292. When mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, which of the blades listed could cut smoothly through a metal file?Not learned 293. Which of the saw blades listed, when mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, will cut on both the forward and reverse strokes?Not learned 294. A hacksaw blade will break if __________.Not learned 295. To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.Not learned 296. When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.Not learned 297. A hacksaw blade will start a cut more accurately if you __________.Not learned 298. A hacksaw blade will break if __________.Not learned 299. For the power hacksaw shown in the illustration, how should the teeth point for the blade being installedNot learned 300. Which of the listed numeric values represents the smallest size drill?Not learned 301. Which of the drill sizes listed represents the largest size drill?Not learned 302. Which of the drill sets listed would commonly be referred to as a “Jobbers Set”?Not learned 303. No two drills from differing drill sets are of the exact same size, with the exception of the drills measured as 0.25 inch. These two drills are the 1/4 inch and the __________.Not learned 304. A drill that wobbles while the drill press is in operation may __________.Not learned 305. If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will __________.Not learned 306. Rapid wear on the extreme outer corners to the cutting edges of a drill bit is the result of the drill having __________.Not learned 307. Rapid wear on the extreme outer corners to the cutting edges of a drill bit is the result of the drill having __________.Not learned 308. Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to __________.Not learned 309. To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock should be mounted in a __________.Not learned 310. Failing to decrease the feed pressure on a drill as its point begins to break through the bottom of the work piece will cause the drill to __________.Not learned 311. If a drill press is used to completely bore through a metal plate, feed pressure on the drill bit should be eased as the bit breaks through the bottom of the hole to prevent __________.Not learned 312. When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper method of stopping the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________.Not learned 313. One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to _________.Not learned 314. A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a __________.Not learned 315. When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter __________.Not learned 316. When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, a smaller pilot hole should be drilled first to __________.Not learned 317. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be __________.Not learned 318. All straight shank twist drills must be mounted or held in a __________.Not learned 319. If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at different angles, the __________.Not learned 320. If the drill point lips are ground at different angles, the drill will __________.Not learned 321. If the drill point lips are of unequal length, the drill will wobble and __________.Not learned 322. If the point angle of a drill is less than 59°, the __________.Not learned 323. As the drill bit is being fed into a metal work piece, a squeaking sound from the tip of the bit indicates __________.Not learned 324. Which of the following problems will cause a twist drill to cut improperly?Not learned 325. For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the correct included angle of a drill point is __________.Not learned 326. Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal, the harder the metal, the greater the drill's required __________.Not learned 327. Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?Not learned 328. When drilling holes in metal, which of the materials listed does not have to be lubricated?Not learned 329. For drilling or machining cast iron, which of the cutting lubricants is it necessary to use?Not learned 330. A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a __________.Not learned 331. Which of the following procedures is used to bring a hole to finished size with high accuracy?Not learned 332. Which material can be drilled at the highest speed?Not learned 333. If you have to completely grind a new point on a high-speed drill, which of the following could happen if it is cooled in cold water immediately after grinding?Not learned 334. A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drill's __________.Not learned 335. The size of a drill is usually marked on the __________.Not learned 336. The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.Not learned 337. Hand taps are provided in sets of three, with each being known as __________.Not learned 338. A taper tap is correctly used for __________.Not learned 339. To finish tapping a blind hole, it is best to use a __________.Not learned 340. Tapping threads into a blind hole should be finished by using a __________.Not learned 341. If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the threads will __________.Not learned 342. Round split dies are usually adjustable to __________.Not learned 343. A tap marked '1/4-20' will cut a thread __________.Not learned 344. The number "8" in the notation of an '8-32' tap, indicates the __________.Not learned 345. With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for __________.Not learned 346. If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.Not learned 347. The diameter of a hole drilled for tapping threads into a piece of stock should be __________.Not learned 348. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?Not learned 349. The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.Not learned 350. When internal threading for bolts, where the work permits the tap to be run entirely through, you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.Not learned 351. When using a hand die to cut threads on brass stock, the threads can be dry cut or may be lubricated with __________.Not learned 352. Which drill size would you use to machine and tap a 3/4 -10 National Coarse internal thread?Not learned 353. Taps and dies used for threading pipe, under U.S. standards, are __________.Not learned 354. Taps and dies used for threading pipe, under U.S. standards, are __________.Not learned 355. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.Not learned 356. The complete tool used for manually cutting threads on pipe is called a pipe __________.Not learned 357. A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly __________.Not learned 358. A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.Not learned 359. If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.Not learned 360. The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.Not learned 361. The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.Not learned 362. The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.Not learned 363. Taps and dies used for threading pipe, under U.S. standards, are __________.Not learned 364. When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.Not learned 365. The letters "NPT" used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as shown in the illustration, indicates the __________Not learned 366. What class of screw thread is indicated with a machine screw described as 1/2-13 NC-2?Not learned 367. In the illustration shown, the last numeral in the notation 1/4-20 NC-2 indicates the __________Not learned 368. The type of thread illustrated is a/an __________Not learned 369. The thread machined on the device illustrated is a/an __________Not learned 370. In the thread notation shown in the illustration, the "1" preceding '8NC-LH' represents __________Not learned 371. A flat piece of sheet metal can be fastened to the device illustrated and would require the use of which listed type of fastenerNot learned 372. A flat piece of thin sheet metal fastened to the device illustrated, would most likely require the use of which listed type of fastenerNot learned 373. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, "pitch" is the __________.Not learned 374. With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, "pitch" is the __________.Not learned 375. The designation '1/4-20' describes __________.Not learned 376. The term '5/16-24' describes __________.Not learned 377. The notation '10-24 tap' appears on a drawing. The number "24" indicates the __________.Not learned 378. The number of screw threads per inch for a Standard National Coarse 1/2 inch bolt is __________.Not learned 379. The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.Not learned 380. Which of the following is true when comparing the different "class of fit" for machine threads on bolts and nuts?Not learned 381. Which of the following types of nuts would be best suited to use when it is important that a nut not work itself loose due to vibration?Not learned 382. Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screwNot learned 383. Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screwNot learned 384. Which of the figures illustrated would be the least desirable to use as a shaft collar lock screwNot learned 385. Which of the figures illustrated is known as an Allen head set screwNot learned 386. Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "C" in illustration GS-0015Not learned 387. Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure "B" of the device shown in illustration GS-0124Not learned 388. Which of the figures shown in the illustration would be the most suitable to fasten the hub of a pump and motor shaft couplingNot learned 389. If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface of a flange or block, which of the following procedures would offer the best chance of success for its removal?Not learned 390. The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________Not learned 391. The open-end wrench size for a standard 3/4 inch American National hex head bolt is __________.Not learned 392. The open-end wrench size for a standard 3/4 inch American National hex head bolt is __________.Not learned 393. According to the illustration, what dimension would indicate the Pitch Diameter of the threadNot learned 394. According to the illustration, what dimension would indicate the Pitch Diameter of the threadNot learned 395. According to the illustration, what would be the value of dimension "H" for a screw thread identified as 3/4-13 NFNot learned 396. According to the illustration, what would be the value of the angle labeled "L" for an American Standard screw threadNot learned 397. The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.Not learned 398. What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustrationNot learned 399. The designation '1/4-20' describes __________.Not learned 400. Which of the figures illustrated is known as an Allen head set screwNot learned 401. The tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge a slightly undersized hole, is called a __________.Not learned 402. A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.Not learned 403. Which of the devices listed should be used to reshape a grinding wheel?Not learned 404. When using a wheel dressing tool to true up a grinding wheel, you should always __________.Not learned 405. When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that __________.Not learned 406. When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that __________.Not learned 407. A metal scribe commonly found on a combination square measuring tool should only be used to __________.Not learned 408. While reaming a hole, the reamer should not be turned backwards if the hole has not been fully reamed because __________.Not learned 409. A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file __________.Not learned 410. The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications. Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devicesNot learned 411. What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustrationNot learned 412. Which figure shown in the illustration, is the nut lock improperly usedNot learned 413. When should the nut lock shown in the illustration, be replaced with standard lock washers or other similar devices used in the industryNot learned 414. Which of the tools listed should be used with the set screw shown as figure "F" in the illustrationNot learned 415. Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.Not learned 416. Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of it slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt?Not learned 417. Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a bolt head or nut?Not learned 418. A wrench that completely surrounds a nut, or bolt head is a/an __________.Not learned 419. Open end wrenches are __________.Not learned 420. In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.Not learned 421. When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is __________.Not learned 422. A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.Not learned 423. A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on __________.Not learned 424. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.Not learned 425. Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its hole?Not learned 426. An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.Not learned 427. Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.Not learned 428. After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should ______.Not learned 429. To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________.Not learned 430. A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding the contact surfaces together of a valve, is called __________.Not learned 431. Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?Not learned 432. The tool used to remove a ball bearing from the shaft of a motor is called a __________.Not learned 433. The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _________.Not learned 434. Open end wrenches are __________.Not learned 435. A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.Not learned 436. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.Not learned 437. Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.Not learned 438. An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.Not learned 439. A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.Not learned 440. Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.Not learned 441. When using a chisel, you should __________.Not learned 442. The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the _________.Not learned 443. The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you _________.Not learned 444. Some heavy-duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to _________.Not learned 445. An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.Not learned 446. Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.Not learned 447. Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.Not learned 448. The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________Not learned 449. To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.Not learned 450. The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.Not learned 451. The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________Not learned 452. A dial indicator is used to measure __________.Not learned 453. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.Not learned 454. A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.Not learned 455. To remove a hand-held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the way through a hole, you should __________.Not learned 456. A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.Not learned 457. A measurement of .625 inches is equal to __________.Not learned 458. A measurement of .2344 inches is equal to __________.Not learned 459. The tool shown in the illustration is called a __________Not learned 460. The best tool to use to measure the number of threads per inch on a bolt is a __________.Not learned 461. The best method of determining the number of threads per inch of a bolt or screw would be through the use of a __________.Not learned 462. When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should measure across the drill __________.Not learned 463. A metal scribe commonly found on a combination square measuring tool should only be used to __________.Not learned 464. To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used with inside calipers to get an accurate reading?Not learned 465. A small hole gauge is used in conjunction with a/an __________.Not learned 466. To get an accurate inside measurement of the diameter of a 1/2 inch hole, you should use a/an __________.Not learned 467. To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock, you should use a __________.Not learned 468. A micrometer would be used to measure __________.Not learned 469. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing shim, you should use a __________.Not learned 470. Shim stock thickness is measured by a/an __________.Not learned 471. The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when _________.Not learned 472. The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as the __________.Not learned 473. If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the reading is __________.Not learned 474. A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.Not learned 475. One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.Not learned 476. One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.Not learned 477. If the thimble of a micrometer were turned through one complete revolution, the micrometer would open or close by a linear distance of __________.Not learned 478. One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.Not learned 479. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.Not learned 480. For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a Vernier scale making it possible to read in increments of __________.Not learned 481. Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to __________.Not learned 482. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________Not learned 483. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "B" in the illustration is __________Not learned 484. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "C" in the illustration is __________Not learned 485. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "1" in the illustration is __________Not learned 486. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "2" in the illustration is __________Not learned 487. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "3" in the illustration is __________Not learned 488. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "I" in the illustration is __________Not learned 489. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "II" in the illustration is __________Not learned 490. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "III" in the illustration is __________Not learned 491. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "C" in the illustration is __________Not learned 492. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "A" in the illustration is __________Not learned 493. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "C" in the illustration is __________Not learned 494. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "H" in the illustration is __________Not learned 495. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "F" in the illustration is __________Not learned 496. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "F" in the illustration is __________Not learned 497. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "H" in the illustration is __________Not learned 498. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "I" in the illustration is __________Not learned 499. A micrometer scale reading is indicated as 0.438 inches and is represented in the illustration by __________Not learned 500. A micrometer scale reading is indicated as 0.438 inches and is represented in the illustration by __________Not learned 501. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "B" in the illustration is __________Not learned 502. A micrometer scale reading is indicated as 0.438 inches and is represented in the illustration by __________Not learned 503. A micrometer scale reading is indicated as 0.438 inches and is represented in the illustration by __________Not learned 504. A micrometer scale reading is indicated as 0.438 inches and is represented in the illustration by __________Not learned 505. A micrometer scale reading is indicated as 0.438 inches and is represented in the illustration by __________Not learned 506. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "C" in the illustration is __________Not learned 507. The reading indicated on the micrometer scale in the illustration is .4815 inches. Which illustration represents this readingNot learned 508. The reading indicated on the micrometer scale shown in the illustration is .9680 inches. Which of the figures listed represents this readingNot learned 509. The reading indicated on the micrometer scale shown in the illustration is .9680 inches. Which of the figures listed represents this readingNot learned 510. The reading indicated on the micrometer scale shown in the illustration is .9680 inches. Which of the figures listed represents this readingNot learned 511. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "A" in the illustration is __________Not learned 512. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is __________Not learned 513. The reading on a vernier caliper scale is indicated as 4.340 inches. Which of the figures shown in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 514. The reading on a vernier caliper scale is indicated as 4.340 inches. Which of the figures shown in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 515. The reading on a vernier caliper scale is indicated as 4.340 inches. Which of the figures shown in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 516. The reading on a vernier caliper scale is indicated as 4.340 inches. Which of the figures shown in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 517. The reading on a vernier caliper scale is indicated as 4.340 inches. Which of the figures shown in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 518. What is the reading of the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "A" in the illustrationNot learned 519. What is the reading of the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "B" in the illustrationNot learned 520. What is the reading of the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "C" in the illustrationNot learned 521. What is the reading of the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "D" in the illustrationNot learned 522. What is the reading of the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "E" in the illustrationNot learned 523. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "A" in the illustration is __________Not learned 524. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "B" in the illustration is __________Not learned 525. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "C" in the illustration is __________Not learned 526. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________Not learned 527. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "E" in the illustration is __________Not learned 528. The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "F" in the illustration is __________Not learned 529. The reading on a vernier caliper scale is indicated as 4.340 inches. Which of the figures shown in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 530. The reading on a vernier caliper scale is indicated as 4.340 inches. Which of the figures shown in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 531. What is the reading of the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "F" in the illustrationNot learned 532. What is the reading of the Vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustrationNot learned 533. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 534. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 535. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 536. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 537. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "A" in the illustrationNot learned 538. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "B" in the illustrationNot learned 539. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "C" in the illustrationNot learned 540. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "D" in the illustrationNot learned 541. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "E" in the illustrationNot learned 542. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "A" in the illustrationNot learned 543. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "F" in the illustrationNot learned 544. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 545. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 546. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 547. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 548. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 549. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 550. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "B" in the illustrationNot learned 551. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "C" in the illustrationNot learned 552. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "D" in the illustrationNot learned 553. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "E" in the illustrationNot learned 554. What is the reading of the vernier micrometer caliper scale shown in figure "F" in the illustrationNot learned 555. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 556. The reading indicated on a vernier micrometer caliper scale is .9453 inches. Which of the figures in the illustration represents this readingNot learned 557. When using a one inch micrometer, a reading of 0.875 is equal to __________.Not learned 558. A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to __________.Not learned 559. A reading of 0.250 on a micrometer with a 1 to 2 inch range is equal to __________.Not learned 560. Machine bolts are identified by their __________.Not learned 561. What basic dimensions are used in describing machine bolts?Not learned 562. The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________Not learned 563. Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gageNot learned 564. The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.Not learned 565. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should measure __________.Not learned 566. To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.Not learned 567. A dial indicator is used to measure __________.Not learned 568. Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside measurementsNot learned 569. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.Not learned 570. Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet metal?Not learned 571. A bridge gage is normally used to determine turbine __________.Not learned 572. The master or person in charge of a MODU must record the date of each test of emergency lighting systems, power systems, the condition of each and the performance of the equipment __________.Not learned 573. A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.Not learned 574. One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.Not learned 575. To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock, you should use a __________.Not learned 576. The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as the __________.Not learned 577. To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.Not learned 578. The illustrated shaft has an overall length of 15 inches. If the diameter of "E" = 2.5" and "F" = 3.5", with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the length of the tapered section "X" is to be 5"; then the amount of tailstock offset should be _____Not learned 579. The illustrated shaft has an overall length of 18 inches. If the diameter of "E" = 2.5" and "F" = 3.5", with an indicated radius of "R" = .125" and the length of the tapered section "X" is to be 8"; then the amount of tailstock offset should be _________Not learned 580. In the illustration, the best way to make the pieces a locational interference fit is to __________Not learned 581. In the illustration, the best way to make the pieces labeled "B" a locational interference fit is to __________Not learned 582. The lathe tool shown as figure "B" in the illustration is called a __________Not learned 583. The lathe tool shown in the illustration as figure "P" is a __________Not learned 584. Which of the listed illustrated figures represents the use of a lathe finishing toolNot learned 585. Which single illustrated lathe tool could be used to turn down the stock in figure IINot learned 586. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for checking the angle of __________.Not learned 587. Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best be used on a workpiece to perform a right-hand facing operationNot learned 588. Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best be used on a workpiece to perform a right-hand facing operationNot learned 589. The lathe tool shown as "Q" in the illustration is a __________Not learned 590. The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as __________Not learned 591. The lathe tool shown as figure "L" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________Not learned 592. The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or checked surface on round stock in a lathe is called __________.Not learned 593. The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 594. The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 595. The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 596. The lathe tool shown as figure "S" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________Not learned 597. The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 598. The lathe tool shown as figure "Q" in the illustration is commonly used for __________Not learned 599. The lathe tool shown as figure "O" in the illustration is commonly used for __________Not learned 600. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________.Not learned 601. A lathe dog, fitted with a headless set screw, is known as a __________.Not learned 602. Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing toolNot learned 603. Which of the listed illustrated figures represents the correct use of a lathe threading toolNot learned 604. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a rough cut to the left for the stock in figure IVNot learned 605. Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jawindependent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?Not learned 606. A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.Not learned 607. If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessivelyincreased, the tool will __________Not learned 608. If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first __________.Not learned 609. For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a __________.Not learned 610. The lathe steady rest is normally used for supporting one end of a __________.Not learned 611. When machining a long piece of work between centers, you must __________.Not learned 612. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________.Not learned 613. The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 614. Which of the listed illustrated figures would not normally be used for rough or finish turning operationsNot learned 615. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for figure INot learned 616. The lathe tool shown as figure "A" in the illustration is called a __________Not learned 617. The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 618. The lathe tool shown as figure "R" in the illustration would best be used to __________Not learned 619. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a rough cut to the left for the stock in figure IVNot learned 620. Which of the listed illustrated figures represents the lathe tool used for facing figure VINot learned 621. Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a rough cut to the left for the stock in figure IVNot learned 622. The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 623. Which of the following statements is true concerning the illustration shownNot learned 624. The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 625. The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as __________Not learned 626. The lathe tool shown as figure "N" in the illustration is commonly known as a __________Not learned 627. The lathe tool shown as figure "O" in the illustration is commonly used for __________Not learned 628. Which of the illustrated lathe tools should be used to produce the groove in the stock in figure VIINot learned 629. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 630. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 631. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 632. The angle "A" shown on the illustrated lathe tool bit is properly called the __________Not learned 633. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a __________.Not learned 634. The thread form shown in the illustration is called a/an __________Not learned 635. The illustrated thread form would be used with a/an __________Not learned 636. The thread form shown in the illustration is called a/an __________Not learned 637. The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the __________.Not learned 638. To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18-inch workpiece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set over _________.Not learned 639. A piece of tapered round stock 36 inches long, 4 inches in diameter at the large end and 2 1/2 inches in diameter at the small end. What tailstock set over was used to machine the taper?Not learned 640. In order to convert taper per inch to taper per foot, you should __________.Not learned 641. Which of the following definitions accurately describes 'tool feed' when referring to lathe work?Not learned 642. From the illustration shown, what would be the normal procedure to make adjustments to angle "E"Not learned 643. A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.Not learned 644. One method of accurately checking the alignment of lathe centers is by moving a dial indicator, securely mounted on compound rest, between the two positions indicated on the test bar. If the dial indicator reading on the tailstock end of the test bar shows a higher (+) reading than the dial indicator reading at the headstock end, you should move the tailstock __________Not learned 645. To ensure the stock is running true in a lathe, you should use a __________.Not learned 646. If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel work piece in a lathe and see blue chips coming off that work piece, you should __________.Not learned 647. When knurling a piece of work on a lathe, it is important to __________.Not learned 648. When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe, you should mount the drill chuck in the __________.Not learned 649. To properly use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil hole in a bushing, you would mount the crotch center in the __________.Not learned 650. Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure __________.Not learned 651. Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged, you must be certain the __________.Not learned 652. When stock is being turned down on a lathe, the outside diameter is reduced by an amount equal to __________.Not learned 653. A depth of cut of 0.26 inch reduces the diameter on a work piece in a lathe by __________.Not learned 654. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the __________.Not learned 655. To properly cut even numbered threads using the lathe thread dial indicator shown in the illustration, you should close the lathe split or half-nut on __________Not learned 656. To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________Not learned 657. The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is most easily machined by the __________.Not learned 658. A taper may be turned on a lathe by __________.Not learned 659. To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first _________.Not learned 660. Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage locked in position?Not learned 661. The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only after the end of the work piece has been __________.Not learned 662. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?Not learned 663. Which of the following statements best defines 'depth of cut' in lathe work?Not learned 664. If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the work piece tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should __________.Not learned 665. When castings with surface scale are being turned in an engine lathe, how is the first roughing cut taken in terms of depth of cut and feed?Not learned 666. A roughened checkered surface is machined by a lathe on round stock using a __________.Not learned 667. To properly cut an odd numbered thread with a lathe using the thread dial indicator illustrated, you should close the lathe split, or half-nut on __________Not learned 668. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch producedis determined by the speed relationship between the __________.Not learned 669. Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a change in the __________.Not learned 670. A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.Not learned 671. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________.Not learned 672. The tool shown in the illustration is called a __________Not learned 673. The lathe tool shown as "Q" in the illustration is a __________Not learned 674. To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.Not learned 675. Copper sheet metal that is to be used as a gasket, is usually annealed by heating it to a cherry red color, and then __________.Not learned 676. Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.Not learned 677. When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical properties are achieved?Not learned 678. When metal is tempered, it becomes __________.Not learned 679. When metal is tempered, it becomes __________.Not learned 680. The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.Not learned 681. What is the purpose of heat treating steel?Not learned 682. Which of the nondestructive testing methods listed, is most often used to accurately detect external defects in welded metals?Not learned 683. In radiographic inspections, the standard test piece included in every radiograph provides an effective check on the overall quality and bears a numerical relation to the thickness of the part being tested. This piece is called a/an __________.Not learned 684. Which of the following conditions is true concerning a radiograph taken on a large welded piping repair?Not learned 685. Which nondestructive testing method is suitable for use in detecting and identifying a diameter subsurface void in a six inch diameter stainless steel shaft?Not learned 686. Which of the following nondestructive testing methods can be used to detect a suspected subsurface defect in a tail shaft liner?Not learned 687. Following the withdrawal of the tail shaft, which non-destructive test could be used to locate cracks? liquid penetrant dye magnetic fluxNot learned 688. Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a __________.Not learned 689. Tinning a soldering iron will __________.Not learned 690. Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.Not learned 691. Soldering flux aids the soldering process by __________.Not learned 692. Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.Not learned 693. Solder is an alloy of __________.Not learned 694. Soft solders have relatively low melting points and consist mainly of __________.Not learned 695. Bronze metal is an alloy composed mainly of __________.Not learned 696. Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of __________.Not learned 697. Brass metal is an alloy composed mainly of __________.Not learned 698. Stainless steel is an alloy composed mainly of __________.Not learned 699. The welding symbol as shown in the illustration uses a circle to indicate a/an __________Not learned 700. Using the information in the illustration shown, the tail of the welding symbol will __________Not learned 701. You should never watch the arc generated during electric arc welder with the naked eye because __________.Not learned 702. When arc welding, you can reduce the chance of a dangerous electric shock by __________.Not learned 703. Safe welding practice requires __________.Not learned 704. In the illustration, the welded neck flange is attached to the pipe by a __________.Illustration GS-0078Not learned 705. The type of welded joint illustrated is referred to as a/an __________Not learned 706. The best method in assisting the proper alignment and welding of the flange and pipe shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 707. Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is thenegative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.Not learned 708. The welding process using an electric arc developed between a flux covered electrode and the metal being welded is known as __________.Not learned 709. When welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode, and getting only shallow penetration, you should __________.Not learned 710. The welding symbol reference line using the inverted "V" indicates __________Not learned 711. To ensure a good weld, post heating is required whenever an arc weld repair is made __________.Not learned 712. The designation E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding electrode. Which of the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies the welding position for which the electrode is recommended?Not learned 713. A welding electrode is marked E-6010, this designation means that __________.Not learned 714. Which illustration correctly depicts a double bevel groove weldNot learned 715. Which of the following listed illustrated joint preparations correctly depicts a single "J" grooveNot learned 716. Which of the listed welded joints represents the least amount of preparationNot learned 717. The weld type illustrated and indicated as '5B' is known as a/an __________Not learned 718. The high strength structural steel, such as Grade DH 32, when used as part of the main deck plating, is noted on the vessel's Certificate of Inspection. The information is important because __________.Not learned 719. When arc welding, the flux that covers the electrode is used to __________.Not learned 720. Why is a chemical covering applied to a welding stick electrode, rather than using a bare electrode?Not learned 721. Which of the following statements concerning braze welding is/are correct?Not learned 722. In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each pass to __________.Not learned 723. Which of the following statements is correct concerning welding sequences?Not learned 724. Which of the factors listed governs the intensity of heat required for any given welding job?Not learned 725. A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right angles toeach other, and is called a __________.Not learned 726. The root opening dimension shown in the illustration is used to indicate the __________Not learned 727. The root opening of the weld, shown in the illustration, is indicated to be __________Not learned 728. The root opening dimension shown in the illustration is used to indicate the __________Not learned 729. While carrying out electric arc welding, there is always the danger of __________.Not learned 730. A hazard associated with electric arc welding is __________.Not learned 731. In order to minimize distortion in a weldment due to shrinkage, you should __________.Not learned 732. With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, hard-facing, and the welding of non-ferrous alloys, such as monel, the best flame to use is termed a/an __________.Not learned 733. In an oxyacetylene welding outfit, the torch tip orifice size __________.Not learned 734. When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you shouldclose the __________.Not learned 735. When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, __________.Not learned 736. When welding or burning with an oxy-acetylene torch, __________.Not learned 737. In an oxy-acetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and two pressure gages. One pressure gage indicates cylinder pressure and the other gage is used to indicate __________.Not learned 738. Acetylene should never be used at pressures in excess of 15 psig because the __________.Not learned 739. An acetylene pressure regulator should never be adjusted to maintain pressures exceeding 15 psig (103.4 kPa) because __________.Not learned 740. Which of the following listed pressures is the maximum acetylene gas pressure that can be safely used in gas welding?Not learned 741. When gas welding or burning, the acetylene working pressure must be kept below 15 psi to prevent a possible __________.Not learned 742. When gas welding or burning, the acetylene working pressure must be kept below 15 psi to prevent a possible __________.Not learned 743. When welding or burning with an oxygen-acetylene torch, the acetylene hose working pressure must not exceed __________.Not learned 744. Which statement describes the function of the filler material used in acetylene cylinders?Not learned 745. Careful handling of compressed gas bottles should include __________.Not learned 746. Which of the following practices is considered to be safe for the handling and use of compressed gas cylinders?Not learned 747. Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should always be stored __________.Not learned 748. Which of the precautions listed should to be observed when working with oxy-acetylene welding equipment?Not learned 749. Protective equipment while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should include the use of __________.Not learned 750. Protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should always include __________.Not learned 751. Protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should always include __________.Not learned 752. Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxy-acetylene regulators and torches?Not learned 753. Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxy-acetylene regulators and torches?Not learned 754. Which of the following procedures would be correct when first lighting-off an oxy-acetylene torch?Not learned 755. When using the circular magnetic particle method to nondestructively test a weldment, the best results are obtained when the __________.Not learned 756. Cracks may be prevented from developing at the corners of welded plating inserts by __________.Not learned 757. In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each pass to __________.Not learned 758. The designation E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding electrode. Which of the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies the welding position for which the electrode is recommended?Not learned 759. Protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should always include __________.Not learned 760. When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, __________.Not learned 761. When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you shouldclose the __________.Not learned 762. Solder is an alloy of __________.Not learned 763. Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a __________.Not learned 764. Tinning a soldering iron will __________.Not learned 765. Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.Not learned 766. What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on welding a joint?Not learned 767. The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is __________.Not learned 768. To accurately cut the proper size gasket for installation in a pipeline, you should use __________.Not learned 769. The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a _______.Not learned 770. The best gasket material to use in cargo fuel oil lines is __________.Not learned 771. Which of the gasket types listed is typically used on high-pressure steam flange joints?Not learned 772. To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.Not learned 773. Small leaks in gaskets of a flanged pipe joint should be stopped immediately after installation for what reason?Not learned 774. When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts be tightened?Not learned 775. If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 776. The valve shown in the illustration is designed to seal against positive pressure leaks around the valve stem by the use of __________Not learned 777. To properly remove packing from a valve stuffing box, you should use a __________.Not learned 778. Fabric type packing, such as flax or hemp, is best suited for __________.Not learned 779. Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 780. When adding packing to a pump shaft seal, you must be careful to prevent __________.Not learned 781. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.Not learned 782. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.Not learned 783. When replacing packing rings in the stuffing boxes of reciprocating pump piston rods, the ends of the rings should be cut __________.Not learned 784. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________.Not learned 785. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?Not learned 786. Heavy wear in a particular area of the inner circumference of a packing ring may be caused by __________.Not learned 787. One of the many troubles occurring with centrifugal pump shaft packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition. This wear may be caused by __________.Not learned 788. One of the many problems occurring with centrifugal pump shaft packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland. If the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition during the same operating period, the wear is most likely caused by __________.Not learned 789. Excessive wear on the packing rings nearest the pump packing gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition, is caused by __________.Not learned 790. Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal pump is caused by __________.Not learned 791. The knife edges and gaskets of watertight doors should be __________.Not learned 792. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?Not learned 793. Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?Not learned 794. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.Not learned 795. The needle valve (piece #3) shown in the illustration, is held in the test valve body (piece #2) by a __________Not learned 796. A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used __________.Not learned 797. A gate valve installed in a pipeline should be __________.Not learned 798. Which of the valves listed should be used either in the fully opened or the fully closed position?Not learned 799. The illustrated valve is recommended for use __________Not learned 800. If used for regulating fluid flow through a piping system, which of the valves listed could be damaged?Not learned 801. Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________.Not learned 802. What type of valve is shown in the illustrationNot learned 803. What type of valve is shown in the illustrationNot learned 804. Compared to globe and angle valves, gate valves __________.Not learned 805. When in the completely opened position, which of the listed types of valve will offer the least resistance to flow?Not learned 806. An inverted gate valve (stem pointing downward) may be subject to wear sooner than a similar valve installed in the upright position because __________.Not learned 807. Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________.Not learned 808. Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________.Not learned 809. Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 810. On tankers using manually operated tank valves, what does the deck hand wheel indicator register?Not learned 811. On vessels using reach rods to manually control the tank valves, one turn of the hand wheel on deck will produce how many turns of the valve stem at the valve?Not learned 812. On tankers with manually operated tank valves, which of the following is the type of valve most commonly used?Not learned 813. A non-rising stem gate valve should __________.Not learned 814. The illustrated valve is known as a __________Not learned 815. The device shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 816. A swing check valve is used in a pipeline to __________.Not learned 817. Which of the valves listed below permits flow in only one direction?Not learned 818. Which of the following statements regarding the illustrated device is trueNot learned 819. A stop-check valve is a type of check valve that ________.Not learned 820. You would open the illustrated valve "A" by __________Not learned 821. You would open the illustrated valve "A" by __________Not learned 822. The illustrated valve, figure "A", needs to be repaired due to a leak across the valve disk. To disassemble the valve you should __________Not learned 823. The illustrated valve "A" needs to be repaired due to a leak across the valve disk. To repair the valve you should __________Not learned 824. The valve which is most suited for regulating the flow through a pipeline is a __________.Not learned 825. The valve best suited for throttling gas or liquid flow in a pipeline is the __________.Not learned 826. Which of the valves listed below is best suited for throttling service?Not learned 827. The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring __________.Not learned 828. An 8-inch (203 mm), globe-type, stop-check valve has been installed in the lube-oil cooler water outlet, with the flow coming in from the top of the disk. This means that __________.Not learned 829. Which of the following statements represents the proper relative direction of flow through a globe valve?Not learned 830. "Prussian Blue" is commonly used __________.Not learned 831. Prussian blue is used to __________.Not learned 832. Small irregularities on the seat and disk of a globe valve may be manually repaired with the valve in place by the process known as __________.Not learned 833. Which one of the following statements describes the throttling characteristics of a typical globe valve?Not learned 834. When comparing globe valves to gate valves, globe valves:Not learned 835. When comparing gate valves to globe valves, gate valves __________.Not learned 836. To "verify" the position of a fully opened manual valve in an operating system, the operator should operate the valve hand wheel:Not learned 837. The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.Not learned 838. The valve depicted in the illustration shown is a __________Not learned 839. Which of the following statements concerning butterfly valves is correct?Not learned 840. Which of the valves listed will be cycled from fully open to fully closed when the handle is turned 90°?Not learned 841. The valve illustrated is to be constructed so that the __________Not learned 842. The illustrated valve is __________Not learned 843. Which of the following conditions can develop if a valve with a badly scored valve stem is repacked?Not learned 844. Excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing is a result of __________.Not learned 845. An eroded globe valve disk can be repaired by __________.Not learned 846. Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force open a valve 'frozen' in position by using a wrench on the hand wheel?Not learned 847. Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force open a valve 'frozen' in position by using a wrench on the hand wheel?Not learned 848. Which CFR provides information that pertains to sea valve inspections during a vessel dry-docking?Not learned 849. The handle of a butterfly valve must be __________.Not learned 850. Valves used in the machinery space piping systems, and constructed with threaded valve stems, must be __________.Not learned 851. All of the manifold valves shown in the illustration are __________Not learned 852. The overboard discharge valves in the bilge system illustrated are __________Not learned 853. The bilge pump suction manifold, shown in the illustration, is provided with __________Not learned 854. The device shown in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 855. The device shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 856. The device shown in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 857. The diaphragm orifice labeled "H", as shown in the illustration is used as a/an __________Not learned 858. Water flow is established through the unit shown in the illustration when __________Not learned 859. Water flow occurs through the unit shown in the illustration when __________Not learned 860. Which of the following statements would apply to the principle of operation of the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 861. According to the illustration, which of the following statements represents the order of events required to occur for the device to closeNot learned 862. If water continues to trickle into the toilet bowl after the device shown in the illustration has apparently closed, the problem is likely due to __________Not learned 863. Foot valves are primarily designed to __________.Not learned 864. Foot valves are primarily designed to __________.Not learned 865. The device shown in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 866. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of steam pressure reducing valves is correct?Not learned 867. The device illustrated is used as a __________Not learned 868. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that tank sounding pipes terminating below the freeboard deck of a cargo vessel must be fitted with a __________.Not learned 869. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) specifically prohibit seats or disks in pressure vessel relief valves to be made of __________.Not learned 870. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), all pressure vessels other than unfired steam boilers shall be protected by pressure-relieving devices that prevent the pressure from rising more than __________ above the maximum allowable working pressure.Not learned 871. Which of the symbols shown in the illustration is used to identify a stop-check valveNot learned 872. The device shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 873. The device shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 874. The device shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 875. To prevent over-pressurization when loading liquid petroleum products, cargo tanks must be fitted with a/an __________.Not learned 876. Which of the following procedures would ensure proper seating of the valve when closing?Not learned 877. Which of the following applies to cargo tank safety valves?Not learned 878. What is the primary purpose of a reach rod as used as a valve remote operator?Not learned 879. In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?Not learned 880. Suppose a remote valve operator is fitted with a gearbox. What is the purpose of the gearbox?Not learned 881. What type of valve would be fitted with a quarter-turn power actuator, such as a rack-and-pinion?Not learned 882. A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used __________.Not learned 883. What type of valve is shown in the illustrationNot learned 884. The illustrated valve is known as a __________Not learned 885. The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.Not learned 886. The valve depicted in the illustration shown is a __________Not learned 887. How is the emergency bilge suction valve typically used?Not learned 888. The device shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 889. How would the illustrated valve respond to a complete loss of charge from the remote bulb-to-control diaphragm power element if the valve is used as a temperature control valve for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heaterNot learned 890. As it pertains to safety valves, what is the definition of blow down?Not learned 891. Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement concerning the blowdown adjusting ring (B) is trueNot learned 892. Concerning safety valves, what statement is true?Not learned 893. Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true concerning the adjustment of the popping pressureNot learned 894. Which of the following listed valves would require "blow down" to insure proper operation and prevent damage due to repeated and rapid opening and closing?Not learned 895. Concerning pressure-relief valves, what statement is true?Not learned 896. Concerning sentinel valves, what statement is true?Not learned 897. Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is trueNot learned 898. Suppose the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve is used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling the steam flow. What would be the result if the stem packing was over-tightened and the stem was unable to vertically move in either directionNot learned 899. Assuming that the flow is from left to right on the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is trueNot learned 900. In the illustrated pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the control diaphragmNot learned 901. Suppose the pilot pressure range is from 3 to 15 psig for the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve. Assuming the control valve is trimmed for a linear response and the travel position indicator is calibrated in percentage, what would be the approximate valve position with a 9 psig pilot pressureNot learned 902. If water continues to flow excessively from the device shown in the illustration, the problem is most likely due to __________Not learned 903. When the illustrated device is in the process of opening the associated valve, the motor will be secured by the action of the __________Not learned 904. When a non-butterfly valve is closed, the motor of the device illustrated will be secured by a __________Not learned 905. The device shown in the illustration is used to open and close a butterfly valve. The motor will be typically secured during the closing phase by the use of the __________Not learned 906. The device depicted in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 907. An electric motor driven (torque producing) remotely controlled, valve actuator is installed on the high sea suction with the 'red' indicator light illuminated. When the 'open' push button is depressed, the 'green' indicator light comes on momentarily and then goes out, without any appreciable movement of the valve. Which of the following actions should be carried out?Not learned 908. On tank vessels equipped with power operated cargo tank valves, the type of power actuator most commonly used is __________.Not learned 909. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) require all power-operated valves, other than those opened against spring force, to have an energy storage system. That energy storage system shall be capable of __________.Not learned 910. Which of the listed types of steam traps operates on the principle that hot water flashes to steam when its vapor pressure is rapidly reduced?Not learned 911. The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the __________.Not learned 912. The operation of a bellows type thermostatic steam trap depends upon the __________.Not learned 913. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of the bucket type steam trap shownNot learned 914. The device illustrated is referred to as a/an __________Not learned 915. The function of the device illustrated is to __________Not learned 916. The basic function of a steam trap is to __________.Not learned 917. The basic function of a steam trap includes which of the following processes?Not learned 918. If "E" is moved closer to the top of "B" as shown in the illustration, the __________Not learned 919. In the operation of the illustrated steam trap, condensate will continue to pass through the outlet as long as __________Not learned 920. The quantity of condensate passing through the illustrated steam trap will be reduced as the __________Not learned 921. The quantity of condensate passing through the illustrated steam trap will be reduced as the __________Not learned 922. Steam traps should be installed at the lowest outlet point of the heat exchanger in a horizontal run of pipe. Which of the following installation considerations should also be maintained?Not learned 923. A suitable location for the installation of an impulse type steam trap would be in the __________.Not learned 924. The trap illustrated operates as a __________Not learned 925. The trap illustrated operates as a __________Not learned 926. Traps in plumbing drains are designed to help prevent __________.Not learned 927. Traps at plumbing drain connections prevent __________.Not learned 928. What is the reason that P-type or S-type traps are fitted on the sinks in a head?Not learned 929. A leaking steam trap located in the return lines from a heating system is indicated by excessive __________.Not learned 930. Admitting steam to an improperly drained heating system could result in __________.Not learned 931. What could be the cause of water hammer in a steam heating system?Not learned 932. Steam line water hammer can be best prevented by __________.Not learned 933. Damage to deck machinery from water hammer developing in the steam lines can be prevented by __________.Not learned 934. If water hammer develops while opening the valve in a steam line, which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 935. If water hammer develops while opening the valve in a steam line, which of the following actions should be taken?Not learned 936. Noise caused by condensate striking bends or fittings in a steam pipe line is called __________.Not learned 937. How is a diaphragm type steam whistle protected from damage due to entrained condensate?Not learned 938. The steam separator as used in conjunction with a steam whistle normally drains to which of the listed drain systems?Not learned 939. What is the reason that P-type or S-type traps are fitted on the sinks in a head?Not learned 940. Suppose a steam trap's primary purpose is to insure good heat transfer of a steam-heated heat exchanger. What statement is true concerning the outcome of a steam trap failure?Not learned 941. What statement representing the primary purpose of a steam trap is true?Not learned 942. What type of steam trap is most susceptible to damage if allowed to come into contact with superheated steam?Not learned 943. Referring to the illustrated bellows-type thermostatic steam trap, what statement is true concerning its operationNot learned 944. Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading the control cylinder "E" upward out of the trap bodyNot learned 945. In order for a steam trap to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose, what statement is true regarding its installation?Not learned 946. The distillate pump for a 12000 GPD evaporator, should be rated at a minimum of __________.Not learned 947. In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute by __________Not learned 948. Which of the listed metals offers the best resistance to sea water corrosion?Not learned 949. In the diagram, shown in the illustration, the swing-check valve is represented by the item numbered __________Not learned 950. Which of the following statements correctly describes the construction of the close coupled sanitary pump shown in the illustrationNot learned 951. Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a centrifugal pump?Not learned 952. If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump suction, the remainder is the __________.Not learned 953. Which units of measurement are commonly used to express pump suction head values when calculating pump capacities and hydraulic horsepower?Not learned 954. The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.Not learned 955. The total static head of a system resisting the operation of a centrifugal pump is the difference in elevation between the __________.Not learned 956. Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?Not learned 957. A centrifugal pump operating against a closed discharge valve has a/an __________.Not learned 958. The static suction lift of a pump is the difference in elevation between the __________.Not learned 959. The static positive suction head of a pump is the __________.Not learned 960. The static suction head of a horizontal centrifugal pump, is the difference in elevation between the __________.Not learned 961. A pump is defined as a device that __________.Not learned 962. A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting discharge head by energy conversion. It is typical for the energy conversion to follow the order of __________.Not learned 963. A liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump. As the liquid passes through the volute, its velocity decreases and __________.Not learned 964. It requires 151 HP to operate a centrifugal pump having a 14.75 inch impeller at 1800 RPM, at a capacity of 2250 GPM with a 218 foot head. If during an overhaul of the pump, the impeller diameter is reduced to 14 inches, the horsepower requirement to operate the pump at the same RPM would be __________.Not learned 965. The discharge rate or capacity of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as the __________.Not learned 966. The brake horsepower of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as the __________.Not learned 967. It requires 151 HP to operate a centrifugal pump having a 14.75 inch impeller at 1800 RPM, at a capacity of 2250 GPM with a 218 foot head. If during an overhaul of the pump, the impeller diameter is reduced to 14 inches, the capacity of the pump operating at the same RPM would be __________.Not learned 968. The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will vary directly with the __________.Not learned 969. It requires 151 HP to operate a centrifugal pump having a 14.75 inch impeller at 1800 RPM, at a capacity of 2250 GPM with a 218 foot head. If during an overhaul of the pump, the impeller diameter is reduced to 14 inches, the discharge head of the pump operating at the same RPM would be __________.Not learned 970. Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an increase in its capacity. Another means of increasing the capacity of a centrifugal pump is to increase the __________.Not learned 971. The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased by the installation of a larger diameter impeller. Another means of increasing the pump capacity is to __________.Not learned 972. Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an increase in the pump capacity. Another means of increasing the total head pressure of a centrifugal pump is to increase the __________.Not learned 973. Assume identical impeller diameter, width and speed. Which of the following impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity?Not learned 974. The impeller shown in the illustration is best described as a/an __________Not learned 975. The impeller shown in the illustration is an example of a/an __________Not learned 976. The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.Not learned 977. Closed impellers differ from open impellers in that closed impellers __________.Not learned 978. The centrifugal pump component responsible for converting the mechanical energy of the liquid being pumped, to that of kinetic energy is the __________.Not learned 979. Theoretically, a double suction impeller is in hydraulic axial balance. In actuality this balance is rarely achieved due to __________.Not learned 980. To absorb the wear resulting from impeller rotation and abrasives in the liquid, a centrifugal pump is usually fitted with __________.Not learned 981. The purpose of the wearing ring used in the illustrated pump is to __________Not learned 982. One of the main functions of wearing rings, as used in a centrifugal pumps, is to __________.Not learned 983. The purpose of wearing rings as found in large centrifugal pumps is to __________.Not learned 984. What is the function of wearing rings found on some centrifugal pumps?Not learned 985. Which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need for renewing worn impellers and pump casings?Not learned 986. In most horizontally split centrifugal pump casings, wearing rings are prevented from rotating by __________.Not learned 987. To maintain the design discharge pressure of a centrifugal pump, the clearance between the __________.Not learned 988. On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge?Not learned 989. On modern tankers with separate pumprooms, which of the following is used to minimize cargo pump shaft leakage?Not learned 990. A lantern ring is __________.Not learned 991. Lantern rings are provided on centrifugal pumps to __________.Not learned 992. The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to __________.Not learned 993. Which pump installation would require an external source of sealing water?Not learned 994. Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing box of a centrifugal pump __________.Not learned 995. Centrifugal pumps are designed with sealing lines __________.Not learned 996. Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is prevented by __________.Not learned 997. Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing box of a centrifugal pump __________.Not learned 998. The proper design of a centrifugal pump must include a seal cage and sealing line when the pump __________.Not learned 999. A centrifugal pump designed to handle a liquid with a temperature of 250°F or greater must be provided with __________.Not learned 1000. A centrifugal pump must have a stuffing box liquid sealing line and seal cages installed if the pump __________.Not learned 1001. The seal piping obtains liquid from the discharge side of the pump and directs the liquid to the __________.Not learned 1002. In a centrifugal pump, the purpose of the sealing line is to provide liquid from the discharge side of the pump directly to the __________.Not learned 1003. The factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include which of the following conditions?Not learned 1004. The packing installed in the pump stuffing box is normally lubricated by __________.Not learned 1005. In the illustration, the item labeled as '31' is __________. used to vent off air from the stuffing box used to supply sealing water to the stuffing box See illustration GS-0012.Not learned 1006. In the illustration, the item labeled as '31' is __________. used to vent off air from the stuffing box used to supply sealing water to the stuffing box See illustration GS-0012.Not learned 1007. In the illustration, the item labeled as '30' is __________. used to prime the pump at start-up to supply sealing water to the stuffing box See illustration GS-0012.Not learned 1008. Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?Not learned 1009. Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants are required?Not learned 1010. Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustrationNot learned 1011. Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.Not learned 1012. Spring reinforced oil seals for retention of lubricant, are installed with the lip of the seal facing __________Not learned 1013. Why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal pump shafts?Not learned 1014. Which of the following centrifugal pump components converts the liquid kinetic energy of velocity to the potential energy of pressure?Not learned 1015. The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to __________.Not learned 1016. The function of a centrifugal pump double volute casing is to __________.Not learned 1017. A centrifugal pump with a double volute casing operated at greater than design capacity, will __________.Not learned 1018. The diffusion ring installed in many high pressure centrifugal pumps, such as feed pumps, __________.Not learned 1019. Radial thrust developed in high pressure centrifugal pumps can be eliminated by the use of __________.Not learned 1020. Most pump manufacturers recommend that the suction piping dimension for centrifugal pumps be __________.Not learned 1021. Most pump manufacturers recommended that the discharge piping for centrifugal pumps be __________.Not learned 1022. Most pump manufacturers recommend that the discharge piping for centrifugal pumps be one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle to __________.Not learned 1023. Two individual centrifugal pump impellers of the same diameter, width, and rotating speed are to be compared, one is cast with straight vanes, the other with curved vanes. Which of the following statements is correct?Not learned 1024. An eccentric reducer, used as a transition piece between a centrifugal pump suction flange and the suction piping flange, must be installed with the eccentric portion below the suction pipe centerline to __________Not learned 1025. As shown in the illustration, the eccentric reducer, used as a transition piece between a centrifugal pump suction flange and the suction piping flange, must be installed with the __________Not learned 1026. To prevent air pockets from forming in a centrifugal pump suction line installed angled from normal, any gate valve should be installed with the __________.Not learned 1027. A multistage centrifugal pump can be BEST described as having __________.Not learned 1028. Which of the following descriptions identifies the centrifugal pump shown in the illustrationNot learned 1029. The pump shown in the illustration can best be described as a centrifugal __________Not learned 1030. The pump shown in the illustration is a __________Not learned 1031. Which of the following is/are true concerning the pump shown in the illustrationNot learned 1032. The shaft sleeve for the pump shown in the illustration is identified by which item numberNot learned 1033. Items #68 and #78 as shown in the pump illustration are identified as the __________Not learned 1034. With respect to centrifugal pump design, which of the following descriptions best represents a pump utilizing two impellers?Not learned 1035. The discharge side of the pump illustrated is identified by the letter '_____Not learned 1036. The suction side of the illustrated pump is identified by the letter '_____Not learned 1037. The stud and nut pictured just below "B" is used to __________Not learned 1038. The bearings for the illustrated pump are lubricated by __________Not learned 1039. Item "B" in the pump illustration is the __________Not learned 1040. Item "J" in the pump illustration __________Not learned 1041. The suction nozzle classification of the pump shown in the illustration can best be described as __________Not learned 1042. Which of the devices listed is common to all types of pumps?Not learned 1043. One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the absence of a __________.Not learned 1044. In the illustration, item "5" represents a __________Not learned 1045. A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to __________.Not learned 1046. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the operation of a centrifugal cargo pump?Not learned 1047. Generally, centrifugal pumps operating without a positive suction head must be primed before they will move liquid on their own. The priming is usually accomplished with a __________.Not learned 1048. A centrifugal pump attempting to develop flow against a closed discharge valve has a/an __________.Not learned 1049. What prevents water running along the shaft of a leaking centrifugal pump from entering the shaft bearing?Not learned 1050. Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by the use of __________.Not learned 1051. In order to properly remove air from the casing of a centrifugal pump when starting, the pump should have a __________.Not learned 1052. The petcock "B" installed on the illustrated pump is used to __________Not learned 1053. Which of the following statements is true concerning the pump characteristics shown in the illustrationNot learned 1054. Which of the following statements is true concerning the pump characteristics shown in the illustrationNot learned 1055. Which of the following statements is true concerning the pump characteristics shown in the illustrationNot learned 1056. From the characteristics shown in the illustration, what would be the approximate shut-off head pressure of the centrifugal salt water pumpNot learned 1057. One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing is that __________.Not learned 1058. It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal pump impeller with the vanes facing in the wrong direction. This would cause the pump __________.Not learned 1059. It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal pump impeller with the vanes facing in the wrong direction. This would cause the pump __________.Not learned 1060. Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids at relatively low pressures?Not learned 1061. The net positive suction head of a boiler centrifugal feed pump should be calculated over and above the __________.Not learned 1062. The leakage of air into the pump casing by way of the packing gland of a condensate pump, is prevented by __________.Not learned 1063. Cavitation is a term commonly used with centrifugal pumps to describe __________.Not learned 1064. What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump?Not learned 1065. What type of valve is usually on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel?Not learned 1066. What type of valve is usually on the discharge side of a cargo pump on a tank vessel?Not learned 1067. The cargo pump relief valve is usually piped to which of the following components?Not learned 1068. The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.Not learned 1069. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?Not learned 1070. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.Not learned 1071. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.Not learned 1072. Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?Not learned 1073. Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated centrifugal pump under manual supervision?Not learned 1074. The device shown in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________Not learned 1075. The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to __________.Not learned 1076. Item "B" in the pump illustration is the __________Not learned 1077. A pumping system utilizing a centrifugal pump is designed for a specific discharge head in feet. What happens to the pump's discharge pressure when the Specific Gravity (SG) of the fluid pumped changes?Not learned 1078. After a disassembly of a single stage centrifugal pump, one finds the outer circumference of the impeller badly pitted and worn. Not having a spare impeller on board, it is decided to turn down the impeller to eliminate the wear/pitting. What will be the pump capacity, in GPM, after the reduction of impeller diameter by 0.5 inches? GIVEN: Original pump capacity = 30 GPM Original impeller diameter = 8 in.Not learned 1079. One is informed by the owner that two of the vessel's electrically driven centrifugal cooling water pumps will be replaced with two of higher capacity pumps. No modification of existing piping will be involved. What should be your concerns from an operational perspective?Not learned 1080. Both existing centrifugal cooling water pumps will be replaced by two of a higher GPM. Only one pump is used in normal operation and there will be no modifications to their discharge piping. This is an operational concern since increased velocity will increase pipe erosion. What is the fluid velocity in feet/minute in the discharge piping with new pumps, given the following data?Not learned 1081. The assistant engineer reports an installed centrifugal pump has a history of running higher than normal amperage since new construction. Capacity and discharge head for the pump are more than adequate. All other system parameters are normal. The best way to reduce the pump load is to do which of the following?Not learned 1082. On disassembling a centrifugal pump for overhaul, the third engineer reports holes drilled axially in the back side of a single suction closed impeller. The reason for the these holes is which of the following?Not learned 1083. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?Not learned 1084. Your centrifugal ballast pump is producing a pressure less than the designed discharge pressure. What could be the cause?Not learned 1085. The shipyard has just reassembled an overhauled centrifugal pump. On testing, water is coming from the mechanical seal area. Which of the following are likely reasons for the leakage?Not learned 1086. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the _______.Not learned 1087. If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause?Not learned 1088. When shifting suction from one fresh water tank to another, if the fresh water pump loses suction you should___________.Not learned 1089. Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids, must have a minimum flow through them under all operating conditions. This flow serves to __________.Not learned 1090. To maintain design discharge pressure from a centrifugal pump, the design clearance must be maintained between the __________.Not learned 1091. Some centrifugal pumps have water lines connected to the stuffing box glands to __________.Not learned 1092. When a centrifugal pump is operating with a positive suction head, the inner end of the stuffing box is __________.Not learned 1093. If a horizontal centrifugal pump becomes air bound, the pump should be vented at the __________.Not learned 1094. If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head becomes air bound, your FIRST response should be to __________.Not learned 1095. If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed, the __________.Not learned 1096. If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed, the __________.Not learned 1097. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 1098. To operate a centrifugal fire pump at reduced capacity, you should __________.Not learned 1099. If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid through a common discharge line, the higher speed pump may cause the slower pump to do which of the following?Not learned 1100. Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid?Not learned 1101. If the valve "A" on the pump illustrated is closed, the __________Not learned 1102. Which of the following actions should be taken if, during a routine maintenance inspection of a centrifugal pump, localized scoring on a pump shaft sleeve is detected?Not learned 1103. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?Not learned 1104. The pump packing gland has been repeatedly tightened by small increments until the gland has bottomed. Which of the actions listed should be carried out next if the leakage continues to be excessive?Not learned 1105. To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried out?Not learned 1106. A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?Not learned 1107. A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What corrective action is required?Not learned 1108. After the installation of new impeller wearing rings by pressing them onto the pump impeller hub, it is advisable to __________.Not learned 1109. When renewing the shaft packing on a centrifugal pump equipped with an external liquid sealing supply, you should __________.Not learned 1110. During the inspection of a low pressure pump, the wearing ring is determined to have a clearance of 0.011" - 0.013", you should __________.Not learned 1111. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.Not learned 1112. What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable to maintain necessary discharge pressure to a system? failure of the internal parts of the pump failure of the pump relief valve springNot learned 1113. What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable to maintain necessary discharge pressure to a system? failure of the coupling used on a close-coupled pump fracture of one packing gland boltNot learned 1114. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump is a result of __________.Not learned 1115. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitations in a centrifugal pump?Not learned 1116. On watch aboard ship, which of the following conditions will prevent a general service shipboard pump from achieving its maximum suction lift?Not learned 1117. Which of the following conditions will indicate a need for a finishing cut to be taken on the pump shaft?Not learned 1118. The shaft sleeves have recently been replaced on a centrifugal salt water service pump. The packing gland is now drawn tightly up against the casing. Despite the use of standard procedures to tighten the packing gland, water continues to pour out along the shaft. The probable cause for this situation is that __________.Not learned 1119. While on watch, you notice that a significant amount of water is flowing out of the packing box from a centrifugal salt water pump which had been recently overhauled. You tighten the packing gland evenly by nearly a half inch, yet the amount of water output from the packing box does not diminish. You should __________.Not learned 1120. While on watch, you notice that a significant amount of water is flowing out of the packing box from a centrifugal salt water pump which had been recently overhauled. You tighten the packing gland evenly by nearly a half inch, yet the amount of water output from the packing box does not diminish. You should __________.Not learned 1121. A centrifugal pump vibrates excessively during operation. Upon disassembling the pump it is found that the impeller is out of balance. Without an available spare, you should __________.Not learned 1122. If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed electric motor and produces a discharge pressure less than designed, the cause is probably __________.Not learned 1123. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually over a long period of time, you should replace the __________.Not learned 1124. If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed prime mover and produces a flow rate less than the designed specifications, the cause could be __________.Not learned 1125. Operating a water service centrifugal pump with an excessive amount of wearing ring clearance would result in _______.Not learned 1126. If a centrifugal pump vibrates and is noisy when operating, the cause could be __________.Not learned 1127. A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.Not learned 1128. If a centrifugal pump sealing line becomes restricted while operating under a negative suction head (suction lift), which of the following may occur?Not learned 1129. If a centrifugal boiler feed pump operating with a positive suction head vibrates, or becomes noisy, the cause could be __________.Not learned 1130. A double suction centrifugal pump impeller has been installed in the reverse direction, and will __________.Not learned 1131. If the shaft packing for a centrifugal pump requires replacement more frequently than normal, a possible cause may be __________.Not learned 1132. If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the bearings of the condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of __________.Not learned 1133. Frequent bearing replacement in a centrifugal pump, due to rapid bearing wear, can be a result of __________.Not learned 1134. What would probably occur if excessive misalignment existed between a centrifugal pump and its power source?Not learned 1135. Which of the following problems will occur when the suction valve is throttled on a centrifugal pump not designed to operate in this manner?Not learned 1136. What would be the result of throttling the suction valve to the point where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal pump? The designed total net head would be reduced. The pump would begin to cavitate.Not learned 1137. The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal pump is __________.Not learned 1138. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.Not learned 1139. If you hear a 'crackling' noise while standing watch in the engine room coming from a centrifugal pump within a general service system, the most probable cause of the problem would be __________.Not learned 1140. If you hear a 'crackling' sound while standing watch in the engine room coming from a centrifugal pump casing within a general service system, the most probable cause of the noise would be __________.Not learned 1141. If you hear a 'crackling' sound while standing watch in the engine room occurring within a general service system centrifugal pump, the most probable location of the noise would be the __________.Not learned 1142. Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused by __________.Not learned 1143. Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will __________.Not learned 1144. Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will __________.Not learned 1145. If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the packing on the main condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of __________.Not learned 1146. One of three available centrifugal salt water service pumps is in operation with a sea water temperature of 50°F. The cooling temperature of all systems supplied by this pump appear to be high. Therefore, you should __________.Not learned 1147. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as designed, is to ________.Not learned 1148. If the flow of water from a centrifugal pump is allowed to be stopped by closing the discharge valve while the pump continues to run for an indefinite period, the __________.Not learned 1149. You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.Not learned 1150. If the flow of water from a centrifugal pump is allowed to be stopped by closing the discharge valve while the pump continues to run for an extended period, which of the following will occur?Not learned 1151. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?Not learned 1152. If a centrifugal pump is being driven by a steam turbine and the discharge valve is closed off, the pump will __________.Not learned 1153. Which of the following changes in pump operating parameters will lead to pump cavitation in a centrifugal pump that is operating in an open system?Not learned 1154. When securing a distillate pump on a low pressure fresh water evaporator, which of the listed steps should be carried out FIRST?Not learned 1155. When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?Not learned 1156. When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for dewatering the engine room bilges, you would __________. use a rotary, liquid piston type pump to obtain a prime partially open the sea suction valve, then gradually switch over to the required engine room bilge suction valveNot learned 1157. Which of the conditions listed could prevent a centrifugal condensate pump from developing its rated capacity?Not learned 1158. While standing watch in the engine room, you hear a 'crackling' sound coming from within a salt water service system centrifugal pump. The most probable cause for this occurrence would be from an abnormal condition at the __________.Not learned 1159. If you hear a 'crackling' sound while standing watch in the engine room coming from a centrifugal pump casing within a general service system, the most probable cause of the noise would be __________.Not learned 1160. If you hear a 'crackling' noise while standing watch in the engine room coming from a centrifugal pump within a general service system, the most probable cause of the problem would be __________.Not learned 1161. The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal pump is __________.Not learned 1162. On watch aboard ship, which of the following conditions will prevent a general service shipboard pump from achieving its maximum suction lift?Not learned 1163. If you hear a 'crackling' sound while standing watch in the engine room occurring within a general service system centrifugal pump, the most probable location of the noise would be the __________.Not learned 1164. If you hear a 'crackling' sound while standing watch in the engine room coming from a centrifugal pump casing within a general service system, the most probable cause of the noise would be __________.Not learned 1165. If you hear a 'crackling' noise while standing watch in the engine room coming from a centrifugal pump within a general service system, the most probable cause of the problem would be __________.Not learned 1166. The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal pump is __________.Not learned 1167. Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of __________.Not learned 1168. If you hear a 'crackling' sound while standing watch in the engine room occurring within a general service system centrifugal pump, the most probable location of the noise would be the __________.Not learned 1169. What condition listed below would specifically indicate that a pump overhaul was necessary for a centrifugal saltwater service pump.Not learned 1170. What condition listed below would indicate that a pump overhaul was necessary for a centrifugal saltwater service pump.Not learned 1171. What condition listed below would specifically indicate that a pump overhaul was necessary for a centrifugal saltwater service pump.Not learned 1172. What indications would you use to determine that a pump overhaul was necessary for a salt water service centrifugal pump assuming normal salt water supply conditions?Not learned 1173. What is NOT an advantage of centrifugal pumps over reciprocating pumps?Not learned 1174. What is a characteristic of all centrifugal cargo pumps?Not learned 1175. Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tankers?Not learned 1176. Which statement is TRUE of centrifugal pumps aboard tankers?Not learned 1177. While pumping ballast the Chief Mate reports there is a decrease in vacuum on the pump suction when drawing from a partially full saddle tank. Which of the following could be a possible cause?Not learned 1178. While making a round in the lower engine room you discover a leak in the suction pipe to the main salt water pump. How would proceed to correct this problem?Not learned 1179. When reviewing log books, the main salt water cooling pump discharge pressure has decreased in the three years since overhaul. Which of the following would most likely be the cause of the problem.Not learned 1180. When opening a ballast pump for inspection, the wear ring clearance is found to be approaching maximum. Which of the following would be expected?Not learned 1181. If you have a duplex, single acting, reciprocating pump making 140 strokes/minute with a 3" diameter cylinder, and a 12" stroke with a 94% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1182. Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating pump?Not learned 1183. A 12" X 8" X 8" simplex double-acting pump makes 100 strokes per minute. If the slip is 6%, the discharge rate is __________.Not learned 1184. The nameplate of a reciprocating pump lists the following numerals as indicated 7" X 6" X 4". The diameter of the steam cylinder is __________.Not learned 1185. A simplex pump making 60 pumping strokes per minute has a 10 inch stroke and a 6 inch diameter water cylinder, which is 75% full for each stroke. How many gallons of water are discharged per hour?Not learned 1186. Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?Not learned 1187. The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.Not learned 1188. The steam supplied to operate a steam driven reciprocating pump is usually obtained from the __________.Not learned 1189. Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam cylinder of a reciprocating pump?Not learned 1190. In a reciprocating pump, the position of the pilot valve is controlled by the position of the __________.Not learned 1191. Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide valve?Not learned 1192. The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by __________.Not learned 1193. If you determine that a steam reciprocating pump is operating with too long of a stroke, causing the piston nut to strike the cylinder head, you should __________.Not learned 1194. When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves should be _________.Not learned 1195. Before starting a reciprocating, steam-driven pump that has been idle for a period of time, you should __________.Not learned 1196. When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should remain open?Not learned 1197. Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?Not learned 1198. The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to __________.Not learned 1199. To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating pump, you should __________.Not learned 1200. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by_______.Not learned 1201. Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?Not learned 1202. When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the cause may be __________.Not learned 1203. A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service pump could be caused by __________.Not learned 1204. Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will cause the __________.Not learned 1205. The purpose of the air chamber at the discharge side of a steam reciprocating boiler feed pump is to __________.Not learned 1206. A three inch overboard discharge line, located six feet below the waterline, has ruptured and separated from the hull. What would be the minimum number of strokes per minute required from a 8" x 12" x 12" duplex double acting reciprocating bilge pump, operating at 82% efficiency, to keep the bilge level from continuing to riseNot learned 1207. A three inch overboard discharge line, located six feet below the waterline, has ruptured and separated from the hull. What would be the minimum number of strokes per minute required from a 8" x 12" x 12" duplex double acting reciprocating bilge pump, operating at 82% efficiency, to keep the bilge level from continuing to riseNot learned 1208. A three inch overboard discharge line, located six feet below the waterline, has ruptured and separated from the hull. What would be the minimum number of strokes per minute required from a 8" x 12" x 12" duplex double acting reciprocating bilge pump, operating at 82% efficiency, to keep the bilge level from continuing to riseNot learned 1209. A three inch overboard discharge line, located six feet below the waterline, has ruptured and separated from the hull. What would be the minimum number of strokes per minute required from a 8" x 12" x 12" duplex double acting reciprocating bilge pump, operating at 82% efficiency, to keep the bilge level from continuing to riseNot learned 1210. The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.Not learned 1211. When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck equipment should be ______.Not learned 1212. An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by_______.Not learned 1213. If you have a duplex single acting reciprocating pump making 100 strokes/minute, with a 7" diameter cylinder, a 9" stroke and operating with 90% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1214. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 150 strokes/minute, with a 4" diameter cylinder, a 7" stroke and operating with 91% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1215. If you have a duplex single acting reciprocating pump making 150 strokes/minute, with a 6 inch diameter cylinder, a 4 inch stroke and operating with 95% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1216. If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 130 strokes/minute, with a 3" diameter cylinder, a 10" stroke and operating with 93% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1217. If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 100 strokes/minute, with a 4" diameter cylinder, a 7" stroke and operating with 82% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1218. If you have a duplex single acting reciprocating pump making 130 strokes/minute, with a 5" diameter cylinder, a 11" stroke and operating with 93% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1219. If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 130 strokes/minute, with a 3" diameter cylinder, a 10" stroke and operating with 93% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1220. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 160 strokes/minute, with a 4" diameter cylinder, a 12" stroke and operating with 85% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1221. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 130 strokes/minute, with a 3" diameter cylinder, a 5" stroke and operating with 91% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1222. If you have a duplex single acting reciprocating pump making 160 strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 9" stroke and operating with 85% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1223. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 170 strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 5" stroke and operating with 97% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1224. If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 150 strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 4" stroke and operating with 95% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1225. If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 190 strokes/minute, with a 4" diameter cylinder, a 8" stroke and operating with 75% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1226. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 100 strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 8" stroke and operating with 90% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1227. If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 180 strokes/minute, with a 3" diameter cylinder, a 11" stroke and operating with 75% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 1228. Which of the listed pumps is NOT a positive displacement pump?Not learned 1229. Which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be installed in a main drainage or evacuation system?Not learned 1230. Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the lobe edges?Not learned 1231. Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by __________.Not learned 1232. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.Not learned 1233. Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because __________.Not learned 1234. The purpose of the crescent found in the illustrated internal gear pump is to __________Not learned 1235. An advantage of a helical gear pump over a simple gear pump is that the helical gear pump is capable of __________.Not learned 1236. Which of the listed conditions will occur if the discharge pressure of a rotary pump is increased from the designed 50 psi to 300 psi, while maintaining the same RPM?Not learned 1237. If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred remains constant as the discharge pressure increases, the rotary pump __________.Not learned 1238. The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a constant viscosity fluid, will decrease when the discharge pressure is increased, due to __________.Not learned 1239. The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will decrease with an increase in the pump __________.Not learned 1240. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.Not learned 1241. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?Not learned 1242. Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?Not learned 1243. When installing a new rotary pump, the suction piping should __________.Not learned 1244. Which of the following statements is true regarding a positive displacement rotary pump?Not learned 1245. An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.Not learned 1246. Operating a rotary pump at speeds in excess of design requirements could cause __________.Not learned 1247. Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will result in which of the following conditions to occur?Not learned 1248. Inspection of a low pressure gear pump for cavitation will usually be indicated by a wear pattern __________.Not learned 1249. Which of the following statements represents the advantage of rotary pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps?Not learned 1250. Which of the following figures is INCORRECT regarding the direction of flow and shaft rotation for the lobe type pump shownNot learned 1251. If a lube oil pump fails to build up discharge pressure, the cause could be the __________.Not learned 1252. What type of pump is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1253. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.Not learned 1254. An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.Not learned 1255. Devices which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to entrain another fluid and thereby move it from one place to another are called __________.Not learned 1256. Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump or an eductor?Not learned 1257. The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the __________.Not learned 1258. A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the __________.Not learned 1259. Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo pumps is correct?Not learned 1260. When operating with a negative suction head, which of the following types of pumps will require priming?Not learned 1261. What type of material is used to construct the rotor of the pump illustratedNot learned 1262. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the __________.Not learned 1263. What type of pump is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1264. The shaft coupling for the pump illustrated is prevented from rotating on the shaft by a __________Not learned 1265. Pump efficiency may be lost as a result of __________.Not learned 1266. If the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor is stopped, which of the following types of pumps will most likely be damaged?Not learned 1267. Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a propeller type pump?Not learned 1268. Which of the following characteristics is true concerning the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 1269. The illustrated device is in operation when __________Not learned 1270. Which of the following statements is true of the illustrated pumpNot learned 1271. Which of the following characteristics is true concerning the pump shown in the illustrationNot learned 1272. The device shown in the illustration would normally be associated with what engine room systemNot learned 1273. The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an __________Not learned 1274. According to U.S. regulations, what is required where cargo pump shafts on tankers pierce bulkheads?Not learned 1275. According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following pumps is required to have a pressure gage provided on the discharge side of the pump?Not learned 1276. According to 46 CFR Part 32, a cargo pump driven by an internal combustion engine on the weather deck must have __________.Not learned 1277. Steam driven pumps are considered, by regulations, sources of vapor ignition if the steam temperature is at least what temperature?Not learned 1278. A pump is defined as a device that __________.Not learned 1279. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler to __________.Not learned 1280. To obtain maximum efficiency, two stage air compressors are usually __________.Not learned 1281. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler to __________. increase the efficiency of the compressor reduce the low pressure cylinder designed operating temperatureNot learned 1282. If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor becomes fouled either internally or externally, the __________.Not learned 1283. Intercooling of a multistage air compressor provides the advantages of reducing the work of compression on the succeeding stages, and __________.Not learned 1284. Aftercoolers are used with air compressors to __________.Not learned 1285. The heat of compression is partially removed from compressed air by __________.Not learned 1286. The cylinders and intercoolers of most low-pressure air compressors are cooled by __________.Not learned 1287. The air charge leaving an intercooler or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected to be which of the following?Not learned 1288. Condensate must be drained from the intercooler and aftercoolers of an air compressor because __________.Not learned 1289. For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multi-stage air compressor, interstage cooling will __________.Not learned 1290. The device shown in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 1291. Which of the following statements describes the function of an air compressor intake filter?Not learned 1292. Moisture and impurities can be removed from pneumatic systems by using __________.Not learned 1293. An important point of consideration when replacing a dry type intake filter on an air compressor is to __________.Not learned 1294. Separators are installed ahead of air line lubricators for the primary purpose of removing __________.Not learned 1295. Air line lubricators are used in compressed air systems to lubricate __________.Not learned 1296. When air compressors are arranged for automatic operation, the cylinders can be unloaded during starting by __________.Not learned 1297. When air compressors are arranged for automatic operation, the cylinders can be unloaded during starting by __________.Not learned 1298. The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.Not learned 1299. Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the compressor to __________.Not learned 1300. The function of an unloader on a two-cylinder, two-stage medium pressure, air compressor is to __________.Not learned 1301. Air compressors are equipped with unloading systems for the purpose of __________.Not learned 1302. An unloader is installed on an air compressor to __________.Not learned 1303. The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to __________.Not learned 1304. An unloader is installed on an air compressor to __________.Not learned 1305. If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor mechanical unloading system will __________.Not learned 1306. The usual method of unloading a low-pressure air compressor at start-up is accomplished by __________.Not learned 1307. Unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor at start-up can be accomplished by __________.Not learned 1308. An air compressor can be unloaded at start-up by __________.Not learned 1309. The unloading of an air compressor may be provided by __________. holding the intake valve off of its seat temporarily relieving the the intercooler to the atmosphereNot learned 1310. What is the primary function of the device illustratedNot learned 1311. Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by which of the following?Not learned 1312. The function of the illustrated device is to __________Not learned 1313. One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to __________.Not learned 1314. Which of the following describes the function of the air receiver in the compressed air system on a MODU?Not learned 1315. In addition to a pressure gage and a relief valve, an air receiver should be fitted with a __________.Not learned 1316. When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is used as an aftercooler, what must be done with the reservoir?Not learned 1317. Air compressor receivers should be 'blown down' at least __________.Not learned 1318. Which of the following frequent maintenance procedures is required of compressed air receivers?Not learned 1319. Condensate must be drained periodically from the air compressor receivers to prevent __________.Not learned 1320. Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on modern low pressure air compressors?Not learned 1321. The function of the springs used with channel or plate-type valves for reciprocating air compressors is to __________.Not learned 1322. Compared to poppet and other mechanically operated valves, which of the following advantages is gained by using a thin plate (feather) low lift type valve in an low pressure air compressor?Not learned 1323. The major difference between the discharge and suction valves installed in most low pressure, reciprocating air compressors is that __________.Not learned 1324. Which of the following statements regarding low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor valves is correct?Not learned 1325. Intake valves installed on most reciprocating low pressure air compressors are actuated by the pressure differential between the air in the cylinder and the pressure __________.Not learned 1326. In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners, which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low-pressure air compressors?Not learned 1327. Differential pistons used in some reciprocating air compressors, serve to provide __________.Not learned 1328. During the operation of the device shown in the illustration, the required compressed air output has stabilized within a pressure range of 100-110 psi. Which of the following statements of operating conditions is correctNot learned 1329. During the normal operation (air supply 50-100 psi) of the device shown in the illustration, which of the components listed below will be openNot learned 1330. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________Not learned 1331. The device shown in the illustration is commonly referred to as a __________Not learned 1332. Lubricating oil is added to the device shown in the illustration by using the component labeled '______Not learned 1333. One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 1334. One of the functions of the component labeled "E" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 1335. The device shown in the illustration is lubricated by __________Not learned 1336. One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 1337. The running unloader of the device shown in the illustration operates by __________Not learned 1338. The air compressor shown in the illustration, when used aboard a vessel is typically operated as __________Not learned 1339. As demand on the device shown in the illustration fluctuates in the pressure range of 100 to 110 psi, the output of the unit is controlled by __________Not learned 1340. Which of the components listed will be open during the start-up mode (air supply 0-50 psi) of the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 1341. The piston displacement rate of a reciprocating air compressor can be modified by changing the __________.Not learned 1342. In order to assure an output near the end of its compression stroke, the pressure developed in the high pressure cylinder of a reciprocating air compressor is __________.Not learned 1343. On small, low pressure, air compressors, the cylinders are usually lubricated by the __________.Not learned 1344. Which of the following statements is correct when comparing the cylinder diameters of a two-stage reciprocating air compressor?Not learned 1345. Which of the listed operating conditions would have the greatest effect on the volumetric efficiency of an operating reciprocating air compressor?Not learned 1346. The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating air compressor, is the ratio of the __________.Not learned 1347. The clearance volume for a single stage compressor is defined as the space created between the __________.Not learned 1348. If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system and other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the __________.Not learned 1349. If an air compressor is used to supply compressed air to outlets throughout the engine room and on deck of a vessel, the system is known as the __________.Not learned 1350. Which of the following statements represents the path of air flow passing through a typical two stage, low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor?Not learned 1351. If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing, you should fix them by __________.Not learned 1352. If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________.Not learned 1353. If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are loose, which of the conditions below will occur?Not learned 1354. After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use __________.Not learned 1355. Which of the following statements is true concerning V-belt drives for reciprocating air compressors?Not learned 1356. Why should a person who is performing maintenance on an air compressor, wire and tag the system valves closed?Not learned 1357. A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure reciprocating air compressor will __________.Not learned 1358. Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________.Not learned 1359. Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air intake filter can result in a/an __________.Not learned 1360. Carbon deposits forming on the discharge valves of an air compressor are caused by oil deterioration under high pressure. The first step in reducing these deposits would be to __________.Not learned 1361. A first stage unloader installed in a low pressure air compressor is unable to completely retract. This will result in __________.Not learned 1362. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from __________.Not learned 1363. A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust and grease on the surfaces of an intercooler would result in __________. a high consumption of lube oil higher than normal air pressure in the receiverNot learned 1364. Which of the pressure vessels listed is required under Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be hydrostatically tested once every three year period?Not learned 1365. According to Coast Guard Regulations, if a pressure vessel, such as a ships service air tank, has defects which may impair its safety, the tank shall be __________.Not learned 1366. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require safety and relief valves for air service to be provided with a substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disk from its seat when the pressure in the vessel is __________.Not learned 1367. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) prohibit air compressors from being located in __________.Not learned 1368. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a welded repair to be made to a ships service air receiver, other than an emergency repair at sea, must be __________.Not learned 1369. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require unfired pressure vessels with manholes to be hydrostatically tested __________.Not learned 1370. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require unfired pressure vessels with manholes to be hydrostatically tested __________.Not learned 1371. What preventative maintenance should be done frequently to diesel engine starting air receivers?Not learned 1372. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler to __________.Not learned 1373. The cylinders and intercoolers of most low-pressure air compressors are cooled by __________.Not learned 1374. The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.Not learned 1375. One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to __________.Not learned 1376. The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________Not learned 1377. Which of the following could be the cause of leaking valves in an air compressor?Not learned 1378. Aftercoolers are used with air compressors to __________.Not learned 1379. The device shown in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 1380. Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by which of the following?Not learned 1381. The air charge leaving an intercooler or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected to be which of the following?Not learned 1382. Which of the following compressors would be used for a dead ship start-up of a ship's service diesel- generator on a motor ship?Not learned 1383. Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at approximately 100 psig?Not learned 1384. If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement concerning operation is true?Not learned 1385. If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________.Not learned 1386. How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture and emulsions?Not learned 1387. When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under what conditions should the oil level be checked?Not learned 1388. As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned, what statement is true?Not learned 1389. Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.Not learned 1390. Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?Not learned 1391. In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated with moisture?Not learned 1392. Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw?Not learned 1393. If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its design parameters, what would be the effect?Not learned 1394. If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?Not learned 1395. If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result?Not learned 1396. What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating compressor cylinder valves?Not learned 1397. Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer. Specifically, when heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the opposite side, what mode of heat transfer is associated with that particular part of the overall process?Not learned 1398. You are the Chief Engineer on a Ro/Ro vessel powered by a MAN two stroke, direct reversing, slow speed diesel engine. While maneuvering into New York with the main engine in Bridge control status you receive low pressure alarms on both main air receivers. Both ship's main air compressors are operational and running at the time of the alarms. What should you do?Not learned 1399. If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during start-up, you should do which of the following?Not learned 1400. A squealing sound occurring from within an operating reciprocating air compressor is an indication of __________.Not learned 1401. A squealing sound generated by a reciprocating air compressor upon starting may indicate __________.Not learned 1402. If the electric motor driving an air compressor fails to start, the cause may be a __________.Not learned 1403. If an electric motor driven air compressor fails to start, it may be due to a __________.Not learned 1404. Excessive lube oil consumption in a reciprocating air compressor is an indication of __________.Not learned 1405. Excessive lube oil consumption by a reciprocating air compressor can be caused by __________.Not learned 1406. A dirty intercooler on an air compressor will cause __________.Not learned 1407. A dirty intercooler on the ship service air compressor will result in __________.Not learned 1408. A knocking sound emitted from an unloaded air compressor is probably caused by __________.Not learned 1409. A knocking sound from one cylinder of an operating air compressor indicates __________.Not learned 1410. If a reciprocating air compressor has a knock occurring in frequency with its operating RPM, the cause is probably __________.Not learned 1411. Reciprocating air compressor bearing failure may result from __________.Not learned 1412. If the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor gradually drops off, the cause could be __________.Not learned 1413. If a ship service air compressor failed to unload, the __________.Not learned 1414. Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor driven, low pressure, reciprocating air compressor to repeatedly trip the circuit breaker upon starting?Not learned 1415. Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor driven, low pressure, reciprocating air compressor to repeatedly trip the circuit breaker upon starting?Not learned 1416. Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor is caused by which of the following?Not learned 1417. Which of the following problems could cause air to blow out through the inlet air filter of a running compressor?Not learned 1418. Air blowing from the intake air filter of an operating air compressor indicates __________.Not learned 1419. One cause of leaky valves in a low pressure air compressor may be attributed to __________.Not learned 1420. Leaking valves in a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor can result from __________.Not learned 1421. Which of the following could be the cause of leaking valves in an air compressor?Not learned 1422. A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two stage, high pressure, air compressor can cause excessively high __________.Not learned 1423. If the intercooler relief valve lifts while an air compressor is operating under load, you should check for __________.Not learned 1424. Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a reciprocating air compressor suction valve?Not learned 1425. A reciprocating air compressor is running roughly and vibrating excessively, indicating that the __________.Not learned 1426. If there is a sudden drop in the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor, you should check for __________.Not learned 1427. If a ship service air compressor failed to unload the __________.Not learned 1428. Slipping drive belts on a ship service air compressor is a probable symptom of __________.Not learned 1429. If a ship service air compressor operating in intermittent service were failing to unload, the __________.Not learned 1430. Which of the following problems can result in below normal pressure in the intercooler of an operating low pressure air compressor?Not learned 1431. Broken valve strips in an operating low pressure air compressor will cause __________.Not learned 1432. Cylinder inlet valve failure in a low pressure air compressor can be caused by __________.Not learned 1433. A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust and grease on the surfaces of an intercooler would result in __________. the motor to run warmer than usual the second stage would operate at a higher temperatureNot learned 1434. The transfer of heat within a solid, caused by the application of thermal energy, is called ___________.Not learned 1435. Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat exchangers to __________.Not learned 1436. Zinc anodes are installed in a marine sea water heat exchanger cooling system to ________.Not learned 1437. Which of the copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat exchangers and possesses a high resistance to corrosion?Not learned 1438. Which of the listed figures represents the configuration and alignment of the inlet/outlet head, as viewed from the tube sideNot learned 1439. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.Not learned 1440. The temperature differential occurring between the inlet temperature of the fluid to be cooled and the outlet temperature of the cooling medium in a shell-and-tube heat exchanger is greatest in which of the flow designs listed?Not learned 1441. The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing through a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger will __________.Not learned 1442. The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing through a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger will __________.Not learned 1443. Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against erosion and abrasion by the use of __________.Not learned 1444. Assuming oil and water flow rates remain the same, what would be the effect of scale formation occurring on the inside of the cooling water tubes of a lube oil heat exchanger?Not learned 1445. Tube scaling in heat exchangers causes the heat transfer rate to decrease because the ________.Not learned 1446. In a heat exchanger, excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to prevent __________.Not learned 1447. In a heat exchanger, excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to prevent __________.Not learned 1448. Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result from __________.Not learned 1449. In heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be maintained lower than freshwater pressure to __________.Not learned 1450. Which of the following statements is true concerning a radiator type heat exchanger?Not learned 1451. In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most common cause of decreased performance is __________.Not learned 1452. In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon __________.Not learned 1453. A steam supplied heat exchanger will fail to maintain the designed quantity of heated liquid output if the __________. steam supply absolute pressure is increased tubes are leakingNot learned 1454. A steam supplied heat exchanger will fail to maintain the designed quantity of heated liquid output if the __________. steam side shell absolute pressure is decreased heat exchanger drain is leakingNot learned 1455. What type of lube oil cooler is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1456. Which of the following statements is true concerning lube oil coolers?Not learned 1457. The interior of some diesel engine saltwater heat exchangers are protected from electrolytic corrosion by the use of __________.Not learned 1458. If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a diesel engine are sea water-cooled, what statement is true?Not learned 1459. If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?Not learned 1460. What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?Not learned 1461. If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end waterboxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?Not learned 1462. The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.Not learned 1463. With regard to the relative flow patterns through the tubes and the shell of single pass shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true?Not learned 1464. With regard to the number of passes through the tubes of shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what statement is true?Not learned 1465. If a heat exchanger is designed to cool lubricating oil using sea water as a cooling medium, what statement is true?Not learned 1466. If a heat exchanger is designed to heat heavy fuel oil using steam as a heating medium, what statement is true?Not learned 1467. If a heat exchanger is designed to evaporate sea water using diesel engine jacket water as an evaporating medium, what statement is true?Not learned 1468. If a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the sea water inlet and outlet connections on the opposite end waterboxes, in terms of the number of passes, what statement is true?Not learned 1469. Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat exchangers only requires a single tube sheet located at one end?Not learned 1470. Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat exchangers has a tube arrangement featuring a "tube-within-a-tube"?Not learned 1471. In a shell- and-tube heat exchanger, which of the following tube types would be LEAST susceptible to tube-side fouling?Not learned 1472. For a given shell diameter and tube sizes for a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which tube pitch pattern would be the most compact design allowing for the most tubes?Not learned 1473. For a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which tube pitch pattern would feature "see-through" lanes and would most easily allow external mechanical cleaning of the tubes?Not learned 1474. Concerning the baffles of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what statement is true?Not learned 1475. For marine-type shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what is the most common arrangement for baffles?Not learned 1476. What prevents the two fluids in a plate type heat exchanger from coming into direct contact with each other and mixing?Not learned 1477. With regard to the flow patterns associated with plate type heat exchangers, which flow pattern is able to achieve counterflow on opposite sides of each heat exchange plate?Not learned 1478. What is the most common arrangement for a compact heat exchanger such as that used on an air conditioning cooling coil located in a ventilation supply duct?Not learned 1479. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure?Not learned 1480. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet- tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to prevent water hammer what statement represents the correct operating procedure?Not learned 1481. When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube type heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure?Not learned 1482. When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to prevent water hammer what statement represents the correct operating procedure?Not learned 1483. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a non-removable tube bundle such as a lube oil cooler with fixed tube sheets into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure?Not learned 1484. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger such as a jacket water cooler into service, to insure optimal heat transfer what statement represents the correct operating procedure?Not learned 1485. When securing a sea water-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger for an extended period of time, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure?Not learned 1486. When shifting heat exchangers such as main engine lube oil coolers, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure if the shift is to occur during engine operation?Not learned 1487. Suppose a diesel engine is fitted with sea water-cooled lube oil and jacket water coolers. What statement is true concerning the system operating pressures?Not learned 1488. What is the primary indication of fouling of a heat exchanger?Not learned 1489. For soft scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?Not learned 1490. For stubborn, hard scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?Not learned 1491. For removal of sludge from in the inside of the shell of a fuel oil heater or lube oil cooler, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?Not learned 1492. What would be the most likely indication that a plate type jacket water cooler had an internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids?Not learned 1493. Which saltwater -cooled heat exchanger arrangement and location would be MOST problematic in terms of keeping the seawater side filled?Not learned 1494. Which saltwater-cooled heat exchanger arrangement and location would be the LEAST likely to become air-bound on the seawater side?Not learned 1495. How may a suspected tube leak on a shell-and-tube jacket water cooler most easily be located?Not learned 1496. What would be the most likely indication that a shell-and-tube lube oil cooler had in internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids?Not learned 1497. Besides a visual inspection upon disassembly, what method can be used to check for suspected leakage through a heat transfer plate of a plate type heat exchanger?Not learned 1498. If a fluorescent dye penetrant and ultra-violet light are used for leak detection on a heat exchanger, what would be the indication of a confirmed leak?Not learned 1499. What statement is true concerning the heat transfer rates through a heat exchanger boundary wall by conduction?Not learned 1500. The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to ______.Not learned 1501. What is the main reason that live auxiliary steam is normally attemporated before entering the feed heater of a flash evaporator?Not learned 1502. As a watchstander you should know that some auxiliaries are not designed to handle steam at boiler pressure. Which of the devices listed is usually fitted in the branch line to deliver steam at the correct pressure?Not learned 1503. At a given pressure, erosion of steam piping and machinery will be minimized by utilizing __________.Not learned 1504. The auxiliary exhaust system shown in the illustration can be supplied by steam from the __________Not learned 1505. Which of the following systems can normally be supplied by auxiliary exhaust steam?Not learned 1506. Identify the system shown in the illustrationNot learned 1507. Which of the following systems is designed to use auxiliary exhaust steam?Not learned 1508. Auxiliary exhaust steam can generally be used as a supply for the __________.Not learned 1509. Which of the following systems can be supplied by the auxiliary exhaust system?Not learned 1510. The primary objective of the auxiliary exhaust system is to supply steam to the __________.Not learned 1511. In a steam propulsion plant, the primary source of auxiliary exhaust steam is from the __________.Not learned 1512. Identify the system shown in the illustrationNot learned 1513. Which of the systems or components shown in the illustration, are supplied by auxiliary exhaust steamNot learned 1514. The primary source of steam to the auxiliary exhaust system is typically supplied directly from __________.Not learned 1515. Which of the piping systems listed is shown in the illustrationNot learned 1516. Which of the following statements is true concerning the piping system shown in the illustrationNot learned 1517. Auxiliary steam at full operating pressure is supplied from the boiler directly to the __________.Not learned 1518. The Butterworth heater shown in the illustration receives steam at approximately __________Not learned 1519. The Butterworth heater (tank cleaning heater) shown in the illustration is designed to operate at a nominal steam pressure of approximately ________Not learned 1520. The turbo generator steam stop is located between the superheater outlet and the main steam stop valve to __________.Not learned 1521. The main steam stop valve on a "D" type marine boiler is located at the __________.Not learned 1522. What is the purpose of the main steam stop bypass valve?Not learned 1523. When two or more boilers provide steam flow to a common main steam line, each boiler main steam line shall be fitted with a main steam stop valve and a/an __________.Not learned 1524. Which of the symbols shown in the illustration is used to identify a stop-check valveNot learned 1525. In the system illustrated the valves at point "A" are __________Not learned 1526. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that main steam piping must be hydrostatically tested at specified intervals. If the pipe insulation cannot be removed during this test, the piping shall be tested at __________.Not learned 1527. The intermediate pressure bleed steam system, shown in the illustration, is used to supply steam at approximately __________Not learned 1528. In the system illustrated the valves at point "A" are __________Not learned 1529. High pressure and low pressure drain systems are part of the __________.Not learned 1530. High pressure steam drains from systems operating at above 150 psi are normally collected in the __________.Not learned 1531. Clean low-pressure steam drains are collected in the __________.Not learned 1532. From which of the areas listed are condensate drains normally collected and returned to the low-pressure drain system?Not learned 1533. From which of the areas listed are condensate drains normally collected and returned to the low-pressure drain system?Not learned 1534. The level in the atmospheric drain tank when underway at sea, is normally maintained by the use of a/an __________.Not learned 1535. The atmospheric drain tank (ADT) normally drains to the _______.Not learned 1536. The level in the atmospheric drain tank when underway at sea, is normally maintained by the use of a/an __________.Not learned 1537. High-pressure steam drains are normally discharged to the __________.Not learned 1538. Which of the drains listed could be led directly to a DC heater operating at 35 psig (343 kPa)?Not learned 1539. Excessively hot water returning to an atmospheric drain tank indicates __________.Not learned 1540. Excessively hot water returning to an atmospheric drain tank indicates __________.Not learned 1541. Which of the listed systems would be a potential source for the high-pressure drain system?Not learned 1542. Steam drains from the potable water system hot water heater would be collected in the __________.Not learned 1543. The contaminated drain system normally receives drains that may be exposed to __________.Not learned 1544. Condensate return lines from tank heating coils are led to the __________.Not learned 1545. Condensate from fuel oil heating coils return to the __________.Not learned 1546. Steam drains from fuel oil heating coils can be returned to the condensate and feed water system __________.Not learned 1547. Which statement is true concerning drain inspection tanks?Not learned 1548. If live steam is supplied directly to the tank heating coils, the collected drains in the "clean" section of the contaminated drain inspection tank are removed directly to the __________.Not learned 1549. If oil is observed in the steam drains from a fuel oil heater, you should __________.Not learned 1550. Why are the condensate drains from the fuel oil heaters and fuel oil tank heating coils returned to the drain inspection tank?Not learned 1551. The primary function of the contaminated drain inspection tank is to __________.Not learned 1552. Contaminated steam generators in a contaminated drain system are usually __________.Not learned 1553. A contaminated steam generator is used to produce saturated vapor from collected __________.Not learned 1554. The purpose of a contaminated steam system is to __________.Not learned 1555. The contaminated steam system is secured for repairs. Live steam is supplied to the fuel oil heating system and its returns are directed to the drain tank. Considering these circumstances, an undetected leak in an idle fuel oil heater could eventually lead to __________.Not learned 1556. Oil in the contaminated drain inspection tank results from __________.Not learned 1557. Fuel oil may be discovered in the contaminated drain inspection tank when the __________.Not learned 1558. A leak in a heating coil in a fuel oil storage tank should be detected quickly by __________.Not learned 1559. A leak in the heating coils of a fuel oil heater will first show up as __________.Not learned 1560. A suspected leak in an operating fuel oil heating coil is normally confirmed by __________.Not learned 1561. The motor operated valve, shown in the illustration, is represented by item number __________Not learned 1562. In the diagram illustrated, item "4" represents a __________Not learned 1563. How is accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system prevented?Not learned 1564. Item 4 shown in the illustration represents a __________Not learned 1565. In the diagram illustrated, the direction of flow through the check valve is __________Not learned 1566. In the diagram shown in the illustration, item "3" represents a __________Not learned 1567. How is the emergency bilge suction valve typically used?Not learned 1568. The general service pump is to be used to remove clean water from the No. 4 port aft cargo hold and discharged through the ballast overboard. What are the minimum number of valves that must be opened on both the suction and discharge to accomplish this taskNot learned 1569. What equipment is required when processing bilge slops for overboard discharge?Not learned 1570. As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and examined. Prior to re-securing the valve bonnets, the valve __________.Not learned 1571. As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and examined. Prior to re-securing the valve bonnets, the valve __________.Not learned 1572. The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not been successful. The next practical solution would be to __________.Not learned 1573. The aft, starboard bilge-well can not be pumped out, and back flushing has not been successful. The next practical solution will be to carry out which of the following actions?Not learned 1574. The bilge system is unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge-well due to the bilge-well suction being fouled. With two feet of water over the top of the bilge-well, which of the following actions should be carried out?Not learned 1575. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the __________.Not learned 1576. If one of the bilge manifold valves is prevented from seating, the __________.Not learned 1577. If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for all of the following EXCEPT __________.Not learned 1578. If a bilge pump is able to develop some vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for __________.Not learned 1579. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST if a bilge well of a multiple suction bilge system is unable to be pumped out?Not learned 1580. Referring to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), what statement is true concerning an emergency bilge suction for a cargo vessel over 180 feet in length?Not learned 1581. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require the emergency bilge system to __________.Not learned 1582. Bilge suction lines led through tanks, without using a pipe tunnel, must be __________.Not learned 1583. An emergency bilge suction is required for __________.Not learned 1584. Which of the following is the minimum internal diameter of the main bilge suction piping permitted by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) on a vessel over 150 gross tons?Not learned 1585. Which of the following statements indicates compliance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) concerning a vessel's bilge system?Not learned 1586. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56) for bilge and ballast piping require that __________.Not learned 1587. In the diagram, items '2A and 2B' represent the overboard discharge valves of the ballast system illustrated. According to 46 CFR Part 56, which of the following statements is correct if the length between perpendiculars of a vessel is 500 feet, and the through hull opening is eleven feet above the summer load lineNot learned 1588. Which of the following statements is correct if the length of the vessel between perpendiculars is 500 feet, and the through hull opening is five feet above the summer load line for the overboard discharge of the system illustratedNot learned 1589. In the diagram, items '2A and 2B' represent the overboard discharge valves of the ballast system illustrated. According to 46 CFR Part 56, which of the following statements is correct if the vessels length between perpendiculars is 500 feet, and the through hull opening is four feet above the summer load lineNot learned 1590. To thoroughly pump out the bilges using a horizontally mounted centrifugal pump, the __________.Not learned 1591. Which of the following statements describes one of the functions of the ballasting system?Not learned 1592. A vessel over 100 gross tons in coastwise service is to deballast its fuel tanks to a facility while in port. This vessel must have a/an __________.Not learned 1593. According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), a 299 gross ton uninspected motor towing vessel, not equipped with an oily water separator, is required to have how many outlets accessible from the weather deck to discharge oily bilge slops?Not learned 1594. An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the pump room bilges is to __________.Not learned 1595. A segregated ballast system is a system where __________.Not learned 1596. The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the U.S. regulations as ballast water introduced into which of the following?Not learned 1597. When two ballast pumps used for deballasting a single tank start cavitating, you should __________.Not learned 1598. Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly overboard without processing by an oily-water separator?Not learned 1599. What is meant by the term independent bilge suction?Not learned 1600. What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction?Not learned 1601. Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?Not learned 1602. Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?Not learned 1603. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the fore peak and aft peak tanks?Not learned 1604. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the double bottom ballast tanks?Not learned 1605. With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term "deballasting"?Not learned 1606. With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term "deballasting"?Not learned 1607. With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term "segregated" ballast?Not learned 1608. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the ballast water management regulations?Not learned 1609. What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?Not learned 1610. Why does a centrifugal bilge pump require priming?Not learned 1611. You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled, with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out?Not learned 1612. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergencyNot learned 1613. What is the general arrangement for bilge wells in the machinery spaces?Not learned 1614. The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft starboard engine room bilge well suddenly fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first to determine the cause?Not learned 1615. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the __________.Not learned 1616. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations under 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?Not learned 1617. Bilges may be pumped ______.Not learned 1618. The term "arrival ballast" refers to __________.Not learned 1619. In order to prevent the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure ballast, one method used is to _________.Not learned 1620. The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as the __________Not learned 1621. What device shown in the illustration is used to prevent excessive internal pressures within the unit during its operationNot learned 1622. Which of the items listed is used to prevent over pressurization in the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 1623. Which of the valves listed is connected to the suction side of the pump used in conjunction with the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 1624. Which of the listed conditions will occur if valve "14" of the unit shown in the illustration is secured while the unit is operating in the processing modeNot learned 1625. The valve labeled "4", for the device shown in the illustration, is the __________Not learned 1626. The valve labeled "5", in the device shown in the illustration is the __________Not learned 1627. The valve labeled 'V-4', for the illustrated device, is the __________Not learned 1628. When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water levelNot learned 1629. When operating the oily-water separator shown in the illustration, why is it necessary to avoid detergents mixing with the bilge waterNot learned 1630. You are observing the operation of the oily-water separator shown in the illustration. Item "1" initially indicates a vacuum and a moment later indicates a positive pressure. Which of the following statements describes what has occurredNot learned 1631. Regarding the oily water separator shown in the illustration, what mode of operation is occurring if item "1" indicates a positive pressureNot learned 1632. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 1633. The unit shown in the illustration is known as a/an __________Not learned 1634. The unit shown in the illustration is known as a/an __________Not learned 1635. The illustrated system is used to __________Not learned 1636. What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while operating in the processing modeNot learned 1637. In the device shown in the illustration, what is the function of item "6"Not learned 1638. In the illustrated device, what is the function of the short sensing element attached to "S" in figure "A"Not learned 1639. The function of item "6", as shown in the illustration, is to __________Not learned 1640. The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the _____Not learned 1641. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1642. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1643. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1644. Which of the components listed is required for the processing of bilge slops for overboard discharge?Not learned 1645. Which of the valves listed for the device shown in the illustration will be open while the unit is operating in the backflush modeNot learned 1646. Concerning the device shown in the illustration, which of the listed components would be removed or disconnected last during cleaning and inspection of the tank internalsNot learned 1647. Concerning the device shown in the illustration, which of the listed components would be removed or disconnected last during cleaning and inspection of the tank internalsNot learned 1648. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable causeNot learned 1649. If air is continuously allowed to enter the device shown in the illustration while operating in the processing mode __________Not learned 1650. Regarding the device shown in the illustration, what would be the most probable cause if item "1" indicated an unusually high vacuum while the oily water separator was operating in the processing modeNot learned 1651. The unit shown in the illustration has just been internally cleaned. An inspection was carried out and the unit found to be properly lined up, although item "1" indicates an unusually high vacuum. Your next step should be to __________Not learned 1652. While the illustrated oily-water separator is operating in the processing mode, if item "1" indicates higher than normal absolute pressure, what is the probable causeNot learned 1653. If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gauge indicating zero psig and the water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________Not learned 1654. If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gage indicating zero psig while processed water is known to be discharging overboard, the __________Not learned 1655. The compound gage shown in the illustration and labeled as item "1" indicates a slight vacuum while the unit is in the oil discharge mode. The separator is __________Not learned 1656. What will cause the throughput of the oily-water separator shown in the illustration to decrease when operating in the processing modeNot learned 1657. What will cause the throughput of the oily-water separator shown in the illustration to decrease when operating in the processing modeNot learned 1658. What will cause the throughput of the oily-water separator shown in the illustration to decrease when operating in the processing modeNot learned 1659. Under what conditions would the oily-water separator system illustrated fail to effectively process a mixture of oily-waterNot learned 1660. Under what conditions would the oily-water separator system illustrated fail to effectively process a mixture of oily-waterNot learned 1661. If valve 'V2A' in the illustration does not open when the oily-water separator shifts into the oil discharge mode, which of the following statements describes what would occurNot learned 1662. On U.S. inspected ships, oily water separating equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors must be approved under __________.Not learned 1663. A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by ______.Not learned 1664. An oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons, constructed in January 1976, and not equipped with an oily water separator, may retain all bilge slops __________.Not learned 1665. In controlling pollution, which action should be taken after all dirty ballast has been transferred to the slop tank and prior to discharge through the oily water separator?Not learned 1666. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 1667. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1668. The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______Not learned 1669. What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?Not learned 1670. What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density approaching that of water?Not learned 1671. What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?Not learned 1672. What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-waterseparator?Not learned 1673. Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unitNot learned 1674. Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily-water separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely the causeNot learned 1675. Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the lower oil/water interface detection probe became faultyNot learned 1676. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable causeNot learned 1677. In order to facilitate separation of oil from an oily-water mixture in an oily-water separator, what statement is true concerning the flow pattern of the oily-water?Not learned 1678. What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to facilitate separation in an oily-water separator?Not learned 1679. What statement is true with regard to the basic operating principle of gravity associated with an oily- water separator?Not learned 1680. If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what statement concerning the plate pack is true?Not learned 1681. Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water separator unitNot learned 1682. Referring to the illustration, an oil/water separator is in the recirculation mode due to high oil content of the processed water outlet. What action may be required before the unit is capable of discharging overboard once againNot learned 1683. Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the lower oil/water interface detection probe became faultyNot learned 1684. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable causeNot learned 1685. Referring to the illustration, suppose the oily-water separator vessel compound gauge is showing an unusually deep vacuum for operating in the separation processing mode with the separator service pump running. The oil content is 8.3 ppm. What is most likely the causeNot learned 1686. Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily-water separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely the causeNot learned 1687. Referring to the illustration, suppose while in the oil separation processing mode, the oil content detector display screen shows 17.9 ppm and the oily-water separator is discharging back to the bilge water holding tank for recirculation. What is most likely the causeNot learned 1688. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.Not learned 1689. The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage particles is known as __________.Not learned 1690. In sewage treatment, the term 'maceration' refers to the process of __________.Not learned 1691. The process of grinding or shredding sewage into smaller particles is known as __________.Not learned 1692. Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in __________.Not learned 1693. A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage by __________.Not learned 1694. Marine sanitation devices installed on vessels must be certified by the __________.Not learned 1695. Sewage treatment systems aboard U.S. inspected vessels must be approved by the __________.Not learned 1696. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?Not learned 1697. According to Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR Part 159), which of the listed types of Marine Sanitation Devices (MSD) is designed to hold sewage on board in special tanks to be pumped out at shore side facilities when available.Not learned 1698. Prior to entering a shipboard compartment containing spilled sewage, you should test the atmosphere in the compartment for __________.Not learned 1699. Which of the following sewage handling technologies would be associated with maintaining a culture of aerobic bacteria?Not learned 1700. By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before discharge overboard?Not learned 1701. Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?Not learned 1702. The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent explosions by which of the following?Not learned 1703. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the term "sewage"?Not learned 1704. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?Not learned 1705. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?Not learned 1706. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?Not learned 1707. Under the federal regulations of, if a vessel equipped with a Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is UNACCEPTABLE?Not learned 1708. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?Not learned 1709. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?Not learned 1710. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?Not learned 1711. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?Not learned 1712. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?Not learned 1713. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?Not learned 1714. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?Not learned 1715. Short cycling of the potable water system's pump is prevented by using __________.Not learned 1716. Short cycling of the potable water pump is avoided by the proper use of a __________.Not learned 1717. A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many vessels by using __________.Not learned 1718. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause water hammer in the potable water system shown in the illustrationNot learned 1719. According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause Pump "A" to short cycleNot learned 1720. A recirculating line is provided in the potable hot water system to __________.Not learned 1721. Which of the listed chemicals can be routinely used to maintain the hygienic quality of potable water?Not learned 1722. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause water hammer in the potable water system?Not learned 1723. Potable water piping systems installed aboard ships must be __________.Not learned 1724. Potable and non-potable water systems aboard ship __________.Not learned 1725. Potable and non-potable water systems aboard ship __________.Not learned 1726. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), fresh water tank vents the may terminate below the deep load water line in the machinery space under what condition?Not learned 1727. In addition to one safety pressure relief valve, Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that a small electrically heated hot water supply boiler must be fitted with what other protective device?Not learned 1728. According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) for electric storage tank-type hot water heaters, what statement is true concerning independent temperature limiting devices?Not learned 1729. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require small electric storage tank-type hot water boilers, rated at no more than 600 volts, must be fitted with a temperature limiting device to prevent the water in the upper 25% of the tank from attaining a temperature higher than __________.Not learned 1730. Distilled water from an evaporator is normally discharged into a potable water tank __________.Not learned 1731. In a shipboard potable water system, which of the following symptoms would indicate that the hot water circulating pump had failed?Not learned 1732. A standard procedure for the emergency disinfection of water in a potable water tank is to add a small amount of standard laundry liquid chlorine bleach to the water tank. Approximately how much bleach would be considered appropriate to add to a tank containing 1000 gallons of water?Not learned 1733. What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?Not learned 1734. Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting for the "lag" potable water pump?Not learned 1735. What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide residual disinfectant in the potable water?Not learned 1736. Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a potable water system?Not learned 1737. Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water system is true?Not learned 1738. Most type(s) of microbiological growths in fuel are __________.Not learned 1739. On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?Not learned 1740. What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water pumps supporting a typical potable water system?Not learned 1741. What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution piping for a potable water system?Not learned 1742. Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose of such an arrangement?Not learned 1743. What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro-pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?Not learned 1744. Distilled water from an evaporator is normally discharged into a potable water tank __________.Not learned 1745. On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery space sea water cooling systems?Not learned 1746. What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 1747. What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 1748. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the entry grating into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 1749. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 1750. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters?Not learned 1751. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, which pump is considered a high-head pump operating with the highest discharge pressureNot learned 1752. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning sea water service system to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect capabilityNot learned 1753. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning main circulating to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect capabilityNot learned 1754. On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for machinery space sea water cooling systems?Not learned 1755. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?Not learned 1756. Referring to the illustrated steam plant sea water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning sea water service system to auxiliary circulating sea water system cross-connect capabilityNot learned 1757. When preparing/writing shipyard items for your vessel's upcoming dry-docking period, what would you consider as an item regarding CuNi saltwater cooling systems/piping?Not learned 1758. Which of the copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat exchangers and possesses a high resistance to corrosion?Not learned 1759. A basic comparison can be made between a low-pressure evaporator operation and a main condenser with regards to the removal of non-condensable gases. The vacuum drag line for the main condenser is specifically connected in which area?Not learned 1760. The vacuum drag line for the main condenser is specifically connected in which area?Not learned 1761. When condenser tube ends are rolled into both tube sheets, the different rates of material expansion are compensated for by utilizing __________.Not learned 1762. When main condenser tubes are rolled into both tube sheets, the effects due to differential expansion rates are minimized by the use of __________.Not learned 1763. A vent line is provided on each water box of the main condenser in order to prevent __________. insufficient head pressure being developed on the circulating pump discharge inadequate heat transfer from developing due to air bound tubesNot learned 1764. A vent line is provided on each water box of the main condenser in order to prevent __________.Not learned 1765. Which of the pumps listed operates at constant speed and delivers water to the deaerating feed tank at a nearly constant pressure?Not learned 1766. The main condensate pump in a steam propulsion plant discharges directly to the __________.Not learned 1767. Condensate pumps have distinctly noticeable characteristics and can usually be recognized by their ______.Not learned 1768. To combat galvanic corrosion, condensers utilizing copper-nickel waterboxes are usually fitted with __________.Not learned 1769. Zincs are installed in the main and auxiliary condenser waterboxes to __________.Not learned 1770. Electrolytic corrosion in the condenser circulating water system can be reduced by __________.Not learned 1771. To combat galvanic corrosion, condensers utilizing copper-nickel waterboxes are usually fitted with __________.Not learned 1772. Which statement listed represents a vital function of the main condenser?Not learned 1773. In a marine condenser designed with a reheating hot well, the hot well is reheated by __________.Not learned 1774. Which of the condensers listed is cooled by sea water?Not learned 1775. Heat introduced to the condenser by exhausting steam is removed by the circulation of __________.Not learned 1776. In which of the following types of condensers would you find the cooling water passing through tubes with the turbo generator exhaust steam directed around the outside of the tubes?Not learned 1777. Proper vacuum must be maintained in the main condenser to __________.Not learned 1778. While underway, vacuum in the main condenser is primarily caused by the __________.Not learned 1779. What unit, or factor creates most of the vacuum within a tight and adequately cooled main condenser once the main engine is in operation?Not learned 1780. A main condenser utilizing a scoop for the circulation of sea water must be constructed as a __________.Not learned 1781. One of the basic rules applying to the operation of a single-pass main condenser is that the __________.Not learned 1782. If the pressure becomes excessive in the auxiliary exhaust system of a steam propulsion plant, the excess steam will normally be dumped to the __________.Not learned 1783. Waterboxes on condensers are vented to __________.Not learned 1784. Waterboxes on condensers are vented to __________.Not learned 1785. If the main condenser were operating at a vacuum of 28.7"Hg, a condensate discharge temperature of 81°F, a seawater inlet temperature of 72°F, and a seawater outlet temperature of 79°F, what would be the condensate depressionNot learned 1786. If a main condenser were operating with a vacuum of 28.09 in. Hg, a condensate discharge temperature of 95°F, a seawater inlet temperature of 64°F and an overboard temperature of 72°F, which of the following would represent the condensate depressionNot learned 1787. If the main condenser were operating at a vacuum of 28.7"Hg, a condensate discharge temperature of 81°F, a seawater inlet temperature of 72°F, and a seawater outlet temperature of 79°F, what would be the condensate depressionNot learned 1788. The difference between the temperature of the condensate discharge and the temperature corresponding to the vacuum being maintained at the exhaust inlet to the main condenser is defined as __________.Not learned 1789. The differential temperature of the main condenser circulating water will be affected by __________. decrease in circulating pump pressure degree or amount of scaling or foulingNot learned 1790. The differential temperature of the main condenser circulating water during normal operation will be affected by __________. Change in circulating pump speed The addition of make up feedNot learned 1791. The differential temperature of the main condenser cooling water will be significantly affected by a change in __________.Not learned 1792. In a main propulsion steam turbine installation, the condensate pump initially discharges to the __________.Not learned 1793. A condensate recirculating line is provided to the main condenser in a closed feed water system to __________.Not learned 1794. Air trapped within the main condenser shell is detrimental because it will __________.Not learned 1795. Air trapped within the main condenser shell is detrimental because it will __________.Not learned 1796. A steam plant is operating at 100% power when the atmospheric drain tank runs dry allowing a large air leakage into the main condenser. Which of the following will occur as a result of this air leakage?Not learned 1797. Why does air entry into the main condenser reduce the efficiency of the steam cycle?Not learned 1798. Which of the water supplies listed below is typically used as a cooling medium for the gland exhaust condenser, intercondenser, and after condenser of an air ejector unit?Not learned 1799. The automatic recirculating valve in the main condensate recirculating line is controlled by a temperature sensor which is located at the __________.Not learned 1800. If a ship is to be laid up for an indefinite period, the saltwater side of the main condenser should be __________.Not learned 1801. After being required to plug an excessive number of leaking condenser tubes on the main condenser, what changes would you expect to observe when returning to normal steam plant sea speed operation?Not learned 1802. After being required to plug an excessive number of leaking condenser tubes on the main condenser, what changes would you expect to observe when returning to normal steam plant sea speed operation?Not learned 1803. Vapor blowing from the air ejector condenser vent may be caused by __________.Not learned 1804. In a closed feed and water cycle, which of the conditions listed could prevent vacuum from reaching the desired level?Not learned 1805. Salt water contamination of condensate could occur at which component?Not learned 1806. Excessive condensate depression can result in __________.Not learned 1807. Excessive condensate depression will result in __________.Not learned 1808. Excessive recirculation of condensate should be avoided, as it can cause __________.Not learned 1809. The vent line from the main condenser water boxes was not opened when the waterside was recharged. This would __________. lead to a build up of pressure on the tube sheet of greater than 40 psig prevent the design vacuum from being attained under normal operating conditions at seaNot learned 1810. The vent line from the main condenser water boxes was not opened when the waterside was recharged. This would __________. lead to vapor binding of the main circulating pump contribute to a higher than normal condensate temperature entering the air ejector condenserNot learned 1811. Operating a steam turbine propulsion unit at reduced speed, in an area with extremely cold seawater, with the main circulating pump providing full cooling water flow to the condenser will result in __________.Not learned 1812. What is the temperature at which a vapor mixture, at a given pressure, begins to condense?Not learned 1813. In a closed feed and condensate system, to where do the main air ejector after condenser drains directly drain?Not learned 1814. Steam condensed in the air ejector intercondenser, drains to the __________.Not learned 1815. Air accumulated in the after condenser of the air ejector unit is discharged directly to the __________.Not learned 1816. Air removed from the main condenser is vented to the atmosphere through the __________.Not learned 1817. Air accumulated in the intercondenser of the air ejector assembly is discharged directly to the __________.Not learned 1818. While standing watch in the engine room, which of the following actions should be taken to reestablish a 'blown' air ejector loop seal?Not learned 1819. The cooling water flow from an air ejector intercondenser and aftercondenser is discharged directly into the _______.Not learned 1820. The first and second stage air ejectors used with large sea water cooled steam, surface type condensers are designed to __________. establish vacuum maintain vacuumNot learned 1821. A set of first and second stage air ejectors are used with a large sea water cooled steam condenser. If the first stage air ejector is not in operation __________. vacuum can not be established maximum operating vacuum can not be maintainedNot learned 1822. The first and second stage air ejectors used with main steam condensers are designed to __________. establish vacuum increase condensate temperatureNot learned 1823. The loop seal connected to the main condenser returns the drains from the __________.Not learned 1824. Which statement is true concerning two-stage air ejector assemblies?Not learned 1825. In the condensate system, the automatic recirculating valve can be actuated by the __________.Not learned 1826. Main condensate recirculating systems are primarily intended to __________.Not learned 1827. Serious tube leaks in the air ejector condenser assembly will cause __________.Not learned 1828. Serious tube leaks in the air ejector aftercondenser assembly may cause __________.Not learned 1829. Serious tube leaks in the air ejector aftercondenser assembly may cause __________.Not learned 1830. While vacuum is being raised on the main unit and the turbine is being warmed, condensate is recirculated to the main condenser to __________.Not learned 1831. The automatic recirculating valve in the main condensate recirculating line is designed to be controlled by which method?Not learned 1832. What type of sensor is normally used with the automatic recirculating valve in the main condensate line?Not learned 1833. Scale in the air ejector first-stage nozzle could cause a decrease in the __________.Not learned 1834. If the cooling water flow through the air ejector intercondensers and aftercondensers is inadequate, which of the problems listed will occur?Not learned 1835. Insufficient cooling water circulation through air ejector intercondensers and after condensers will cause __________.Not learned 1836. If the condensate level in the loop seal of the intercondenser is lost, __________.Not learned 1837. If the condensate level in the loop seal of the air ejector intercondenser is lost, __________.Not learned 1838. Feed water heaters are used aboard steam vessels to reduce thermal shock to the boiler and to __________.Not learned 1839. Under normal conditions, the rate of heat transfer in a feedwater heater is most greatly affected by the __________.Not learned 1840. An increase in the pressure drop between the inlet and outlet of the feed water heater waterside, not due to a waterside obstruction, would indicate __________.Not learned 1841. Excessive water flow beyond the design limits of a feed water heater, will be indicated by a/an __________.Not learned 1842. The unit shown in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 1843. The items labeled "D" in the illustration are the __________Not learned 1844. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________Not learned 1845. The items labeled "D" in the illustration are the __________Not learned 1846. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________Not learned 1847. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________Not learned 1848. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________Not learned 1849. The items labeled "D" in the illustration are the __________Not learned 1850. The feedwater heater shown in the illustration is actually comprised of three separately functioning heat exchangers. These heat exchangers are identified as the __________Not learned 1851. The upper section of the feedwater heater indicated by "G" in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 1852. The mid section of the feed heater, indicated by "F" in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 1853. The lower section of the feed heater, labeled "E" in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 1854. A slight vacuum is maintained in the shell of the first stage heater shown in the illustration. The primary reason for the vacuum is to __________Not learned 1855. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of the level or drain regulator associated with the feed water heater shown in the illustration is correctNot learned 1856. The feed water heater shown in the illustration was designed to maintain the required feed water outlet temperature with an approximate 10" Hg shell vacuum. If the shell vacuum is decreased to approximately 8" Hg vacuum, the __________Not learned 1857. The feed water heater shown in the illustration was designed to maintain the required feed water outlet temperature with an approximate 10" Hg shell vacuum. If the shell vacuum is decreased to approximately 8" Hg vacuum, the __________Not learned 1858. If the drain regulator used in the operation of the combined L.P. feed water heater, shown in the illustration, is incorrectly set to maintain too high of a level (condensate level covers approximately the lower half of tubes in the first stage heater) the resulting operation will __________Not learned 1859. The items labeled "D" in the illustration are the __________Not learned 1860. The connections labeled "A" in the illustration, are used to __________Not learned 1861. The unit shown in the illustration is used as the __________Not learned 1862. Under normal conditions, steam to the DC heater is supplied directly from which of the systems listed?Not learned 1863. In a DC heater, which source of steam is commonly used to heat and deaerate condensate?Not learned 1864. The minimum design height of the DC heater is determined by the _______.Not learned 1865. Why is it necessary to have a relief valve protect the deaerating feed tank from internal pressure?Not learned 1866. Which of the components listed prevents water from flowing back into the auxiliary exhaust line if the deaerating feed tank becomes flooded?Not learned 1867. The DC Heater functions to __________.Not learned 1868. The DC heater functions to __________.Not learned 1869. In a closed feed water system, the greatest deaeration of condensate occurs in the __________.Not learned 1870. Feed water is deaerated to prevent __________.Not learned 1871. In a closed feed water system, the greatest deaeration of condensate occurs in the __________.Not learned 1872. A high water level in a deaerating feed heater will cause the automatic dump valve to divert condensate to the __________.Not learned 1873. The DC heater automatic level dump valve is used to __________.Not learned 1874. Flooding of the DC heater, due to the addition of excessive makeup feed, is normally corrected by the use of __________.Not learned 1875. Cooling water to the vent condenser in a DC heater is supplied by the _______.Not learned 1876. Vent condensers are usually an integral part of deaerating feed heaters and serve to condense __________.Not learned 1877. Condensate is pumped from the condenser to the DC heater instead of directly to the boiler because __________.Not learned 1878. Discharging an excessive amount of cold water into the DC heater during normal steaming conditions could cause __________.Not learned 1879. Rapidly discharging condensate into the DC heater during normal steaming conditions could cause __________.Not learned 1880. To provide emergency feedwater supply to a steaming boiler, if it becomes necessary to secure the DC heater, suction should be taken on the distilled water tank using the __________.Not learned 1881. During cold ship start-up, you should open the feedwater outlet and condensate valves to a DC heater in order to __________.Not learned 1882. If the boiler water and condenser hot well levels are normal, but the DC heater level is only 30% of full, you should __________.Not learned 1883. If the boiler water level is normal, the main condenser hot well level is normal, and the DC heater level is 40% full, you should __________.Not learned 1884. The purpose of the steam control valves installed in the auxiliary exhaust line is to __________.Not learned 1885. With the steam control valve wide open during normal operation, the rate of steam flow from the auxiliary exhaust steam line to the DC heater is actually a function of __________.Not learned 1886. During normal operation, the steam flow from the auxiliary exhaust line to the DC heater can be closely related to the _______.Not learned 1887. Improper boiler feed water deaeration could be directly linked to __________.Not learned 1888. Excess free oxygen in the boiler feedwater can be the result of __________.Not learned 1889. Which of the DC heater operations listed will result in excessive dissolved oxygen in boiler water?Not learned 1890. In order to test the lifting pressure of the deaerating feed heater relief valve, you would __________. close the auxiliary exhaust dump valves to the main and auxiliary condenser increase the set point of the reduced steam pressure to the auxiliary exhaust systemNot learned 1891. In order to test the lifting pressure of the deaerating feed heater relief valve, you would __________. close the auxiliary exhaust dump valves to the main and auxiliary condenser increase the set point of the reduced steam pressure to the auxiliary exhaust systemNot learned 1892. If the DC heater relief valve lifts frequently, the cause can be excessive __________.Not learned 1893. Which of the conditions listed may be indicated by the lifting of the DC heater relief valve?Not learned 1894. Which of the listed statements is true concerning the start-up of a main propulsion boiler centrifugal feed pump?Not learned 1895. The main boiler feed pump discharge is controlled by the admission of steam to the auxiliary turbine. The admission of steam is normally regulated by a __________.Not learned 1896. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the start-up operation of a non-condensing turbine-driven feed pump?Not learned 1897. The net positive suction head of a boiler centrifugal feed pump should be calculated to include the feed water vapor pressure and the __________.Not learned 1898. The boiler main feed pump aboard ship can operate with high temperature water without becoming vapor bound because the __________.Not learned 1899. During initial starting of the standby turbine-driven boiler feed pump, which of the listed valves should remain closed?Not learned 1900. When starting a turbine driven boiler feed pump, care should be taken to ensure that the recirculating valve is open. Which of the following valves should be closed when starting?Not learned 1901. If a centrifugal main feed pump were operated at shutoff head with the recirculating line closed, which of the following conditions could occur?Not learned 1902. A turbine-driven centrifugal feed pump used for boiler feed service should normally be stopped by __________.Not learned 1903. How is an auxiliary turbine boiler feed pump normally stopped?Not learned 1904. An excess pressure governor would normally be used on a __________.Not learned 1905. The constant pressure governor of a turbine-driven feed pump maintains which of the following pressures at a constant value for all capacities?Not learned 1906. Which of the listed items are the two most commonly used opposing forces involved in the operation of a constant pressure boiler feed pump governor?Not learned 1907. When operating with the auxiliary feed line, feed water flow is controlled __________.Not learned 1908. Which system should be tested and used when required to raise the water level in an idle boiler?Not learned 1909. Which system should be used when required to raise the water level in an idle boiler?Not learned 1910. Under EMERGENCY operating conditions with the main feed valve malfunctioning, what should be the proper valve positions for controlling feedwater to the boiler?Not learned 1911. The main feed check valve functions to __________.Not learned 1912. Which of the following is the advantage of operating a typical closed feedwater system for a marine boiler when compared to an open feedwater system?Not learned 1913. Which piping system is described in the illustration providedNot learned 1914. Deaeration of condensate primarily occurs in what section of the illustration shownNot learned 1915. A boiler feed stop-valve must be mounted __________.Not learned 1916. Which of the listed order of valves represents the proper installation of the main feedwater supply line to a marine propulsion boiler?Not learned 1917. The boiler main feed stop check valve is located nearest the __________.Not learned 1918. A boiler feed stop-check valve would be located at the __________.Not learned 1919. In the boiler steam and water system, pressure is highest in the __________.Not learned 1920. The pressure in the feedwater system must exceed boiler steam drum pressure in order to __________.Not learned 1921. Which of the following statements describes those portions of the piping maintained under positive pressure when a pressure-closed feed system is in operation?Not learned 1922. If it is necessary to operate a turbine driven main feed pump at shut off head, or at less than 20% of its rated capacity, what will prevent the pump from overheating?Not learned 1923. Recirculation of the feedwater ensures a flow of water through the __________.Not learned 1924. The purpose of the recirculating line between the turbine driven feed pump and the DC heater is to __________.Not learned 1925. To prevent pulsations from developing in the boiler feedwater lines, the discharge side of a reciprocating feed pump is equipped with a/an __________.Not learned 1926. Makeup feedwater is brought into an operating closed feed system via the __________.Not learned 1927. Which of the devices listed is used to keep overheated condensate from flowing to the deaerating feed tank?Not learned 1928. Which of the listed components would be considered the dividing line separating the condensate system from the feedwater system?Not learned 1929. Discharging an excessive amount of make-up feed water into the DC heater during normal steaming conditions could cause __________.Not learned 1930. Excessive water loss from the main feed system can be caused by __________.Not learned 1931. To properly sound a reserve feed water tank, you should use a/an__________.Not learned 1932. Using a dry uncoated sounding rod or tape to measure the depth of water in a reserve feed water tank will __________.Not learned 1933. Which piping system is described in the illustration providedNot learned 1934. From where does the air ejector take its suction on a Soloshell double effect distilling unit?Not learned 1935. If a flash-type evaporator is operating in extremely cold seawater temperatures, the engineer may expect that __________.Not learned 1936. While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging the output to the distill tanks. If it becomes necessary to reduce the feed water temperature below 165°F, you should __________.Not learned 1937. While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging the output to the boiler water reserve feed tanks. If it becomes necessary to reduce the evaporator feed water temperature to below 165°F, you should _______.Not learned 1938. During the operation of a flash-type evaporator, the distillate flow meter indicates the output has significantly decreased from the previous day. Although all shell pressures appear normal, which of the following could be the probable cause for the decrease in output?Not learned 1939. If the evaporator feed temperature from a flash type evaporator falls below 160°F __________.Not learned 1940. In a two-stage flash-type evaporator, excess brine in the first stage automatically passes __________.Not learned 1941. Which of the listed conditions will cause the feed water, that has not flashed to vapor in the first-stage of a flash evaporator, to flow into the second-stage?Not learned 1942. When a flash evaporator is being operated in extremely cold water, you may need to throttle the seawater supply to __________.Not learned 1943. A flash type evaporator is designed to operate in 75°F sea water, if operated in 50°F sea water, __________.Not learned 1944. In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent cocks to the __________.Not learned 1945. In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent cocks to the __________.Not learned 1946. Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator, and the second stage air ejector __________.Not learned 1947. For optimum non-condensable gas removal from a low pressure evaporator, the air ejector suction is usually taken directly from __________.Not learned 1948. The function of the loop seal, as typically provided on a flash type evaporator, is to __________.Not learned 1949. A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate circuit between any two stages of a multiple stage distilling plant by the use of a/an __________.Not learned 1950. While in operation, the function of the orifice in the flash evaporator loop seal is to __________.Not learned 1951. If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become significantly enlarged through erosion, the __________.Not learned 1952. The size of the loop seal orifice for a flash-type evaporator is important for maintaining the control of __________.Not learned 1953. In a two-stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is vented to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapor from the pump suction?Not learned 1954. In a two-stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is vented to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapor from the pump suction?Not learned 1955. In the event of a power failure to the salinity panel on a flash-type evaporator, the three-way solenoid valve will __________.Not learned 1956. The distillate produced by a flash evaporator has a salinity of 0.21 grains per gallon, with a feed water temperature entering the first-stage of the evaporator at 170°F. Under these conditions the three-way solenoid valve will __________.Not learned 1957. If the distillate temperature is 150°F and the distillate salinity is 0.35 grains per gallon, the three-way solenoid trip valve should direct the distillate to the __________.Not learned 1958. Which of the following statements describes the operation of a three-way solenoid trip/dump valve on a two stage flash-type evaporator?Not learned 1959. Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained directly from the __________.Not learned 1960. The temperature of the steam supply to the saltwater feed heater, in a flash type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an __________.Not learned 1961. The second stage feed water temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage, flash type, distilling plant is __________.Not learned 1962. The first stage feed water temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage flash evaporator is __________.Not learned 1963. In a two stage flash evaporator, operating conditions in the second stage, as compared to the first stage, are __________.Not learned 1964. The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be increased by __________.Not learned 1965. The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be increased by __________.Not learned 1966. In the operation of a flash type evaporator equipped with air ejectors, the air and non-condensable gases are evacuated directly from the __________.Not learned 1967. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by __________.Not learned 1968. Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when operated in cooler sea water temperatures?Not learned 1969. Why will a two stage flash type distilling plant tend to operate more efficiently when operating in cold seawater?Not learned 1970. The quantity of heating steam supplied to the feed water heater of a two-stage flash type distilling plant is held relatively constant by a/an __________.Not learned 1971. A fixed orifice plate is generally installed in the live steam supply to a flash evaporator. One of the functions of this orifice is to control the quantity of the supplied steam. A second function is to __________.Not learned 1972. The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled by __________.Not learned 1973. In a two-stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is increased as it passes through the __________.Not learned 1974. In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater) first absorbs heat in the __________.Not learned 1975. The heated feed water entering any flash chamber of a flash-type evaporator will __________.Not learned 1976. The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is __________.Not learned 1977. The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash-type evaporator is generally accomplished by __________.Not learned 1978. While earlier designs of flash-type evaporators used a stand-alone, shell-and-tube air ejector condenser, most modern flash evaporators package the air ejector condenser in combination with the __________.Not learned 1979. The final heating of the feed water in a flash type distilling plant is carried out by __________.Not learned 1980. Under normal operating conditions, the highest temperature and pressure conditions existing for flash-type evaporators will occur in the __________.Not learned 1981. In the unit illustrated, the feedwater temperature is required to be increased to 165°F or greater and must exist at this temperature when leaving __________Not learned 1982. In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feed water is vaporized in the __________.Not learned 1983. What is the operating principal of a flash type evaporator?Not learned 1984. In a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is converted into vapor by suddenly __________.Not learned 1985. Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing __________.Not learned 1986. Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage due to the flash chamber __________.Not learned 1987. A flash type distilling plant is more efficient than a high pressure evaporator as __________. vaporization of the feed water occurs in a vacuum boiling of feed water occurs only once on the tube surfacesNot learned 1988. Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the first-stage due to __________.Not learned 1989. The flash chamber of a soloshell evaporator is typically an external chamber used for the combining of the distillate produced at two different absolute pressures. On a multistage flash-type evaporator, the flash chamber is __________.Not learned 1990. On a multistage flash-type evaporator, the flash chamber is __________.Not learned 1991. If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type evaporator __________. vaporization of the feed water would continue 2nd stage vacuum would increaseNot learned 1992. If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type evaporator __________. vaporization of the feed water would continue 2nd stage vacuum would increaseNot learned 1993. If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type evaporator __________.Not learned 1994. The efficiency and output capacity of a low pressure distilling plant will be greatly reduced if __________.Not learned 1995. In which of the areas listed would you expect to find the highest salt concentration in a flash evaporator?Not learned 1996. The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.Not learned 1997. In a two stage flash type evaporator, the brine overboard pump is vented directly to the __________.Not learned 1998. Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________.Not learned 1999. In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale formation is greatly reduced by __________.Not learned 2000. The rate of scale formation in a flash type distilling plant is greatly reduced by __________.Not learned 2001. The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the __________.Not learned 2002. One distinct advantage of flash type evaporators, as compared to most other evaporators, is that in a flash evaporator shell __________.Not learned 2003. Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type evaporator, are removed by the __________.Not learned 2004. In a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the mesh-type vapor separators function to __________.Not learned 2005. The demisters installed in a flash-type evaporator serve to __________.Not learned 2006. The mesh type steam separators located in a two-stage flash distilling plant, function to __________.Not learned 2007. In order to prevent salt water contamination of the distillate in a flash-type evaporator, it is important to provide a positive seal around the __________.Not learned 2008. Early models of the flash-type evaporators required a pump to drain the steam condensate from the salt water feed heater. This pump would normally discharge to the __________.Not learned 2009. When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a flash type evaporator, liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In order to correct this, you should __________.Not learned 2010. When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should __________.Not learned 2011. When a flash-type evaporator is to be secured for an extended period of time, the entire unit should be drained, cleaned, and __________.Not learned 2012. Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through __________.Not learned 2013. Irregular feeding or surging of the feedwater supply to a flash evaporator may be attributed to __________.Not learned 2014. High salinity distillate being discharged from a flash-type distilling plant may be the result of __________.Not learned 2015. Tube leaks in the distillate cooler of a two stage flash evaporator will result in __________.Not learned 2016. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator would indicate __________.Not learned 2017. A high reading is indicated at the salinity cells labeled "Y", "Q", and "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the probable result of __________Not learned 2018. A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cells labeled "W" and "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the probable result of __________Not learned 2019. Standing watch in the engine room, a high reading is only indicated at the salinity cell labeled "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the probable result of __________Not learned 2020. If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect __________.Not learned 2021. An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator can be caused by __________.Not learned 2022. Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of __________.Not learned 2023. In a flash type distilling plant, a screen is fitted over the suction connection to the brine overboard pump in order to prevent __________.Not learned 2024. In the illustrated 8,000 GPD evaporator the salt water feed pump and pump "N" are identically constructed. If the vapor pressure in chamber "II" is 2.1 psia, with a feed temperature of 170°F; operating pump "N" with the discharge valve 100% open will __________Not learned 2025. Partially clogged or scored nozzles in a two stage air ejector unit of a flash distilling plant could result in a __________.Not learned 2026. A multistage flash evaporator will be unable to produce consistently pure distillate if the __________.Not learned 2027. Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator?Not learned 2028. Fluctuating pressures and temperatures in a low pressure fresh water evaporator will __________.Not learned 2029. Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may result from __________.Not learned 2030. When any low pressure distilling plant is operated at less than the designed vacuum (higher absolute pressure), what happens?Not learned 2031. On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more likely to find soft scale formation?Not learned 2032. In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely to occur in the __________.Not learned 2033. While the illustrated system is operated at sea the strainer in line "4" becomes fouled, this will result in __________Not learned 2034. While the illustrated system is operated using the steam supply through "OR4" the strainer "MD9" becomes fouled, this will result in __________Not learned 2035. While operating a two-stage flash-type evaporator, designed to operate in sea water of 70°F, the current seawater temperature is 50°F, while the salt water feed temperature is maintained at 170°F. The three-way solenoid valve trips, directing the distillate pump discharge to the bilge. Which of the following conditions is the probable cause for this occurrence?Not learned 2036. Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type distilling plant will be a result of __________.Not learned 2037. An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator can be caused by __________.Not learned 2038. While standing watch in the engine room, you suspect air leaking into a flash type distilling plant. The most probable cause(s) of the air leak could occur through __________.Not learned 2039. Standing watch in the engine room, a high reading is only indicated at the salinity cell labeled "6" shown in the illustration. This would be the probable result of __________Not learned 2040. High salinity distillate being discharged from a flash-type distilling plant may be the result of __________.Not learned 2041. If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect __________.Not learned 2042. An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator can be caused by __________.Not learned 2043. While standing watch in the engine room, you suspect an air leak while checking a low pressure distilling plant. Which of the following should be checked as a possible cause of the air leak?Not learned 2044. While standing watch underway, if the brine level of a low pressure distilling plant is above the sight glass, which action should be taken?Not learned 2045. The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be increased by __________.Not learned 2046. What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustrationNot learned 2047. The primary function of line 'J' shown in the illustration is to ______Not learned 2048. The function of device "O" shown in the illustration is to ______Not learned 2049. Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________.Not learned 2050. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by __________.Not learned 2051. While earlier designs of flash-type evaporators used a stand-alone, shell-and-tube air ejector condenser, most modern flash evaporators package the air ejector condenser in combination with the __________.Not learned 2052. What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"Not learned 2053. When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time, you should __________.Not learned 2054. Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?Not learned 2055. What occurs in the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 2056. What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustrationNot learned 2057. What is the function of device "C" shown in the illustrationNot learned 2058. What is the function of item 'D' shown in the illustrationNot learned 2059. Which of the freshwater generators listed below requires a source of heat and evaporates sea water at a location other than a heat exchanger surface?Not learned 2060. Other than taking a scale thickness through a zinc plug opening of the water box of a feed water heater of a flash evaporator, what would be the BEST indication for a need to remove scale build-up?Not learned 2061. While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued presence of scale?Not learned 2062. When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished?Not learned 2063. What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating surfaces of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production?Not learned 2064. While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of the scale?Not learned 2065. Device "27" shown in the illustration is used to __________Not learned 2066. What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustrationNot learned 2067. What is the function of the device labeled "3" shown in the illustrationNot learned 2068. The temperature of the steam supply to the saltwater feed heater, in a flash type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an __________.Not learned 2069. Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of __________.Not learned 2070. Which of the following statements describes the proper operation of a three-way solenoid trip/dump valve on a two stage flash-type evaporator?Not learned 2071. In a double-effect distilling unit, the brine in the second-effect is additionally heated by __________.Not learned 2072. One function of the vapor feed heater in a double-effect submerged tube distilling unit is to __________.Not learned 2073. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure distilling plant will cause __________.Not learned 2074. For efficient and proper operation, the brine density in a submerged tube evaporator should be maintained at __________.Not learned 2075. In a double-effect submerged tube evaporator, the brine density should be prevented from falling below 1.5/32nds to minimize __________.Not learned 2076. The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of a flash type evaporator should be kept at a constant value so as to __________.Not learned 2077. For efficient and proper operation, the brine density in a submerged tube evaporator should be maintained at __________.Not learned 2078. One advantage of a triple-effect low pressure submerged tube distilling plant over a double-effect unit is __________.Not learned 2079. Brine density in a distilling plant is measured with a/an __________.Not learned 2080. In a double-effect distilling plant, the brine particles remaining entrained with the vapor produced in the evaporator first effect, are separated by __________.Not learned 2081. The vapor separators installed in some distilling plants consist of several rows of vertical hooked vanes which remove entrained moisture from the vapor by __________.Not learned 2082. In a double-effect distilling plant, liquid moisture remaining entrained in the first-effect vapor, is removed by __________.Not learned 2083. The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to __________.Not learned 2084. The steam coils in a high pressure contaminated evaporator used in a steam plant should be descaled with __________.Not learned 2085. Rapid fluctuation of the last effect shell vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator can cause __________.Not learned 2086. Rapid fluctuations of absolute pressure in the last effect of a multi-effect submerged tube distilling plant will tend to cause __________.Not learned 2087. An unsteady vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator may be caused by __________.Not learned 2088. What would cause a coil type evaporator to require consistently higher steam coil pressure to maintain its output capacity?Not learned 2089. If the rated distillate production of a submerged tube type evaporator cannot be maintained with the supplied maximum steam pressure, the evaporator __________.Not learned 2090. If the rated distillate production of a submerged tube type evaporator cannot be maintained with the supplied maximum steam pressure, the evaporator __________.Not learned 2091. If the rated distillate production of a submerged tube type evaporator cannot be maintained with the supplied maximum steam pressure, the evaporator __________.Not learned 2092. In a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor that determines the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle?Not learned 2093. Which of the following statements is correct relative to distillation plant operation?Not learned 2094. A vacuum is initially established in the first and second stages of a low pressure evaporator by the use of __________.Not learned 2095. Where auxiliary steam supply is not used in the process of maintaining vacuum in a distilling unit, the vacuum is usually attained by __________.Not learned 2096. Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the live steam supply line, the steam at the outlet of the orifice if not properly conditioned will be developed as __________.Not learned 2097. Steam passing through the control orifice installed in the live steam supply to a low pressure evaporator will develop significant superheat as a result of __________.Not learned 2098. If the fixed orifice in the evaporator steam supply line were to be removed, the steam pressure reducing valve located upstream would __________.Not learned 2099. In which of the following types of evaporators is the control of brine density least important?Not learned 2100. Why is a self-sealing pump generally not satisfactory for service as a brine overboard pump?Not learned 2101. The primary reason low-pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high-pressure evaporators is __________.Not learned 2102. Less scale formation occurs in a flash evaporator than in a submerged tube evaporator because __________.Not learned 2103. The advantages of flash type evaporators, as compared to submerged tube type evaporators, include __________.Not learned 2104. One advantage of a flash distilling plant when compared to a submerged tube distiller is __________.Not learned 2105. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a fresh water evaporator is classified as a/an __________.Not learned 2106. The process of boiling sea water in order to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine is usually defined as ________.Not learned 2107. In the production of fresh water from sea water through a process of heating and cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called __________.Not learned 2108. The steam coils in a high pressure contaminated evaporator used in a steam plant should be descaled with __________.Not learned 2109. When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to determine the source of suspected air leaks you should use __________.Not learned 2110. If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to __________.Not learned 2111. A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be caused by __________.Not learned 2112. Evaporator priming can be caused by high water level, fluctuating steam pressure, or __________.Not learned 2113. When any low-pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the designed vacuum, the __________.Not learned 2114. If 'wet' steam is supplied to the air ejectors of a low pressure evaporator, the passage of the mixture through the nozzles will __________.Not learned 2115. Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces __________.Not learned 2116. Scale accumulation on evaporator heating surfaces will cause __________.Not learned 2117. Diesel engine jacket water is used in the fresh water distillation process as the __________.Not learned 2118. What would cause a coil type evaporator to require consistently higher steam coil pressure to maintain its output capacity?Not learned 2119. A solenoid-operated distillate three-way valve is installed in the discharge line between the distilling plant and the potable water tanks. This valve will trip and dump the distillate discharge if the __________.Not learned 2120. A three-way solenoid operated dump valve installed on a flash-type evaporator unit, will divert impure distillate to the bilge __________.Not learned 2121. The purpose of a three-way, solenoid, dump valve on an evaporator is to __________.Not learned 2122. A solenoid operated distillate bypass valve is installed in the discharge line between a distilling plant and the potable water tanks to prevent __________.Not learned 2123. In a submerged tube evaporator, the automatic solenoid dump valve will trip if the salinity exceeds __________.Not learned 2124. Which of the following statements is true concerning low pressure distilling units?Not learned 2125. A salinity indicator is used to determine the __________.Not learned 2126. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the __________.Not learned 2127. Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an electrical salinity indicator?Not learned 2128. The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a __________.Not learned 2129. Where would a salinity cell be installed in a double-effect distilling plant?Not learned 2130. In a flash-type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell would be installed in the __________.Not learned 2131. The average density of brine discharged from the last stage of a fresh water evaporator should not exceed __________.Not learned 2132. Salinity cells are strategically installed in distilling units to indicate the __________. location of a saltwater leak size of the leakNot learned 2133. Salinity cells are strategically installed in flash type distilling units to indicate the __________. presence of leaks in the flash chambers quantity of the distillate producedNot learned 2134. A salinity indicator cell is located in the __________.Not learned 2135. Salinity cells are strategically installed in distilling units to indicate the __________.Not learned 2136. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator would indicate __________.Not learned 2137. While standing watch underway at sea, you notice salinity carryover in the low pressure distilling plant. This can be a result of __________.Not learned 2138. Salinity cells are strategically installed in distilling units to indicate the __________.Not learned 2139. What statement is true concerning the operation of a distilling plant or boiler feed water salinometer?Not learned 2140. An automatic solenoid dump valve should be set to trip if the evaporator produces distillate with salt content exceeding ______.Not learned 2141. A salinity indicator system such as that used to measure the salt content of potable water systems and boiler feed and condensate systems uses what technology?Not learned 2142. Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?Not learned 2143. Reverse-osmosis freshwater generators usually feature multiple membrane modules, typically of the spiral-wound membrane type. How are these multiple membrane modules piped?Not learned 2144. Regarding a reverse osmosis type fresh water generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules, what statement is true?Not learned 2145. To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse-osmosis freshwater generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?Not learned 2146. Regarding the operating principle of a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator, what statement is true?Not learned 2147. Regarding the high-pressure pump of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, what statement is true?Not learned 2148. For the successful operation of a reverse osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high-pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?Not learned 2149. For the successful operation of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator, the setting of the brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the set point of this regulator is true?Not learned 2150. If a reverse osmosis fresh water generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the freshwater outlet, what should be done?Not learned 2151. What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?Not learned 2152. What component of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator could be isolated and replaced with the unit remaining in service?Not learned 2153. What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?Not learned 2154. Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse osmosis freshwater generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be avoided?Not learned 2155. With regards to a reverse osmosis unit, what is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through?Not learned 2156. When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be accomplished?Not learned 2157. Which of the freshwater generators listed below is operated without a source of heat?Not learned 2158. Which of the following freshwater generators has an operating principle that requires it to run under a substantially positive pressure?Not learned 2159. In which of the following fresh water generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?Not learned 2160. In order for a reverse osmosis fresh water generator to be able to overcome the osmotic pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be controlled. What is the location of the pressure regulator?Not learned 2161. If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what statement is true?Not learned 2162. In order for the hydraulic system to operate with fewer contaminants from the system's operating fluid, the illustrated device may __________Not learned 2163. In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high-pressure return is provided by __________Not learned 2164. The dashed line to the illustrated pump is the __________Not learned 2165. Assuming valve "A" is correctly aligned in the no-flow position as shown with the system in operation, which of the following statements is trueNot learned 2166. A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________Not learned 2167. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.Not learned 2168. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.Not learned 2169. A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________Not learned 2170. A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________Not learned 2171. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the __________.Not learned 2172. The component shown in the illustration is a graphic representation of a ________Not learned 2173. The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 2174. Which of the following components listed is shown in the illustrationNot learned 2175. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 2176. An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________Not learned 2177. Which of the following is true concerning the hydraulic system illustratedNot learned 2178. Which of the following is true concerning the hydraulic system illustratedNot learned 2179. Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as __________Not learned 2180. Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.Not learned 2181. The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a result of the fluid flow overcoming __________.Not learned 2182. In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs. (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64Not learned 2183. In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs. (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64Not learned 2184. In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 8 sq. in (51.6 sqNot learned 2185. In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 10,000 lbs (4540 kg) and the piston area (y) is 8 sq. in (51.6 sqNot learned 2186. In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 702.68 lbs (319.02 kg) and the piston area (y) is 1.117 sq. in (7.21 sqNot learned 2187. In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 10,000 lb (4,450 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq cmNot learned 2188. In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 9984 lbs (4532.7 kg) and the piston area is 12 sq. in (77.4 sqNot learned 2189. In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 2,530 lbs (1,148.48 kg) and the area of the piston (y) is 38 sq. in (244.8 sqNot learned 2190. In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 632 lb (286.9 kg) and the piston area (y) is 1.5 sq. in (9.6 sqNot learned 2191. In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs. (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64Not learned 2192. In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 758.7 lbs (344 kg) and the piston area (y) is 1.25 sq. in (8.0 sqNot learned 2193. In the illustrated system, what pressure will be indicated on the gage if the load (x) is 500 lbs (227 kg) and the piston area (y) is 0.63 sq. in. (4 sqNot learned 2194. Hydraulic systems typically operated for intermittent service do not require the use of oil coolers and would include all of the following except _________?Not learned 2195. According to 46 CFR, a cargo hatch fluid-power operating system is considered to be fail-safe if a component failure will result in __________.Not learned 2196. A fluid power system shall be so designed __________.Not learned 2197. In the steering gear system shown in the illustration, if the maximum working pressure is applied to the face of the ram, the total force on one piston will be __________Not learned 2198. In the steering gear unit shown in the illustration, which of the actions listed will occur as 'left rudder' is being attainedNot learned 2199. The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may begin to cavitate if __________Not learned 2200. Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.Not learned 2201. Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________Not learned 2202. Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________Not learned 2203. Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as __________Not learned 2204. Which of the following components listed is shown in the illustrationNot learned 2205. If solenoid "A" illustrated is energized, the ______Not learned 2206. Which of the following is the most common type of valving element used in hydraulic system directional control valves?Not learned 2207. An orifice-check valve placed in a hydraulic system is used to __________.Not learned 2208. Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve?Not learned 2209. Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve?Not learned 2210. Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional control valve?Not learned 2211. A valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate the reversal of fluid flow, is called a __________.Not learned 2212. A valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate the reversal of fluid flow, is called a __________.Not learned 2213. Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system directional control valve?Not learned 2214. Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system directional control valve?Not learned 2215. Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system directional control valve?Not learned 2216. Valve "D" indicated in the illustration is referred to as a/an __________Not learned 2217. Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?Not learned 2218. Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________.Not learned 2219. Most solenoid valves are actuated by __________.Not learned 2220. Directional control valves used in hydraulic systems may be positioned __________.Not learned 2221. The device shown in the illustration is known as a/an __________Not learned 2222. If the operator releases the handle of the illustrated device while the system output is in motion, the valve will __________Not learned 2223. The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is to __________.Not learned 2224. A device incorporating a variable orifice placed in series with a check valve in a hydraulic system, is used to __________.Not learned 2225. Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to __________.Not learned 2226. The device shown in the illustration is typically called a/an __________Not learned 2227. The device shown in the illustration is typically called a/an __________Not learned 2228. A hydraulic system directional control valve fitted with 'detent' will __________.Not learned 2229. The device shown in the illustrated is known as a/an __________Not learned 2230. Regarding the device shown in the illustration, if the operator releases the handle while the system output is in motion, the __________Not learned 2231. Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to establish the maximum operating pressure of a hydraulic system?Not learned 2232. Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?Not learned 2233. Which component in a hydraulic system is commonly used to prevent the stray movements of a vertical load until required?Not learned 2234. If solenoid "A" illustrated is energized, the ______Not learned 2235. If solenoid "A" illustrated is energized, the ______Not learned 2236. If solenoid "A" of the valve illustrated is energized, the cylinder will __________Not learned 2237. If solenoid "A" of the valve illustrated is energized, the cylinder will __________Not learned 2238. The basic function of the servo control shown in the illustration, as used in some hydraulic systems, is to __________Not learned 2239. If the device shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial piston pump, when part "A" is moved to the right, then part "B" __________Not learned 2240. If the device shown in the illustration is used to control the output of a variable displacement pump, and part "A" is displaced 50% from 'zero' stroke, which of the following statements will be correctNot learned 2241. Which of the following statements will be true if the position of the manual control lever, shown in the illustration, remains unchanged after the pump is placed on strokeNot learned 2242. If the device shown in the illustration is used to control the output of a variable displacement pump, and part "A" is displaced 50% from 'zero' stroke, which of the following statements will be correctNot learned 2243. In the device illustrated, if part "D" rotates clockwise then part "E" will rotate __________Not learned 2244. A variable displacement pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow rate will be reduced as described by which of the following statementsNot learned 2245. An axial piston hydraulic motor is caused to rotate by fluid flow from a comparably designed variable displacement pump fitted with the illustrated device. If the motor stalls, due to excess load, the pump tilting box will seek neutral stroke until the high side pressure equalizes or is less than the set point pressure established by part __________Not learned 2246. Which of the following problems will occur if the internal drain at either end of a hydraulic, two-way, spool-type directional control valve cylinder were to become plugged?Not learned 2247. Which of the following statements represents a disadvantage associated with a spool-type, solenoid direct operating, directional control valves?Not learned 2248. A solenoid direct-acting three-position spring-centered directional control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. When the remote push button is depressed to extend the actuator it fails to move, even though the pump is in operation. Which of the following statements represents the cause?Not learned 2249. A solenoid, direct-acting, three-position, spring-centered, directional control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. Midway through extension, the push button is released, but the actuator continues to extend slowly. Which of the following conditions represents the probable cause?Not learned 2250. A solenoid, direct-acting, three-position, spring-centered, directional control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. With the actuator under load there is no movement. However, when the load is removed the actuator can be cycled in both directions, although slower than normal. Which of the statements listed is the probable cause?Not learned 2251. Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower than the required operating pressure will result in __________.Not learned 2252. If the relief valve on the discharge side of a hydraulic pump lifts, the cause could be __________.Not learned 2253. During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve, used in a hydraulic system, the set point was reduced by 100 psi. Which of the following statements describes the result of the set point being lowered?Not learned 2254. Which of the conditions listed will cause the hydraulic pump relief valve to remain open during the operation of the systemNot learned 2255. Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a hydraulic system?Not learned 2256. A reservoir is used in a hydraulic system to __________.Not learned 2257. A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil. Another function is to __________.Not learned 2258. Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to __________.Not learned 2259. Return lines to hydraulic systems reservoirs should________.Not learned 2260. In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to the reservoir are terminated below the normal oil level to prevent __________. foaming of the oil condensation of warm oil vapors upon returnNot learned 2261. In a typical hydraulic system, a baffle is installed in the reservoir to __________. insure proper lubrication of the hydraulic pump assist in the removal of solid contaminants entrained in the returning oilNot learned 2262. In a typical hydraulic system, a baffle is installed in the reservoir to __________. provide a critical reduction in free surface effect of the hydraulic pump retard flow of oil through reservoir to assist in heat removalNot learned 2263. The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________.Not learned 2264. Hydraulic system reservoirs should be maintained at recommended normal levels to reduce __________.Not learned 2265. As a general rule of thumb, the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a capacity, when at the normal level, approximately equal to __________.Not learned 2266. An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the possibility of __________.Not learned 2267. The component, which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.Not learned 2268. Modern trends show that full flow filters used in multi-operation hydraulic systems would most likely be located __________.Not learned 2269. An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can __________.Not learned 2270. Some fluid filters used in hydraulic systems are designed to cope with increasing pressure differentials by __________.Not learned 2271. Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to __________.Not learned 2272. Which component in a hydraulic system is commonly used to prevent the stray movements of a vertical load until required?Not learned 2273. The device shown in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________Not learned 2274. Which of the labeled parts would be considered as the 'dynamic seal ring' portion of the illustrated deviceNot learned 2275. In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring?Not learned 2276. In which of the listed hydraulic system components could an O-ring seal be satisfactorily used in providing a seal?Not learned 2277. In hydraulics, the graphic symbol illustrated in Fig. A is used to represent a/an __________Not learned 2278. The hydraulic graphic symbol illustrated as Fig. C is used to depict a/an __________Not learned 2279. The hydraulic graphic symbol illustrated in Fig. B is used to represent a/an __________Not learned 2280. Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________Not learned 2281. In a six month period, the illustrated device has needed to be replaced twice due to excessive grinding of part "E". Which of the listed aids might assist in reducing this problemNot learned 2282. The device shown in the illustration has displayed a continuing tendency to leak, despite using extreme care in its installation during numerous repair efforts. Which of the following conditions might be used to prevent the pump shaft leakage from reoccurring with this deviceNot learned 2283. An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when it has lost its interference fit due to __________.Not learned 2284. Leakage of hydraulic fluid from around the shaft of a hydraulic motor may be caused by __________.Not learned 2285. Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined filler/breather cap. If the breather element becomes fouled, the __________.Not learned 2286. Which of the following devices is not considered to be a pressure vessel? (46 CFR)Not learned 2287. Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to __________.Not learned 2288. An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can __________.Not learned 2289. Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________.Not learned 2290. Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?Not learned 2291. The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________.Not learned 2292. If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled heat exchanger, the fan should ______.Not learned 2293. In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to the reservoir are __________. terminated at or just above the normal level placed as far from the pump suction as possibleNot learned 2294. The component of the illustrated compression fitting, figure "C", used to seal and eliminate leaks between the tubing and the fitting is part __________Not learned 2295. The components used to 'lock' the hydraulic tubing in place when assembling the illustrated compression fitting "C" are items __________Not learned 2296. Dry seal threads, typically used for tubing to pipe connectors, and threaded piping in hydraulic systems are __________.Not learned 2297. Copper is sometimes used for fluid power lines because it __________.Not learned 2298. Hydraulic system tubing should be anchored every three or four feet to prevent __________.Not learned 2299. The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is indicated by __________.Not learned 2300. If the numerical designation indicated on the outside of a hydraulic hose is BXP-10, the "dash size" 10 indicates that the inside diameter of the hose is _______.Not learned 2301. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _______.Not learned 2302. The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the __________.Not learned 2303. When installing a hydraulic hose, which of the following precautions should be taken?Not learned 2304. The striped flexible hose installation shown is incorrect and will probably fail under pressure because the hose will __________Not learned 2305. Which of the listed illustrations correctly represents the installation of a hydraulic hoseNot learned 2306. Which of the listed illustrations shows the INCORRECT method for installing hydraulic tubingNot learned 2307. Figure "D" in the illustration is an improperly installed hose with a restriction developed at the __________Not learned 2308. Figure "C" in the illustration, is an improperly installed hose, with the restriction developed at the __________Not learned 2309. Figure "B" in the illustration is improperly installed. A restriction will develop in this hose __________Not learned 2310. Regarding the hydraulic hose installation illustrated, the hose __________Not learned 2311. Flexible hose under pressure in a hydraulic system will __________.Not learned 2312. If you install a hydraulic hose on a unit and fail to leave sufficient room for expansion, which of the following problems will develop?Not learned 2313. If you install a new hydraulic hose in a hydraulic system, the hose must be long enough to allow for contraction to prevent __________.Not learned 2314. The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will probably leak when in operation because the tubing __________Not learned 2315. The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure D in the illustration will probably leak when operating because the tubing __________Not learned 2316. Flanged joints in high pressure hydraulic system piping are commonly made leak proof by ________.Not learned 2317. If the hydraulic compression type tubing fitting, shown as figure "C" in the illustration begins to leak, you should __________Not learned 2318. When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be __________.Not learned 2319. New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using __________.Not learned 2320. In the design of hydraulic piping and equipment consideration is given to minimize turbulence in the hydraulic fluid, as this will cause __________.Not learned 2321. According to Coast Guard Regulations, flexible hoses used as supply and return lines to hydraulic system components, must have __________.Not learned 2322. Hydraulic hose assemblies are permitted by 46 CFR to be installed between two points of relative motion __________.Not learned 2323. Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure __________Not learned 2324. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, is the _______.Not learned 2325. Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high-pressure use is represented by figure __________Not learned 2326. A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch cover system and has developed a slight leak. To stop the leak, you should __________.Not learned 2327. The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to __________.Not learned 2328. A hydraulic accumulator, used in a hydraulic system aboard a MODU, is designed to __________.Not learned 2329. The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the __________.Not learned 2330. Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the __________.Not learned 2331. The rubber bladder or separator bag installed in a hydraulic accumulator should only be filled with __________.Not learned 2332. Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be temporarily shut down, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force?Not learned 2333. One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is to __________.Not learned 2334. One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is to __________.Not learned 2335. Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should __________.Not learned 2336. Before performing any maintenance on a hydraulic system storing energy in an accumulator, you should __________.Not learned 2337. To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________.Not learned 2338. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) an accumulator is a/an __________.Not learned 2339. A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be potentially dangerous if ______.Not learned 2340. To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________.Not learned 2341. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by __________.Not learned 2342. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding hydraulic pumps in general?Not learned 2343. In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should _________.Not learned 2344. One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to __________.Not learned 2345. In the hydraulic schematic illustrated, the pump symbol indicates the use of a __________Not learned 2346. A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable stroke pumps to __________.Not learned 2347. A bent axis, variable stroke, axial piston pump produces a greater capacity than a comparable tilting box-type axial piston pump, because the __________.Not learned 2348. The device illustrated would be best used as a __________Not learned 2349. The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is _______Not learned 2350. When the tilting box of a variable stroke axial-piston pump is perpendicular to the pump shaft, which of the following conditions will exist?Not learned 2351. The torque rating of a fluid power motor is expressed in __________.Not learned 2352. In a fixed displacement axial piston hydraulic motor, the speed is varied by __________.Not learned 2353. The speed of a fixed-displacement radial piston hydraulic MOTOR is controlled by varying the __________.Not learned 2354. With regards to axial piston hydraulic pump/motor power units, motor speed is a function of fluid flow rate generated by the pump. Which of the following statements describes why the motor is NOT manipulated as is the pump?Not learned 2355. The usual number of single-acting pistons used in a variable stroke axial-piston pump is __________.Not learned 2356. An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston pump as the pistons of an axial piston pump are positioned __________.Not learned 2357. The delivery rate of an axial-piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the __________.Not learned 2358. The delivery rate of an axial-piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the __________.Not learned 2359. The delivery rate of an axial-piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the __________.Not learned 2360. In the hydraulic transmission shown in the illustration, the "B" end is a __________Not learned 2361. Regarding the hydraulic transmission illustrated, the "A" end is a __________Not learned 2362. If the "B" end were driven by an electric motor and the "A" end were disconnected from the line terminals of the motor controller, the unit illustrated could then be used as a __________Not learned 2363. Which of the following statements describes the actions of an axial piston motor with a full deflection variable position tilting box?Not learned 2364. Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering systems are of the __________.Not learned 2365. Which of the following types of hydraulic pumps would be used in a steering system?Not learned 2366. The device illustrated is considered to be a pump. Which of the following statements is true if it is to be used as a hydraulic motorNot learned 2367. An axial piston, variable stroke pump is used in a vessel's hydraulic steering gear. Under pressure, the oil leakoff from between the valve plate and cylinder barrel will ______.Not learned 2368. Theoretically, if the "B" end of the hydraulic transmission illustrated were provided with a variable position tilting box, and the "A" end displacement were to be constant, the __________Not learned 2369. Theoretically, if the "B" end of the hydraulic transmission illustrated were provided with a variable position tilting box, and the "A" end displacement were to be constant, the __________Not learned 2370. Theoretically, if the "B" end of the hydraulic transmission illustrated were provided with a variable position tilting box, and the "A" end displacement were to be constant, the __________Not learned 2371. If the flow rate and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the device illustrated, the __________Not learned 2372. The pressure side of the radial piston hydraulic motor as shown in the illustration, is aligned to piston number __________Not learned 2373. In the radial piston pump shown in the illustration, oil will enter the cylinder as the piston travels from position __________Not learned 2374. Oil is returned to the illustrated radial piston hydraulic pump piston(s) numbered as __________Not learned 2375. In the illustration, control over the direction and quantity of fluid flow is attained by __________Not learned 2376. Regarding the pump shown in the illustration, the quantity and direction of fluid flow is controlled by __________Not learned 2377. Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston pump are determined by the relative positions of the __________.Not learned 2378. In a radial piston pump, reversal and control of fluid flow are accomplished by moving the __________.Not learned 2379. The amount of the cushioning effect developed within a hydraulic cylinder is determined by the __________.Not learned 2380. Why is a hydraulic linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?Not learned 2381. If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by half of the original amount, the __________.Not learned 2382. When a linear actuator (cylinder) is being retracted without an applied load, the pressure on the oil leaving the 'cap end' will be __________.Not learned 2383. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic ram is correct?Not learned 2384. Operation of a hydraulic pump in a cavitating condition can cause __________.Not learned 2385. If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume, the cause can be __________.Not learned 2386. Obstructed suction passages in the casing or pintle of a radial piston hydraulic pump will cause the __________.Not learned 2387. When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.Not learned 2388. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 2389. Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________Not learned 2390. The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________Not learned 2391. To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following would have to be done?Not learned 2392. The device illustrated would be best used as a __________Not learned 2393. If the flow rate and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the device illustrated, the __________Not learned 2394. A two-stage hydraulic pump unit is used to __________.Not learned 2395. When changing to a fire-resistant hydraulic fluid in a system, it is important to check the compatibility of the new fluid with the system's __________.Not learned 2396. When fire safe or fire resistant fluid is to be used in a hydraulic system, it is important that __________.Not learned 2397. Which of the following precautions should be observed concerning the introduction of a fire resistant fluid into a hydraulic system?Not learned 2398. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil used in a high-pressure system, the oil __________.Not learned 2399. As a rule of thumb, when pressure is applied to hydraulic oil, the oil will __________.Not learned 2400. How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on hydraulic systems?Not learned 2401. With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid __________.Not learned 2402. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil __________.Not learned 2403. Which of the following problems occurring in a hydraulic system can be caused by using an oil having a viscosity lower than specified?Not learned 2404. The hydraulic oil most likely to thin out when hot and thick when cold would have a viscosity index of __________.Not learned 2405. Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity?Not learned 2406. Increased internal leakage, in addition to poor hydraulic system response, and inadequate lubrication, is the result of __________.Not learned 2407. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally __________.Not learned 2408. The major source of chemical contaminants in hydraulic fluid is __________.Not learned 2409. Water allowed to accumulate in the hydraulic system oil will cause an oxidation process producing by-products which are normally __________.Not learned 2410. What is the lowest permissible flashpoint of the oil used in a hydraulic valve actuating system that operates at 145 psi (1000kPa)? (46 CFR Part 58)Not learned 2411. What is the lowest permissible flashpoint of the oil used in a hydraulic valve actuating system that operates at 145 psi (1000kPa)? (46 CFR Part 58)Not learned 2412. If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.Not learned 2413. With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid __________.Not learned 2414. The approximate quantity of hydraulic oil available to the system can be determined by __________Not learned 2415. The approximate quantity of hydraulic oil available to the system can be determined by __________Not learned 2416. Which of the statements is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the directional control valve is centeredNot learned 2417. If it becomes necessary to start an axial piston hydraulic motor under conditions where the hydraulic fluid is colder than the lowest temperature recommended for proper operation, you should operate the system at __________.Not learned 2418. In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be necessary?Not learned 2419. If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will __________.Not learned 2420. Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems because the lint __________.Not learned 2421. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special attention should be given to the hydraulic system?Not learned 2422. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special attention should be given to the hydraulic system?Not learned 2423. Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.Not learned 2424. Which of the following problems may be encountered by using an oil having a viscosity higher than that specified for an operating hydraulic system?Not learned 2425. Sluggish response or action of the hydraulic actuators may be a result of __________.Not learned 2426. Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of __________.Not learned 2427. Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation and can be caused by a/an __________.Not learned 2428. Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, may indicate pump cavitation caused by __________.Not learned 2429. Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is ________.Not learned 2430. If a hydraulic pump sounds like it is pumping rocks when in operation, the problem is most likely ________.Not learned 2431. Air trapped in one end of a hydraulic actuator may be indicated by __________.Not learned 2432. Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a result of __________.Not learned 2433. Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a result of __________.Not learned 2434. Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________.Not learned 2435. If a hydraulic pump is overheating, the cause may be __________.Not learned 2436. Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by contamination of the hydraulic fluid and __________.Not learned 2437. Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by misalignment of the system components and by __________.Not learned 2438. A simple hydraulic system is made up of a pump, relief- valve, manual-control valve, and a linear actuator. If the piping connected to the actuator 'cap end' is accidentally crushed to one half of its diameter, this will result in __________Not learned 2439. If the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise while in operation, this is a probable indication of __________.Not learned 2440. A gradual decrease in the discharge pressure of an operating hydraulic pump can be caused by __________.Not learned 2441. If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, the cause may be __________.Not learned 2442. If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck crane, which of the following problems will occur?Not learned 2443. If the boom shown in the illustration can be raised, but not lowered, the problem is most likely with the "Topping Circuit" ________Not learned 2444. If the operating pressure is determined to be normal in the system shown in the illustration, yet the crane does not swing (slew) in either direction when the directional control valve is operated, the problem could be ________Not learned 2445. The counterbalance valve (5) in the winch circuit shown in the illustration ________Not learned 2446. You press start button on the hydraulic power unit shown in the illustration, and the motor does not start. The first thing you should check is the ________Not learned 2447. The directional control valves as shown in the illustration are ________Not learned 2448. A hydraulic system gear pump being fed from a reservoir frequently indicates signs of excessive pitting after two months of service. Which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?Not learned 2449. A hydraulic system gear pump being fed from a reservoir indicates signs of excessive pitting after two months of service. Which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?Not learned 2450. Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the __________.Not learned 2451. The direction and rate of rotation for the cab in the hydraulic crane circuit shown, is controlled by the __________Not learned 2452. The wire rope drum used in the illustrated hydraulic crane circuit is prevented from accidentally paying out by __________Not learned 2453. Which component in the illustrated hydraulic crane circuit acts to prevent the wire rope drum from accidentally paying outNot learned 2454. The safety feature which assists the hydraulic crane circuit illustrated to maintain the required boom angle is a function of item __________Not learned 2455. Proper internal lubrication of a hydraulic anchor windlass left idle for extended periods can be accomplished by __________.Not learned 2456. (1.2.5.1.2-12) A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during long periods of inactivity should be carried out to __________.Not learned 2457. The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate __________.Not learned 2458. Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result from a/an __________.Not learned 2459. If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is over-heating, the cause may be __________.Not learned 2460. If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is over-heating, the cause may be __________.Not learned 2461. While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that hydraulic pressure does not develop in spite of the proper operation of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to restore pressure?Not learned 2462. In the hydraulic crane circuit illustrated, which would be the correct hydraulic configuration required to raise the boomNot learned 2463. In the hydraulic crane circuit illustrated, what is the function of the component labeled #18Not learned 2464. Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.Not learned 2465. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 2466. If oil under pressure is supplied to the space between "N" and "I" in the illustration __________Not learned 2467. The steering gear shown in the illustration, when compared to the more conventional linear actuator ram units is/are __________Not learned 2468. Oil is supplied to the illustrated steering gear __________Not learned 2469. Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.Not learned 2470. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder shock is prevented by __________.Not learned 2471. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder shock is limited by __________.Not learned 2472. Most hydraulic steering gears are fitted with relief valves which __________.Not learned 2473. A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20° right rudder. The follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________Not learned 2474. When the helm demands a 20° right rudder movement from an electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST action to happen when this rudder position is attained?Not learned 2475. When the steering wheel is turned, oil is directed to the steering gear rams by __________.Not learned 2476. When the port power unit is started, as shown in the illustration, the unloading valve "C" __________Not learned 2477. When the desired rudder angle is attained by a typical double ram electro-hydraulic steering gear, the __________.Not learned 2478. When responding to a "right rudder" command from the amidships position, which parts of the steering gear system illustrated will be subjected to the highest pressureNot learned 2479. Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by __________.Not learned 2480. When there is no movement of the rams of an electro-hydraulic steering gear system, the tilting box of the axial piston hydraulic pump is __________.Not learned 2481. The figures shown in the illustration shows two different positions of the same steering gear hydraulic pump. Which of the following statements is correctNot learned 2482. Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically locked unless which situation occurs?Not learned 2483. The distributor valves, labeled "A" in the illustration, provide several of the following functions, with the EXCEPTION of __________Not learned 2484. Standby or emergency diesel generator day tanks should always be kept full to reduce the possibility of ______.Not learned 2485. The rudder torque capacity of the four-ram steering gear illustrated, is rated at 44,210,000 inch-pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four-ram system was able to be operated as a two-ram system with both power units on line, what would be the available torqueNot learned 2486. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________Not learned 2487. How would you prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the steering system using the illustrated actuatorNot learned 2488. Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.Not learned 2489. What will happen if oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the illustrationNot learned 2490. The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon __________Not learned 2491. What do hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, changeover valves, used in a two-ram hydraulic steering gear accomplish?Not learned 2492. What do hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, changeover valves, used in a two-ram hydraulic steering gear accomplish?Not learned 2493. On an electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed devices will keep the rudder from over traveling the bridge signal?Not learned 2494. Which of the devices listed, when used on an electro-hydraulic steering gear, keeps the movement of the rudder closely in step with the steering wheel?Not learned 2495. Rudder motion is prevented from exceeding the movement of the steering wheel by the __________.Not learned 2496. The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.Not learned 2497. The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear __________.Not learned 2498. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of the __________.Not learned 2499. In a typical hydraulic steering gear system, as the designated rudder angle is approaching the helm command angle, what will be the reaction of the steering gear follow-up mechanism?Not learned 2500. The purpose of the six-way valve used in an electro-hydraulic steering system is to __________.Not learned 2501. In the illustration, component "C" is used to replace __________Not learned 2502. In the illustrated schematic, which component is the device that was used to replace the six-way valve, as found on many older type steering gearsNot learned 2503. The necessity of the six-way valve, as used on many older steering gears, has been replaced by __________Not learned 2504. In an electro-hydraulic steering gear, any change in relative position between the synchronous receiver and the follow-up gear will result in __________.Not learned 2505. When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?Not learned 2506. The function of the hydraulic telemotor transmitter used in an electro-hydraulic steering gear system is to __________.Not learned 2507. When the steering gear receives a command signal for a 15° right rudder, during the initial period of movement of the rudder __________Not learned 2508. The output from shaft "K", shown in the illustration, becomes an actual control factor when component(s) __________Not learned 2509. When there is no movement of the rams of an electro-hydraulic steering gear system, the tilting box of the axial piston hydraulic pump is __________.Not learned 2510. In an electro-hydraulic steering gear system, when will the variable displacement pump be placed on stroke?Not learned 2511. The follow-up mechanism for the steering gear shown functions to assure the correct rudder position for each corresponding position of the helm. When operating properly, the follow-up mechanism should __________Not learned 2512. What is the name of the mechanism used to transmit rudder angle information from the steering gear itself to the wheelhouse in the illustrated rudder angle indicator systemNot learned 2513. As shown in the illustrated wiring diagram for an engine order telegraph system, what statement concerning the current failure alarm buzzer is trueNot learned 2514. As shown in the illustrated wiring diagram for an engine order telegraph system, what statement concerning the constant ringing and trouble alarm is trueNot learned 2515. As shown in the illustrated wiring diagram for an engine order telegraph system, what statement concerning the wrong direction alarm is trueNot learned 2516. What controls rudder movement when the Operation Selector Switch shown in figure "A" of the illustration is in the "Controller" positionNot learned 2517. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, feedback or rudder angle repeat back is used by the port or starboard amplifier in which operational modesNot learned 2518. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, fine adjustments such as "rate of turn signal" have no effect on steering stand operation when the 'operation selector switch' is in what positionNot learned 2519. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, the actual rudder angle repeatback signal originates at what device and is delivered to what other deviceNot learned 2520. As shown in the illustrated steering hydraulic pump motor controller, what would be the result if one of the 10 amp fuses blew while the steering hydraulic pump motor was running See illustration EL-0119.Not learned 2521. As shown in the illustration of an older electro-mechanical autopilot system, by what means is the steering order conveyed from the helm to the steering gearNot learned 2522. As shown in the illustrated graph showing the practical application of a phantom rudder, what statement is trueNot learned 2523. As shown in the illustrated graph showing the practical application of a phantom rudder, what statement is trueNot learned 2524. As shown in the illustrated adaptive digital steering control system functional block diagram and listed system interface signals table, what would the rudder order signal output voltage to the rudder servo amplifier be for a rudder order of 20 degrees left rudder, assuming left rudder signals are negative and right order signals are positive in polarityNot learned 2525. As shown in the illustrated adaptive digital steering control system functional block diagram and listed system interface signals table, what would the rudder order signal output voltage to the rudder servo amplifier be for a rudder order of 15 degrees right rudder, assuming left rudder signals are negative and right order signals are positive in polarityNot learned 2526. As shown in the illustrated digital gyrocompass functional block diagram and the associated communication protocols table, what would the rate of turn signal voltage be if the rate of turn is 30 degrees per minute to port? Assume that the rate of turn to port signal voltage is negative in polarity and that the rate of turn to starboard signal voltage is positive in polarityNot learned 2527. Using the trouble analysis chart and faults table provided in the illustration, if the gyrocompass was malfunctioning, but no fault codes are present on the display unit, what is most likely the problem if the DC/DC converter LED status indicator is functioning properly, but the CPU LED status indicator is not blinkingNot learned 2528. Using the trouble analysis chart and faults table provided in the illustrations, if the adaptive digital steering system was malfunctioning, but no fault codes are present on the display unit, what is most likely the problem if the DC/DC converter LED status indicator is functioning properly and the CPU LED status indicator is blinkingNot learned 2529. Using the trouble analysis chart and faults table provided in the illustrations, if the adaptive digital steering system was malfunctioning, and the fault code 41 (SPEED LOG ERROR) is displayed, what corrective action should be performed LASTNot learned 2530. Using the trouble analysis chart and faults table provided in the illustrations, if the adaptive digital steering system was malfunctioning, and the fault code 41 (SPEED LOG ERROR) is displayed, what corrective action should be performed LASTNot learned 2531. Using the trouble analysis chart and faults table provided in the illustrations, if the adaptive digital steering system was malfunctioning, and the fault code 42 (SPEED LOG ERROR) is displayed, what corrective action should be performed FIRSTNot learned 2532. Using the trouble analysis chart and faults table provided in the illustrations, if the adaptive digital steering system was malfunctioning, and the fault code 42 (SPEED LOG ERROR) is displayed, what corrective action should be performed FIRSTNot learned 2533. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, if the operation selector switch is allowed to remain in the 'Controller' mode after testing of the steering gear, how will the rudder respondNot learned 2534. When making welding repairs to a ship's structural member, why is it important to avoid weld faults?Not learned 2535. When accomplishing welding repairs with an electric arc welding process, what is generally the cause of slag inclusion when welding a single-V butt joint?Not learned 2536. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt joint?Not learned 2537. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt joint?Not learned 2538. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt joint?Not learned 2539. Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, what is the correct procedure for performing an emergency crack stopper?Not learned 2540. Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, after drilling a 3/8-inch hole at each end of the crack, what is the correct procedure for welding overlays as an emergency crack stopper?Not learned 2541. In order to minimize distortion while performing the electric arc welding process while joining two plates with a butt weld, besides using restraint procedures, what statement is true?Not learned 2542. For long welding runs, either the "back-step" or the "skip" welding technique is often used. For what purpose are these techniques utilized?Not learned 2543. If a welding fabrication becomes unacceptably distorted, what means of distortion correction should be avoided?Not learned 2544. As shown in figure "A" of the illustration, the actual rudder angle repeatback signal originates at what device and is delivered to what other deviceNot learned 2545. Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system may be indicated by __________.Not learned 2546. When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle inputNot learned 2547. When the helm angle position is changed in the wheel house, a series of corresponding events of the steering gear will occur and include the following: The length of time the steering gear pump remains on stroke is proportional to helm angle input System pressure will be higher when the vessel is operating "full astern"Not learned 2548. If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the vessel's steering can initially be maintained by activating which of the following units?Not learned 2549. In an emergency, the electro-hydraulic steering units can be directly controlled by the __________.Not learned 2550. Which of the valve arrangements listed can be used to modify the four ram hydraulic steering gear system, shown in the illustration, to a working two ram systemNot learned 2551. If it were possible to simultaneously operate both main pumps shown in the steering gear illustration, which of the following statements would be true if the starboard power unit were to be brought on line with the port unit already in operationNot learned 2552. Which of the following actions will occur with the steering system shown in the illustration when responding to a left rudder command from amidshipsNot learned 2553. While responding to a right full rudder command from the amidships position, which of the cylinders illustrated will be fully pressurized on the face of the pistonsNot learned 2554. When responding to a "right rudder" command from the amidships position, which parts of the steering gear system illustrated will be subjected to the highest pressureNot learned 2555. The steering gear unit shown in the illustration, which of the conditions listed will occur as 'left rudder' is being obtained and only the 'No. 1' steering gear pump is runningNot learned 2556. The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control is to __________.Not learned 2557. Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate __________.Not learned 2558. In order to change over the main pumps shown in the illustrated steering gear, which of the components listed must be manually actuatedNot learned 2559. When the steering gear is in operation, you should __________.Not learned 2560. While inspecting the steering gear at sea, you should check for __________.Not learned 2561. While inspecting the steering system at sea, you should check for __________.Not learned 2562. While inspecting the steering system at sea, you should check for __________.Not learned 2563. The purging of air from an electro-hydraulic steering gear unit is necessary when __________.Not learned 2564. While at normal sea speed the rudder movement stops, but is restored after changing over power units. At the earliest opportunity the faulty power unit is restarted with the following results: the rudder can be remotely swung in only one direction, however using the trick wheel equal movement of the variable stroke control device from neutral is available.The probable cause is __________Not learned 2565. If a severe leak develops in the electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed conditions could result?Not learned 2566. Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system would be indicated by __________.Not learned 2567. Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system would be indicated by __________.Not learned 2568. When air becomes trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system, the __________.Not learned 2569. An electric power failure occurring in a electro-hydraulic steering gear would cause the rudder to __________.Not learned 2570. An electric motor failure in an electro-hydraulic steering gear system would cause the rudder to __________.Not learned 2571. Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system would be indicated by __________.Not learned 2572. When air becomes trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system, the __________.Not learned 2573. A power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type steering gear would cause the rudder to __________.Not learned 2574. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require hydraulic steering gear systems to be equipped with a means of steadying the rudder in an emergency. This may be accomplished with __________.Not learned 2575. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 58), a power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel capable of a 12 knot service speed, must be able to meet the rudder movement requirements at which of the minimum vessel speeds listed below?Not learned 2576. An electric driven steering gear power unit is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be capable of putting the rudder over from 15° on one side to 15° on the other side in not more than 60 seconds under emergency power with the vessel running ahead. For a 20 knot vessel, this test must be carried out at __________.Not learned 2577. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel capable of a 20 knot service speed, must be capable of producing a specific range of rudder movement at which of the minimum speeds listed below?Not learned 2578. Your vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of more than 48 hours duration. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that the steering gear be examined and tested no earlier than __________.Not learned 2579. Before setting out on a three day voyage, Coast Guard Regulations require that the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the bridge and engine room must be tested within how many hours prior to departure?Not learned 2580. Regulations require that OSV's under 100 GT must have a steering system that is capable of moving the rudder __________.Not learned 2581. Coast Guard Regulations require that vessels of 500 GT or less, what equipment must be tested weekly?Not learned 2582. According to Title 33 CFR, of the equipment listed below, which equipment must be tested NOT more than 12 hours prior to getting underway from a U.S. port when the voyage is to be of 48 hours or greater duration?Not learned 2583. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors shall be __________.Not learned 2584. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors shall be __________.Not learned 2585. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), make certain requirements regarding over current protection. Steering gear feeder circuits shall be protected only by __________.Not learned 2586. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require that an indicating light, located at the propulsion control station, be illuminated if there is an overload that would cause overheating of the __________.Not learned 2587. According to the Code of Federal Regulations, which of the following statements is correct regarding the steering gear on a vessel contracted for after June 9, 1995?Not learned 2588. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require an audible and visible alarm to be actuated in the pilothouse when the actual position of the rudder differs from the position ordered by the follow-up control system by 5° or more for more than __________.Not learned 2589. According to 46 CFR Part 113, what would be the maximum time delay period allowed for a ships steering system to reach a 15 degree right rudder helm order from midships, before an alarm condition will be indicated?Not learned 2590. You are conducting an operational test of your main steering gear system. The main steering gear must be capable of moving the rudder from 35 degrees on either side to 35 degrees on the other with the vessel at its deepest load line draft and running at maximum ahead service speed, and from 35 degrees on either side to 30 degrees on the other in what minimum time frame?Not learned 2591. Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international voyage, your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways safety that test steering system functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is conducted and logged on a regular basis at least once every three months. Within how many hours of arrival must these drills be performed?Not learned 2592. Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international voyage, your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways safety that test steering system functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is conducted and logged on a regular basis at least once every three months. Which of the following functions must be tested for?Not learned 2593. Which of the following clearance readings should be taken and recorded in dry-dock?Not learned 2594. Vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or left hand. A right hand propeller turns clockwise when viewed from __________.Not learned 2595. When the propeller blades are integral with the hub, the propeller is called a __________.Not learned 2596. The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits?Not learned 2597. The purpose of the propeller fairwater cone is to __________.Not learned 2598. The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits?Not learned 2599. The propeller blade pitch angle change is caused by axial movement of what component in the hub body assemblyNot learned 2600. The hub purge valve serves to relieve pressure in the forward chamber of the servomotor cylinder in a CPP system when what situation occursNot learned 2601. The function of the head tank on a CPP system is to _________.Not learned 2602. The direction in which the control oil servo valve opens and directs control oil to the oil distribution (OD) box piston in a CPP system is determined by the command _________Not learned 2603. If your ship is experiencing slow, erratic, or no pitch response to normal CPP system commands, you would suspect a fault in the _________Not learned 2604. If water were a semisolid, the linear distance a propeller would advance in one revolution is the __________.Not learned 2605. Excessive propeller vibration may occur as a result of __________.Not learned 2606. A piece missing from one blade of a four-bladed propeller could result in __________.Not learned 2607. Any unusual, or new vibration in the hull or propeller shafting can be an indication of __________.Not learned 2608. Unusual hull, or propeller shaft vibrations can be caused by __________.Not learned 2609. When a vessel is in dry-dock, the vessel's engineers should __________.Not learned 2610. Which of the following statements is correct concerning requirements for propellers?Not learned 2611. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a screw propeller of the conventional design?Not learned 2612. Which of the following propulsor types would be used with unidirectional propulsion shafting rotation?Not learned 2613. What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder-like blades projecting from it?Not learned 2614. If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that no strut or strut bearing is required, what is an alternative name given to the propeller shaft, which is the section of shafting that the propeller is attached to?Not learned 2615. What statement is true with respect to the back of a propeller blade?Not learned 2616. What is meant by the term "left-handed" propeller?Not learned 2617. What is meant by the term "right-handed" propeller?Not learned 2618. During the Special Survey the propeller is removed and shaft pulled into the vessel. Which of the following tests must be performed on the propeller shaft prior to refitting?Not learned 2619. Compared to a constant pitch propeller, a controllable pitch propeller __________.Not learned 2620. The control system for a controllable pitch propeller can be programmed __________. to produce a maximum combined propeller and engine efficiency between pitch and a given engine speed for continuous operation of the engine at pre-set conditionsNot learned 2621. Which of the following alarms and instrumentation is not required for a vessel incorporating a controllable pitch propeller in its main propulsion system?Not learned 2622. Which of the statements listed accurately applies to controllable pitch propeller systems?Not learned 2623. A controllable pitch propeller on a diesel driven vessel eliminates the need for __________.Not learned 2624. Concerning the operating mechanism of a controllable-pitch propeller, what statement is true?Not learned 2625. Rotation of the controllable-pitch propeller (CPP) blades is achieved through axial movement of what component in the hub body assembly?Not learned 2626. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Kort nozzle?Not learned 2627. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith Schneider drive?Not learned 2628. When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?Not learned 2629. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Z-drive?Not learned 2630. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?Not learned 2631. Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder for steerage?Not learned 2632. Concerning transverse fixed tunnel thrusters, what statement is true?Not learned 2633. Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?Not learned 2634. With respect to the vectoring ring of a steerable internal duct thruster, what statement represents the operating principle of the vectoring ring?Not learned 2635. What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing thruster and a podded propulsor?Not learned 2636. With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?Not learned 2637. With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?Not learned 2638. By what means is electric current conveyed to the electric drive motor of a podded propulsor?Not learned 2639. What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?Not learned 2640. What is the primary advantage of transverse bow and stern tunnel thrusters when installed on ships?Not learned 2641. Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse tunnel bow thruster?Not learned 2642. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a single reduction?Not learned 2643. The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How is this temperature normally controlled?Not learned 2644. How is solid trash and garbage generally admitted to a solid-waste incinerator on most ships?Not learned 2645. In burning oily-waste sludge in a solid-waste/sludge incinerator, what statement is true?Not learned 2646. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances are prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?Not learned 2647. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is the minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in operation?Not learned 2648. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator?Not learned 2649. In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. A red painted detachable line would be found between the __________.Not learned 2650. In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The third shot of chain should have __________.Not learned 2651. In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The second shot of the chain is painted __________.Not learned 2652. In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The first shot of chain is painted __________.Not learned 2653. The principal purpose of an anchor windlass chain stopper is to __________.Not learned 2654. The part of the anchor windlass that engages the anchor chain for lifting is called the __________.Not learned 2655. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding __________.Not learned 2656. A shot of anchor chain has a length of __________.Not learned 2657. A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.Not learned 2658. The bitter end is the __________.Not learned 2659. All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are painted __________.Not learned 2660. All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted __________.Not learned 2661. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressure relief of the main pressure piping is provided by __________Not learned 2662. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressurized fluid flow to provide rotation of the wildcat is produced by __________Not learned 2663. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, pressurized fluid flow is provided to the main system for automatic replenishment and to _______Not learned 2664. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, replenishment pump fluid flow is provided to the main system for automatic replenishment and to __________Not learned 2665. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, replenishment pump fluid flow is provided to the main system for automatic replenishment and to __________Not learned 2666. Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before being operated because __________.Not learned 2667. Why is electrical power preferred over mechanical power for driving heavy machinery on drilling rigs?Not learned 2668. If an anchor windlass has been idle for some time, you should __________.Not learned 2669. The oil in a cargo winch gear box should be sampled periodically to __________.Not learned 2670. Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes excessively worn?Not learned 2671. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is that the __________Not learned 2672. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not turn, and pressure can not be developed on either side of the system, the probable cause is the __________Not learned 2673. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo control is placed, the probable cause is the __________Not learned 2674. In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________Not learned 2675. What damage may occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes deteriorated?Not learned 2676. When the control handle is in the "off" position, what is the status of the solenoid actuated brake of an electric winch?Not learned 2677. In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the movement of an electric powered cargo winch will be stopped by what means?Not learned 2678. What is the function of the electric brake on a deck cargo winch?Not learned 2679. As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery motor controllers, what should be done?Not learned 2680. If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of time, what should be done?Not learned 2681. Which of the following conditions will occur if the brake solenoid coil burns out on a cargo winch with an electrical brake?Not learned 2682. A strong, well defined sound developed by the steam whistle, shown in the illustration, is obtained by adjusting the __________Not learned 2683. The illustrated device is designed as a __________Not learned 2684. Sound is produced by the illustrated device by the __________Not learned 2685. The function of item "E" shown in the illustration is to __________Not learned 2686. The ability of the device illustrated to produce sound is greatly affected by the adjustments to "B". Another factor that can affect the proper operation of this device is the __________Not learned 2687. If the steam whistle shown in the illustration produces a poor, rattling tone when blown, the probable cause is a/an __________Not learned 2688. While riding at anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the ______.Not learned 2689. What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?Not learned 2690. A shot of anchor chain has a length of __________.Not learned 2691. A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.Not learned 2692. The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when ______.Not learned 2693. Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.Not learned 2694. As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 2695. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 2696. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal- mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers?Not learned 2697. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the pedestal-mounted controller?Not learned 2698. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the manual brake handwheels?Not learned 2699. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the warping heads and wildcats?Not learned 2700. In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?Not learned 2701. As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 2702. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?Not learned 2703. Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?Not learned 2704. Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true?Not learned 2705. As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?Not learned 2706. As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?Not learned 2707. As it pertains to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?Not learned 2708. As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal- type deck crane, which statement is true?Not learned 2709. For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?Not learned 2710. What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?Not learned 2711. What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?Not learned 2712. If a spring-set electric solenoid-released brake on a winch fails to hold a load properly when the solenoid is de-energized, what must be done?Not learned 2713. If the compressor assembly was operated as shown in figure #5 of illustration GS-0159, which bearing wear pattern would most likely develop for the motor pulley bearing shown in illustration GS-0174Not learned 2714. If the compressor assembly was operated as shown in figure #5 of illustration GS-0159, which bearing wear pattern would most likely develop for the motor pulley bearing shown in illustration GS-0174Not learned 2715. The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing depends upon a system that produces __________.Not learned 2716. With oil bath lubrication of ball bearings in a cargo pump, the oil level should __________.Not learned 2717. An oil fog lubrication system is recommended for __________.Not learned 2718. The part labeled "A" of the illustrated bearing is called the __________Not learned 2719. The part labeled "A" of the illustrated bearing is called the __________Not learned 2720. The part labeled "A" of the illustrated bearing is called the __________Not learned 2721. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 2722. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?Not learned 2723. An example of an antifriction bearing is a __________.Not learned 2724. Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each other?Not learned 2725. Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?Not learned 2726. Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.Not learned 2727. Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.Not learned 2728. The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot is to __________.Not learned 2729. When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to the bearing __________.Not learned 2730. When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.Not learned 2731. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 2732. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps?Not learned 2733. Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a ________.Not learned 2734. As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.Not learned 2735. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.Not learned 2736. If a ball bearing installed on a pump is completely packed full of grease, this can result in __________.Not learned 2737. In most pumps and pump motors, over packing the ball bearings full of grease will result in __________.Not learned 2738. If a ball bearing for a centrifugal pump is completely packed with grease, __________.Not learned 2739. Ball bearings may become overheated if they are __________.Not learned 2740. Over greasing of ball bearings installed on pumps will result in __________.Not learned 2741. Antifriction bearings should not be excessively lubricated because __________.Not learned 2742. The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________.Not learned 2743. The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.Not learned 2744. An example of an antifriction bearing is a __________.Not learned 2745. When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.Not learned 2746. A ball bearing will overheat if ______.Not learned 2747. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?Not learned 2748. Which of the following roller bearing types would be limited to radial thrust load applications?Not learned 2749. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.Not learned 2750. A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?Not learned 2751. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?Not learned 2752. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?Not learned 2753. A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?Not learned 2754. Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?Not learned 2755. As shown in the illustration, what would be the recommended grease replenishment interval for a 5 1/2 inch radial ball bearing operating under normal load at approximately 1000 rpmNot learned 2756. A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.Not learned 2757. Dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a grease lubricant because the __________.Not learned 2758. Dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a grease lubricant because the __________.Not learned 2759. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'base' in reference to the classification of lubricating grease?Not learned 2760. Which of the listed types of soap grease offers the maximum chemical stability and resistance to separation at temperatures between 250°F (121.1°C) and 300°F (148.8°C)?Not learned 2761. Greases are generally produced by __________.Not learned 2762. A grease lubricated ball bearing or roller bearing will run cooler if the grease __________.Not learned 2763. Which indicator is used to determine the hardness of a grease?Not learned 2764. When referring to greases, penetration number is __________.Not learned 2765. A grease drop point is __________.Not learned 2766. A drop test is carried out on a sample of grease by __________.Not learned 2767. An organic solid lubricant, such as graphite, is suitable as an oil additive when used in __________.Not learned 2768. A graphite additive type grease is best suited for __________. low temperature applications high temperature applicationsNot learned 2769. A graphite filler commonly mixed with grease, acts __________.Not learned 2770. The graphite in a bearing lubricant compound of graphite grease, acts as a __________.Not learned 2771. After adding grease to a ball bearing with a hand-held grease gun, you should __________.Not learned 2772. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by__________.Not learned 2773. To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.Not learned 2774. What percent of a roller bearing should normally be filled with grease?Not learned 2775. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.Not learned 2776. A ball bearing will overheat if ______.Not learned 2777. What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?Not learned 2778. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.Not learned 2779. A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.Not learned 2780. Greases used for most marine applications would have what National Lubricating Grease Institute (NLGI) grade?Not learned 2781. What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?Not learned 2782. Besides the actual amount of bare steel surface, the amount of current flow required for the cathodic protection of a vessel is dependent upon what factor or factors? The speed of the ship traveling through the water. The temperature of the water.Not learned 2783. What is the functional purpose of an impressed current cathodic protection system aboard ship besides preventing corrosion of the hull?Not learned 2784. For more complete vessel protection when using an impressed current cathodic system, what other features are built into the system?Not learned 2785. In an impressed current cathodic protection system, concerning the anodes associated with the hull, what statement is true?Not learned 2786. Impressed current cathodic hull protection systems are commonly used on modern vessels. What are these systems designed to replace or reduce?Not learned 2787. What does the circuit shown in the illustration representNot learned 2788. As shown in the illustration, the voltmeter measures what voltageNot learned 2789. What is the purpose of the electronic regulator as shown in the illustrationNot learned 2790. As shown in the illustration, the ammeter measures what currentNot learned 2791. What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?Not learned 2792. When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to minimize bimetallic corrosion?Not learned 2793. In an impressed current cathodic hull protection system, what statement is true concerning the composition and arrangement of the anodes?Not learned 2794. While monitoring an impressed current cathodic hull protection system, which of the following measurements should remain constant in a properly operating electronically regulated system?Not learned 2795. Referring to the impressed current cathodic hull protection system shown in the illustration, if required to control the impressed current to the anodes manually by using the hand adjustment potentiometer, what parameter should be maintained at a constant valueNot learned 2796. In monitoring an impressed current cathodic hull protection system, it is important to ensure that the propeller screw receives the same cathodic protection as the hull. What should be checked?Not learned 2797. Referring to the impressed current cathodic protection system shown in the illustration, if required to control the current to the anodes manually by using the hand adjustment potentiometer, what statement best represents the changes that should prompt one to recheck the reference electrode voltage (hull potential)Not learned 2798. Active corrosion on copper alloys is indicated by which of the following?Not learned 2799. The mutual action between parts of a material to preserve their relative positions when external loads are applied to the material, which tends to resist deformation when subjected to external forces, is known as __________.Not learned 2800. In diagram "A", shown in the illustration, at what draft does the vessel displace 3000 tonsNot learned 2801. A "twenty pound" steel plate would be __________.Not learned 2802. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.Not learned 2803. The method of framing shown in the illustration utilizes the type of construction termed __________Not learned 2804. In ship construction, structural hull members installed athwart ship are __________.Not learned 2805. In merchant ship construction, the term 'scantlings' refers to the __________.Not learned 2806. The structural members of the hull extending in a fore and aft direction are called __________.Not learned 2807. In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.Not learned 2808. In ship construction, the hull frame members extending athwart ship are called __________.Not learned 2809. Vertical support members used to strengthen bulkheads are called __________.Not learned 2810. Ship's bulkheads are reinforced against bending and bulging with the addition of ________.Not learned 2811. The purpose of swash bulkheads is to __________.Not learned 2812. The bleeder plug, or docking plug located on a motor vessel double bottom tank is used to __________.Not learned 2813. The gasket and the broken studs have been replaced on a tank manhole cover. Which of the following methods is satisfactory for testing the repair?Not learned 2814. Where should you expect to find striking plates on liquid storage tanks?Not learned 2815. A lightening hole, shown in the illustration, is identified by the letter '____Not learned 2816. Vertical transverse structures in the double bottom are known as __________.Not learned 2817. A cofferdam is a/an __________.Not learned 2818. The inner bottom of a ship is the __________.Not learned 2819. The double bottom in a vessel is a space comprised of __________.Not learned 2820. The outer strake of the inner bottom on each side of the ship is called the __________.Not learned 2821. In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes and assigned letter designations. If the strakes were lettered "A" through "K", the "K" strake will be __________.Not learned 2822. The welded joint located between two plates in the same strake of hull plating is called a __________.Not learned 2823. The garboard strake shown in the illustration is identified by the letter '____Not learned 2824. The garboard strake is located __________.Not learned 2825. In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes, with four of the strakes being specifically identified by name. The strake next to the keel is identified as the __________.Not learned 2826. The purpose of bilge keels is to __________.Not learned 2827. In ship construction, the strakes are given letter designations beginning with the letter 'A.' The "A" strake is adjacent to the __________.Not learned 2828. Pillar cross-sections of "I", "H", or circular are used in ship construction in locations where there are large expanses, void of intermediate decks and bulkheads, such as in cargo holds and engine rooms. A supporting pillar which becomes bent out of vertical will __________.Not learned 2829. In ship construction, which of the listed strengthening members act to support the decks?Not learned 2830. Vertical structural members used to support and transmit downward forces of a load are called __________.Not learned 2831. Structural members used to support and transmit the downward force of the load and distribute that force over a large area, are called __________.Not learned 2832. The end joint formed by adjoining plates in a hull plating strake is properly identified as a __________.Not learned 2833. The deck plating on a MODU is supported primarily by deck longitudinals and deck __________.Not learned 2834. The decks of a MODU are supported by transverse members called __________.Not learned 2835. In MODU construction, beams are transverse girders which provide support to __________.Not learned 2836. Deck beams on a MODU are generally spaced at equal intervals and run __________.Not learned 2837. Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a MODU from being carried by the __________.Not learned 2838. In MODU construction, beam brackets are triangular plates that join the deck beam to a __________.Not learned 2839. Between the side frames on a MODU, support for the deck beams is provided by __________.Not learned 2840. The deck loads on a MODU are distributed through the deck beams to the __________.Not learned 2841. Support of MODU side plating is provided primarily by transverse __________.Not learned 2842. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.Not learned 2843. Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a MODU are called __________.Not learned 2844. When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.Not learned 2845. Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the MODU side plating are called __________.Not learned 2846. Joiner bulkheads on a MODU provide __________.Not learned 2847. Vertical partitions providing strength and compartmentation on a MODU are called __________.Not learned 2848. In MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally __________.Not learned 2849. Bulkheads which form part of the tanks on a MODU are stiffened to withstand __________.Not learned 2850. In MODU construction, a greater number of watertight bulkheads results in __________.Not learned 2851. A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU is normally also a(n) __________.Not learned 2852. Structural bulkheads on a MODU are usually __________.Not learned 2853. On a MODU, the keel is the primary strength member of the lower hull form in which direction?Not learned 2854. Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior hull plating on a MODU is usually __________.Not learned 2855. Where is thicker plating usually found in the construction of integral tanks on a MODU?Not learned 2856. The heavier outboard strake of deck plating on a MODU is called the deck __________.Not learned 2857. On a MODU, the deck stringer is the outboardmost deck __________.Not learned 2858. When renewing a portion of damaged hull plating with a new insert plate, which of the listed guidelines should be followed?Not learned 2859. When a new section of shell plating is being installed, the proper weld sequence must be followed to __________.Not learned 2860. The location of a vessel's frame stations may be obtained from which of the listed drawings?Not learned 2861. Cracks may be prevented from developing at the corners of welded plating inserts by __________.Not learned 2862. A vertical shaft having a rudder attached to its lower end and having a yoke, quadrant, or tiller fitted to its upper portion by which it may be turned, is the __________.Not learned 2863. The rudder shown in the illustration is correctly termed a/an __________Not learned 2864. The illustrated rudder shown is commonly referred to as a ________Not learned 2865. With regards to the illustrated rudder, the pivot point and connection to the vessel is provided by __________Not learned 2866. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.Not learned 2867. The hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today are fabricated from __________.Not learned 2868. With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the most significant characteristic of a cryogenic liquid is its __________.Not learned 2869. In modern ship construction, high tensile steel (HTS) may be permitted in __________.Not learned 2870. A construction portfolio may be included as part of the MODU __________.Not learned 2871. The requirements for special welding procedures to be used on a MODU must be contained in the __________.Not learned 2872. For MODU's operating under the U.S. flag, the construction portfolio must contain __________.Not learned 2873. A simplified construction plan may be included in the MODU construction portfolio provided it adequately defines the __________.Not learned 2874. In the MODU construction portfolio, materials which do not conform to ASTM or ABS specifications must also include the __________.Not learned 2875. A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals used on a MODU would be recorded in the __________.Not learned 2876. A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU must be included in the __________.Not learned 2877. The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating colors of __________.Not learned 2878. What class of bulkhead is required around the galley on a MODU?Not learned 2879. On all mobile offshore drilling units, the deckhead of each accommodation space must be located above __________.Not learned 2880. Which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler plate?Not learned 2881. Aboard tankers, the term Category "A" Machinery Space, as defined by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) means any space including trunks and ducts to that space containing __________.Not learned 2882. The collision bulkhead is located __________.Not learned 2883. According to Coast Guard regulation (46 CFR), an "A" class division, bulkhead or deck shall be constructed __________.Not learned 2884. According to Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR), a "B" class bulkhead shall be constructed __________.Not learned 2885. Which of the following statements is true concerning the shaft seal shown in the illustrationNot learned 2886. Which of the following statements describes the advantage of the mechanical shaft sealing system over the stuffing box and packing method of shaft sealing for propulsion shafting?Not learned 2887. Propeller pitch speed minus ship speed divided by the propeller pitch speed is termed __________.Not learned 2888. The result of a blow delivered by a heavy sea causing rapid vibrations of the elastic portions of the ships hull is identified as __________.Not learned 2889. On small passenger vessels, separation of machinery and fuel tank spaces shall be __________.Not learned 2890. Deck rails on passenger decks of vessels engaged in a ferry or excursion type operation shall be at least __________.Not learned 2891. Each vessel designed to carry more than 49 passengers must have __________.Not learned 2892. Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a vessel of less than 100 gross tons must __________.Not learned 2893. The penetration of watertight bulkheads and watertight decks by rigid non-metallic piping is prohibited except when __________.Not learned 2894. Each ventilation system for an enclosed classified location on a MODU must provide a complete change of air every __________.Not learned 2895. Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the __________.Not learned 2896. In ship construction, the vessel's bilge keels are designed primarily to __________.Not learned 2897. Which of the following describes a vessel which is subjected to "hogging"?Not learned 2898. Which of the following describes a vessel which is subjected to "hogging"?Not learned 2899. A vessel is subjected to 'hogging' when it __________.Not learned 2900. If a ship is supported on the crest of a wave amidships, the vessel is subjected to __________.Not learned 2901. A vessel which is subjected to 'sagging' __________.Not learned 2902. A weather tight door on a MODU must not allow water to penetrate into the unit __________.Not learned 2903. Where are self-closing doors required on a MODU?Not learned 2904. In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted _________.Not learned 2905. In special cases, the Commandant of the Coast Guard may permit cargo piping to pass through machinery spaces, what are the type(s) of cargo permitted to be carried through such piping?Not learned 2906. U.S. regulations require cargo pump rooms, on tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type. in what amount of time should the ventilation effect a complete change of air?Not learned 2907. A vessel constructed after 1970, carrying grades A, B, C or D cargoes, has enclosed spaces where sources of vapor ignition are normally present. What is not required for the segregation of these spaces from cargo tanks?Not learned 2908. Regulations require that cargo pumprooms handling grades D and/or E liquid cargo only shall be fitted with ducts extended to the weather deck. How many ducts are required?Not learned 2909. Regulations require that cargo pumps in tank vessels carrying grade D liquid cargo shall be isolated from sources of vapor ignition by which means?Not learned 2910. Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes?Not learned 2911. According to U.S. regulations, normally, where are manholes on a tank vessel designed to carry LFG located?Not learned 2912. What is a cofferdam?Not learned 2913. Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?Not learned 2914. Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?Not learned 2915. In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?Not learned 2916. What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?Not learned 2917. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are recommended?Not learned 2918. The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.Not learned 2919. The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.Not learned 2920. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.Not learned 2921. When metal is tempered, it becomes __________.Not learned 2922. Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of __________.Not learned 2923. When a metal is undergoing heat treatment, what happens when the metal is heated above its critical temperature?Not learned 2924. When a metal is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of annealing, besides refining the grain structure, what is the determining characteristic of the metal?Not learned 2925. When a low carbon steel is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of casehardening, what is the process that distinguishes this procedure from other hardening methods?Not learned 2926. What is meant by the term tensile strength of a material?Not learned 2927. What is meant by the term toughness as it applies to a material?Not learned 2928. What type of bottom construction is used on most commercial deep-draft vessels with the exception of tankers?Not learned 2929. What is the name of an internal passage of watertight construction fitted along the centerline between the double bottoms of some ships, usually from the forepeak to the forward machinery space bulkhead, used to carry pipe work along the length of the ship to the various holds or tanks?Not learned 2930. What statement is true concerning the keel arrangements of a double bottomed ship?Not learned 2931. For a transverse-framed ship of double bottom construction, what structural members supports the inner bottom shell, or tank-tops?Not learned 2932. What is usually contained within the double-bottom tanks associated with the machinery spaces?Not learned 2933. How is access to the double bottom tanks usually provided for inspection, cleaning, maintenance, and repairs of tank interiors?Not learned 2934. While in dry-dock, what means are provided for completely draining the double bottom tanks in preparation for inspection?Not learned 2935. As it applies to a transverse-framed ship with double bottom construction, what does the term "floor" represent?Not learned 2936. What is the name of the opening in a bilge margin bracket that reduces the weight of the bracket without materially reducing its strength?Not learned 2937. What statement concerning the orientation and welds of adjoining shell plates is true?Not learned 2938. Even though bilge keels do provide some improvement in longitudinal strength at the bilge radius, what is the primary purpose of the bilge keels?Not learned 2939. In terms of ship construction framing methods, which statement is true concerning the transverse framing system?Not learned 2940. In terms of ship construction framing methods, what statement is true concerning the longitudinal framing system?Not learned 2941. What statement is true concerning the plating meeting at the gunwales of a ship?Not learned 2942. With a ship built with a transverse framing system, by what means are double bottom floors and the transverse frames joined?Not learned 2943. For a typical transverse-framed deep-draft commercial vessel, what is the normal arrangement for the support of decks?Not learned 2944. What is another name for the "collision" bulkhead?Not learned 2945. What term is used to represent the bulkhead type used for tank boundary bulkheads?Not learned 2946. Which of the following listed bulkhead types has the most rigorous standard for testing purposes?Not learned 2947. What statement is true concerning the construction of watertight bulkheads?Not learned 2948. What is the name of the structural member that is designed to transfer load from one deck to another?Not learned 2949. What statement is true concerning watertight doors fitted below the waterline of a vessel?Not learned 2950. What means of emergency escape from a shaft tunnel are provided?Not learned 2951. What statement is true concerning the forward and after bulkheads of a shaft tunnel?Not learned 2952. What is the arrangement of a shaft tunnel as fitted on a single-screw vessel?Not learned 2953. What provisions are generally made to reduce the noise and vibration emanating from the propulsion machinery installation, especially on passenger ships?Not learned 2954. What is the name associated with the dividing bulkheads separating the accommodation spaces from the engine room of a ship?Not learned 2955. What is the name associated with the surround and support for the various uptakes to ensure the dispersion of exhaust gases to the atmosphere and away from the ship?Not learned 2956. What is the name associated with a minor section of interior deck within a machinery space serving as a seat or bed for a particular piece or set of machinery?Not learned 2957. If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that a strut and strut bearing is required, what is the name of the section of shafting that passes through the hull penetration to the closest watertight bulkhead?Not learned 2958. In preparation for an extended yard period, you are reviewing your ship's plans. You notice several bulkheads are labeled A60. What is indicated by the label A60?Not learned 2959. During repairs it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate the bulkhead is A60. "A" indicates which of the following?Not learned 2960. During repairs it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate the bulkhead is A60. "A" indicates which of the following?Not learned 2961. During repairs it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate the bulkhead is A60. "A" indicates which of the following?Not learned 2962. During repairs it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate it is a "B" class bulkhead. This indicates which of the following?Not learned 2963. In preparation for an extended yard period, you are reviewing your ship's plans. You notice several bulkheads are labeled A60. What is indicated by the label A60?Not learned 2964. A fuel tank on your vessel is 20 feet high, 20 feet long and 20 feet wide. If it is filled 100% with fuel having an API gravity of 35.7 at a temperature of 60°F, how many long tons of fuel are in the tankNot learned 2965. Your vessel has taken on 25,000 gallons of fuel with an API gravity of 35.1 at 60°F. Using the table shown in the illustration, how many long tons of fuel has been actually taken on boardNot learned 2966. Your vessel has taken on 25,000 gallons of fuel with an API gravity of 30.4 at 60°F. Using the table shown in the illustration, how many long tons of fuel have you taken onboardNot learned 2967. Your vessel has just taken aboard 1200 barrels of fuel with an API gravity of 30.9 at 60°F. Referring to the table shown in the illustration, how many long tons of fuel have you taken aboardNot learned 2968. A fuel oil settler is 35 feet 4 inches (10.7696 m) long, 25 feet 10 inches ( 7.8740 m) wide, and 19 feet (5.7912 m) deep. The noon sounding indicated a level of 15 feet 2 inches (4.6228 m). The fuel oil meter read 6517 gal. (24669) at that time and 8911 gal. (33732) at 1600. How many barrels / cubic meters of fuel oil remained in the settler at 1600?Not learned 2969. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) concerning shutoff valves located inside fuel oil tanks, state that the valves __________.Not learned 2970. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) define several acceptable means of closure for ballast and fuel oil tank vents. One of the acceptable means is by the use of a/an __________.Not learned 2971. Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) require the upper ends of sounding tubes, terminating at the weather deck, to be closed by a __________.Not learned 2972. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require tank sounding tubes terminating above the weather deck of a cargo vessel to be fitted with a __________.Not learned 2973. Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels are permitted by U.S. regulations to be located in which of the listed spaces?Not learned 2974. Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on MODUs are permitted by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be located in which of the listed spaces?Not learned 2975. According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 32), when reach rods to tank valves pass through the deck, the stuffing box at this joint must be __________.Not learned 2976. The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the __________.Not learned 2977. A device for preventing sparks or flames from entering a tank, while permitting the free passage of gases, is called a __________.Not learned 2978. Open ullage holes in tanks which are not gas-free must be protected by __________.Not learned 2979. Flame screens used on ullage openings prevent flames from entering a tank by __________.Not learned 2980. To prevent over-pressurization when loading liquid petroleum products, cargo tanks must be fitted with a/an __________.Not learned 2981. Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be kept in good working order to prevent __________.Not learned 2982. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following conditions is true concerning the construction and/or operation of pressure-vacuum relief valves?Not learned 2983. Which of the following pressures represents the normal pressure setting of a pressure-vacuum relief valve as normally found on tank vessels?Not learned 2984. A self-propelled ship of 400 gross tons, constructed in January 1974, may carry fuel oil in tanks forward of the collision bulkhead, if such tanks were __________.Not learned 2985. Air compressors are NOT permitted in which space(s) on a tank barge carrying grade A cargo?Not learned 2986. According to regulations, which grade(s) of cargo may be carried in tanks that are vented only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?Not learned 2987. Cargo tanks on barges fitted with goose neck vents and flame screens are limited to carrying which grade of cargo?Not learned 2988. Cargo tanks carrying grades D or E liquids on tank barges are required to be vented with which of the following?Not learned 2989. What is required of the access to a cargo pumproom on a tank vessel carrying grades A, B, C or D liquid cargoes?Not learned 2990. What type of vent is required on a barge transporting No. 6 fuel oil?Not learned 2991. Which cargo grade(s) are permitted by regulations to be carried on a barge in tanks fitted only with gooseneck vents and flame screens?Not learned 2992. What is TRUE of pressure/vacuum valves?Not learned 2993. What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a vented tank?Not learned 2994. If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, __________.Not learned 2995. Pressure-vacuum relief valves, as used on tank vessels, are usually set to operate at two points, ______.Not learned 2996. Pressure-vacuum relief valves, as used on tank vessels, are usually set to operate at two points, ______.Not learned 2997. At which of the listed tank locations should you obtain oxygen content readings prior to tank washing?Not learned 2998. "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the __________.Not learned 2999. When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be disconnected when __________.Not learned 3000. A crude oil wash (COW) system is considered as __________.Not learned 3001. In order for you to operate your vessels crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be which of the following?Not learned 3002. When a cargo oil tank is being cleaned by crude oil washing while in port, __________.Not learned 3003. Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be isolated from the crude oil washing system by __________.Not learned 3004. In a crude oil washing system, according to Coast Guard regulations (33 CFR), each cargo tank shall be fitted with a sufficient number of machines, such that those areas unwashed by direct impingement shall not exceed 10% for horizontal areas, and __________.Not learned 3005. Sufficient portable drive heads for a crude oil washing system must be provided in order to avoid one head being used during the tank washing procedure more than __________.Not learned 3006. To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing process, due to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid, the contents of any tank to be used as a source of crude oil for washing must first reduce a portion of the tank contents by a vertical height equal to __________.Not learned 3007. Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________.Not learned 3008. Bottom mounted crude oil washing machines are primarily used for _________.Not learned 3009. When tanks have been washed with crude oil, and ballasted without being water rinsed, the ballast is referred to as _________.Not learned 3010. Crude oil washing has which of the following disadvantages?Not learned 3011. Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as __________.Not learned 3012. In port, after chemically cleaning a fuel oil tank, you should dispose of the waste oil by __________.Not learned 3013. What is NOT a requirement for the safe and effective use of a crude oil washing system?Not learned 3014. You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be taken with the source tank for the washing machines?Not learned 3015. You are planning to use the crude oil washing system on your tankship. What is required to prevent electrostatic buildup in the tanks?Not learned 3016. The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel will be found in the __________.Not learned 3017. Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, what position must the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at?Not learned 3018. You have completed a crude oil wash. What action should be taken with the oil in the lines running to the washing machines?Not learned 3019. You have water washed your cargo tanks using the fixed machines. What should you do before using portable machines to clean areas screened from the wash of the fixed machine by structural members?Not learned 3020. Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank?Not learned 3021. When tank cleaning with a portable machine, how is the weight of the machine is suspended?Not learned 3022. "Portable" oil tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply from the __________.Not learned 3023. When water washing epoxy-coated cargo tanks, the temperature and pressure of the wash water should generally not exceed ______.Not learned 3024. The flame screens installed on tank vents that may contain combustible gases, are designed to prevent explosions by which of the following?Not learned 3025. Which of the devices listed is designed to prevent flames from entering a fuel tank through tank vents?Not learned 3026. Which of the devices listed is designed to prevent flames from entering a fuel tank through tank vents?Not learned 3027. Tank vent flame screens must be maintained in good condition and properly fitted in the opening they protect in order to __________.Not learned 3028. Tank vent flame screens must be maintained in good condition and properly fitted in the opening they protect in order to __________.Not learned 3029. Tank vent flame screens must be maintained in good condition and properly fitted in the opening they protect in order to __________.Not learned 3030. Why are flame screens on tank vents an important safety device?Not learned 3031. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screens to prevent __________.Not learned 3032. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screens to prevent __________.Not learned 3033. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a corrosion resistant wire mesh screen to __________.Not learned 3034. A corrosion resistant fine mesh wire screen is commonly fitted to the end of tank vent piping to prevent ________.Not learned 3035. According to 46 CFR, a single layer of tank vent flame screen must be composed of corrosion resistant wire and at least a mesh of __________.Not learned 3036. To comply with the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 155), regarding fuel oil discharge containment, a vessel of 300 or more but less than 1600 gross tons must have a fixed container or enclosed deck area under or around each fuel oil tank vent that has at least a __________.Not learned 3037. In order for the vessel to discharge its cargo to a shore facility from #6 centerline tank, with the #7 main deck manifold valve open, which of the listed valve combinations, shown in the illustration, must be opened and which of the valves must be closedNot learned 3038. How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank vessels to be tested?Not learned 3039. A chief engineer's responsibilities include making logbook entries whenever fuel oil is received. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), this log entry must include the __________.Not learned 3040. In accordance with the Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following situations requires an official logbook entry and is considered the responsibility of the chief engineer?Not learned 3041. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter I (Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessels), it is the duty of the chief engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until __________.Not learned 3042. You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your MODU. If you close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, what will happen to the rate of flow to other open tanks on the same line?Not learned 3043. When fueling, it is important to ground the ship with regard to static electricity. Therefore, you must connect the __________.Not learned 3044. How can the build up of static electricity be prevented so that a static spark does not ignite flammable vapors?Not learned 3045. Bonding cables are used to reduce the possibility of accidental spark discharge when __________.Not learned 3046. To minimize the possibility of an explosion caused by the discharge of static electricity, the vessel should __________.Not learned 3047. The correct method for connecting a grounding or bonding cable is to __________.Not learned 3048. Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel?Not learned 3049. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be _________.Not learned 3050. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be _________.Not learned 3051. Which of the listed pumping arrangements will be hazardous when two similar centrifugal pumps are used to discharge a cargo of flammable liquid?Not learned 3052. When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose?Not learned 3053. To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during bunkering, you should __________.Not learned 3054. "Line Displacement" is a procedure that is followed at an oil terminal facility, when there is a change of which of the following?Not learned 3055. To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility, __________.Not learned 3056. To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility, __________.Not learned 3057. During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should __________.Not learned 3058. The term "load on top" is the name of a method used on many crude oil carriers for the purpose of __________.Not learned 3059. Which of the following operations must be personally supervised by the person-in-charge when taking on fuel?Not learned 3060. Which of the listed operations must be personally supervised by the person-in-charge while taking on fuel?Not learned 3061. The minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly must be at least __________.Not learned 3062. No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose larger than three inches in diameter unless it meets certain requirements. Which of the following is NOT a requirement?Not learned 3063. According to 33 CFR Part 156, during annual inspection, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose which is tested, must not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under a static liquid pressure of __________.Not learned 3064. Coast Guard regulations (33 CFR) require that the oil transfer procedures which must be posted on every vessel having a capacity of 250 or more barrels of oil, must contain a description of each oil transfer system installed on the vessel and shall also identify the location of each __________.Not learned 3065. Which of the following must be included in the "oil transfer procedures" required by U.S Pollution Prevention Regulations?Not learned 3066. When loading a petroleum cargo which is below average ambient temperatures, You must do which of the following?Not learned 3067. One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be received is by the __________.Not learned 3068. The safe rate of bunkering heavy fuel oil is directly related to the __________.Not learned 3069. Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a __________.Not learned 3070. Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must meet the standards of the __________.Not learned 3071. Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using a __________.Not learned 3072. A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank when discharging cargo, this would indicate that the __________.Not learned 3073. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), when loading, or discharging oil in bulk at a dock, which of the following signals must be displayed?Not learned 3074. Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the day while bunkering?Not learned 3075. After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and _________.Not learned 3076. After transferring fuel to another vessel, hoses should be drained __________.Not learned 3077. When taking soundings on a MODU, coating the tape with chalk helps to __________.Not learned 3078. When taking soundings on a MODU, coating the tape with chalk helps to __________.Not learned 3079. According to 33 CFR Part 155, to prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to thermal expansion, to what is the maximum level that cargo tanks are allowed to be filled for topping-off purposes?Not learned 3080. To prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to expansion, you should top off __________.Not learned 3081. Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold temperatures?Not learned 3082. The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel tank when fuel oil is being received, is determined by the __________.Not learned 3083. Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading cold oil?Not learned 3084. During fueling operations, which of the listed precautions should be taken when topping off fuel tanks?Not learned 3085. The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the __________.Not learned 3086. The most critical time for preventing an accidental oil spill during bunkering, is when the __________.Not learned 3087. After fuel tanks have been filled and bunkers completed, which of the listed procedures should be followed next?Not learned 3088. An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________.Not learned 3089. To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling hoses while you are topping off tanks, the __________.Not learned 3090. When a fuel oil tank is being topped off during bunkering operations, the tank valve should be closed __________.Not learned 3091. As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should __________.Not learned 3092. During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be personally supervised by the __________.Not learned 3093. When fuel tanks are being topped off, the person-in-charge of bunkering should carefully monitor the __________.Not learned 3094. When fuel tanks are being topped off, the person-in-charge of bunkering should carefully monitor the __________.Not learned 3095. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), each pressure gage used in fuel transfer operations must be calibrated to indicate pressure within what percent of the actual pressure?Not learned 3096. According to U.S. regulations, when a tank vessel is discharging cargo, each sea suction valve connected to the vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be which of the following?Not learned 3097. The deck scuppers should be plugged __________.Not learned 3098. According to U.S. regulations what is the maximum allowable working pressure (MAWP) for each hose assembly used for transferring oil?Not learned 3099. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 154), the pump being used for cargo transfer has a relief valve setting of 65 psi and a static head of 10 feet. The vessel's cargo hose used for the transfer must have a maximum allowable working pressure of at least __________.Not learned 3100. The oil transfer procedures required onboard vessels with a capacity of 250 or more barrels (39.7 cubic meters or more) of oil must contain __________.Not learned 3101. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may use a connection for oil transfer operations unless it is a bolted or full threaded connection, or __________.Not learned 3102. According to U.S. regulations, how much hose should you use in transferring oil in bulk?Not learned 3103. U.S. regulations require that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following criteria are met?Not learned 3104. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 155) state that no person may transfer oil or fuel to a vessel of 300 gross tons or more, constructed after June 30,1974, unless each fuel tank vent, overflow, and fill pipe is equipped with a/an __________.Not learned 3105. According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless __________.Not learned 3106. The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) requires an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operations. The emergency means must be operable from the __________.Not learned 3107. When a tank vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels is transferring oil to a facility, U.S. regulations require an emergency means to stopping the flow of oil. Where must these emergency means be operable from?Not learned 3108. U.S. regulations require an emergency means of stopping the flow of oil or LNG during transfer operations. The emergency means may be which of the following?Not learned 3109. While your vessel is fueling, you notice that the transfer hose has developed a large bulge. Which of the following actions should be taken, according to Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), if you are the person-in-charge?Not learned 3110. If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a tank vessel, it must stop the flow of oil through __________.Not learned 3111. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you take FIRST?Not learned 3112. For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in which the vessel's designated person in charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. Which of the following choices will accomplish this task as required by 33 CFR?Not learned 3113. For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a means in which the vessel's designated person in charge may stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. Which of the following choices will accomplish this task as required by 33 CFR?Not learned 3114. If the overflow tank high-level alarm sounds while the fuel oil tanks are being topped off, the engineer should __________.Not learned 3115. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, what action should you take FIRST?Not learned 3116. A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that the vessel __________.Not learned 3117. U.S. regulations require which of the following upon completion of oil transfer operations?Not learned 3118. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), no vessel can come alongside or remain alongside a tank vessel while it is loading A, B, or C grade cargo without having the permission of the __________.Not learned 3119. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless __________.Not learned 3120. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless __________.Not learned 3121. According to U.S. regulations, no person may connect or disconnect an oil transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil transfer operation on a tank vessel unless which of the following is met?Not learned 3122. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), when may a person serve as the person-in-charge of both a vessel and a facility during oil transfer operations?Not learned 3123. U.S. regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless which of the following conditions is met?Not learned 3124. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 156), state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless __________.Not learned 3125. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) specify that the person in charge of bunkering is responsible for the __________.Not learned 3126. Oil Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), require that the person-in-charge of transfer operations is to insure that the __________.Not learned 3127. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) specify that the person-in-charge of bunkering is responsible for the __________.Not learned 3128. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) specify that the person-in-charge of bunkering is responsible for __________.Not learned 3129. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the __________.Not learned 3130. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless each person in charge has signed the __________.Not learned 3131. Prior to transfer of fuel, the Declaration of Inspection required by Coast Guard Regulation (33 CFR) __________.Not learned 3132. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?Not learned 3133. U.S. regulations require a meeting before starting any oil transfer operation. Who must be in attendance at this meeting?Not learned 3134. No person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless the person in charge __________.Not learned 3135. According to the U.S. regulations, what must be agreed upon by the person-in-charge of transfer operations, both ashore and on the vessel?Not learned 3136. According to Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), a "suspension order" to suspend oil transfer operations can be withdrawn by the appropriate __________.Not learned 3137. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?Not learned 3138. According to the Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the oil transfer procedures required for an uninspected towing or fishing industry vessel should __________.Not learned 3139. What information is NOT required to be included in the oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil?Not learned 3140. Where are the transfer procedures for oil products required to be posted or available during transfer operations?Not learned 3141. Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be accurate to within what percent?Not learned 3142. During oil transfer operations, who is responsible for ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?Not learned 3143. What does Title 33 CFR Part 156 of the Pollution Prevention Regulations concern?Not learned 3144. Who has the authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil transfer operations?Not learned 3145. Where should an application for a waiver of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations be submitted?Not learned 3146. How far in advance must applications for waivers of any requirements of the regulations for oil transfer operations be submitted?Not learned 3147. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), no person may serve as the person in charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.Not learned 3148. No person may serve as the person-in-charge of both the vessel and the facility during oil transfer operation unless __________.Not learned 3149. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), no person may serve as the person in charge of oil transfer operations on more than one vessel at a time __________.Not learned 3150. To serve as the person in charge of oil cargo transfer operations onboard a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must __________.Not learned 3151. Which of the following statements concerning oil transfer, related equipment, tests and inspections is true?Not learned 3152. On a barge carrying grade A cargo, who determines where smoking may be permitted during a loading operation?Not learned 3153. What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo?Not learned 3154. What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo?Not learned 3155. Who must supervise functions aboard a tanker or tank barge such as connecting, disconnecting, and topping off?Not learned 3156. Which of the following does not require cargo transfer operations on a tank vessel to be stopped?Not learned 3157. When planning the loading or discharging of a VLCC (100,000 DWT+) what is the most important consideration?Not learned 3158. Oil product samples should be taken from the __________.Not learned 3159. Oil may NOT be transferred unless __________.Not learned 3160. Which topic is NOT required to be discussed at the pre-transfer conference?Not learned 3161. When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open?Not learned 3162. When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open?Not learned 3163. Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a cold day due to which of the following?Not learned 3164. Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. Which of the following actions would reduce the excessive trim?Not learned 3165. Your tank vessel is fully loaded, and you find that she is down slightly by the head. To adjust the trim, you may __________.Not learned 3166. Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. Which of the following actions would reduce the excessive trim?Not learned 3167. Which factor must be considered when determining the order of loading of dissimilar products through the same piping system aboard a tanker?Not learned 3168. What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off?Not learned 3169. Which statement is TRUE when loading a tanker?Not learned 3170. Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should __________.Not learned 3171. A vessel loads edible oil in a deep tank through a manhole at the mid-length of the tank. In order to fill the tank to maximum capacity, what trim should the vessel have?Not learned 3172. In order to reduce the accumulation of static electricity while loading petroleum products, you should __________.Not learned 3173. The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging operation. You start the discharge, and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a result of which of the following?Not learned 3174. The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging operation. You start the discharge, and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a result of which of the following?Not learned 3175. When stripping a tank, what is caused by excessive air in the suction line?Not learned 3176. When discharging a tanker, how can list be controlled?Not learned 3177. While discharging a cargo, the stripping of the tanks falls behind schedule. This would indicate the __________.Not learned 3178. What should be the first consideration when discharging an oil cargo?Not learned 3179. Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient?Not learned 3180. You are on a tankship discharging oil. what happens to the remaining oil when all of the oil that the main cargo pumps can handle is pumped out of a tank?Not learned 3181. What is meant by "thieving" a petroleum cargo?Not learned 3182. When measuring the oxygen content of the cargo tanks prior to loading cargoes requiring vapor recovery, check it __________.Not learned 3183. What type of information is found in 33 CFR part 156?Not learned 3184. Who is responsible for the final inspection, ensuring a tank barge is provided with the required equipment and has fittings in good and serviceable condition prior to loading cargo?Not learned 3185. The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer should state which of the following?Not learned 3186. The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?Not learned 3187. The transfer procedures required to be followed on tankships shall contain which item?Not learned 3188. When discharging cargo, the onboard liquid level drops. This causes a lowering of onboard cargo tank pressure. This pressure is brought back to normal by __________.Not learned 3189. While discharging cargo, the cargo tank pressures are falling too low. What can the Cargo Officer do to correct the problem?Not learned 3190. What functions due reliquification plants perform?Not learned 3191. Why is a warning sign displayed at the gangway or access point of a barge during cargo transfer?Not learned 3192. Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a tank vessel?Not learned 3193. The amount of LFG that may be loaded into a given tank is determined by __________.Not learned 3194. You start a centrifugal cargo pump to discharge cargo. The pump works fine for a while and then loses suction. What could have caused this?Not learned 3195. Which signal must you display at night on a docked tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging flammable liquid cargo?Not learned 3196. How should pinching of the cargo hose between the vessel and the dock be prevented?Not learned 3197. Tank warm up operations should be continued until the tank metal temperature is at least as warm as __________.Not learned 3198. Which is NOT a safety precaution to be observed during the loading of Liquefied Gas?Not learned 3199. To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shoreside facility, __________.Not learned 3200. You are the chief engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage. While bunkering lube oil in port, the hose fails and oil is spilled into the harbor. After securing the transfer, how would you proceed?Not learned 3201. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 56), a nonmetallic flexible hose, used in a non-vital freshwater system, operating at 125 psi must be constructed __________.Not learned 3202. An insulating flange should be used in a cargo hose connection instead of a bonding wire __________.Not learned 3203. Which of the listed cargo hoses presents the greatest resistance to collapsing when operated under vacuum?Not learned 3204. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the minimum number of bolts permitted in an ANSI standard flange on an oil hose is __________.Not learned 3205. The minimum number of bolts necessary for a standard ANSI oil transfer hose temporary flange coupling (eight bolt hole flange) is __________.Not learned 3206. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), if a cargo hose shows a small leak in its fabric, you may transfer oil after __________.Not learned 3207. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the pump being used for cargo transfer has a relief valve setting of 65 psi and a static head of 10 feet. The vessel's cargo hose used for the transfer must have a maximum allowable working pressure of at least __________.Not learned 3208. According to Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), each hose assembly used for transferring oil must have a __________.Not learned 3209. According to U.S. regulations, which of the following conditions would disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil?Not learned 3210. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 156), which of the following conditions would disqualify a nonmetallic hose as being suitable for use in transferring oil?Not learned 3211. Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to withstand a pressure of at least how many psi?Not learned 3212. When hooking up a cargo hose to your vessel's manifold, you should use a(n) _________.Not learned 3213. Which statement is TRUE concerning insulating flanges?Not learned 3214. Insulating flanges minimize the dangers arising from which of the following?Not learned 3215. According to regulations, which choice depicts the bursting pressure of a cargo hose used for transferring liquefied gases?Not learned 3216. Each hose used for transferring vapors must be which of the following?Not learned 3217. The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent __________.Not learned 3218. The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the __________.Not learned 3219. Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?Not learned 3220. The function of the scrubber in an Inert Gas system is to __________.Not learned 3221. After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any cargo tank, at a minimum of __________.Not learned 3222. According to 46 CFR Part 153, each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of __________.Not learned 3223. Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm to give an audible and visual warning when the oxygen content of the inert gas exceeds __________.Not learned 3224. Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas, or mixture of gasses, that has an oxygen content by volume of __________.Not learned 3225. The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will be automatically secured if __________.Not learned 3226. Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically upon __________.Not learned 3227. On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined capacity of the inert gas generating system as compared to the total capacity of all the cargo pumps which can be operated simultaneously?Not learned 3228. What is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system?Not learned 3229. What is the combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to?Not learned 3230. An inert gas system incorporating a separately fired inert gas generator shall be provided with visual and audible alarms to indicate failure of the power supply to the generator, the automatic control system, and __________.Not learned 3231. How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent explosions in cargo tanks?Not learned 3232. What is the inert gas system on a tanker used for?Not learned 3233. How is an inert gas system designed to reduce the possibility of tank explosions?Not learned 3234. What is the inert gas system on a tanker used for?Not learned 3235. Which method is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?Not learned 3236. Each inert gas system must be equipped with the following instruments: oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder, and temperature indicator. The point of measurement for these instruments must be located __________.Not learned 3237. Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located?Not learned 3238. Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?Not learned 3239. Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, permitted to be discharged by a ship's inert gas system when operating properly?Not learned 3240. The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to _________.Not learned 3241. Excessive recirculation of inert gas is _________.Not learned 3242. Which of the following conditions will result in an automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas system?Not learned 3243. When the inert gas system is temporarily unable to maintain a positive pressure, or an oxygen content less than 8%, cargo operations should _________.Not learned 3244. If the inert gas system was not in operation while loading crude oil on a tank vessel, what action would you take?Not learned 3245. When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be _________.Not learned 3246. Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?Not learned 3247. You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take?Not learned 3248. In an inert gas system, high pressure alarms are set in the main vapor collection line to cause an audible and visual alarm if the pressure reaches a certain level. What is the percentage of the lowest relief valve setting at which the alarm must sound?Not learned 3249. What is the maximum allowable oxygen content within the ships cargo tanks, inert gas piping and the vapor recovery system?Not learned 3250. Which of the following describes the fresh air intake of the inert gas system?Not learned 3251. Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system?Not learned 3252. Which of the following will prevent a flammable atmosphere from occurring in a cargo tank on a tank vessel?Not learned 3253. In order to prevent the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure ballast, one method used is to _________.Not learned 3254. Each tank ship having an inert gas system must have portable instruments to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres. The ship must also carry instruments that can measure concentrations of _________.Not learned 3255. A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each voyage. How is the cargo boil off normally handled?Not learned 3256. Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarm sounds, this means __________.Not learned 3257. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the __________.Not learned 3258. An LNG vessel containment system must be cooled down prior to loading cargo. Where are the cool-down parameters and rates obtained from?Not learned 3259. One important aspect of LNG concerning its safety is that it is very __________.Not learned 3260. What do gas compressors on an LNG vessels provide the motive force to do?Not learned 3261. LNG is carried at approximately what temperature?Not learned 3262. During the ballast voyage, how are the tanks kept cold on an LNG tanker?Not learned 3263. LNG containment insulation performs all of the following functions, except which of the following?Not learned 3264. What device will be activated while loading a LNG tank and the HI-HI liquid level set point is reached?Not learned 3265. What does the LNG cargo pumps capacity depends upon?Not learned 3266. While underway with full LNG cargo tanks, an alarm indicates liquid in hold space #3. What should be the first action taken?Not learned 3267. In case of a LNG leak from a liquid header flanged connection, what is the first precautionary action to take?Not learned 3268. At what maximum gas concentration must the fixed gas detection system on a LNG ship activate an audible and visual alarm?Not learned 3269. What is the term used for evaporated LNG?Not learned 3270. In what condition is LNG transported?Not learned 3271. What is the preferable way to extinguish a liquefied gas fire?Not learned 3272. With reference to liquefied gas operations, what is the term "rollover" used to describe?Not learned 3273. What is the most commonly used material for valve construction in LNG cargo piping?Not learned 3274. What is the Inert gas plant on an LNG vessel designed to produce?Not learned 3275. On a LNG ship at anchor with cargo onboard, how is the vapor pressure in the cargo tanks controlled?Not learned 3276. LNG boil-off is used as fuel in the dual fuel system to produce steam in the boilers to run the turbines. Under slow maneuvering speeds, due to excessive steam being generated the __________.Not learned 3277. What is the gas above the liquid in an LNG tank?Not learned 3278. There is a water spray or deluge system on LNG vessels that provide a water spray over all areas around the cargo system. The system can be used for __________.Not learned 3279. What are submerged LNG pump bearings lubricated by?Not learned 3280. What is an advantage of the spherical type containment system?Not learned 3281. The component labeled "B" in the illustration is the __________Not learned 3282. The component labeled "F" in the illustration is a __________Not learned 3283. The purpose of the component labeled "F" in the illustration is to___________Not learned 3284. The component labeled "E" in the illustration is a __________Not learned 3285. The purpose of the component labeled "E" in the illustration is to __________Not learned 3286. The valve in the line, labeled "C" in the illustrated system, should be opened __________Not learned 3287. A valve connected to the vent line labeled "C" in the illustration should be opened __________Not learned 3288. A valve attached to line "H" in the illustration, should be opened __________Not learned 3289. A 'P-tank', as used aboard oilfield supply boats is __________.Not learned 3290. A P-tank system, as used on oilfield supply boats __________.Not learned 3291. A P-tank system __________.Not learned 3292. A 'P-tank' as used aboard oilfield supply boats is __________.Not learned 3293. Operating pressure range for an oilfield supply boat 'P-tank' generally varies from __________.Not learned 3294. Supply air pressure to an oilfield supply boat 'P-tank' system should generally not be above __________.Not learned 3295. The operation of a P-tank depends upon __________.Not learned 3296. The operation of a P-tank depends upon __________.Not learned 3297. The purpose of the jet air line in a P-tank system is to __________.Not learned 3298. The proper operation of a P-tank as found on oil industry supply vessels, depends primarily upon __________.Not learned 3299. Why is a short, weighted hose attached and secured to the end of the fixed discharge line from a supply boat P-tank?Not learned 3300. A short, weighted hose is attached to the end of the P-tank fixed discharge line on board a supply boat to __________.Not learned 3301. A short weighted hose is attached to the end of the P-tank fixed discharge line on board a supply boat to __________.Not learned 3302. P-tanks are filled through the __________.Not learned 3303. P-tanks on board a supply boat are filled through the __________.Not learned 3304. P-tank dry bulk material discharge hoses must be connected __________.Not learned 3305. Operating pressure on a P-tank system should be __________.Not learned 3306. When looking for IMO regulations on vessel watertight integrity, the information will be found in which of the following documents?Not learned 3307. When looking for IMO regulations on a vessel's oil water separator, the information will be found in which of the following documents?Not learned 3308. International regulations governing emergency power and lighting would be found in which of the following documents?Not learned 3309. During a vessel conversion it is necessary to check regulations pertaining to the fire protection equipment. Which of the following international documents would contain the information?Not learned 3310. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain data used for budget tracking?Not learned 3311. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain data such as part numbers and part stowage locations?Not learned 3312. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain technical data such as machinery serial numbers?Not learned 3313. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain data related to purchase orders for parts or repair services from outside vendors?Not learned 3314. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would be used to generate a report tracking consumable supplies consumption?Not learned 3315. What type of maintenance system would be associated with a vibration monitoring analysis system?Not learned 3316. What type of maintenance system would be associated with a comprehensive lubricating oil analysis program?Not learned 3317. What type of maintenance system would be associated with manufacturer recommendations as a function of machinery running hours?Not learned 3318. What type of maintenance system would be associated with accomplishing maintenance after a machinery breakdown?Not learned 3319. When used together to maximize plant reliability, which of the following maintenance management schemes would be the primary tool in a integrated maintenance management system?Not learned 3320. Machinery operating features are designed to help conserve energy. Which of the following results will not contribute to energy conservation?Not learned 3321. Which of the following precautions should always be carried out in dry-dock?Not learned 3322. For what reason should engine room watchstanders make periodic checks on the loads carried by electric motors?Not learned 3323. Machinery operating features are designed to help conserve energy. Which of the following results will not contribute to energy conservation?Not learned 3324. Which of the conditions listed should be immediately reported to the engineering officer on watch?Not learned 3325. While underway at sea, one of three available centrifugal salt water service pumps is in operation with a sea water temperature of 50°F. The operating temperature of all the systems supplied by this pump appear to be high. Your next proper course of action would be to __________.Not learned 3326. The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the __________.Not learned 3327. If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it __________.Not learned 3328. The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is administered by which organization?Not learned 3329. AMVER is a system which provides __________.Not learned 3330. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.Not learned 3331. Mobile offshore drilling units not required to have an official logbook shall __________.Not learned 3332. While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams open, what is the first action you should take?Not learned 3333. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, with a three-person watch rotation, what is the watch and rest period rotation?Not learned 3334. On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?Not learned 3335. In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm response would be the most immediately critical?Not learned 3336. What statement is true concerning a well-planned turnover procedure from one crew to another?Not learned 3337. You are making a round of the engine room and approaching the motor driven cargo pumps and discover a person laying at the foot of the ladder. What action should be taken?Not learned 3338. After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you close FIRST?Not learned 3339. You are the Chief Engineer of a vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage. During in port cargo operations, you find that the security seal on the emergency generator room has been broken. As the senior Engine officer onboard, how would you react?Not learned 3340. A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration of practical skills. Ideally you should assess their skill __________.Not learned 3341. If a specifically trained and qualified person is NOT on board a vessel to assess a new officer trainees practical demonstration or skills, the demonstration can be conducted, when provided with guidance, and signed off by __________.Not learned 3342. One important objective of a practical skill demonstration for mariner certification is to __________.Not learned 3343. In order to assess each trainee in the performance of a practical demonstration, the assessor should __________.Not learned 3344. When a ships officer signs off a trainee's successful completion of one or more practical demonstrations, they are attesting to the trainee's____________.Not learned 3345. The assessment of a trainee's practical demonstration of skills should be conducted __________.Not learned 3346. A licensed officer designated to certify a trainee's performance of a practical demonstration should sign off when __________.Not learned 3347. One function of the model checklists provided for the conduct of a practical demonstration is to promote __________.Not learned 3348. When a training program provides a company and/or its vessels the model checklists by which a trainee will be deemed proficient, the ship's officers should __________.Not learned 3349. If a new assistant engineer reports onboard, ideally, who should conduct the familiarization training specific and relevant to the engineer's routine maintenance and watchkeeping duties?Not learned 3350. As you manage the engine room familiarization training program for new engine department employees, what should you explain to these new employees?Not learned 3351. Who onboard is responsible for identifying all new crew members and ensuring that the safety training and shipboard familiarization training program is implemented according to written policy and procedures?Not learned 3352. Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing fire emergency skills training?Not learned 3353. Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing general safety training?Not learned 3354. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank" serve in the objective statement?Not learned 3355. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank" serve in the objective statement?Not learned 3356. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank" serve in the objective statement?Not learned 3357. You are conducting a training session on how to parallel alternators manually. What delivery technique would be most effective to ensure transfer of learning with the desired outcome that the officers under training actually are able to successfully parallel manually in the future?Not learned 3358. You are in the planning stages of providing apparently needed general safety training. Besides a careful review of accident and incident investigations, what other strategy would provide an excellent resource for training ideas?Not learned 3359. In consultation with the other ship's management level officers, you are planning a required fire emergency drill. In addition to selecting a scenario as functionally realistic as possible (such as a high fire risk area) what follow-up activity would best maximize the training effectiveness for future applicability to an actual fire emergency?Not learned 3360. When conducting a training session, what technique is particularly effective in engaging the participants, keeping them alert, and to obtain feedback?Not learned 3361. How would you ensure that your crew is prepared to combat a shipboard fire using ship's equipment?Not learned 3362. Engineering departments may experience a barrier to free and open communication vertically upward from subordinates to managers. What is the primary reason for this barrier to communication?Not learned 3363. You are enthusiastically telling one of your 3rd Assistant Engineers, "You did a great job on that overhaul." What forms of non-verbal communication would do the most to reinforce and complement your verbal message?Not learned 3364. Attitudes, biases, and prejudices towards certain groups (nationalities, races, religions, and sexes) can pose formidable challenges to communication. This is because an individual is judged by group association rather than by getting to know the individual and recognizing individual differences. What is the tendency called?Not learned 3365. What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the amount of verbal and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?Not learned 3366. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to establish mutual trust between the employee and the manager. Which of the following facilitates the trust of employees in managers?Not learned 3367. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers. Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?Not learned 3368. An important communication tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps better ensure that managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active listening?Not learned 3369. It has long been established that employee performance is linked to motivation. Which of the following levels of motivation would be considered to be at the highest level?Not learned 3370. When it comes to motivating employees, it is important to distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. What statement best represents the difference?Not learned 3371. A system of rewards and punishments that follow a person's behavior as a way to shape that individual's future behavior is consistent with what motivational theory?Not learned 3372. Which of the following actions would motivate employees by making their job intrinsically more rewarding?Not learned 3373. The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the characteristics of a job design is skill variety, which is the extent to which a job requires a worker to use a broad range of skills and talents to perform the job successfully. What is true about skill variety?Not learned 3374. The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the characteristics of a job design is task significance, which is the extent to which the job substantially impacts the work or lives of others. What is true about task significance?Not learned 3375. The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the characteristics of a job design is autonomy, which is the extent to which the job entails substantial freedom and decision making in carrying it out. What is true about autonomy?Not learned 3376. What leadership style tends to extrinsically motivate employees on a contingent reward system where the focus is on outcomes?Not learned 3377. Some managers think that the average person has a dislike for work, avoids responsibility, and cannot be trusted. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?Not learned 3378. Some managers think the average person likes work, willingly assumes responsibility, and is trustworthy. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?Not learned 3379. Leadership style sometimes must change with the situation faced by the manager. Which of the following situations would be best suited for adopting a structured, autocratic leadership style?Not learned 3380. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a structuring and telling leadership style?Not learned 3381. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a structuring and telling leadership style?Not learned 3382. Which of the following shipboard groups would be an example of an informal group?Not learned 3383. During the "storming" phase of group development, conflicts generally arise over goals, task behaviors, and leadership roles. If these conflicts are not successfully resolved, what may result?Not learned 3384. During the "forming" stage of group development, members are trying to determine the task of the group and their role expectations of one another. As a manager, what should be done to help facilitate the "forming" process?Not learned 3385. As a manager considering which approach to use at a meeting, what type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use a leader-controlled approach as opposed to a group-centered approach?Not learned 3386. What type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use group consensus as a process?Not learned 3387. In conducting a group-centered meeting, it is important to encourage participation and two-way communication. In addition to being an alert listener, what specific technique is particularly helpful in getting non-contributors to participate?Not learned 3388. If a problem confronts an entire work group, what is the best technique for communication of the issues and concerns?Not learned 3389. What statement is true concerning leader-controlled and group-centered meetings?Not learned 3390. As a manager conducting a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee exhibits disruptive or inappropriate behavior?Not learned 3391. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques represents a strategy where everyone wins?Not learned 3392. As a manager, which of the following conflict management styles is considered the most appropriate for resolving conflict and is considered both an assertive and a cooperative approach?Not learned 3393. As a manager, one of the practices of positive confrontation reduction skills essential to conflict resolution involves a type of listening. What type of listening would be most effective in resolving a conflict?Not learned 3394. What statement is true concerning stress and personal psychological makeup of managers and supervisors?Not learned 3395. If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently familiar with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done?Not learned 3396. Decisions must be made based upon the appropriate response to a given situation. Which of the following situations requiring a decision require a different response each time and are considered unprogrammed decisions?Not learned 3397. Decisions must be made based upon the appropriate response to a given situation, generally a problem of some sort. Before effective decision-making can take place, what must first be done?Not learned 3398. Once a problem has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, what is the next step in the decision-making process?Not learned 3399. Once a problem has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, the next step in the decision-making process is developing alternative solutions to the problem. What statement best reflects how many alternatives should be considered?Not learned 3400. What is the critical first step that must be carried out before executing a plan?Not learned 3401. Before a plan can be effectively executed, the objective of the plan must be defined. What statement concerning the definition of a plan objective best represents the proper writing of an objective as an engineering department management level officer?Not learned 3402. Which of the following document types would offer the greatest flexibility in carrying out its intent?Not learned 3403. For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for a visual progress report and identifies work stages or activities on the vertical axis and the scheduled completion dates on the horizontal axis?Not learned 3404. For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for showing the dependency of one activity upon another and shows the relationship among a network of activities?Not learned 3405. As a first assistant or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority?Not learned 3406. As a first assistant or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority?Not learned 3407. What is meant by the term empowering employees?Not learned 3408. What would be a legitimate reason why some managers don't delegate authority to subordinates?Not learned 3409. It has been demonstrated that delegation can enhance employee development. To avoid a fear of failure, what must a manager avoid when delegating decision-making power to an employee?Not learned 3410. What type of managerial controls measure actions or activities that have already occurred and implement corrective action if needed?Not learned 3411. In order to set up a managerial control system, the first step is to establish performance standards. What example of a performance standard is most difficult to measure and the biggest challenge to the manager?Not learned 3412. What type of managerial control system features strategic control points which measure performance while the activity is taking place?Not learned 3413. In setting up a managerial control system, the standard must be established, and a means of measuring performance against that standard must be established. What statement is true concerning the comparison between performance and the standard?Not learned 3414. To maximize the profitability of a shipping company, in goal-setting ships are often asked to increase productivity. Which of the following scenarios represents an actual decrease in productivity?Not learned 3415. Which of the following would represent an attempt to reduce the frequency of required overhauls for machinery?Not learned 3416. Which of the following diagrams or charts is particularly useful for understanding and identifying the causes of problems?Not learned 3417. As an engineering department manager, promoting safety is a fundamental consideration. In terms of the causes of accidents, which cause is responsible for most work-related accidents?Not learned 3418. As an engineering department manager, what should you do if an accident occurs, injuring one of your employees?Not learned 3419. A performance appraisal (employee evaluation) is the process used to determine what extent an employee is performing a job in the way that is was intended to be done. Properly done and in the interest of employee development, what should be the focus of the appraisal?Not learned 3420. Even though conducting an employee appraisal interview may be one of the least liked aspects of the job of a manager, why are they important?Not learned 3421. Progressive discipline is discipline that uses a graduated scale of penalties which become progressively more severe each time a particular violation is repeated. What disciplinary action is generally associated with a first offense?Not learned 3422. In order for discipline to be administered fairly, discipline must carry a clear advance warning, be immediate, be consistent, and be impersonally administered. What is meant by consistency?Not learned 3423. The "hot stove" rule is sometimes used to illustrate the principles of fair, effective discipline. Which of the following principles illustrates the principle of discipline carrying a clear warning?Not learned 3424. As an engineering department manager in dealing with a grievance presented by an unlicensed engine department crew and union member, what documentation spells out the grievance procedure?Not learned 3425. What is usually the last step in trying to resolve a grievance filed by a crew member as established by the collective bargaining agreement between the company and the crew member's union?Not learned 3426. What is usually the first step in trying to resolve a beef or a dispute brought up by a crew member?Not learned 3427. What federal agency enforces the prohibition of employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin as it applies to shipboard employment onboard US flag vessels?Not learned 3428. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is mediation. What is meant by mediation?Not learned 3429. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is mediation. What is meant by mediation?Not learned 3430. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement is arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator?Not learned 3431. Suppose as an engineering department manager a grievance concerning the interpretation of the collective bargaining agreement (the contract) is resolved by the arbitration process. If you disagree with the decision rendered by the arbitrator, what should be your response?Not learned 3432. Which of the following third parties utilized in alternative dispute resolution proceedings has the authority to make a binding decision?Not learned 3433. An 8" diameter wheel is driving a 20" diameter wheel via a pair of belts. The power input is supplied by a 5 HP motor rotating the driving wheel at 300 RPM. If the efficiency of the transmission is 80%, what RPM and torque is delivered to the driven wheel?Not learned 3434. A vessel departed from point "A" at 1206 with a counter reading of 616729 and arrived at point "B" with a counter reading of 731929 at 1148 the following day. This vessel is equipped with a 20 foot 8 inch diameter propeller, with a pitch of 20 feet. The observed distance of 404.16 miles was covered at an observed speed of 16.85 knots. What should be the apparent slip for this trip?Not learned 3435. Your ship has steamed 1651 miles at 20 knots using 580 tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to your next port is 1790 miles. If you increase speed to 25 knots, how much fuel will be used to reach that port?Not learned 3436. If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 22 knots?Not learned 3437. Your ship has steamed 1945 miles at 21 knots using 635 tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to your next port is 1750 miles. If you decrease speed to 16 knots, how much fuel will be used to reach that port?Not learned 3438. If your ship burns 5 tons of fuel per hour at 23 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 knots?Not learned 3439. Your ship has steamed 2014 miles at 22 knots using 680 tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to your next port is 1766 miles. If you decrease speed to 18 knots, how much fuel will be used to reach that port?Not learned 3440. If your vessel burns 6 tons of fuel per hour at 22 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 17 knots?Not learned 3441. Your ship has steamed 2061 miles at 24 knots using 850 tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to your next port is 1645 miles. If you decrease speed to 19 knots, how much fuel will be used to reach that port?Not learned 3442. If your vessel burns 4 tons of fuel per hour at 21 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 16 knots?Not learned 3443. Your ship has steamed 1951 miles at 20 knots using 580 tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to your next port is 1861 miles. If you increase speed to 24 knots, how much fuel will be used to reach that port?Not learned 3444. If your vessel burns 2.9 tons of fuel per hour operating at a speed of 20 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at a speed of 15 knots?Not learned 3445. Upon a vessel's departure from point "A" at 1206, the counter reading was 616729. At midnight, the counter reading was 672889, at which time the engine speed was increased to 82 RPM, and remained the same speed until its arrival at point "B" at 1140 the following day. If the vessel is equipped with a 20 foot 8 inch diameter propeller, having a pitch of 20 feet, and apparent negative slip of 6.65% was calculated for the passage, what observed distance was covered?Not learned 3446. If your vessel burns 4 tons of fuel per hour at 21 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 16 knots?Not learned 3447. If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 knots?Not learned 3448. Your ship has steamed 1786 miles at 17 knots using 515 tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to your next port is 1922 miles. If you increase speed to 20 knots, how much fuel will be used to reach that port?Not learned 3449. If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 19 knots?Not learned 3450. Your ship has steamed 1856 miles at 18 knots using 545 tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to your next port is 1978 miles. If you increase speed to 22 knots, how much fuel will be used to reach that port?Not learned 3451. If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 20 knots?Not learned 3452. Your ship has steamed 1940 miles at 21 knots using 635 tons of fuel oil. The distance remaining to your next port is 1833 miles. If you increase speed to 25 knots, how much fuel will be used to reach that port?Not learned 3453. If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 21 knots?Not learned 3454. What is the diameter of a cylinder whose cross-sectional area is 706.86 square inches?Not learned 3455. A 30 HP electric motor is rotating shaft "A" at 300 rpm. What is the horsepower and rpm at shaft "B", if the efficiency of the spur gears is 67%Not learned 3456. The mechanical efficiency of a particular centrifugal bilge pump is 92.5%. What is the smallest horsepower motor that can effectively operate this pump at a capacity of 100 gpm with a discharge head of 15 feet?Not learned 3457. It is desired to operate an air compressor with a 12 inch flywheel at a speed of 510 rpm. If the motor runs at 1750 rpm, what size motor pulley should be used?Not learned 3458. Figure "I" shown in the illustration is a diagram of a valve hand wheel, with S=5 inches and T=50 lbs. When an 18 inch cheater bar is used instead, and V=50 lbs., as shown in Figure "II", what value of additional torque is now being applied to the hand wheel valve stemNot learned 3459. Figure "I" shown in the illustration is a diagram of a valve hand wheel, with S=8 inches and T=50 lbs. When an 24 inch cheater bar is used instead, and V=50 lbs., as shown in Figure "II", what value of additional torque is now being applied to the hand wheel valve stemNot learned 3460. In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 62.8 feet. What is the area of the shaded portionNot learned 3461. In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 62.8 feet. What is the area of the shaded portionNot learned 3462. In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 43.96 feet. What is the area of the shaded portionNot learned 3463. In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 43.96 feet. What is the area of the shaded portionNot learned 3464. In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 48.62 feet. What is the area of the shaded portionNot learned 3465. In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 50.24 feet. What is the area of the shaded portionNot learned 3466. In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 75.36 inches. What is the area of the shaded portionNot learned 3467. In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 125.6 inches. What is the area of the shaded portionNot learned 3468. In the circle illustrated, the circumference is 157.6 inches. What is the area of the shaded portionNot learned 3469. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as shown in figure "C" of the illustration and "W" is 250 lbs, the amount of force "P" required to hold the load stationary would be __________Not learned 3470. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as shown in figure "D" in the illustration, the amount of force "P" required to hold the 396 pound load stationary would be __________Not learned 3471. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as shown in figure "D" in the illustration, the amount of force "P" required to hold the 423 pound load stationary would be __________Not learned 3472. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as shown in figure "G" in the illustration, the amount of force "P" required to hold the 254 pound load stationary would be __________Not learned 3473. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as shown in figure "G" in the illustration, the amount of force "P" required to hold the 334 pound load stationary would be __________Not learned 3474. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as shown in figure "G" in the illustration, the amount of force "P" required to hold the 394 pound load stationary would be __________Not learned 3475. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as shown in figure "F" in the illustration, the amount of force "P" required to hold the 250 pound load stationary would be __________Not learned 3476. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as shown in figure "F" in the illustration, the amount of force "P" required to hold the 262 pound load stationary would be __________Not learned 3477. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as shown in figure "F" in the illustration, the amount of force "P" required to hold the 324 pound load stationary would be __________Not learned 3478. If a block and tackle arrangement were rigged as illustrated in figure "D", the amount of force "P" required to hold the 283 pound load stationary would be __________Not learned 3479. If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 knots?Not learned 3480. If your vessel burns 6 tons of fuel per hour at 22 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 17 knots?Not learned 3481. If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 knots?Not learned 3482. If your vessel burns 4 tons of fuel per hour at 21 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 16 knots?Not learned 3483. If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 20 knots?Not learned 3484. If your vessel burns 4 tons of fuel per hour at 21 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 16 knots?Not learned 3485. If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 19 knots?Not learned 3486. If your vessel burns 2.9 tons of fuel per hour operating at a speed of 20 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at a speed of 15 knots?Not learned 3487. If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 22 knots?Not learned 3488. A gear train is constructed with only two gears: a 2-inch (50.5 mm) diameter driving gear and a driven bull gear to rotate a propeller at 200 rpm. If the speed of the driving gear is 4,800 rpm, what is the diameter of the driven gear?Not learned 3489. A ballast pump with a capacity of 200 gpm (757 lpm) is used to fill a ballast tank with seawater. If the pump discharges seawater into the tank for one hour, how many tons of saltwater ballast have been taken onboard?Not learned 3490. A ballast pump, with a capacity of 200 gpm, takes suction on a tank containing 300 long tons of sea water ballast. How much ballast will remain in the tank after pumping for one hour?Not learned 3491. A centrifugal ballast pump has a capacity of 200 gpm. If suction is taken on a ballast tank containing 200 long tons of seawater, how much water will be remain in the tank after discharging for one hour?Not learned 3492. The capacity of a particular ballast pump is 200 gallons per minute. Approximately how long will it take to ballast a tank with 68.5 long tons of seawater?Not learned 3493. The capacity of a fuel oil transfer pump is 100 gpm. If a fuel oil setting tank measures 6 feet by 6 feet by 12 feet high, how long must the pump run to fill the tank to 11 feet, if the tank presently holds 2 feet of fuel?Not learned 3494. What would be the final mean draft in sea water of a 10 foot by 10 foot by 50 foot long barge weighing 10 long tons, if it was evenly loaded with an additional 50 long tons of cargo?Not learned 3495. A fuel oil settler is 35 feet 4 inches long, 25 feet 10 inches wide, and 19 feet deep. The noon sounding showed a level of 15 feet 2 inches. The oil meter reads 6517 at that time and 8911 at 1600. How many barrels of fuel oil remained in the settler at 1600?Not learned 3496. A tank of a MODU, with a volume of 2,000 cubic feet, is pressed up with sea water weighing 64 pounds per cubic foot. What is the weight, in kips, of the liquid?Not learned 3497. A vessel has a mean draft of 28 feet 08 inches before taking bunkers. What will be the final aft draft after taking on nine hundred tons of fuel oil, if the TPI immersion is 50 and the final forward draft is 30 feet 00 inches?Not learned 3498. The distillate pump for a 10000 GPD evaporator, should be rated at a minimum of __________.Not learned 3499. The barge shown in the illustration is 40' X 20' X 10' and weighs 22.9 long tons when empty. The theoretical maximum amount of machinery and cargo which may be installed or loaded is __________Not learned 3500. What is the weight of the empty barge shown in the illustration if it is currently drawing one foot of salt water? Its length is 40', width is 20', and its height is 10'Not learned 3501. The barge shown in the illustration is 40' X 20' X 10' (12.192 m X 6.096 m X 3.048 m ) and weighs 22.9 long tons (23.28 t) when empty. It has been loaded to a draft of 5 feet (1.524 m) in salt water. How many long tons of cargo have been addedNot learned 3502. The barge shown in the illustration is 40' X 20' X 10' (12.192 m X 6.096 m X 3.048 m) and weighs 22.9 long tons when empty. It has been loaded to a draft of 8 feet in salt water. How many long tons of cargo have been addedNot learned 3503. The barge shown in the illustration is 40' X 20' X 10' and weighs 22.8 long tons when empty. What would be the maximum amount of cargo that may be loaded on the barge in salt water so that the maximum draft does not exceed 8 feetNot learned 3504. The ball float shown in the illustration is 9 inches in diameter, with an effective float arm of 27 inches and floats in a liquid with a specific gravity of 1.0. How much operating torque will be availableNot learned 3505. The ball float shown in the illustration is 12 inches in diameter, with an effective float arm of 35 inches and floats in a liquid with a specific gravity of 0.5. What is the available operating torqueNot learned 3506. The ball float shown in the illustration is 7 inches in diameter, with an effective float arm of 31.5 inches and floats in a liquid with a specific gravity of 0.95. What is the operating torque of the systemNot learned 3507. The ball float shown in the illustration is 9 inches in diameter, with an effective float arm of 27 inches and floats in a liquid with a specific gravity of 1.0. If the distance "L" equals 9 inches, what will be the force available at point "X"Not learned 3508. The ball float shown in the illustration is 9 inches in diameter and is floats in a liquid with a specific gravity of 0.9. If the effective length (EL) is 18 inches and "L" is 3 inches, how many pounds of force will be available at "X" if there is no mechanical lossNot learned 3509. The ball float shown in the illustration has a circumference of 18.85" and is used in water with a specific gravity of 1.0. If 16 pounds of force is available at "X", and the effective length of the float arm is 24 inches, what is the length of "L"Not learned 3510. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 150 strokes/minute, with a 7" diameter cylinder, a 13" stroke and operating with 95% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 3511. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 150 strokes/minute, with a 5" diameter cylinder, a 11" stroke and operating with 85% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 3512. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 150 strokes/minute, with a 5" diameter cylinder, a 11" stroke and operating with 85% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 3513. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 160 strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 5" stroke and operating with 96% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 3514. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 190 strokes/minute, with a 5 inch diameter cylinder, a 12 inch stroke and operating with 75% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 3515. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 190 strokes/minute, with a 3" diameter cylinder, a 9" stroke and operating with 90% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 3516. If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 170 strokes/minute, with a 7" diameter cylinder, a 11" stroke and operating with 87% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 3517. If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 180 strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 11" stroke and operating with 85% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump?Not learned 3518. The rudder torque capacity of the four-ram steering gear illustrated, is rated at 44,210,000 inch-pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four-ram system was able to be operated as a two-ram system with both power units on line, what would be the available torqueNot learned 3519. A ship travels 234.02 nautical miles in 24 hours at an average propeller speed of 60 RPM. If the propeller pitch is 20.07 feet, what is the propeller slip during this passage?Not learned 3520. Damage stability of a MODU is the stability __________.Not learned 3521. When taking soundings on a floating MODU, the tape should be lowered and brought back quickly to __________.Not learned 3522. You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200 you find that you have loaded 218,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________.Not learned 3523. You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,000 barrels. At 1200, you find that you have loaded 219,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately __________.Not learned 3524. You are loading 530,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 0945 on 13 April, you find that you have loaded 202,000 barrels. At 1130, you find that you have loaded 223,000 barrels. When will you complete loading if you continue at the same rate?Not learned 3525. A tank holds 400 tons of sea water when filled. How many tons of liquid of specific gravity 0.9300 will it hold when filled to 90% capacity?Not learned 3526. Suppose a prime mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and rotates at a steady speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have been made to the governor speed control setting, what is the speed regulation of the prime mover expressed in percent?Not learned 3527. How many BTUs must be added to one pound of water at 32°F to raise the temperature to 212°F?Not learned 3528. The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 212°F. If the pressure on the open container is decreased, the boiling point will __________.Not learned 3529. By which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one body to another?Not learned 3530. Which of the statements best describes the process of heat transfer by conduction?Not learned 3531. Which of the following statements is correct concerning heat transfer?Not learned 3532. The rate of heat transfer from a hot region to a cold region is affected most by the __________.Not learned 3533. The definition of superheat refers to the amount of heat a substance contains and applies to __________. vapors SolidsNot learned 3534. The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is known as what?Not learned 3535. In a refrigeration system, the heat normally producing the flash gas at the thermostatic expansion valve, is obtained by what means?Not learned 3536. Respiratory heat' is a term applied primarily to which of the following cargoes?Not learned 3537. Which of the listed statements describes specific heat?Not learned 3538. Vapor barrier seals used in the insulation on refrigerated space boundaries serve what function?Not learned 3539. Which of the following forms of heat is removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration system?Not learned 3540. The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration plant is known as what?Not learned 3541. Which of the following forms of heat is removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration system?Not learned 3542. The only means of removing the latent heat of condensation from a refrigerant in the normal refrigeration cycle is by performing what process?Not learned 3543. A one ton air conditioning system has which of the listed operating characteristics?Not learned 3544. One refrigeration ton is equal to which of the following heat removal rates?Not learned 3545. How much heat per hour can a 5 ton refrigeration unit remove from a refrigerated space?Not learned 3546. What is the equivalent tonnage of a refrigeration system rated at 48,000 BTU per hour?Not learned 3547. If an air conditioning system were rated at 24,000 BTU, what would be the equivalent tonnage of the unit?Not learned 3548. If a refrigerated space has associated with it a heat load of 60,000 BTU/hour, what size refrigeration unit would be required?Not learned 3549. If a refrigeration system extracted 48,000 BTU per hour from the refrigerated space, what would be the equivalent tonnage of the unit?Not learned 3550. An air conditioning system, required to remove from 33,000 to 35,000 BTU per hour, should have a minimum capacity of what tonnage?Not learned 3551. What is the theoretical time necessary to reduce the temperature of 40,000 pounds of onions (placed in a refrigerated container) from 75°F to a set point temperature of 46°F? (The specific heat of onions is 0.90 BTU/LB/°F. The trailer heat gain is 6,500 BTU/hr, with a properly operating refrigeration cooling capacity of 45,500 BTU/hr.)Not learned 3552. Your vessel has received a refrigeration container of 16 long tons of cabbage, loaded at 1700 hours on Friday, with a beginning temperature of 80°F. At what time on Saturday will the box theoretically reach its set point temperature of 50°F, assuming the system is operating correctly? (The specific heat of cabbage is 0.94 BTU/LB/°F. The container has a heat gain of 6,000 BTU/hr, and the refrigeration system's capacity is 40,000 BTU/hr.)Not learned 3553. A refrigerated container filled with 10,000 lbs. of strawberries has been loaded on your ship. The set point of the box is 35°F and the interior box temperature is 90°F, and after 7 hrs. 37 minutes the box is lowered to 60°F. Based on the following information, which of the listed steps should be taken? Specific heat of cargo is 0.94 BTU/LB/°F, heat gain by container equals 4,000 BTU/hr., and refrigeration system capacity equals 3.42 tons.Not learned 3554. The vessel has received a refrigerated container loaded with 9 long tons of ice cream. The current box temperature is 31°F but has a normal set point of minus 10°F. Under ideal conditions how long will it take to pull the box temperature down to set point, if the equipment is operating properly? (Specific heat of the cargo equals 0.39 BTU/LB/°F, with a container heat gain of 6,000 BTU/hr, and a refrigeration system capacity of 3.5 tons)Not learned 3555. Which of the listed statements is correct concerning refrigeration system heat removal capacity is true?Not learned 3556. Regarding heat transfer principles, which of the following is true?Not learned 3557. Using the illustrated vacuum equivalents chart as a reference, which of the following vacuums listed represents the deepest vacuumNot learned 3558. In order for heat transfer to take place between two substances, what essential condition must exist?Not learned 3559. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy from one location to another by fluid in motion?Not learned 3560. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within a body or between two bodies in direct contact?Not learned 3561. What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy through a transparent medium by means of electro-magnetic energy in the infrared spectrum?Not learned 3562. What statement is true concerning heat transfer rates by the heat transfer mode of natural convection?Not learned 3563. What statement represents the first law of thermodynamics?Not learned 3564. What statement represents the second law of thermodynamics?Not learned 3565. If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal gases, what statement is true?Not learned 3566. If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal gases, what statement is true?Not learned 3567. What term is defined as the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance one degree?Not learned 3568. What statement represents the ideal gas law?Not learned 3569. What term is defined as the amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a substance from a liquid to a vapor at constant temperature and pressure?Not learned 3570. What term is defined as the rate of doing work?Not learned 3571. What statement is true concerning thermal energy in transition?Not learned 3572. What statement is true concerning the internal energy of a substance?Not learned 3573. In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the greatest temperature drop across what system component?Not learned 3574. In a small refrigeration appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the greatest temperature drop across which system component?Not learned 3575. In consulting the refrigerant pressure-enthalpy and mechanical refrigeration system diagrams shown in the illustration, in the direction of refrigerant flow, what letters in the pressure-enthalpy diagram correspond to points 9 and 1 on the refrigeration cycle diagramNot learned 3576. In consulting the refrigerant pressure-enthalpy and mechanical refrigeration system diagrams shown in the illustration, in the direction of refrigerant flow, what letters in the pressure-enthalpy diagram correspond to points 9 and 1 on the refrigeration cycle diagramNot learned 3577. In consulting the refrigerant pressure-enthalpy and mechanical refrigeration system diagrams shown in the illustration, in the direction of refrigerant flow, what letters in the pressure-enthalpy diagram correspond to points 9 and 1 on the refrigeration cycle diagramNot learned 3578. In consulting the R-134a pressure-temperature chart shown in the illustration, what would be the most likely normal running suction pressure for a reach-in chill box, assuming the box temperature is within normal rangeNot learned 3579. In consulting the R-134a pressure-temperature chart shown in the illustration, what would be the most likely normal running suction pressure for a reach-in freezer, assuming the box temperature is within normal rangeNot learned 3580. In consulting the R-134a pressure-temperature chart shown in the illustration, what would be the most likely normal running suction pressure for an air conditioner, assuming the space temperature is within normal rangeNot learned 3581. In consulting the refrigerant pressure-enthalpy diagram shown in the illustration, what statement is true concerning the pressure/temperature relationshipNot learned 3582. In consulting the refrigerant pressure-enthalpy diagram shown in the illustration, what statement is true concerning the saturated vapor lineNot learned 3583. In consulting the refrigerant pressure-enthalpy diagram shown in the illustration, what statement is true concerning the saturated vapor lineNot learned 3584. In consulting the refrigerant pressure-enthalpy and mechanical refrigeration system diagrams shown in the illustration, in the direction of refrigerant flow, what letters in the pressure-enthalpy diagram correspond to points 9 and 1 on the refrigeration cycle diagramNot learned 3585. The component of a refrigerating system in which the refrigerant vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as what?Not learned 3586. Which of the following statements is correct concerning a typical shipboard multi-coil refrigeration system?Not learned 3587. Under normal conditions, the refrigerant enters the compressor in an operating refrigeration system in what condition and/or state?Not learned 3588. In which of the listed refrigeration system components does superheating of the refrigerant take place?Not learned 3589. The low pressure refrigerant leaves the evaporator of a refrigeration system in what condition?Not learned 3590. The refrigerant gas returning to the compressor should be in what condition?Not learned 3591. Which of the listed refrigeration system components keeps the refrigerant circulating through the system?Not learned 3592. Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the action of what component?Not learned 3593. In the order of the direction of flow, the low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to exist between what two components?Not learned 3594. The low pressure side of the illustrated multi-evaporator refrigeration system associated with the common and freeze box circuit, shown in the illustration, is located between what two componentsNot learned 3595. The high pressure side of the refrigeration system, as shown in the illustration, in the order of flow, is located between what two componentsNot learned 3596. The high pressure side of the refrigeration system, as shown in the illustration, in the order of flow, is located between what two componentsNot learned 3597. Which of the following components is the refrigeration system evaporatorNot learned 3598. Which of the following components is the refrigeration system condenserNot learned 3599. Through which of the components shown in the illustration is flash gas formation a normal occurrenceNot learned 3600. The temperature of the refrigerant in the evaporator coil depends mostly upon what factor?Not learned 3601. In a vapor compression refrigeration cycle, the temperature of the liquid refrigerant experiences its greatest decrease flowing through what component?Not learned 3602. As flowing through the valves labeled "26" and "34" in the illustrated refrigeration plant schematic diagram, what is the status of the refrigerantNot learned 3603. In the illustrated multi-evaporator refrigeration system associated with the common and freeze box circuit, refrigerant exists as a subcooled liquid between what two componentsNot learned 3604. In the illustrated multi-evaporator refrigeration system associated with the common and freeze box circuit, refrigerant exists as a subcooled liquid between what two componentsNot learned 3605. In the order of the direction of flow, which of the listed components is considered to separate the high pressure side of a refrigeration cycle from the low pressure side of the cycle?Not learned 3606. In a typical refrigeration system, refrigerant leaving the receiver will then flow to what system component?Not learned 3607. In a typical refrigeration system, where is the temperature of the refrigerant gas at the highest?Not learned 3608. As shown in the illustrated multi-evaporator refrigeration system, through what labeled valve would the refrigerant temperature be the highestNot learned 3609. As shown in the illustrated multi-evaporator refrigeration system, through what labeled valve would the refrigerant temperature be the lowestNot learned 3610. If the valve labeled "23" in the illustration is set for a higher pressure, what will be the direct resultNot learned 3611. Refrigerant enters the condenser in what condition?Not learned 3612. In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant temperature decreases the most when passing through which system component?Not learned 3613. Where would you find the greatest amount of refrigerant superheat in an operating refrigeration system?Not learned 3614. Which lettered component, shown in the illustration, indicates the location of the receiverNot learned 3615. Refrigerant leaving the metering device in a refrigeration system is in which of the following conditions?Not learned 3616. When multiple refrigeration evaporators are served by the same compressor and operate at different temperatures, what is true concerning the pressure of the coldest evaporator?Not learned 3617. Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system should be in which of the following conditions?Not learned 3618. What statement is true concerning the host and remote evaporators of the illustrated refrigerated container unit piping diagramNot learned 3619. What would the pressure and physical state of the refrigerant residing in the system receiver?Not learned 3620. Which of the following statements is trueNot learned 3621. If air at 95°F dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity is conditioned to 75°F dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity, this is an example of what type of process (or processes)?Not learned 3622. The amount of moisture in a given sample of air, when compared with the amount of moisture the air could hold if totally saturated at the existing temperature of the sample, is called what?Not learned 3623. The process of removing moisture from air is known as what?Not learned 3624. In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the maximum amount of moisture it can hold at a specific temperature, what term best describes the air?Not learned 3625. When air at a given temperature contains the maximum amount of moisture for that temperature, what term describes what the air is considered to be?Not learned 3626. The dew point is reached when the wet bulb temperature relates to the dry bulb temperature in what manner?Not learned 3627. The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is called what?Not learned 3628. The dew point is reached when the wet bulb temperature relates to the dry bulb temperature in what manner?Not learned 3629. When air is at its dew point and there is no change in either the temperature or pressure, what is true about the air?Not learned 3630. Increasing the moisture content of conditioned air is known as what?Not learned 3631. When using a sling psychrometer to determine relative humidity, the indicated difference between the dry bulb and the wet bulb reading is known as what?Not learned 3632. Relative humidity can be determined by using a psychometric chart and what device?Not learned 3633. The effective temperature of air is dependent upon what factor or factors? relative humidity air velocityNot learned 3634. If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold, there is a significant possibility for which of the following to happen? there will be an accumulation of static electricity mold will grow and contaminate the cargoNot learned 3635. If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold, there is a significant possibility for which of the following to happen? there will be an accumulation of static electricity mold will grow and contaminate the cargoNot learned 3636. Any air mixture whose dew point remains constant will also have another unchanging property. Which of the following properties will remain unchanged?Not learned 3637. The latent heat content of water vapor in air is dependent upon which of the listed temperatures or points?Not learned 3638. The sensible heat of air is dependent upon what quality of air?Not learned 3639. The ratio of the weight of moisture contained in a given volume of air, to the weight of moisture that the same sample would hold if saturated, is called what?Not learned 3640. If condensation collects and drips off an evaporator coil, what best describes the operating temperature of the coil?Not learned 3641. In air has 100% relative humidity, how would the wet bulb temperature relate to the dry bulb temperature?Not learned 3642. As the amount of moisture in the air increases, what will happen to the difference between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures?Not learned 3643. When air contains some moisture, but is not saturated, what is true concerning the dew point?Not learned 3644. In terms of humidity, when air is at its dew point, which of the following is true?Not learned 3645. A cargo hold has been determined to have a relative humidity of 80% and a dry bulb temperature of 85°F. When the hold is closed up by closing the cargo hold hatch and the dry bulb temperature decreases, what will happen to the relative humidity in the space?Not learned 3646. If the air temperature increases while the atmospheric pressure remains constant, what will happen to the air?Not learned 3647. Under standard atmospheric conditions, if air is raised to a higher temperature, which of the following is true?Not learned 3648. Under standard atmospheric conditions, which of the following is true concerning the characteristics of air?Not learned 3649. If a stateroom has a 6" by 12" opening through which air travels at 100 feet per minute, what is the volume of air being supplied to the stateroom?Not learned 3650. If a stateroom has a 5 inch by 12 inch opening through which the air travels at 100 feet per minute, what is the volume of air being supplied to the stateroom?Not learned 3651. What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air-conditioned cargo space?Not learned 3652. Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?Not learned 3653. A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is accomplished by what means?Not learned 3654. The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning system is 95°F with a relative humidity of 70%. The air has been conditioned to 70°F with a relative humidity of 80%. Using the psychrometric chart, shown in the illustration, determine the quantity of moisture removed from one pound of the conditioned airNot learned 3655. The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning system is 95°F with a relative humidity of 70%. The air has been conditioned to 70°F with a relative humidity of 80%. Using the psychrometric chart, shown in the illustration, determine the quantity of moisture removed from one pound of the conditioned airNot learned 3656. The introduction of outside air to the air conditioning system is 95°F with a relative humidity of 70%. The air has been conditioned to 70°F with a relative humidity of 80%. Using the psychrometric chart, shown in the illustration, determine the quantity of moisture removed from one pound of the conditioned airNot learned 3657. If outside air at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the cooling coilNot learned 3658. What is the wet bulb temperature of air if the dry bulb temperature of the air is 90 degrees and the relative humidity is 65%Not learned 3659. If the people in an air conditioned room complain of being too cool, what is most likely to be the trouble?Not learned 3660. Which of the following factors should be considered when calculating the air conditioning requirements for a vessels accommodation spaces?Not learned 3661. What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured with a sling psychrometer?Not learned 3662. What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured with a sling psychrometer?Not learned 3663. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70°F and the relative humidity is 40%, what is the absolute humidityNot learned 3664. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the measured dry bulb temperature is 80 °F and the measured wet bulb temperature is 70 °F, what is the determined relative humidityNot learned 3665. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry bulb temperature of 60°F and a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain, and the off-coil temperature is now 80°F. What is off-coil relative humidityNot learned 3666. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season that air passes over a heating coil, and this results in sensible heat gain with no change in moisture content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process lineNot learned 3667. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss with no change in moisture content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process lineNot learned 3668. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature below the dew point temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss and dehumidification. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process lineNot learned 3669. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures for air all equal in valueNot learned 3670. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season where steam is injected into the air stream, this results in sensible heat gain and humidification. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process lineNot learned 3671. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70°F and the relative humidity is 40%, what is the absolute humidityNot learned 3672. What is the wet bulb temperature of air if the dry bulb temperature of the air is 90 degrees and the relative humidity is 65%Not learned 3673. If outside air at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what will be the resulting dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the cooling coilNot learned 3674. Which of the following instruments can be used to measure the rate of air flow?Not learned 3675. A reheater in an air conditioning system performs what function?Not learned 3676. A reheater, as used in an air conditioning system, is designed to control what temperature?Not learned 3677. In an air conditioning system, what is the name of the chamber where the duct-work originates?Not learned 3678. Which of the fluids listed is normally used to condense the primary refrigerant in an indirect shipboard central air conditioning system?Not learned 3679. In a two-stage centrifugal air conditioning system such as the one illustrated, the liquid refrigerant passes from the condenser directly to what componentNot learned 3680. To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air conditioning system, what should be done?Not learned 3681. In order to achieve greater dehumidification with an air conditioning system, you should perform which of the following? reduce the cooling coil temperature increase the reheater temperatureNot learned 3682. In order to achieve greater dehumidification, you would adjust the air conditioning system by which of the listed means? reducing the chill water flow through the cooling coil increasing the preheater temperatureNot learned 3683. In what room condition would a lower thermostatic temperature setting will be necessary to provide a comfort level?Not learned 3684. A lower thermostatic temperature setting will generally tend to cause what to happen in an air conditioned space?Not learned 3685. Which of the following methods is normally used to control the circulated air temperature of an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation?Not learned 3686. For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions should remain constant regardless of load changes?Not learned 3687. In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by what means?Not learned 3688. Which of the following is true concerning the class "A" air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used to condition the air of large public spacesNot learned 3689. The steam heated preheater and its associated pneumatic control valve are controlled by what device in the class "A" air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used condition the air of large public spacesNot learned 3690. Which of the following is true concerning the class "D" terminal reheat air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used to condition the air of individual stateroomsNot learned 3691. Which of the following is true concerning the class "G" dual duct air conditioning system shown in the illustration as used to condition the air of individual stateroomsNot learned 3692. Which of the following is true concerning the class "D" air conditioning system shown in the following illustrationNot learned 3693. Which of the following is true concerning the class "G" air conditioning system shown in the following illustrationNot learned 3694. What is the maximum steam pressure allowed by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be provided in the steam heating system of the living spaces?Not learned 3695. The convector shown in the illustration, should have a minimal circulation air space from the bulkhead of approximately __________Not learned 3696. In the illustrated heating system, what is the maximum height the heater should be mounted above the deckNot learned 3697. The converter pneumatic control bypass valve, shown in the illustration, receives it low pressure signal from the __________Not learned 3698. In the illustration, the temperature of the hot-water heating system is controlled by the temperature of the hot water supply and the temperature of the __________Not learned 3699. The converter pneumatic control bypass valve, shown in the illustration, receives it low pressure signal from the __________Not learned 3700. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature range of the water?Not learned 3701. Hot water system heat exchangers are selected for the heating load required plus about 50% excess capacity to allow for __________.Not learned 3702. Which type of space heating systems is shown in the illustrationNot learned 3703. A major controlling factor in the location of the condensate return piping from a heating system is/are __________.Not learned 3704. Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for shipboard steam heating systems?Not learned 3705. Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices of shipboard steam heating systems?Not learned 3706. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature range of the water?Not learned 3707. What could be the cause of water hammer in a steam heating system?Not learned 3708. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature range of the water?Not learned 3709. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the waterNot learned 3710. Referring to the illustrated diagram for a central-station hookup for a hot water heating system, what statement represents the configuration of the systemNot learned 3711. What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?Not learned 3712. Referring to the illustrated drawing of the central-station hookup for a hot water heating system, what statement is true concerning the air separator on the heated water outlet of the converterNot learned 3713. What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?Not learned 3714. What statement is true concerning a two-pipe hydronic heating system?Not learned 3715. It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air contamination?Not learned 3716. What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system have over a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling systemNot learned 3717. What type of fan is most commonly used in ducted air-conditioning systems?Not learned 3718. What type of centrifugal fan is characterized by the highest operating efficiency?Not learned 3719. What pressure drop across an air conditioning filter is indicative of a need to replace or clean the filter as appropriate?Not learned 3720. Concerning air-conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?Not learned 3721. Concerning air-conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?Not learned 3722. What type of heating coil is generally preferred in heating spaces with electronic equipment?Not learned 3723. What statement is true concerning steam-heated, hot water heated, or electric-heated convectors?Not learned 3724. Concerning air-conditioning system dry-expansion cooling coils, what statement is true?Not learned 3725. What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?Not learned 3726. What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation and low system heat loads?Not learned 3727. Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shownNot learned 3728. Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shownNot learned 3729. Referring to the illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shownNot learned 3730. What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream, with one for cold air and the other for hot air?Not learned 3731. What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?Not learned 3732. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of steam through the preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coilNot learned 3733. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the functioning of the diverting relay as it controls the cooling coil flow and the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampersNot learned 3734. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampersNot learned 3735. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the winter outside air duct thermostatNot learned 3736. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the winter outside air duct thermostatNot learned 3737. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the supply air duct thermostats controlling the preheater steam flow and the cooling coil chilled water flowNot learned 3738. Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true concerning the damper controlsNot learned 3739. Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space temperature directly controlledNot learned 3740. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of steam through the preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coilNot learned 3741. Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot water heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the waterNot learned 3742. Which chemical symbol represents ammonia?Not learned 3743. Considering systems with equal capacities for heat removal, which refrigeration system can employ the smallest compressor?Not learned 3744. Pure anhydrous ammonia is considered noncorrosive to what metal or metals?Not learned 3745. When used as a refrigerant, ammonia containing moisture will act as a corrosive mixture to what metal or metals?Not learned 3746. If ammonia vapor is lighter than air, what statement concerning the concentration of ammonia would be true should a leak occur?Not learned 3747. If the temperature of the ammonia gas in the discharge piping and the condenser of a refrigeration system remains above the critical tempeature of 266°F, which of the following is true?Not learned 3748. Which of the following refrigerants will normally require a compressor that is water cooled?Not learned 3749. Under normal conditions ammonia refrigerant should be charged into which of the following connections of a vapor-compression system?Not learned 3750. Which of the listed valves should be closed when charging ammonia into a refrigeration system?Not learned 3751. If your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia refrigerant, what should be your immediate reaction?Not learned 3752. One of the primary steps in assisting someone who has been overcome by ammonia vapors is to do what?Not learned 3753. Refrigerants that experience fractionation when changing state are characterized as what?Not learned 3754. Some newly developed compound refrigerants, used to reduce stratospheric ozone depletion, are referred to as azeotropic mixtures. What does this mean?Not learned 3755. Most Freon refrigerants are originated primarily from which of the following base molecules?Not learned 3756. The refrigerants referred to as CFC's are considered to be what?Not learned 3757. CFC refrigerants exposed to high temperature or direct flame, will decompose and may produce what chemical substance?Not learned 3758. HCFC-123 presents health threats to service technicians, which may include which of the following?Not learned 3759. Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable and limited ozone producing alternative for R-11?Not learned 3760. Which of the following refrigerants is an interim retrofit replacement for R-11?Not learned 3761. Which of the following represents a low-pressure refrigerant as defined by EPA regulation?Not learned 3762. Which group of three refrigerants are considered low pressure refrigerants under the Clean Air act rules?Not learned 3763. A common secondary refrigerant used in air conditioning systems aboard ship is what substance?Not learned 3764. In the illustrated R-134a high pressure centrifugal chiller refrigerant flow circuit, what is the functional purpose of the refrigerant flowing as seen through the moisture indicator (item #3)? functions as a cooling medium for the hermetically sealed compressor drive motor functions as a cooling medium for the lubricating oil See illustration GS-RA-26.Not learned 3765. A secondary refrigerant commonly used in shipboard air conditioning systems is what substance?Not learned 3766. What characteristic can be applied to Refrigerant 134a when compared to R-12?Not learned 3767. At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure, what is the status of R-134a?Not learned 3768. R-22 has been a suitable refrigerant for use in high temperature (air conditioning) applications with which of the following compressor types?Not learned 3769. Traditionally, which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor?Not learned 3770. A refrigerant used in a mechanical refrigeration system should have which of the following characteristics?Not learned 3771. Which of the refrigerants listed is considered ideal for most marine applications?Not learned 3772. How is the amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder measured?Not learned 3773. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?Not learned 3774. Which of the fluids listed is suitable and commonly used as a secondary refrigerant?Not learned 3775. Inhalation of high concentrations of chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants (CFCs) may have which of the following effects?Not learned 3776. The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by what means?Not learned 3777. An untagged refrigerant cylinder is found in your storage area. Since it is color coded light (sky) blue, what refrigerant is contained within?Not learned 3778. Some chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a toxic irritating gas under what conditions?Not learned 3779. R-22 is generally considered to be a safe, nontoxic, nonflammable, and nonexplosive refrigerant. It can, however, become highly toxic under what conditions?Not learned 3780. In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated fluorocarbon refrigerants decompose and form what chemical substance?Not learned 3781. When subjected to high heat from a open flame, or an electric heating element, which of the listed refrigerants will break down and produce phosgene gas?Not learned 3782. Monochlorodifluoromethane (R-22) when vaporized in the presence of an open flame, will form what chemical substance?Not learned 3783. Ammonia when used as a refrigerant is valuable because of its high efficiency, due to its high latent heat of vaporization value. It is, however, a hazardous substance. Which of the following properties is associated with ammonia?Not learned 3784. People familiar with ammonia refrigeration systems become accustomed to its odor and may forget that the vapors have which of the following properties?Not learned 3785. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of an R-22 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment with a halide torch?Not learned 3786. To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from an R-22 refrigeration system in an enclosed area, how should this be done?Not learned 3787. What is the physical state and pressure condition of refrigerant as it leaves a receiver in a typical refrigeration system?Not learned 3788. What is the physical state and pressure condition of refrigerant as it leaves a receiver in a typical refrigeration system?Not learned 3789. R-134a is often the replacement for which older type of refrigerant?Not learned 3790. The "tare weight" of a refrigerant storage cylinder refers to what weight?Not learned 3791. Which of the following substances is normally classified as a low-pressure refrigerant?Not learned 3792. If there is a "large" release of R-134a refrigerant gas in a confined area, which of the following statements would be true?Not learned 3793. What is the pressure and physical state of the refrigerant leaving the condenser of a R-22 refrigeration system?Not learned 3794. What is the pressure and condition of the refrigerant entering the receiver of a refrigeration system?Not learned 3795. Why can CFC or HCFC refrigerants leaking into a confined space or in limited surroundings cause suffocation?Not learned 3796. What is the short term replacement for R-11 refrigerant, as used in low pressure centrifugal chillers?Not learned 3797. Which of the following represents the chemical formula for ozone?Not learned 3798. Large quantities of halogenated chlorofluorocarbons when released from refrigeration systems, will contribute to ozone depletion in which region of the atmopshere?Not learned 3799. Industrial process and commercial CFC type refrigeration equipment with annual leak rates of 35% or more, require leak repair of the system if it contains a refrigerant charge of more than what quantity?Not learned 3800. Which chemical, when released into the atmosphere, has been found to eventually reach the stratosphere and react unfavorably with the earths ozone layer?Not learned 3801. Which refrigerant listed is considered to have the highest ozone depletion potential?Not learned 3802. Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable and limited ozone producing alternative for R-11?Not learned 3803. What would be an example of a small appliance as defined in the EPA Clean Air Act rules?Not learned 3804. Within the territorial limits of the United States, violations of the Clean Air Act of 1990, that includes the intentional release of R-11, R-12, R-22 and other related class I or class II substances may result in fines for each violation per day of what amount?Not learned 3805. With regards to shipboard refrigeration systems, after July 1, 1992, what action became illegal?Not learned 3806. All shipboard personnel responsible for the maintenance and repair of air conditioning systems using refrigerants covered under the EPA Clean Air Act venting prohibition, must be certified through an approved Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) program to do which of the following?Not learned 3807. Under the definitions under the EPA Clean Air Act rules, how can refrigerant recovery equipment that is considered as being system-dependent best be described?Not learned 3808. EPA Clean Air Act rules permit refrigerant to be released to the atmosphere under which of the following conditions?Not learned 3809. Persons recovering refrigerant from small appliances must be certified as what type of technician under the EPA Clean Air Act rules?Not learned 3810. According to the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is true concerning refrigerant leaks in a small hermetically sealed shipboard water cooler with a 20 ounce charge weight?Not learned 3811. The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a protective shield that helps to protect the environment from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation is called what?Not learned 3812. What is the chemical in CFC refrigerant that destroys stratospheric ozone?Not learned 3813. Stratospheric ozone gas found in the atmosphere is a oxygen molecule of what composition?Not learned 3814. Which of the following refrigerants is chlorine free and safe regarding atmospheric ozone depletion?Not learned 3815. Which best defines a "Type I" small refrigeration appliance according to the EPA regulations Section 608?Not learned 3816. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?Not learned 3817. Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?Not learned 3818. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?Not learned 3819. Double trunk pistons are used in some refrigeration compressors to reduce oil foaming in the crankcase by what means?Not learned 3820. Which of the listed types of refrigeration compressors can be designed with very short, very large diameter suction lines?Not learned 3821. According to the data provided in the illustrated table, if the low side saturation temperature is maintained at 5°F and the high side saturation temperature is maintained at 86°F, what is the compression ratio of the system's compressorNot learned 3822. According to the data provided in the illustrated table, if the low side saturation temperature is maintained at -15°F and the high side saturation temperature is maintained at 100°F, what is the compression ratio of the system's compressorNot learned 3823. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in place by what means?Not learned 3824. A flapper valve, also known as a beam valve, is frequently used in refrigeration compressor discharge valves, and is used for what purpose?Not learned 3825. In the illustrated refrigeration system, what is the proper name for the component labeled "A"Not learned 3826. A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction valve during starting to reduce the compression load is called what?Not learned 3827. To prevent motor overload during start-up of a centrifugal refrigeration system, what is true concerning the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes?Not learned 3828. The carbon seal ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft mechanical seal is held in position against the stationary ring face by using what device?Not learned 3829. What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 3830. What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "B" of the illustrationNot learned 3831. What is the drive arrangement of refrigeration compressor shown in figure "C" of the illustrationNot learned 3832. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what should be done?Not learned 3833. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?Not learned 3834. The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what function?Not learned 3835. In a refrigeration plant, what is one vital purpose of the receiver?Not learned 3836. The receiver used in a refrigeration system performs what essential function?Not learned 3837. Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system in what location?Not learned 3838. Zinc plates commonly found in refrigeration systems and used as sacrificial anodes are located where?Not learned 3839. Sea water or low temperature central fresh water is typically provided to a ship's stores refrigeration plant for what purpose?Not learned 3840. Heat is removed from the refrigerant circulating through the refrigeration system, shown in the illustration, by which componentNot learned 3841. As shown in the illustrated refrigeration system piping schematic diagram with the various accessories and controls and equipped with an air-cooled condenser with high side pressure controls, what statement is true concerning the fan cycling control pressure switchNot learned 3842. In a refrigeration system, at what component does the refrigerant absorb the latent heat of vaporization?Not learned 3843. In a simple saturated cycle, an R-134a refrigeration system has a high side pressure of 123.58 psig and a low side pressure of 1.9334 psig. Using this information and the data shown in the illustration, determine the refrigeration effect per pound of refrigerant circulated, neglecting any subcooling or superheating effectsNot learned 3844. In a simple saturated cycle, an R-134a refrigeration system has a high side pressure of 96.626 psig and a low side pressure of 9.0751 psig. Using this information and the data shown in the illustration, determine the refrigeration effect per pound of refrigerant circulated, neglecting any subcooling or superheating effectsNot learned 3845. Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of produce in chill boxes. Which of the following will minimize this dehydration?Not learned 3846. In a dry-type direct expansion refrigeration evaporator, what is true concerning the evaporator coils?Not learned 3847. If an abnormally large difference is maintained between the evaporator refrigerant temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated compartment, what will be the result?Not learned 3848. Which of the conditions listed represents the greatest effect of excess frost accumulation on evaporator coils in a refrigeration system?Not learned 3849. What is the function of a heat interchanger used in a refrigeration system?Not learned 3850. An economizer, or heat interchanger, is installed in a refrigeration system for what purpose?Not learned 3851. A liquid line to suction line heat interchanger in a refrigeration system using a reciprocating compressor serves what function?Not learned 3852. The moisture sensitive element of a humidistat can be made of what substance?Not learned 3853. Which piping material is recommended to be used in extra heavy duty sizes in ammonia refrigeration system construction?Not learned 3854. The rupture disc used on low pressure refrigerant storage containers is set for what pressure?Not learned 3855. During the initial cooling down of a box temperature in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction for the purpose of prevention of overloading of the compressor driver?Not learned 3856. Refrigeration system isolation valves are specially designed with a back-seat, as well as a front-seat. For what purpose are these valves designed in this way?Not learned 3857. In addition to the indicated gauge pressure, what other information is presented on the compound gauge for the hypothetical refrigerant illustratedNot learned 3858. For most multi-box refrigeration systems, the refrigerant sight glass would be located where in the system?Not learned 3859. Hard drawn copper tubing is used in commercial refrigeration systems rather than steel for what reason?Not learned 3860. Hard drawn copper tubing is commonly used in larger refrigeration systems. What statement concerning its use is true?Not learned 3861. Hard drawn copper tubing connections for refrigeration systems may be made by which of the following means?Not learned 3862. The device shown in the illustration which is used for removing moisture from the liquid refrigerant in the system is labeled with what letterNot learned 3863. Which of the following items shown in the illustration is a replaceable core suction line dehydratorNot learned 3864. Which of the following items shown in the illustration is an accumulatorNot learned 3865. Which of the following items shown in the illustration is an oil separatorNot learned 3866. Which of the following items shown in the illustration is a discharge mufflerNot learned 3867. Which of the listed components for a refrigeration system is required to be installed on the outlet of the freeze box evaporator and the outlet of the chill box evaporator of a two evaporator refrigeration system?Not learned 3868. The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration system is to prevent dirt and scale from entering what system component(s)?Not learned 3869. How do modulating valves, found in some container refrigeration systems, differ in operation from conventional solenoid valves found in the same system?Not learned 3870. On a modern refrigerated container unit employing suction modulation for the purposes of capacity control and capacity limitation, what happens when the applied voltage and current draw associated with the normally open (NO) suction modulation valve located in the suction line both increase?Not learned 3871. If the valve labeled "D" in the illustration is a suction service valve, what will the port labeled "7" be connected toNot learned 3872. If the valve labeled "D" in the illustration is a discharge service valve, what will the port labeled "7" be connected toNot learned 3873. Among the illustrated service valves, which service valve is represented as fully front-seatedNot learned 3874. Oil separators installed in large refrigeration systems serve what function?Not learned 3875. An oil separator is a device used to remove oil from which of the following?Not learned 3876. The oil separator (trap) used in a large shipboard refrigeration system would be located between what two system components?Not learned 3877. In which of the following lines is an oil separator most likely to be?Not learned 3878. An arrow stamped on the valve body of a water regulating valve indicates which of the following?Not learned 3879. A water regulating valve controls the refrigeration condenser cooling water flow in response to what aspect of the condenser?Not learned 3880. If it is necessary to increase the operating head pressure of the refrigeration system using the device shown in the illustration, what should be doneNot learned 3881. In a refrigeration system fitted with a water-cooled condenser, what is the purpose of the water regulating valve?Not learned 3882. Water regulating valves are installed to vary the water flow through the water cooled refrigeration condensers in response to changes in what parameter?Not learned 3883. The water regulating valve installed in a refrigeration system featuring a water-cooled condenser is designed to control what parameter?Not learned 3884. In a refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water regulating valve is directly controlled by changes in what parameter or condition?Not learned 3885. In a refrigeration system, the valve shown in the illustration is used for what purposeNot learned 3886. (1.5.5.4-4) The setpoint adjustment of the device shown in the illustration is made by rotating what componentNot learned 3887. The device in figure "A" of the illustration is used to control the flow of water through a water cooled condenser of a refrigeration unit. Where would the pressure connection be made leading to the control bellowsNot learned 3888. The device in figure "B" of the illustration is used to control the flow of water through a water cooled condenser of a refrigeration unit. Where would the thermal bulb sensing well be locatedNot learned 3889. When the relief valve opens on a refrigeration compressor discharge line, it discharges high-pressure refrigerant vapor to what location?Not learned 3890. According to 46 CFR, Part 58, for protection purposes, what is required of all refrigeration systems? Reference: 46 CFR 58Not learned 3891. The rupture disc on a low-pressure centrifugal refrigeration unit is used as an overpressure protection device and is set to relieve at 15 psig and is most likely to lift when the compressor is idle. Where is the rupture disc located?Not learned 3892. When hot gas defrosting a refrigeration system evaporator coil, where the hot gas flow direction is in the same direction that liquid flows during normal cooling, liquid flood back to the compressor is a real danger. One way to overcome the possibility of a large slug of liquid refrigerant entering the compressor suction is to use what installed device?Not learned 3893. In a water-cooled ship's stores refrigeration plant using a high pressure refigerant as defined under the EPA Clean Air Act rules, which of the following applications would be appropriate for a permanently intalled compound pressure gauge?Not learned 3894. What is the purpose of the discharge pressure regulating valve as shown in the illustrationNot learned 3895. What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as shown in the illustrationNot learned 3896. What is the purpose of the quench valve as shown in the illustrationNot learned 3897. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 58) require a method for the relieving pressure of an over pressurized refrigeration system. Which of the following statements complies with these regulations?Not learned 3898. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 113) require refrigerated spaces that can be locked from the outside and that cannot be opened from the inside to have an audible alarm. Where is the audible alarm required to be?Not learned 3899. According to USCG regulations pertaining to cargo and miscellaneous vessels, on all vessels equipped with ammonia refrigeration units to refrigerate cargo spaces, for protection against refrigerants, what is required?Not learned 3900. According to 46 CFR Part 58, each pressure vessel, which is capable of isolation, containing a refrigerant, must be protected by what means?Not learned 3901. You are installing a new refrigeration system aboard your vessel. The system comes with a 240 psi rupture disk, a safety valve set at 240 psi and a pressure gauge connection and gauge. In accordance with 46 CFR, what is the preferred setup for installing the equipment on the condenser?Not learned 3902. What is the purpose of the pressure transducer as shown in the illustrationNot learned 3903. In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system is usually charged with what substance?Not learned 3904. Flash gas formed in the liquid line of a direct reciprocating air conditioning system may cause what condition?Not learned 3905. In the refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what component is the chill box thermal expansion valveNot learned 3906. In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve labeled "29"Not learned 3907. In the multi-evaporator refrigeration system shown in the illustration, what is the proper name for the valve labeled "37"Not learned 3908. Rather than design an infinite variety of thermostatic expansion valve sizes to accommodate different capacities for heat removal, some manufacturers use a few standard valve body sizes in conjunction with what other feature?Not learned 3909. What parameter is the thermostatic expansion valve designed to maintain constant?Not learned 3910. What is the main purpose of the valves shown in the illustrationNot learned 3911. Which of the following statements best describes the operation of the refrigeration valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 3912. Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator coil outlet of a refrigeration system or unit by the action of what device?Not learned 3913. In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat absorbed by the refrigerant flowing through the evaporator coil is adjusted at what device?Not learned 3914. What is he primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valves in a typical multi-box shipboard refrigeration system?Not learned 3915. What does the thermal expansion valve used in a refrigeration system regulate?Not learned 3916. What is the primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve as used in most refrigeration plants?Not learned 3917. What will remain constant during operation when a properly adjusted thermostatic expansion valve exhibits stable operation without any appreciable hunting of the valve?Not learned 3918. Besides the evaporator pressure, the thermal expansion valve reacts directly to changes in what parameter?Not learned 3919. The actual position of the needle valve in the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon which of the following conditionsNot learned 3920. Which of the following illustrated expansion valves is designed to maintain a constant evaporator pressure rather than a constant evaporator superheatNot learned 3921. Which of the following illustrated expansion valves senses evaporator superheat by the use of thermistor probesNot learned 3922. Which of the following illustrated expansion valves would be most suitable for use in variable capacity systems rated at 50 tons of refrigeration and overNot learned 3923. The refrigeration system valve shown in the illustration is used to directly control whatNot learned 3924. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with an 8 psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a replaceable power element are both desiredNot learned 3925. Which of the following illustrated thermal expansion valves would be appropriate to use on an evaporator coil with an 8 psi pressure drop, where externally adjustable superheat and a replaceable power element are both desiredNot learned 3926. Which of the methods listed is most frequently used to control evaporator refrigerant flow rate in a shipboard refrigeration system?Not learned 3927. What is one function of the thermal expansion valve used in a refrigeration system?Not learned 3928. When a refrigeration compressor is in the 'off' cycle, how will the thermal expansion valve respond?Not learned 3929. When a refrigeration compressor is in the 'off' cycle, the thermal expansion valve will react in what way?Not learned 3930. In the normal operation of a refrigeration system, when the refrigeration compressor cycles "off", the thermal expansion valve will react in what manner?Not learned 3931. In a refrigeration system, the pressure within the power element of a thermostatic expansion valve depends directly upon what factor?Not learned 3932. In multi-box refrigeration systems, the sensing bulb of the thermostatic expansion valves used on the refrigerated boxes with elevated temperatures should be located where?Not learned 3933. In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always located where?Not learned 3934. A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to respond directly to changes in which of the following parameters?Not learned 3935. Concerning the proper installation of the sensing bulb of a thermal expansion valve that is attached to the evaporator tail coil on a horizontal run, what statement is true?Not learned 3936. In a refrigeration system, the thermal expansion valve sensing bulb is properly secured and insulated at what location?Not learned 3937. Which of the statements listed is applicable to the thermostatic expansion valve shown in the illustrationNot learned 3938. When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, what name of the charge is associated with the power element?Not learned 3939. Which of the listed statements is a characteristic of the liquid charged power element used with thermostatic expansion valves?Not learned 3940. A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates with one compressor and condenser. What is the purpose of the sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator coil outlet?Not learned 3941. Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is greatest under what conditions?Not learned 3942. A large evaporator coil has been determined to have a pressure drop exceeding 5 psig. How can this be compensated for in maintaining 10° of evaporator superheat as the system requires and avoid starvation of the evaporator? adjusting the TXV spring compression and raising the super heat value installing an externally equalized TXVNot learned 3943. What are the opening and closing forces acting on a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 3944. The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system further opens when the diaphragm flexes downward. With all other conditions being the same, what single condition causes this?Not learned 3945. Which of the listed conditions would cause the thermal expansion valve to further open in a refrigeration system?Not learned 3946. In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of refrigerant to each refrigerated space evaporator is accomplished by what device?Not learned 3947. In a refrigeration system, what component is installed directly downstream of the thermal expansion valve?Not learned 3948. A thermal expansion valve installed in a refrigeration system is controlled by the action of what device?Not learned 3949. Of the various possible methods shown in the illustration, which is the correct method of attaching a TXV feeler bulb to a small suction line (less than 3/4") with a horizontal runNot learned 3950. Of the various possible methods shown in the illustration, which is the correct method of attaching a TXV feeler bulb to a large suction line (7/8" and larger) with a horizontal runNot learned 3951. When a change in superheat setting adjustment to a thermostatic expansion valve is performed, which of the following is true?Not learned 3952. A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the evaporator superheat setting will result in which of the following?Not learned 3953. Thermostatic expansion valves can be adjusted for which of the following?Not learned 3954. When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve power element, what is true concerning the thermal bulb?Not learned 3955. If the evaporator coil horizontal return line of a container refrigeration system is less than 0.875" (2.21 cm) in diameter (considered small), the thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb should be attached where on the return line?Not learned 3956. Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the following procedures?Not learned 3957. Which statement about calibrating a newly installed thermostatic expansion valve is correct?Not learned 3958. Which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper operation of the thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 3959. If the thermal bulb of an expansion valve is incorrectly placed at the center of the evaporator coil instead of the end (tail coil), it will have which of the following effects?Not learned 3960. A constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve will always indicates what condition?Not learned 3961. Which of the problems listed represents the major difficulty encountered with thermal expansion valve operation?Not learned 3962. Which of the following conditions will occur if the power element of the thermostatic expansion valve shown in the illustration loses its chargeNot learned 3963. Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 3964. If a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too low a superheat setting, what will be the result?Not learned 3965. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the system has a single evaporator?Not learned 3966. If a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too high a superheat value in a TXV controlled single evaporator refrigeration system what will be the result?Not learned 3967. If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted too high, what would be the result?Not learned 3968. A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will result in which of the following conditions?Not learned 3969. An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and what other symptom?Not learned 3970. What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion valve?Not learned 3971. When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a refrigerated container unit, the sensing bulb almost always requires insulation. Why is this so?Not learned 3972. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at 1/2 tons, what would be the result if the replacement valve cage was oversized at 5 tonsNot learned 3973. If the needle and seat assembly is excessively eroded, the valve cage assembly can be replaced. In replacing the original valve cage assembly rated at 1/2 tons, what would be the result if the replacement valve cage was oversized at 5 tonsNot learned 3974. Which of the following statements represents the last step to be followed when replacing the power element of the device shown in the illustrationNot learned 3975. It is necessary to replace the defective thermal expansion valve in a refrigeration system. If the valve is improperly sized, what could be the result? starvation of the evaporator coil if the valve is undersized constant hunting of the TXV and pressure surging if the valve is oversizedNot learned 3976. In a direct expansion type refrigeration system, an externally equalized thermal expansion valve in installed in which of the following situations?Not learned 3977. Which of the problems listed could cause erosion of the expansion valve needle and seat?Not learned 3978. Vapor bubbles present in the liquid upon arrival to the thermal expansion valve in a refrigeration system may cause erosion of the expansion valve's needle and seat. This, in turn, could cause what condition?Not learned 3979. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a reverse-cycle solenoid valveNot learned 3980. Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of dehydrators in refrigeration systems?Not learned 3981. Why are dehydrators usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems?Not learned 3982. What is the purpose of a dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system?Not learned 3983. What is the name of the device used to remove moisture from a refrigeration system?Not learned 3984. In addition to removing water from a refrigerant and neutralizing acids, most dehydrators also effectively remove what other substance?Not learned 3985. Which of the devices listed will indicate whether or not a refrigeration system's dehydrator continues to be capable of removing moisture from the circulating refrigerant?Not learned 3986. In addition to moisture, a suction line dehydrator installed in a system after a burnout has occurred is designed to remove what additional substance?Not learned 3987. In a refrigeration system, silica gel is found in what component?Not learned 3988. Which of the listed substances is used as an adsorbing agent in the shipboard dehydration of refrigeration systems?Not learned 3989. The dessicant material used as a dehydrating agent within refrigeration system filter/driers and dehydrators is which of the following?Not learned 3990. Which of the locations listed would be considered as the most common place to find a dehydrator or filter/drier in a refrigeration system?Not learned 3991. Cylindrical, replaceable silica gel core dehydrators installed in halocarbon refrigerant systems are typically arranged in what way?Not learned 3992. If a liquid drying agent is used in a refrigeration system already equipped with a solid drying agent, the liquid drying agent will cause what type of reaction?Not learned 3993. Which of the following items shown in the illustration is a liquid line filter/drierNot learned 3994. Moisture is removed from a refrigeration system by what action?Not learned 3995. Standard filter/driers used in many commercial type refrigeration units may contain what type of substance?Not learned 3996. Moisture is removed from recovered refrigerant using a recycling machine by what means?Not learned 3997. Which of the following dehydrators or combination filter/driers is most likely to be used in the suction line of a refrigeration unitNot learned 3998. Which of the following dehydrators or combination filter/driers features a core that can be replaced when the dessicant becomes saturated with moistureNot learned 3999. Which of the following dehydrators or combination filter/driers is most likely to be used in a refrigeration sytem using a capillary tube as a metering deviceNot learned 4000. If the liquid line filter/drier pictured in figure "C" of the illustration becomes saturated with moisture, what would be the indicationNot learned 4001. If the liquid line filter/drier pictured in figure "C" of the illustration becomes mechanically restricted with solid impurities, what would be the indicationNot learned 4002. If the combination moisture indicator and sight glass indicates an accumulation of moisture within the system, which of the listed procedures would be the most practical to follow?Not learned 4003. Which of the devices listed is used to limit frosting of chill box evaporator coils on multiple box installations served by one compressor?Not learned 4004. Concerning the evaporator pressure regulator drawing shown in the bottom of the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 4005. Which of the following items shown in the illustration is an evaporator pressure regulatorNot learned 4006. An evaporator pressure regulating valve (back pressure regulator) is installed in the evaporator coils of some refrigeration systems for what purpose?Not learned 4007. The two-temperature evaporator pressure regulating valves used in a multi-temperature, multi-box refrigeration system served by one compressor perform what function?Not learned 4008. What is the primary function of the evaporator pressure regulator valves installed in a multi-box refrigeration system?Not learned 4009. The valve shown in the illustration is commonly identified as what typeNot learned 4010. When two refrigerated spaces in a refrigeration system are served by a single compressor and condenser, yet are maintained at different temperatures, what is true concerning an installed back pressure regulating valve?Not learned 4011. In a refrigeration system, where multiple evaporators are operating at different temperatures, and serviced by a single compressor and condenser, the control of individual evaporator coil temperature minimums should be carried out by adjustment of which individual valve?Not learned 4012. In addition to adjusting the box thermostat, for a direct expansion multiple-evaporator refrigeration system, a chill box may be converted to a freeze box by performing what action?Not learned 4013. A multiple evaporator system is equipped with a evaporator back pressure regulating valve on the warmer of the two boxes. This valve must be bypassed when pumping down the system for repairs because reduction of suction pressure would cause the valve to do what?Not learned 4014. Which refrigeration system will absolutely require the use of an oil separator located in the discharge line due to a lack of refrigerant-oil miscibility?Not learned 4015. Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a result of what condition?Not learned 4016. Sludge may be formed in the oil in the crankcase of a reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a result of what condition?Not learned 4017. Sludge may form in the lubricating oil crankcase of a reciprocating air conditioning compressor as a result of what condition?Not learned 4018. What is the most important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 4019. Properties of a good refrigeration compressor lubricating oil include which of the following?Not learned 4020. What is the purpose of heating the oil in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor during the off cycle?Not learned 4021. The lubrication oil in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor that is shut down is heated. For what purpose is this done?Not learned 4022. The sudden reduction of pressure occurring within the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor during starting causes what condition?Not learned 4023. If it becomes absolutely necessary to operate two compressors in parallel in order to maintain the box temperatures, a careful watch should be kept on what parameter?Not learned 4024. Unless the system is designed for such operation, two compressors should not be operated in parallel in a refrigeration system for what reason?Not learned 4025. When handling contaminated oil from a hermetically sealed refrigeration compressor unit that has suffered from a motor burnout, what should be done?Not learned 4026. Alkylbenzene ISO 32 cSt synthetic refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to use with which of the following refrigerants?Not learned 4027. If you mistakenly change from a lower pour point lubricant to a higher pour point lubricant in a refrigeration system, what will be the result?Not learned 4028. The best time to check the oil level in the compressor in a typical refrigeration system is when shortly after the compressor has stopped after a long period of running. Why is this so?Not learned 4029. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 4030. Excessive, prolonged oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor at start up can cause what to happen?Not learned 4031. The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe what event?Not learned 4032. Excessive circulation of the lubricating oil with the refrigerant in a refrigeration system will cause what operating symptom?Not learned 4033. The color of the refrigeration oil can indicate various operating conditions of the compressor/refrigeration system in which it is used. Black oil can be an indication of what condition?Not learned 4034. The oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refrigeration compressor appears to be brownish in color. What is this an indication of?Not learned 4035. The color and/or condition of the oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refrigeration compressor experiencing bearing wear or piston scoring would be which of the following?Not learned 4036. A "hygroscopic" lubricant used in refrigeration compressors would have what characteristic?Not learned 4037. The pressure difference between the system cut-in and cut-out pressures of a refrigeration unit low pressure cutout device is known as what?Not learned 4038. The high pressure cut-out switch used on refrigeration units for low pressure systems is set to shut off the compressor at which of the following pressures?Not learned 4039. The high pressure cut-out switch used on centrifugal low pressure refrigeration units using R-123 would be set to shut off the compressor at approximately what pressure?Not learned 4040. What is the purpose of the refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch?Not learned 4041. What is the purpose of the low pressure cut-out switch as used as a primary controller for a refrigeration system or unit?Not learned 4042. When all the individual box solenoid valves in a multi-box refrigeration plant are closed by collective the action of all the individual box thermostats, by what means will the compressor normally be stopped?Not learned 4043. If only the chill box solenoid valve remains open in a multiple-box refrigeration plant, the refrigeration compressor will eventually be stopped shortly after it closes once the minimum desired chill box temperature is reached. What device actually directly stops the compressor?Not learned 4044. The sensing line for the low-pressure cut-out switch for a refrigeration system is typically connected at what location?Not learned 4045. The refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch is actuated by which of the following?Not learned 4046. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart if the system features a pump-down cycle?Not learned 4047. The operating principle of a low pressure cut-out switch used as a primary controller in controlling the refrigeration compressor start/stop operation is based on which of the following actions?Not learned 4048. A refrigeration system low pressure cut-out switch has an adjustment advisory that states that the cut-out is the cut-in minus the differential. Currently the compressor starts a few moments after the thermostatically controlled box solenoid re-opens and begins feeding the evaporator meaning the cut-in value is properly set. As the box solenoid closes when the minimum desired box temperature is reached, the compressor stops almost instantly. As a result, the compressor short-cycles a few times before the pump-down is complete. What must be done to correct this?Not learned 4049. The normal operation of a refrigeration compressor should be to cycle on and off by the action of the primary controller. If the compressor cycles off as a result of system pumpdown, what is true?Not learned 4050. The low-pressure cut-out switch settings vary with the refrigerant used and the temperature application. If the low-pressure cut-out switch for a particular application is set with a cut-in pressure of 5 psig, what would be the cut-out pressure if the differential is 7.5 psig?Not learned 4051. The low pressure cutout switch will cause the compressor in a refrigeration system to short cycle under what condition?Not learned 4052. In a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system, the compressor is set up to cycle on and off by the action of what device?Not learned 4053. Which of the listed components shown in the illustration is the low pressure cut-outNot learned 4054. Which of the listed components, shown in the illustration is designed to close when the refrigerant low side pressure reaches its upper normal limit and, in turn, start the compressorNot learned 4055. A relief valve is designed to protect the physical integrity of a refrigeration system as a result of over-pressurization. What device is designed to stop a running compressor before the relief valve lifts?Not learned 4056. If the head pressure of a reciprocating refrigeration compressor is steadily building and becomes excessive, for protection purposes, what should occur?Not learned 4057. If the water failure switch should fail to shut down the refrigeration compressor, the refrigerant pressure will build up in the high pressure side of the system to the point where which of the following would happen FIRST?Not learned 4058. The safety device which normally stops a running refrigeration compressor before the relief valve starts to open is known as what?Not learned 4059. Which of the lettered components shown in the illustration indicates the high-pressure cut-outNot learned 4060. Which of the listed components shown in the illustration is the oil failure switchNot learned 4061. Which of the following valves remains open during normal cycling of the compressor on and off by the action of the low pressure cut-out and but closes in the event of any compressor safety shutdownNot learned 4062. The purpose of the water failure switch in a water-cooled refrigeration system is to react to a loss of cooling water pressure and function to protect the system from high pressure. When a loss of cooling water pressure causes the water failure switch to open, what is the result?Not learned 4063. In a refrigeration system that is not protected by a water failure switch, if the cooling water to the condenser fails, what will be the result for protective purposes?Not learned 4064. In the illustrated R-134a high pressure centrifugal chiller refrigerant flow circuit, by what means is the heat removal capacity of the system regulatedNot learned 4065. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be accomplished by what means?Not learned 4066. The device shown in the illustration is used for what purposeNot learned 4067. The fluid used as a source of actuating power against the underside of the unloader power element piston of the refrigeration compressor capacity control mechanism illustrated is obtained from whereNot learned 4068. The fluid used to act against the range adjusting spring and to directly control the position of the capacity control valve of the refrigeration compressor capacity control system illustrated, is obtained from whereNot learned 4069. The fluid used to act against hydraulic relay piston to control how many cylinders are unloaded in the refrigeration compressor capacity control system illustrated, is obtained from whereNot learned 4070. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when only one of the evporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what valueNot learned 4071. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when only one of the evporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what valueNot learned 4072. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity controlled compressor, when only one of the evporators of a four box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what valueNot learned 4073. A compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system has 4 of its 6 cylinders controlled for variable loads. Assuming that the controlled cylinders are unloaded singly in incremental steps, if two of five boxes are currently feeding, what will be compressor capacity at step 3 of incremental unloadingNot learned 4074. A compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system has 4 of its 6 cylinders controlled for variable loads. Assuming that the controlled cylinders are unloaded singly in incremental steps, if two of five boxes are currently feeding, what will be compressor capacity at step 3 of incremental unloadingNot learned 4075. A compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system has 4 of its 6 cylinders controlled for variable loads. Assuming that the controlled cylinders are unloaded singly in incremental steps, if two of five boxes are currently feeding, what will be compressor capacity at step 3 of incremental unloadingNot learned 4076. A compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system has 4 of its 6 cylinders controlled for variable loads. Assuming that the controlled cylinders are unloaded singly in incremental steps, if two of five boxes are currently feeding, what will be compressor capacity at step 3 of incremental unloadingNot learned 4077. A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system, is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?Not learned 4078. A box solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed in what manner?Not learned 4079. In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a king solenoid valve should be installed in what location?Not learned 4080. In a vapor compression refrigeration system with freeze, produce, and dairy boxes, along with a thaw room, a solenoid valve should be found to be installed where in the system?Not learned 4081. In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is installed in the liquid line prior to what device?Not learned 4082. A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator by what means?Not learned 4083. In a multiple-box refrigeration plant, when the temperature in a walk-in box rises above the cut-in point of the box thermostat, which of the listed actions should occur FIRST?Not learned 4084. The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a refrigerated box evaporator senses what temperature?Not learned 4085. When multiple refrigerated boxes are maintaining individual temperatures and supplied by a single refrigeration compressor, the individual box temperatures are controlled by what action?Not learned 4086. The liquid line, thermostatically controlled, box solenoid valve is operated in response to changes in what?Not learned 4087. When a refrigerated compartment of a multi-box system served by one compressor reaches the correct temperature, temperature control in that one compartment is achieved by what means?Not learned 4088. The thermostat controlling a refrigerated walk-in box solenoid valve typically senses what parameter?Not learned 4089. When a refrigerated space reaches the minimum desired temperature in a multi-box refrigeration system, which of the listed actions will occur FIRST after opening of the box thermostat?Not learned 4090. In a refrigeration system featuring low-side pumpdown prior to the automatic shutdown of the compressor, the temperature of the refrigerated space is controlled by the action of a thermostat wired to what device?Not learned 4091. The individual box temperatures of a multibox refrigeration system are directly controlled by what means?Not learned 4092. What is the primary purpose of a thermostatically controlled box solenoid valve used in a multi-box refrigeration system?Not learned 4093. Which of the following statements is trueNot learned 4094. Which of the components shown in the illustration indicates a liquid line solenoid valveNot learned 4095. A box solenoid valve used in a multi-box refrigeration system is operated by electromagnetic action by what control device?Not learned 4096. How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve?Not learned 4097. As shown in the illustrated refrigeration system piping schematic diagram with the various accessories and controls and equipped with a conventional pump-down cycle, what does the temperature control thermostatic switch controlNot learned 4098. Pertaining to the illustrated refrigerated container unit piping diagram, if the current box temperature is above, but fairly close to set point and the ambient temperature is relatively low, what would be the status of the economizer and unloading solenoid valvesNot learned 4099. Pertaining to the illustrated refrigerated container unit piping diagram, if the current box temperature is above, but fairly close to set point and the ambient temperature is relatively low, what would be the status of the economizer and unloading solenoid valvesNot learned 4100. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a reverse-cycle solenoid valveNot learned 4101. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a 2-position diverting hot gas bypass solenoid valveNot learned 4102. Which of the following electrically operated refrigeration system valves would be most appropriate for use as a reverse-cycle solenoid valveNot learned 4103. The speed of a belt driven ventilation fan can be increased without changing the motor speed by using a __________.Not learned 4104. In terms of the running of a refrigeration compressor, what is meant by the term "short-cycling"?Not learned 4105. If a compressor starts and stops very frequently, what term is used to describe this behavior?Not learned 4106. When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration system through the suction line, what is this condition called?Not learned 4107. Refrigerant is normally subcooled in a refrigeration or air conditioning system condenser for what purpose?Not learned 4108. What is the principal purpose of subcooling liquid refrigerant prior to its entering the expansion valve?Not learned 4109. Subcooling is a method of reducing the temperature of the liquid refrigerant below what temperature or point?Not learned 4110. The presence of gas in the liquid line of a refrigeration system is undesirable and can be eliminated by what action?Not learned 4111. A pressure drop in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may cause what condition?Not learned 4112. A pressure drop through the refrigerant liquid line may cause what to occur?Not learned 4113. In a mechanical refrigeration system, in addition to the high and low side pressure differential, what is the amount of refrigerant admitted to the evaporator directly related to?Not learned 4114. An increase in the heat load subjected to a refrigeration system will cause what to happen?Not learned 4115. During the operation of a large multi-box refrigeration system, using a fixed capacity compressor, only two of the five boxes are in the process of actively being cooled. If two additional boxes were to be brought into the cooling process simultaneously, how would the system react?Not learned 4116. During the operation of a five box refrigeration system, using a fixed capacity compressor, two additional boxes came on line with the two boxes already in the active cooling process. At the beginning of the cooling period for the two additional boxes, the operating conditions of the system would require the quantity (flow rate) of refrigerant to the compressor suction to do what?Not learned 4117. As compared to the temperature maintenance period when the box temperatures are within normal operating range, the beginning of a temperature pull-down period after loading stores of a multibox refrigeration system, the operating conditions of the system would require the flow rate of refrigerant circulating in the system and the suction pressure to do what?Not learned 4118. In terms of the conditions associated with the boiling process, what impact does oil in solution mixed with the liquid refrigerant have?Not learned 4119. Which of the listed statements is correct concerning refrigeration systems?Not learned 4120. Which of the listed statements is correct concerning refrigeration systems?Not learned 4121. In the illustrated R-134a high pressure centrifugal chiller refrigerant flow circuit, what is the functional purpose of the turbine? functions as a metering/expansion device maintaining a pressure differential between the high and low pressure sides of the system functions to deliver power to the compressor by aiding the electric drive motor See illustration GS-RA-26.Not learned 4122. As shown the illustrated R-134a high pressure centrifugal chiller lubricating oil circuit, what is statement is true concerning the eductorNot learned 4123. As shown the illustrated R-134a high pressure centrifugal chiller refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, how is the lube oil temperature controlledNot learned 4124. As shown the illustrated water-cooled rotary chiller refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, which of the listed thermistors is used as a sensor for the electronic control circuit for the electronic expansion valveNot learned 4125. As shown the illustrated water-cooled rotary chiller refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, which of the listed thermistors is used as a sensor for the capacity control system loader solenoid valvesNot learned 4126. As shown the illustrated water-cooled rotary chiller refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, which of the listed transducers are used as a sensors for determining pressure differential in controlling the operation of the oil pumpNot learned 4127. As shown the illustrated water-cooled rotary chiller refrigerant flow and lubricating oil circuits, what is the functional purpose of the economizer? Provide a cooling medium for the hermetic motor windings Improve the overall efficiency of the plant See illustration GS-RA-29.Not learned 4128. Subcooling of the refrigerant to reduce the percent of flash gas present in the liquid line is accomplished by what means? proper sizing of the condenser use of a liquid liquid line to suction line heat interchangerNot learned 4129. What is the purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short intermittent spurts or throttling the suction isolation valve when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown?Not learned 4130. When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has been shut down for a period of time, you should manually throttle which valve?Not learned 4131. Among the illustrated service valves, which service valve is represented as fully front-seatedNot learned 4132. If a refrigeration unit is fitted with suction and discharge services valves constructed similarly to the valve labeled "D" in the illustration, what statement is true concerning the valve status when servicing is complete and the gauge manifold set is removed, with the unit in normal operation, assuming that no permanently installed gauges or pressure switches are connected to the service port "1"Not learned 4133. When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, under what conditions would the most accurate reading be obtained?Not learned 4134. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at -28.9°C, appropriate for a frozen cargo of ice cream. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what features are locked outNot learned 4135. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a perishable chilled cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what should be the operational status of the unit if the actual box temperature is 6Not learned 4136. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a perishable chilled cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what should be the operational status of the unit if the actual box temperature is 6Not learned 4137. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a chilled perishable cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what features are locked outNot learned 4138. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a perishable chilled cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what should be the operational status of the unit if the actual box temperature is 6Not learned 4139. A container unit's microprocessor-controlled temperature controller is set at 8.9°C, appropriate for a perishable chilled cargo of limes. In this mode of operation, according to the illustrated temperature controller functional diagrams, what should be the operational status of the unit if the actual box temperature is 6Not learned 4140. Concerning the piping schematic of the direct expansion chiller as shown in figure "A" of the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 4141. Concerning the piping schematic of the multi-temperature and multi-evaporator system as shown in figure "B" of the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 4142. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller pressure maintenance system, under what operating conditions would the pressure maintenance system be operationalNot learned 4143. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller pressure maintenance system, what is its functional purposeNot learned 4144. What statement is true concerning figure "A" of the illustrated hydronic heating/cooling systemsNot learned 4145. What statement is true concerning figure "A" of the illustrated hydronic heating/cooling systemsNot learned 4146. What statement is true concerning figure "C" of the illustrated hydronic heating/cooling systemsNot learned 4147. Some "hot gas" defrost systems reheat the refrigerant just prior to its returning to the compressor for what purpose?Not learned 4148. In the refrigeration system shown in the illustration, which of the valves indicated should be used to purge the system of air and non-condensable gasesNot learned 4149. In addition to the drive belt itself, a V-belt that is tensioned too tight will cause excessive wear to what other drive component?Not learned 4150. Pertaining to the illustrated refrigerated container unit piping diagram, if the current box temperature is considerably above set point, to achieve a quicker pulldown in box temperature, what would be the status of the economizer and unloading solenoid valvesNot learned 4151. The watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration compressor has blown the shaft seal, with the noticeable presence of oil leaking. In this situation, what should be done?Not learned 4152. Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause what condition?Not learned 4153. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has a liquid-line solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, what would this cause?Not learned 4154. When taking readings at the suction service valve of an operating refrigeration compressor to determine pressure and temperature, what statement is true?Not learned 4155. The EPA allows a large low pressure system to be brought to atmopsheric pressure during non-major repairs by what means?Not learned 4156. To add small amounts of non-blended refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the refrigerant should be introduced through a particular valve and in a particular state. What valve and state combination is correct?Not learned 4157. To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should close the king valve and introduce the refrigerant through what valve in what state?Not learned 4158. Routine maintenance on a Central Control Room hermetically sealed air conditioning unit should include what service procedure?Not learned 4159. When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low-pressure cutout switch, assuming that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?Not learned 4160. To service a 60 ton air conditioning package, what is the easiest way to determine the type of refrigerant that the unit is charged with?Not learned 4161. If a condenser coil of an air-cooled container refrigeration system becomes dirty and requires cleaning, what would be an acceptable method of cleaning?Not learned 4162. When opening or closing compressor service and line isolation valves on a typical refrigeration system that is fitted with packed valves, what must you do?Not learned 4163. What would be the proper hose connections for the illustrated service gauge manifold set shown in figure "A" of the illustration if the service procedure to be performed is a dehydration evacuation followed by refrigerant charging as a vaporNot learned 4164. Which of the illustrated service gauge manifold sets would require switching hoses when transitioning from a dehydration evacuation to refrigerant chargingNot learned 4165. When charging refrigerant into the system as a vapor with the compressor running using the service gauge manifold set illustrated in figure "C" of the illustration, what is the correct position of each of the hand valvesNot learned 4166. Items "B" and "D" are shown installed on the service gauge manifold set shown in figure "C", but are not present on the service gauge manifold set in figure "A" even though it is equipped to receive them. What are the devices "B" and "D"Not learned 4167. Which of the illustrated valves is used to gain access to a hermetic system not fitted with service valves or access fittings by means of piercing the refrigeration system tubingNot learned 4168. Which of the illustrated valves is used to gain access to a hermetic system and features a Schrader core valve which is unseated by the core depressor of hose fitting when attachedNot learned 4169. Which of the illustrated valves is a conventional service valve with front and rear seatsNot learned 4170. Which of the following illustrated gauges is incapable of measuring vacuum depths at micron levels for verification of system dehydration while performing a system evacuation with a vacuum pumpNot learned 4171. Which of the illustrated gauges is capable of measuring vacuums at the micron level for the purpose of proving system dehydration during system evacuation with a vacuum pump, but displays the achieved vacuums at incremental threshold intervals rather than continuouslyNot learned 4172. After the refrigerant has been recovered, leaks repaired if necessary, the system ideally should undergo a dehydration evacuation prior to recharging with refrigerant. As shown in the illustration, besides the vacuum pump suction manifold isolation valve being opened, what would be the proper valve positions to accomplish and prove the evacuationNot learned 4173. Using the illustrated chart giving the boiling point of moisture at various depths of vacuum, with an ambient temperature of 72°F, what depth of vacuum would be associated with the BEST chance of achieving a dehydration evacuation with a deep vacuum pumpNot learned 4174. Hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to produce what effect?Not learned 4175. What is true concerning frost build-up on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion refrigeration system?Not learned 4176. Concerning frost appearing on one set of evaporator coils of a multi-box, direct expansion type refrigeration system, what is true?Not learned 4177. When checking zinc plates, or pencil zincs in the refrigerating system condenser, what should you do?Not learned 4178. Prior to making non-major repairs (such as replacing a main liquid line dehydrator dessicant cartridge) of a large, multi-box refrigeration system, what should be done before opening the system?Not learned 4179. Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any part of a refrigeration system for the purpose of accomplishing non-major repairs?Not learned 4180. The pressure in the part of a high pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for a non-major repair should be brought to what value?Not learned 4181. The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start while undergoing repairs is to do what?Not learned 4182. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?Not learned 4183. Immediately before the actual process of adding oil to a compressor cranckase is started, the oil charging hose should be properly prepared. How is this done?Not learned 4184. When adding oil to a refrigeration system, what precautions must be taken?Not learned 4185. Before charging a refrigeration unit, unless quick disconnect fittings are used, the refrigerant charging hoses should be prepared in what way?Not learned 4186. When adding oil to a refrigeration system using a oil charging hand pump, what precaution must be taken?Not learned 4187. When adding oil to compressor crankcase of a refrigeration system with a hand pump, what precaution must be taken?Not learned 4188. Which of the hand valve configurations for the gauge manifold set is the correct set up for charging refrigerant into the low side of the system as a vaporNot learned 4189. Which of the hand valve configurations for the gauge manifold set is the correct set up for monitoring both the low and high system pressuresNot learned 4190. Which of the hand valve configurations for the gauge manifold set is the correct set up for removing the remaining refrigerant from the gauge manifold set with the discharge service valve back-seated in preparation for removing the gauge manifold setNot learned 4191. With a service gauge manifold set connected to a refrigerant compressor as shown in the illustration, which arrangement of the gauge manifold set valves and compressor service valves would allow for simultaneous reading of the compressor suction and discharge pressuresNot learned 4192. In addition to the main outermost scale on the low side compound gage fitted to the portable service manifold, there are often one or more other scales on the face of the gage. What are these other scales?Not learned 4193. In addition to pressure, most compound and standard pressure gauges used for refrigeration service are also provided with a scale indicating what parameter?Not learned 4194. In a refrigeration system, once the gage manifold hoses are attached to the compressor service valve connections and properly purged, what should be the status of the manifold valves and the service valves when the purpose for attachment is to read system pressures?Not learned 4195. When purging a refrigeration gauge manifold using system pressure as the source of refrigerant for purging, which of the fittings listed is normally tightened LAST?Not learned 4196. Consultation should be made prior to beginning the conversion of an existing CFC-12 system to HFC-134a with what entity?Not learned 4197. When one drive belt of a drive belt set breaks, what is the criterion for replacement?Not learned 4198. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?Not learned 4199. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent what from happening?Not learned 4200. To correct the condition of slugging and flooding back in a refrigeration system, it may be necessary to perform which of the following?Not learned 4201. While troubleshooting a refrigeration system for low suction temperature and excessive suction line frosting, liquid refrigerant flooding backto the compressor from the evaporator is determined to be the cause. What should you do?Not learned 4202. When repairing a refrigeration system, a swaging tool set would be used to carry out which of the following operations?Not learned 4203. Which pair of the illustrated service gauge manifold sets would require switching hoses when transitioning from a dehydration evacuation to refrigerant chargingNot learned 4204. Which of the illustrated gauges is capable of measuring vacuums at the micron level for the purpose of proving system dehydration during system evacuation with a vacuum pump, but displays the achieved vacuums at incremental threshold intervals rather than continuouslyNot learned 4205. A purge-recovery unit is used in a centrifugal air conditioning or refrigeration system for what purpose?Not learned 4206. The inlet of the purge-recovery units used with some compressors in low pressure refrigeration systems is connected to the top of what system component?Not learned 4207. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller high efficiency purge recovery unit piping schematic, what statement is true concerning the vacuum pumpNot learned 4208. As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller high efficiency purge recovery unit piping schematic, what statement is true concerning the carbon filter tankNot learned 4209. In a low pressure refrigeration system, excessive running of the purge recovery unit generally indicates which probable condition?Not learned 4210. In a low-pressure centrifugal chiller, what is meant by the term "high efficiency purge unit"?Not learned 4211. Excessive moisture being collected in the purge unit of a low-pressure refrigeration system could indicate which probable condition?Not learned 4212. During normal operation, traditionally, how is most of the refrigerant released to the atmosphere from low-pressure systems?Not learned 4213. In a refrigeration system, from what location would air and non-condensable gases be removed?Not learned 4214. A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of a water cooled condenser at the top of the condenser shell is used for what purpose?Not learned 4215. Purging is the process used to do what?Not learned 4216. Release of refrigerant to the atmosphere during the process of purging of air and non-condensable gases can be kept to a permissible minimum by what action?Not learned 4217. Why is a purge recovery unit typically fitted on low-pressure centrifugal chillers?Not learned 4218. Why do low pressure refrigerant chillers usually require purge-recovery units ?Not learned 4219. The purge-recovery unit of a low pressure refrigeration chiller draws gas from what location?Not learned 4220. Which of the illustrated devices is used to charge in precise amounts of refrigerant and features a graduated cylinder calibrated in weight units, but cannot be used to weigh a refrigerant bottleNot learned 4221. Which of the illustrated devices would be the LEAST accurate for the purposes of weighing-in a refrigerant chargeNot learned 4222. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 4223. The safest and quickest method of adding refrigerant to a refrigeration system is to add the refrigerant through which valve and in what state?Not learned 4224. Concerning the charging of refrigerant into a vapor compression refrigerating system, which of the following is true?Not learned 4225. Low side passive charging of a refrigeration system may be speeded up by what process?Not learned 4226. When a refrigeration system is being topped off with a small amount of refrigerant through the low side with the compressor running, what should be done?Not learned 4227. Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?Not learned 4228. How should small appliances with less than three pounds of refrigerant be charged with refrigerant?Not learned 4229. Charging liquid HCFC-123 into a system under a deep vacuum could cause what to happen unless necessary precautions are taken?Not learned 4230. Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant circulating through the system?Not learned 4231. Which of the following statements is true concerning the gauge labeled "A" of the illustrated gauge manifold setNot learned 4232. Which of the following statements is true concerning the gauge labeled "A" of the illustrated gauge manifold setNot learned 4233. Using the device shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is true when adding refrigerant as a vapor to the low side of the refrigeration systemNot learned 4234. Using the device shown in the illustration, which of the following statements is true when monitoring both the high and low side pressures of the refrigeration systemNot learned 4235. Which of the following statements is true concerning the illustrated gauge manifold setNot learned 4236. Why would one use refrigerant vapor rather than liquid, to initially charge an evacuated low pressure air conditioning chiller unit?Not learned 4237. If R-502, which is a mixture comprised of 48.8% R-22 and 51.2% R-115, is recovered from a refrigeration system, it must be placed in a recovery tank containing which refrigerant?Not learned 4238. HCFC-22 has been recovered from a refrigeration system prior to and in preparation for condenser replacement. What is true concerning the recovered refrigerant?Not learned 4239. When recovering the remaining R-134a refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller shown in the illustration as a vapor using the recovery unit's compressor, in addition to opening valves "1a", "1b", and the compressor suction and discharge isolation valves, which of the following would be the correct valve lineupNot learned 4240. When recovering the R-134a refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller shown in the illustration initially as a liquid using the recovery unit's compressor set up in push/pull configuration, in addition to opening valves "1a", "1b", and the compressor suction and discharge isolation valves, which of the following would be the correct valve lineupNot learned 4241. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated self-contained recovery unit connection diagrams, what is the recovery method supported by the connection schemeNot learned 4242. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated self-contained recovery unit connection diagrams, what is the recovery method supported by the connection schemeNot learned 4243. As shown in the illustrated typical self-contained refrigerant recovery unit, what is the purpose of the suction-side oil separatorNot learned 4244. As shown in the illustrated typical self-contained refrigerant recovery unit, what is the purpose of the discharge-side oil separatorNot learned 4245. As shown in the illustrated typical self-contained refrigerant recovery unit, what is the purpose of the pump-down solenoid valve and the restricted orificeNot learned 4246. Which of the illustrated devices would be suitable for removing refrigerant quickly from a low pressure system as a liquid only without processing the refrigerant in any way, requiring follow-up vapor recovery with another deviceNot learned 4247. Which of the illustrated devices would be suitable for recovering refrigerant without processing it or testing in any way and which requires connection to an external recovery cylinderNot learned 4248. Which of the illustrated devices would be suitable for recovering refrigerant from a large chiller without processing it or testing in any way and which has integral refrigerant storage capacityNot learned 4249. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, what statement is trueNot learned 4250. Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the illustration, which statement is trueNot learned 4251. The pressure, in a low pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for a major repair, should be brought to what value before the system can be opened for repairs if the recovery unit was manufactured on or after Nov. 15, 1993?Not learned 4252. The pressure or vacuum in a small appliance refrigeration system about to be opened for repair regardless of when the recovery device was manufactured should be brought to what value?Not learned 4253. Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of the high-pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the result of what?Not learned 4254. What must be done, at a minimum, before a system can legally be opened up for repairs while adhering to the prohibition against the venting of halogenated fluorocarbon refrigerants to the atmosphere?Not learned 4255. Which recovery procedure should be used to minimize the loss of oil from the system during the recovery of refrigerant from small appliances such as a water cooler?Not learned 4256. Minor repairs may be performed on low-pressure refrigerant systems without recovering the refrigerant charge if the pressure in the system is raised to atmospheric. How may this be accomplished?Not learned 4257. A refrigeration plant has been prepared for opening up the system for non-major repairs by performing a system pumpdown and bringing the part of the system to be opened to 0 psig. At the completion of the repairs and after re-closing the system what is the recommended procedure?Not learned 4258. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 4259. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the status of the solenoid valves when the recovery unit is in the direct vapor recovery modeNot learned 4260. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 4261. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 4262. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 4263. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, which of the labeled devices acts to automatically shut down the recovery unit compressor when the refrigeration system reaches a depth of 15" HgNot learned 4264. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, which of the labeled devices acts to automatically transition the recovery unit from the direct liquid recovery mode to the direct vapor recovery modeNot learned 4265. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, which of the labeled devices acts to automatically shut down the recovery unit compressor when the refrigeration system reaches a depth of 15" HgNot learned 4266. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, which of the labeled devices acts to automatically shut down the recovery unit compressor when the refrigeration system reaches a depth of 15" HgNot learned 4267. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the status of the solenoid valves when the recovery unit is in the direct vapor recovery modeNot learned 4268. The process of removing refrigerant from a system and storing it without testing or processing it in any way is known as what under the EPA Clean Air Act rule definitions?Not learned 4269. What is the correct color-coding of refrigerant recovery cylinders regardless of the refrigerant contained within?Not learned 4270. What is true concerning the recovery of refrigerant from small appliances as defined in the EPA Clean Air Act rules?Not learned 4271. What is true concerning highly contaminated refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances?Not learned 4272. When recovering R-12 from a small appliance with a working compressor, using a recovery device manufactured after November 15, 1993, what percentage of the remaining charge must be removed from the system?Not learned 4273. Refillable tanks used to ship CFC and HCFC refrigerants or used to recover these refrigerants must meet the standards of what entity?Not learned 4274. The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller with more than 500 lbs. of refrigerant and to meet EPA requirements is to recover the refrigerant using what protocol?Not learned 4275. In reclaiming recovered refrigerant, which type of contamination will the reclamation process be unable to separate?Not learned 4276. What is the maximum volume to which refillable refrigeration cylinders should be filled?Not learned 4277. In a refrigeration system, the push-pull technique can be used for the recovery of the refrigerant in what state?Not learned 4278. When removing the primary refrigerant from a system using water as a secondary refrigerant, it is important to follow which procedure(s) to safeguard the equipment?Not learned 4279. What differentiates "system-dependent" and "self-contained" recovery devices in refrigeration systems?Not learned 4280. If passive recovery is used on a small appliance fitted with a capillary tube as a metering device with a non-operating compressor, the recovery should be made through what means?Not learned 4281. In preparation for repairing a leaking refrigeration system normally containing 50 lbs.of a class II refrigerant, it has been determined that the system pressure is presently 0 psig. In terms of refrigerant recovery, which of the following statements is true?Not learned 4282. If you find the pressure of a refrigeration system containing a Class I or Class II refrigerant to be opened for the accomplishment of repairs is 0 psig, what must be done?Not learned 4283. Prior to making repairs on a refrigeration system containing a refrigerant covered under the EPA Clean Air Act rules, if system leaks prevent reaching the required levels of evacuation for recovery of refrigerant, what will need be to be done?Not learned 4284. Technicians servicing small refrigeration appliances can employ what type of recovery equipment?Not learned 4285. What is the color coding for a storage container of R-134a refrigerant?Not learned 4286. The recovery of refrigerant from refrigerant absorbed in oil can be maximized by what practice?Not learned 4287. Most of the liquid refrigerant to be removed from a pumped down system during a refrigerant recovery procedure would be found in what location?Not learned 4288. Which of the following will speed up the recovery process when performing maintenance on a refrigeration system?Not learned 4289. The process of recovering refrigerant from an air conditioning or refrigeration system may be accelerated by what action?Not learned 4290. As shown in the illustrated flow diagram for a self-contained recovery unit designed for the recovery of refrigerants from high-pressure appliances as defined by the EPA Clean Air Act rules, what is the functional purpose of the item labeled "FS2"Not learned 4291. Using a sulphur candle for leak detection for anhydrous ammonia, in the presence of an ammonia leak what color smoke will be produced?Not learned 4292. Which of the following devices is the safest to use when locating ammonia leaks?Not learned 4293. An ammonia leak will turn moistened pink litmus paper to what color?Not learned 4294. When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system, the nitrogen cylinder should always be equipped with what device or feature?Not learned 4295. What is the color of the flame produced by a halide torch when there is no halogenated refrigerant present at the location of the exploring tube?Not learned 4296. What is a quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for the presence of a refrigerant leak without actually pinpointing the actual location?Not learned 4297. If you find a refrigerant leak while using a halide torch, what will happen to the flame as the exploring tube approaches the leak?Not learned 4298. Which of the following statements is correct concerning a halide torch leak detector?Not learned 4299. When you find a small refrigerant leak in a system fitted with a halogenated refrigerant with a halide torch, the color of the torch flame will change to what color?Not learned 4300. What must be done to use standard leak detection methods on a low-pressure refrigeration system charged with refrigerant?Not learned 4301. Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?Not learned 4302. Which statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?Not learned 4303. What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?Not learned 4304. With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration chambers of a liquid cargo- hold dehumidification system, which statement is true?Not learned 4305. To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?Not learned 4306. To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would the dew point be measured?Not learned 4307. What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification systems?Not learned 4308. The compressor used in a water-cooled air conditioning system is short-cycling and as a consequence a safety shutdown alarm occurs at each shutdown, and a manual reset is required to restart. A service check determines that the suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in point during cycling and that the discharge pressure rapidly builds up to the cut-out point while running and gradually falls to the cut-in point during the off cycle. What is likely the cause?Not learned 4309. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, what would be the normal range of expected discharge pressures if the ambient air temperature is 90°FNot learned 4310. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, what would be the normal range of expected discharge pressures if the ambient air temperature is 90°FNot learned 4311. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, if the ambient air temperature is 80°F, what statement is true concerning the operating discharge pressure if it is currently 220 psigNot learned 4312. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, if the ambient air temperature is 80°F, what statement is true concerning the operating discharge pressure if it is currently 220 psigNot learned 4313. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, if the ambient air temperature is 80°F, what statement is true concerning the operating discharge pressure if it is currently 220 psigNot learned 4314. Which of the problems listed would cause the discharge pressure and temperature of an R-134a air-cooled refrigeration unit to increase above normal for existing conditions?Not learned 4315. One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can be which of the following?Not learned 4316. The refrigeration system compressor is short cycling on high head pressure. When checked, the sea water cooling inlet temperature to the water-cooled condenser is 72°F. In this situation, what should you do?Not learned 4317. If a refrigeration compressor is short cycling on high head pressure, what should you do?Not learned 4318. Which of the following problems could cause the high pressure cutout switch to shut down the compressor in a refrigeration system?Not learned 4319. A low compressor discharge pressure for a refrigerator can be caused by which of the following?Not learned 4320. Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be caused by which of the following?Not learned 4321. If the refrigeration compressor was developing higher than normal discharge pressure, this could be a result of which of the following?Not learned 4322. An increasing head pressure in a refrigeration system, without any corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temperature, would probably be caused by which of the following?Not learned 4323. Air entering an air-cooled refrigeration system is indicated by what operating symptom?Not learned 4324. Air trapped in a refrigeration system using a water-cooled condenser is usually indicated by what operating symptom?Not learned 4325. In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration system, both low discharge and high suction pressures are being simultaneously experienced. The probable cause for this condition is which of the following?Not learned 4326. Which of the conditions listed is one indication of an excessive amount of refrigerant in a TXV controlled refrigeration system?Not learned 4327. An excessive charge of refrigerant in a thermostatically controlled, air-cooled, refrigeration system using a TXV as an expansion device can cause which of the following?Not learned 4328. Overcharging an air-cooled refrigeration unit will result in which of the following?Not learned 4329. If a refrigeration system is overcharged with refrigerant, what would be the result?Not learned 4330. A refrigeration system is equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit. If the system is overcharged, the resulting high head pressure will be caused by what condition?Not learned 4331. If increasing the cooling water flow to a refrigeration condenser fails to lower the condenser pressure, the probable cause may be due to what condition?Not learned 4332. What is true concerning the accumulation of air and other non-condensable gases in a refrigeration system?Not learned 4333. Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of what condition?Not learned 4334. In an operating refrigeration system low on refrigerant, what will be the indication as viewed in the liquid line sight glass?Not learned 4335. A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined and gas bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. What does this mean?Not learned 4336. In the refrigeration system, a shortage of refrigerant is indicated by which of the following?Not learned 4337. If a liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system shows gas bubbles in motion passing inside of the glass, what does this indicate?Not learned 4338. The presence of bubbles in a refrigeration system liquid line may produce what effect?Not learned 4339. Some refrigeration systems have chemical moisture indicators installed in conjunction with the sight glass in the liquid line. If excess moisture is present in the system, how will a typical moisture indicator respond?Not learned 4340. Which of the problems listed could be indicated if a sight glass in the refrigerant liquid line is full of bubbles?Not learned 4341. A sight glass is installed in the liquid line to indicate the condition of the refrigerant charge and may also indicate what else?Not learned 4342. Any noncondensable gases in a TXV controlled refrigeration system will eventually accumulate in the top of the system condenser. What condition does this cause?Not learned 4343. What condition listed would be associated with an excessively high suction temperature as a result of excessive superheating which produces no useful cooling?Not learned 4344. The air temperature associated with a direct reciprocating air conditioning plant is found to be too warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in point, with a normal head pressure, and high evaporator superheat. Which of the following could be the cause of this problem?Not learned 4345. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, if the ambient air temperature is 80°F, what statement is true concerning the operating suction pressure if it is currently 2 psigNot learned 4346. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, if the ambient air temperature is 80°F, what statement is true concerning the operating suction pressure if it is currently 2 psigNot learned 4347. Which of the listed statements describes the method used to determine the amount of superheat present in the suction gas leaving the evaporator coilNot learned 4348. High suction pressure accompanied by low suction temperature to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by which of the following?Not learned 4349. Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant pressure at the compressor suction of a TXV controlled refrigeration system?Not learned 4350. If a refrigeration compressor had developed a slightly high suction pressure accompanied with an abnormally low suction temperature, the problem could be a result of which of the following?Not learned 4351. Flooding back' is a condition where the liquid refrigerant does what in a refrigeration system?Not learned 4352. If the running suction pressure for an operating refrigeration compressor of a TXV controlled refrigeration system is below normal, the cause may be which of the following?Not learned 4353. If the running suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor of a TXV controlled air-cooled refrigeration system is below normal, which of the following can be a cause?Not learned 4354. Which of the listed reasons could cause frost to form on the suction line of a refrigeration compressor?Not learned 4355. The coil temperature measured at the expansion valve sensing bulb of an operating system is 10°F. The low side pressure with the compressor running as shown on the gauge illustrated indicates 15 psig. What adjustments or changes, if any, should be made to the systemNot learned 4356. A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. Where is it generally located in the system?Not learned 4357. What condition may cause excessive superheat to occur at the evaporator outlet of an air conditioning system?Not learned 4358. The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of what conditions?Not learned 4359. In an air conditioning system, low discharge head pressure associated with a reciprocating compressor can be the result of what condition?Not learned 4360. An air-cooled refrigerated container unit using R-134a as a refrigerant has a box temperature set point of 32°F, but it is currently operating with a stable supply air temperature of 35°F. The fresh air makeup vent is closed, the unit is operating at 460 VAC/60 Hz, and the unit is in full capacity cool (modulating valve 100% open). Using the illustrated troubleshooting guide, if the ambient air temperature is 80°F, what statement is true concerning the operating suction pressure if it is currently 2 psigNot learned 4361. The compressor in the ship service refrigeration system is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. What is a probable reason for this?Not learned 4362. When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, what should be done to compensate for or to correct this situation?Not learned 4363. If the discharge valve plates on a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, in terms of the compresssor, what would be the operating symptom?Not learned 4364. In a refrigeration system equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a water cooled condensing unit, leaking compressor discharge valves will result in what operating condition?Not learned 4365. Badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge valves will cause which of the following to happen?Not learned 4366. If any of the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking slightly, the compressor will have a tendency to exhibit which of the following behaviors?Not learned 4367. If a refrigeration compressor had a higher than normal suction pressure, the problem could be a result of which of the following?Not learned 4368. The refrigeration compressor in a water cooled refrigeration system is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. Which of the following could be cause for this condition?Not learned 4369. The compressor of an air-cooled condensing unit of a refrigeration system is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. What is a probable reason for this?Not learned 4370. Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by which of the following?Not learned 4371. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the high-side pressure gauge will show pressures which react in which way?Not learned 4372. Which of the conditions listed will cause a refrigeration compressor to run constantly without simultaneously decreasing the temperature in the refrigerated space?Not learned 4373. Unusual noise coming from a refrigeration compressor can be caused by which of the following conditions?Not learned 4374. If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is exhibiting an unusual degree of sweating or frosting and is operating noisily, what should be done?Not learned 4375. An unusual degree of refrigeration system compressor crankcase sweating is an indication of what possible condition?Not learned 4376. If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, what might be the cause?Not learned 4377. If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, what is the most probable cause?Not learned 4378. If a refrigeration compressor will not start even though the box temperature is high, which of the following would be a probable reason for this?Not learned 4379. If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure cutout switch, what might be the cause?Not learned 4380. When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST thing that should be checked for is what?Not learned 4381. If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low side for repairs, but otherwise the compressor sounds normal, this is a possible indication of what condition?Not learned 4382. A refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating, frosting or unusually cold. This is a possible indication of what condition?Not learned 4383. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating or frosting and is operating with an unusual noise, what is most likely the cause?Not learned 4384. A possible cause of excessive crankcase sweating or frosting of a refrigeration system compressor may be caused by which of the following conditions?Not learned 4385. Unusually heavy frosting or sweating of the suction line of a reciprocating refrigeration compressor indicates a condition which could result in severe damage due to what condition?Not learned 4386. If a refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating or frosting and this is accompanied by unsusual noises coming from the compressor, what is most likely the cause?Not learned 4387. Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor is most likely to occur under what compressor operating condition?Not learned 4388. Excessive, prolonged oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor can result in what condition?Not learned 4389. In a refrigeration system, prolonged foaming of the crankcase oil may cause what condition to occur?Not learned 4390. Foaming of the oil in a refrigeration compressor crankcase is caused by what condition?Not learned 4391. The compressor on the ships service refrigeration system starts up but stops after a brief period of running. Subsequent attempts to start it produce no result. What control component would you suspect?Not learned 4392. The presence of flash gas in the high pressure liquid lines of a refrigeration system is undesirable due to which of the following reasons? erosion of the TXV valve seat will be increased refrigeration system capacity will be decreasedNot learned 4393. A partially fouled liquid line strainer in the refrigeration system will cause which of the following conditions? a loss of refrigeration effect the strainer outlet piping to be cooler than the inlet pipingNot learned 4394. A partially fouled liquid line strainer in the refrigeration system will cause which of the following changes in the system? further superheating of the suction gas further subcooling of the liquidNot learned 4395. A high-pressure centrifugal chiller currently charged with R-134a is being evaluated for the need for leak testing. Using the leak-test procedures decision tree illustrated and the R-134a pressure-temperature chart illustrated, with the machine idle and the pressures equalized at 57.4 psig with an ambient temperature of 60° F, what statement is trueNot learned 4396. A high-pressure centrifugal chiller, currently charged with R-134a, is being evaluated for leak testing. The machine is idle, the pressures equalized at 10 psig, with an ambient temperature of 60°F. Using the leak test procedures decision tree and the R-134a pressure-temperature chart, what statement is TRUE? RA-0094_1.jpgRA-0094_2.jpgNot learned 4397. You are checking the supply chilled water temperature thermistor probe on a high-pressure hermetic centrifugal chiller. Using the illustrated chart, what statement is true if the supply water temperature is verified 45°F with a digital thermometerNot learned 4398. You are checking the supply chilled water temperature thermistor probe on a highpressure hermetic centrifugal chiller. Using the illustrated chart, what statement is true if the supply water temperature is verified 45°F with a digital thermometerNot learned 4399. If when observing the troublehsooting indicators of a mechanical refrigeration system, you ascertain that the system has a significant leak resulting in a loss of refrigerant, what should be your FIRST action?Not learned 4400. If a refrigeration compressor using a thermostat as a primary controller is running continuously without significantly lowering the temperature in the refrigerated space, which of the following is most likely the trouble?Not learned 4401. If a refrigeration compressor in a multi-box system runs continuously, which of the following might be a cause?Not learned 4402. If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, besides an elevated box temperature, what would be an observable symptom?Not learned 4403. During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running continuously, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature is slightly above normal without ever reaching the desired minimum temperature. Suction and discharge pressures are normal for the corresponding box temperature. In this situation, what should you suspect?Not learned 4404. If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, besides an elevated box temperature, what would be an observable symptom?Not learned 4405. Which of the following leak detectors would be appropriate for use in detecting leaks on a system currently in a vacuumNot learned 4406. Which of the following leak detectors would be appropriate for use in leak detecting on a system currently pressurized with nitrogenNot learned 4407. Which of the following leak detectors requires the introduction of a fluorescent additive to the systemNot learned 4408. Which of the following leak detectors has a sensitivity adjustment to compensate for the presence of background refrigerant in the vicinityNot learned 4409. Which of the following leak detectors is fitted with a copper reaction plateNot learned 4410. An evaporator coil of a single evaporator, air-cooled refrigerator is accumulating excessive frost due to a failure of the defrost mechanism. If the refrigerator features a thermostatically controlled box solenoid and a low-pressure cut-out controlled compressor, as well as a high-pressure cut-out, in terms of the compressor, what would be the most likely operating symptom?Not learned 4411. If one box in a multiple box, direct expansion type refrigeration system was experiencing an excessively low temperature, this could be a result of which of the following?Not learned 4412. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?Not learned 4413. Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will most likely produce what effect?Not learned 4414. Moisture in the refrigerant may produce what effect?Not learned 4415. A refrigeration system contaminated with moisture can lead to what condition?Not learned 4416. A warmer than normal compressor suction line might be caused by what condition?Not learned 4417. If the suction line between the evaporator and compressor is heavily frosting up and the trouble is attributed to the thermal expansion valve, what would most likely be the cause?Not learned 4418. Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause which of the following conditons?Not learned 4419. Which of the following conditions would indicate that the liquid line strainer in a refrigeration system has become excessively restricted and requires cleaning or replacement?Not learned 4420. While troubleshooting intermittent failures of the ship service refrigeration system you suspect the problem is with the lube oil pressure differential switch. The recommended course of action would be:Not learned 4421. Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding machine?Not learned 4422. Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric bench grinding machine?Not learned 4423. Some of the hazards of working with electric power tools may be avoided if the operator insures that __________.Not learned 4424. Some of the hazards associated with air-operated power tools may be avoided if the operator would __________.Not learned 4425. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.Not learned 4426. Safety glasses should be worn when __________.Not learned 4427. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.Not learned 4428. According to U.S. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 92), how many means of escape must be provided in spaces where the crew may be quartered or employed?Not learned 4429. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require watertight doors in cargo vessels to be __________.Not learned 4430. Which of the following is true concerning the issuance and use of Coast Guard form 948 'Permit to Proceed to Another Port for Repairs'?Not learned 4431. All watertight doors and watertight hatches on small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons are required to be marked in letters __________.Not learned 4432. According to the Regulations, all escape hatches and other emergency exits on small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons shall be marked on __________.Not learned 4433. Which of the following statements represents the FIRST precaution to be taken prior to working on any installed electrical component?Not learned 4434. Before any work on electrical or electronic equipment is performed, which of the following precautions should be carried out?Not learned 4435. While on watch aboard a 900 psi steam vessel, you suddenly hear a loud, piercing, high-pitched noise. Which of the following actions should you take?Not learned 4436. Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should always __________.Not learned